operation and supply chain management.docx

OPERATION AND SUPPLY CHAIN MANAGEMENT

Part 1

1. The volume-variety position of an operation has implications for almost every aspect of its design activities. In a low volume, high variety operation which is the correct combination of design decisions?

1. Product/service standardization low, Location usually centralised, flow intermittent

2. Product/service standardization low, Location can be decentralised, flow intermittent

3. Product/service standardization high, Location can be decentralised, flow intermittent

4. Product/service standardization low, Location can be decentralised, flow continuous

Answer: b

2. Which is the correct order for process types starting with low volume/high variety and moving to high volume/low variety?

1. Batch processes, project processes, jobbing processes, mass processes, continuous processes

2. Project processes, batch processes, mass processes, jobbing processes, continuous processes

3. Jobbing processes, batch processes, mass processes, continuous processes, project processes

4. Project processes, jobbing processes, batch processes,

mass processes, continuous processes

Answer: d

3. Service shops are characterised as which of the following?

1. Many customer transactions, involving limited contact time

2. Some customer contact, a degree of customisation and some staff discretion

3. High-contact organisations where customers spend a considerable time in the service process

4. Product orientated with little customization

Answer: b

4. In a jobbing process the main order winning criterion is generally:

1. Rate of production2. Cost3. Capacity4. Capability

Answer:d

5. Which is the correct sequence in order of increasing process flexibility?

1. Jobbing / batch / project / continuous / line

2. Jobbing / batch / project / line / continuous

3. Project / jobbing / batch / line / continuous

4. Continuous / line / batch / jobbing / project

Answer:d

6. Which of the following statements would generally be considered as correct?

1

1. Job shops can produce a larger range of products than project systems

2. Job shops normally compete by offering a lower price than their competitors

3. Batch processing produces a more standard range of products than continuous flow processes

4. Labour costs are higher in a Job Shop operation than in most other processes

Answer:d

7. Characteristics of line or continuous process types usually include:

1. Dedicated processes2. High capacity3. The ability to handle high

volumes4. Short process times5. The ability to handle high

variety

Answer:c

8. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a line process?

1. Operations and equipment are dedicated to the product

2. The product or service will be made to a specific customer order

3. Processes are linear and often continuous but can be stopped

4. Work is not fixed but moves through a sequence of operations

Answer:b

9. Which one of the following is generally considered a characteristic of a line process?

1. Products or services are unique2. Work is typically controlled by

one operator who moves the work to the processes

3. Customers buy the organisation’s capabilities

4. Work is not fixed but moves through a sequence of operations

Answer:d

1. Operations can be classified according to their volume and variety of production as well as the degree of variation and visibility. Which of the following operations would be classified as high volume, low variety?

1. A carpenter2. A fast food restaurant3. A family doctor4. A front office bank

Answer:b

1. In the mass production era there were 4 types of operations process; complex project, batch production, assembly line and ____________?

1. Job shop2. Simple project3. Mass process4. Continuous flow process

Answer:d

2. Which of the following conditions are generally associated with a job process?

1. High product or service volume2. Relatively standardized

products3. Resources are allocated to

specific products4. High resource flexibility

2

Answer: d

3. Low manufacturing volumes typically dictate the following process decision.

1. Less capital intensity and automation

2. More vertical integration3. A line process4. Less resource flexibility

Answer: a

4. A major supplier to an auto manufacturer would most likely adopt which production and inventory strategy?

1. Make-to-order strategy2. Postponement strategy3. Assemble-to-order strategy4. Make-to-stock strategy

Answer: d

5. A high-volume manufacturing process typically means all of the following EXCEPT:

1. Greater capital intensity2. More customer involvement3. A line, or continuous, process4. Less resource flexibility

Answer: b

6. A high customer-contact service process typically indicates all of the following EXCEPT:

1. a front-office process structure2. low complexity3. diverse work flows4. more resource flexibility

Answer: b

7. What would be the likely process characteristics of the typical college dining hall?

1. Line flows2. Flexible flows3. Considerable process

divergence4. Highly customized service

Answer: a

8. Of the four modes of configuring value chains and value constellations, which one is based on production of goods on a larger scale and volume?

1. Craft production2. Mass production3. Lean production4. Mass customization

Answer: b

9. The lay out where the equipment, machinery, plant and people move as necessary is known as:

1. Cell layout2. Product layout3. Fixed-position layout4. Process layout

Answer: c

1. A supermarket is usually positioned as:1. Process layout2. Cell layout3. Product layout4. Fixed-position layout

Answer: a

1. A self-service cafeteria is usually positioned as:

1. Cell layout2. Product layout3. Process layout4. Fixed-position layout

Answer: b

3

2. A process with high variety and low volume is likely to have a:

1. Cell layout2. Fixed-position layout3. Process layout4. Product layout

Answer: b

3. Which of the following is usually considered a characteristic of a product or line layout?

1. This layout tends to be very flexible

2. Transforming resources move to the work

3. This layout can easily handle high variety but low volume

4. This layout can easily handle high volume but low variety

Answer: d

4. A product layout:1. Is appropriate for low volume

operations2. Involves locating the

transforming resources entirely for the convenience of the transformed resources

3. Moves resources to the place where the operation is to be carried out

4. Allows a wide variety of products to be manufactured on the same equipment

Answer: b

5. Cell layouts typically:1. Are the most efficient form of

process layout2. Involve all the operations on a

product being located adjacent to each other

3. Cost more to run than other types of process layout

4. Locate transforming resources entirely for the convenience of the transformed resources

Answer: b

6. Which of the following is not usually considered a characteristic of a fixed position layout?

1. The recipient of the process or the work being undertaken remain in the same place

2. Fixed position layouts are often used for large or delicate products or services

3. Fixed position layouts are able to offer high flexibility

4. Transforming resources are grouped in cells

Answer: d

1. Most operations produce a mixture of both products and services. Which of the following businesses is closet to producing “pure” services?

(a) A Restaurant

(b) Steel Company

(c) Counsellor/Therapist

(d) IT Company

2. Which of the following activities is not a direct responsibility of operations management?

(a) developing an operations strategy for the operation

(b) determining the exact mix of products & services that customers will want

(c) designing the operation’s products, services & processes

4

(d) planning & controlling the operation

3. Who developed the use of standardization in large-scale mass production using a moving assembly line?

(a) Frederick Winslow Taylor

(b) Frank Gilbreth

(c) Adam Smith

(d) Henry Ford

4. Which of the following is NOT an OM tactical issue?

(a) How many workers do we need?

(b) Where do we locate the facility or facilities?

(c) When should we have material delivered?

(d) Should we work overtime or put on a second shift?

5. Which of the following is generally related to service operations?

(a) Tangible product

(b) Need for flexible capacity

(c) Separation of production from consumption

(d)Large amount of inventory

6. A measure of the success of an operation in converting inputs to outputs is

(a)Efficiency

(b)Effectiveness

(c)Quality

(d)Profitability

7. The inputs to a transformation process include all of the following except

(a) Materials

(b) People

(c)Assembly

(d) Information

8. Which of the following is not generally considered a competitive priority?

(a) Time

(b)Flexibility

(c)Innovation

(d)Infrastructure

9. Operations design choices include all of the following except

(a)Operating plans and controls

(b)Type of processes and alternative designs

(c)Supply chain integration and outsourcing

(d)Inventory

10. Which is not considered to be a major performance capability for manufacturing companies?

(a)Flexibility of variety

(b)Quality

(c)Capacity

(d)Flexibility of volume

5

11. What are the two basic types of production systems?

(a) Automated and manual(b) Intermittent and Continuous process(c) Normal and continuous process(d) Continuous process and batch

12. What type of process would a paper mill be most likely to use?(a) Continuous flow(b) Project(c) Job shop(d) Flow shop

13. The term production(b) process(c) capacity(d) logistics

15. Fitness for purpose is a notion used for _______.(a) supply chain(b) logistics (c) process(d) quality

16. Inspection & quality control are one & the same.(a) True(b) False

17. Lean management is an approach linked towards efficient inventory management.(a) True(b) False

18. __________ production helps to ensure that the product or service matches the customer’s exact needs, as closely as the

firm is able, because it is literally ‘custom-made’.(a) Batch(b)Mass (c)Job (d) Flow

19. Understanding any operations systems invariably begins with an understanding of the processes that are integral to the operations systems.(a) False(b) True

20. A bakery is an example of __________.(a) Job production(b) Mass production (c) Flow

production (d) Batch production

21. Volume, variety and flow are the three aspects which must be considered in the process of __________.(a) Operations(b) Process design (c) Product

design (d) Logistics

22. Customer contact signifies the extent to which the customer participates in the preparation & consumption of a service.(a) False(b) True

23. When variety increases, the volume of production for each variation will be less compared to a mass production system.

6

Therefore, dedication of manufacturing resources for each variation may not be feasible option. A _______ system is preferable in such cases.(a) Continuous(b)Job (c)Flow (d) Intermittent

24. The concept of internal customer has developed out of a need to build quality into the product rather than inspect the product for quality.(a) True(b) False

25. _________ is an inventory management & manufacturing strategy that companies implement to reduce costs, increase productivity & gain competitive advantage.(a) Six Sigma(b) Lean Management (c) Poka Yoke (d) Juran

26. A _________ flow system is characterized by a streamlined flow of products in the operating system.(a) Intermittent(b)Continuous (c)Jumbled (d) None of these

27. Designing operations systems excludes making choices with respect to the location, technology, capacity & layout of the system.(a) True(b) False

28. Supply chain management integrates supply & demand management within &

across companies.(a) True(b) False

29. Services are _________.(a) Awesome(b)Separable (c)Intangible (d) Consistent

30. __________ is a method by which the service delivery process is broken down into individual elements through step-by-step mapping of the process.(a) Service blueprinting(b)processdesign c)Productionplanning d)Operational control

31. For successfully designing the process applicable in any kind of organization, the important tool used to map the flow of a process is __________. (a) Batch production(b) Mass production (c)Processflow (d) Process flow charting

32. Higher the quality, greater is the __________.(a)loss(b)profit c)sale (d) price

33. Operations management is a narrower concept as compared to Supply Chain Management.

7

(a) False(b) True

34. _________ is a method by which management & employees can become involved in the continuous improvement of the production of goods & services.(a) Supply Chain Management(b) Total Quality Management

(c) Six

Sigma d) Logistics

35. _________ production process is a type of continuous & streamlined flow system.(a) Job(b) Shop (c)Mass (d) Batch

36. Utmost knowledge of _______ provides vital clues to the operations manager about production planning & control issues that need to be addressed.(a) Variety(b)Flow (c)Volume (d) Market

37. A _________ is a system of organisations, people, activities, information & resources involved in moving a product or service from supplier to customer.(a) physical distribution(b)distribution channel (c)supplychain (d) logistics

38. The mass production system in the discrete manufacturing industry is an example of continuous & streamlined flow in the manufacturing system.(a) True(b) False

39. Walter Shewhart is listed among the important people of operations management because of his contributions to

(a) assembly line production

(b) measuring the productivity in the service sector

(c) Just-in-time inventory methods

(d) statistical quality control

40. The responsibilities of the operations manager include

(a) planning, organizing, staffing, procuring, and reviewing

(b) forecasting, designing, planning, organizing, and controlling

(c) forecasting, designing, operating, procuring, and reviewing

(d) planning, organizing, staffing, leading, and controlling

41. All of the following decisions fall within the scope of operations management except for

(a) financial analysis

(b) design of products and processes

(c) location of facilities

(d) quality management

8

42. Current trends in operations management include all of the following except

(a) Just-in-time performance

(b) rapid product development

(c) mass customization

(d)mass production

43. Which is not true regarding differences between goods and services?

(a) Services are generally produced and consumed simultaneously, tangible goods are not.

(b) Services tend to be more knowledge-based than products.

(c) Services tend to have a more inconsistent product definition than goods.

(d) Goods tend to have higher customer interaction than services.

44. Which of the following is not a typical service attribute?

(a) intangible product

(b) easy to store

(c) customer interaction is high

(d) simultaneous production and consumption

45. Which of the following inputs has the greatest potential to increase productivity?

(a) labor

(b) globalization

(c) management

(d) capital

46. Which of the following is not true when explaining why productivity tends to be lower in the service sector than in the manufacturing sector?

(a) Service operations are typically capital intensive.

(b) Services are often difficult to evaluate for quality.

(c) Services are often an intellectual task performed by professionals.

(d) Services are difficult to automate.

47. Operations management is applicable

(a) mostly to the service sector

(b) to services exclusively

(c) mostly to the manufacturing sector

(d) to manufacturing and service sectors

48. Who among the following is associated with contributions to quality control in operations management?

(a) Charles Babbage

(b) Henry Ford

(c) W. Edwards Deming

(d) Frank Gilbreth

49. Which of the following are the primary functions of all organizations?

(a) operations, marketing, and human resources

(b) marketing, human resources, and finance/accounting

9

(c) sales, quality control, and operations

(d) marketing, operations, and finance/accounting

50. Which of the following would not be an operations function in a fast-food restaurant?

(a) making hamburgers and fries

(b) advertising and promotion

(c) maintaining equipment

(d) designing the layout of the facility

10

DECISION SCIENCE

Part 1

1. The field of management science

1. Concentrates on the on the use of quantitative methods to assists in decision making

2. Approaches decision making with techniques based on the scientific method

3. is another name for decision science and for operation research

4. each of the above is true

2. Identification and definition of a problem

1. Can not be done until alternatives are proposed

2. Is the first step of decision making3. Is the final step of problem solving4. Requires consideration of multiple

criteria

3. Decision alternatives

1. Should be identified before decision criteria are established

2. Are limited to quantitative solutions3. Are evaluated as a part of the

problem definition stage4. Are best generated by brain storming

4. Decision Criteria

1. are the choices faced by the decision maker

2. are the problems faced by the decision maker

3. are the ways to evaluate the choices faced by the decision maker

4. must be unique for the problem

5. In a multi criteria decision problem

1. it is impossible to select a single decision alternative

2. the decision maker must evaluate each alternative with respect to each criterion

3. successive decisions must be made over time

4. each of the above is true

6. The quantitative analysis approach requires

1. the managers prior experience with similar problem

2. a relatively uncomplicated problem3. mathematical expressions for the

relationship4. each of the above is true

7. maximization or minimization of the quantity is the

1. a goal of management science2. decision for decision analysis3. constraint of operation research4. objective of linear programming

8. Decision variables

1. tells how much or how many of something to produce, invest, purchase ,hire

2. represent the values of the constraints

3. measure the objective function4. must exist for each constraint

9. Which of the following is the valid objective function of LPP?

1. Maximize 5xy2. Minimize 4x+3y+3z3. Maximize 3xy+5xy4. Minimize(x1+x2)/x3

11

10. Which of the following statement is not true?

1. feasible solution satisfies all the constraints

2. an optimal solution satisfies all the constraints

3. an infeasible solution violates all constraints

4. a feasible solution point does not have to lie on the boundary of the feasible region

11. A solution that satisfies all the constraints of the LPP except the non negativity constraints is called

1. optimal2. feasible3. infeasible4. semi-feasible

12. Slack

1. is the difference between the left and right sides of the constraints

2. is the amount by which the left side of the constraint is smaller than the right side

3. is the amount by which the left side of the constraint is larger than the right side

4. exists for each variable in a linear programming problem

13. To find the optimal solution to the LPP using the graphical method

1. find the feasible point that is the farthest away from the region

2. find the feasible point that is at the highest location

3. find the feasible point that is closest to the origin

4. None of the alternative is correct

14. Which of the following cases does not require reformulation of the problem in order to obtain a solution?

1. Alternate optimality2. Infeasibility3. Unboundness4. Each case requires a reformulation

15. Whenever all constraints in the LPP are expressed as equalities, the linear program is said to be written in

1. Standard form2. Bounded form3. Feasible form4. Alternate form

16. Problem solving encompasses

1. Identification of problem2. Identification of problem and the

action to resolve it3. Identification of problem and

finding of objective function4. All of above

17. Long form of LPP is

1. Linear programming problem2. Linear Problem parameters3. Linear programming parameters4. None of above

18. Assignment model can be applied in

1. Decision making2. Problem solving3. Manufacturing Industry4. Only in service sector

19. A dummy job is an

1. Imaginary2. Real3. Rigid

12

4. Can’t say

20. In transportation problem following are always transported

1. Consignments2. Goods3. Demand4. Supply

21. Initial basic solution from VAM IS

1. Least2. Maximum3. Can’t say4. None of above

22. Demand variation occurs because of change in

1. Customer preference2. Competitors entry3. Market condition4. None of above

23. Following represents the aim or goal of the system

1. Decision variable2. Objective function3. Constraints4. None of above

24. In real life supply & demand requirement will be rarely

1. Equal2. Unequal3. Stable4. None of above

25. Lpp is widely used ………………modelling technique

1. Mathematical2. Statistical

3. Graphical4. None of above

26. LP Consists of linear objectives &……………….

1. Linear variables2. Linear constraints3. Linear functions4. None of above

27. .………………… represents the aim of the system.

1. Constraints2. Decision variable3. Objective functions4. Cann’t say

28. …………………method solve the LPP in iteration to enhance the value of the objective function

1. Complex2. Simplex3. Corner point4. Iso profit

29. …………….is special type of linear programming

1. Transportation problem2. Assignment3. Cann’t say4. Queuing

30. …………… model helps to manager to take decision

1. Transportation2. Assignment3. LPP4. All above

13

31. ……………is used to collect a set of experimental data and figure out to graph

1. LPP2. Mathematical model3. Corner point model4. Operation research model5.

32. Initial basic solution can be obtained by modified distribution method

1. True2. False3. Cannot say4. Data is not sufficient

33. Least cost method is a best method to find basic solution

1. True2. False3. Cannot say4. Data is not sufficient

34. …………. Method is more accurate

1. North west corner2. Least cost3. VAM4. None of above

35. In a balanced transportation model where supply equals demand,

1. all constraints are equalities2. none of the constraints are equalities3. all constraints are inequalities4. none of the constraints are

inequalities

36. In a transportation problem, items are allocated from sources to destinations

1. at a maximum cost2. at a minimum cost

3. at a minimum profit4. at a minimum revenue

37. The assignment model is a special case of the ________ model.

1. maximum-flow2. transportation3. shortest-route4. none of the above

38. An assignment problem is a special form of transportation problem where all supply and demand values equal

1. 02. 13. 24. 3

39. The transportation model relies on certain assumptions. They include all of the following except

1. the items must be homogeneous2. there is only one route being used

between each origin and destination3. the shipping cost per unit is the same4. the items must be large scale5. none of the above

40Which of the following are supply points that a transportation model can analyze?

1. factories2. warehouses3. departments4. all of the above5. none of the above

41. The basis for the transportation model is

1. a way to provide a map for people to see results

2. a method to arrive at the lowest total shipping cost

14

3. so delivery drivers know where to go4. a form of accounting5. to provide data for use in other areas

42. The following transportation model is a programming model:

1. analytical2. non-linear3. linear4. rotating5. variable

43. Before the analyst of the transportation model can begin, what data would they need to collect?

1. A list of destinations2. Unit cost to ship3. A list of origins4. All of the above5. None of the above

44. What does the transportation problem involve finding:

1. highest cost-plan2. lowest cost-plan3. closest destinations4. farthest destinations5. none if the above

45. Transportation problems be solved

1. manually2. with a table3. with excel4. with software packages5. all of the above

46. The objective function of the transportation model is to

1. reduce shipping costs2. decrease shipping distance

3. maximize costs4. minimize costs5. none of the above

47. Goods are not sent from

1. warehouses2. factories3. grocery stores4. department stores5. goods are sent from all of these

locations

48. Goods are received at all of the following except

1. docks2. departments3. factories4. warehouses5. all of the above

49. The method for finding the lowest-cost plan for distributing stocks of goods or supplies from multiple origins to multiple destinations that demand the goods is

1. cost-volume analysis2. transportation model analysis3. factor rating analysis4. linear regression analysis5. MODI analysis

50. Except to be used to minimized the costs associated with distributing good, transportation model can also be used in

1. production planning2. capacity planning3. transshipment problem4. comparison of location alternative5. all of the above

15

51. Which one of the following is a linear programming model ?

1. Cost-volume analysis2. Transportation model analysis3. Factor rating analysis4. Linear regression analysis5. MODI analysis

52. Destination points are

1. points that receive goods from factories, warehouses, and departments

2. points where goods are sent from factories, warehouses, and departments

3. supply points4. selling points5. none of the above

53. Transportation problems can be solved manually in a straightforward manner except for

1. medium problems2. very small, but time consuming

problems3. large problems4. all of the above5. none of the above


a. Concentrates on the on the use of quantitative methods to assists in decision making

b. Approaches decision making with techniques based on the scientific method

c. is another name for decision science and for operation research

d. each of the above is true


a. Cannot be done until alternatives are proposed

b. Is the first step of decision making

c. Is the final step of problem solving

d. Requires consideration of multiple criteria

3. Decision alternatives

a. Should be identified before decision criteria are established

b. Are limited to quantitative solutions

c. Are evaluated as a part of the problem definition stage

d. Are best generated by brain storming

4. Decision Criteria

a. are the choices faced by the decision maker

b. are the problems faced by the decision maker

c. are the ways to evaluate the choices faced by the decision maker

d. must be unique for the problem

5. In a multi criteria decision problem

a. it is impossible to select a single decision alternative

b. the decision maker must evaluate each alternative with respect to each criterion

c. successive decisions must be made over time


16

6. The quantitative analysis approach requires

a. the managers prior experience with similar problem

b. a relatively uncomplicated problem

c. mathematical expressions for the relationship


7. Maximization or minimization of the quantity is the

a. a goal of management science

b. decision for decision analysis

c. constraint of operation research

d. objective of linear programming

8. Decision variables

a. tells how much or how many of something to produce, invest, purchase ,hire

b. represent the values of the constraints

c. measure the objective function

d. must exist for each constraint

9. Which of the following is the valid objective function of LPP?

a. Maximize 5xy

b. Minimize 4x+3y+3z

c. Maximize 3xy+5xy

d. Minimize(x1+x2)/x3

10. Which of the following statement is not true?

a. feasible solution satisfies all the constraints

b. an optimal solution satisfies all the constraints

c. an infeasible solution violates all constraints

d. a feasible solution point does not have to lie on the boundary of the feasible region

11. A solution that satisfies all the constraints of the LPP except the non-negativity constraints is called

a. optimal

b. feasible

c. infeasible

d. semi-feasible

12. Slack

a. is the difference between the left and right sides of the constraints

b. is the amount by which the left side of the constraint is smaller than the right side

c. is the amount by which the left side of the constraint is larger than the right side

d. exists for each variable in a linear programming problem

13. To find the optimal solution to the LPP using the graphical method

a. find the feasible point that is the farthest away from the region

17

b. find the feasible point that is at the highest location

c. find the feasible point that is closest to the origin

d. None of the alternative is correct

14. Which of the following cases does not require reformulation of the problem in order to obtain a solution?

a. Alternate optimality

b. Infeasibility

c. Unsoundness

d. Each case requires a reformulation

15. Whenever all constraints in the LPP are expressed as equalities, the linear program is said to be written in

a. Standard form

b. Bounded form

c. Feasible form

d. Alternate form

16. Problem solving encompasses

a. Identification of problem

b. Identification of problem and the action to resolve it

c. Identification of problem and finding of objective function

d. All of above

17. Long form of LPP is

a. Linear programming problem

b. Linear Problem parameters

c. Linear programming parameters

d. None of above

18. Assignment model can be applied in

a. Decision making

b. Problem solving

c. Manufacturing Industry

d. Only in service sector

19 A dummy job is an

a. Imaginary

b. Real

c. Rigid

d. Can’t say

20. In transportation problem following are always transported

a. Consignments

b. Goods

c. Demand

d. Supply

21. Initial basic solution from VAM IS

a. Least

b. Maximum

c. Can’t say

d. None of above

22. Demand variation occurs because of change in

18

a. Customer preference

b. Competitors entry

c. Market condition

d. None of above

23. Following represents the aim or goal of the system

a. Decision variable

b. Objective function

c. Constraints

d. None of above

24. In real life supply & demand requirement will be rarely

a. Equal

b. Unequal

c. Stable

d. None of above

25. LPP is widely used ………………modeling technique

a. Mathematical

b. Statistical

c. Graphical

d. None of above

26. LPP Consists of linear objectives &……………….

a. Linear variables

b. Linear constraints

c. Linear functions

d. None of above

27.………………… represents the aim of the system.

a. Constraints

b. Decision variable

c. Objective functions

d. Can’t say

28.…………………method solve the LPP in iteration to enhance the value of the objective function

a. Complex

b. Simplex

c. Corner point

d. none of above

29…………….is special type of linear programming

a. Transportation problem

b. Assignment

c. Can’t say

d. Queuing

30…………… model helps to manager to take decision

a. Transportation

b. Assignment

c. LPP

d. All above

31……………is used to collect a set of experimental data and figure out to graph

19

a. LPP

b. Mathematical model

c. Corner point model

d. Operation research model


a. True

b. False

c. Cannot say

d. Data is not sufficient


a. True

b. False

c. Cannot say


34. In a balanced transportation model where supply equals demand,

a. all constraints are equalities

b. none of the constraints are equalities

c. all constraints are inequalities

d. none of the constraints are inequalities

35. In a transportation problem, items are allocated from sources to destinations

a. at a maximum cost

b. at a minimum cost

c. at a minimum profit

d. at minimum revenue

36. The assignment model is a special case of the ________ model.

a. maximum-flow

b. transportation

c. shortest-routed.

d. none of the above

37. The linear programming model for a transportation problem has constraints for supply at each ______ and _______ at each destination.

a. destination / source

b. source / destination

c. demand / source

d. source / demand

38. An assignment problem is a special form of transportation problem where all supply and demand values equal

a. 0

b. 1

c. 2

d. 3


a. True

b. False

c. Cannot say



a. True

20

http://brainmass.com/business/operations-research

b. False

c. Cannot say


e. None of above


a. concentrates on the use of quantitative methods to assist in decision making.

b. approaches decision making rationally, with techniques based on the scientific method.

c. is another name for decision science and for operations research.

d. each of the above is true.


a. cannot be done until alternatives are proposed.

b. is the first step of decision making.

c. is the final step of problem solving.

d. requires consideration of multiple criteria.

43A8

. The quantitative analysis approach requires

a. the manager’s prior experience with a similar problem.

b. a relatively uncomplicated problem.

c. mathematical expressions for the relationships.


44. A physical model that does not have the same physical appearance as the object being modeled is

a. an analog model.

b. an iconic model.

c. a mathematical model.

d. a qualitative model.

45. Management science and operations research both involve

a. qualitative managerial skills.

b. quantitative approaches to decision making.

c. operational management skills.

d. scientific research as opposed to applications.

Q6

46. George Dantzig is important in the history of management science because he developed

a. the scientific management revolution.

b. World War II operations research teams.

c. the simplex method for linear programming.

d. powerful digital computers.

4A7

7. A model that uses a system of symbols to represent a problem is called

a. mathematical.

b. iconic.

c. analog.

21

d. constrained.

48. Slack

a. is the difference between the left and right sides of a constraint.

b. is the amount by which the left side of a < constraint is smaller than the right side.

c. is the amount by which the left side of a > constraint is larger than the right side.

d. exists for each variable in a linear programming problem.

49. Which of the following special cases does not require reformulation of the problem in order to obtain a solution?

a. alternate optimality

b. infeasibility

c. unboundedness

d. each case requires a reformulation.

50. The range of feasibility measures

a. the right-hand-side values for which the objective function value will not change.

b. the right-hand-side values for which the values of the decision variables will not change.

c. the right-hand-side values for which the dual prices will not change.


51. The amount that the objective function coefficient of a decision variable would have to improve before that variable would have a positive value in the solution is the

a. dual price.

b. surplus variable.

c. reduced cost.

d. upper limit.

52. The values in the cj - zj , or net evaluation, row indicate

a. the value of the objective function.

b. the decrease in value of the objective function that will result if one unit of the variable corresponding to the jth column of the A matrix is brought into the basis.

c. the net change in the value of the objective function that will result if one unit of the variable corresponding to the jth column of the A matrix is brought into the basis.

d. the values of the decision variables.

53. In the simplex method, a tableau is optimal only if all the cj – zj values are

a. zero or negative.

b. zero.

c. negative and nonzero.

d. positive and nonzero.

54. For the basic feasible solution to remain optimal

a. all cj - zj values must remain £ 0.

b. no objective function coefficients are allowed to change.

c. the value of the objective function must not change.


22

55. The dual variable represents

a. the marginal value of the constraint

b. the right-hand-side value of the constraint

c. the artificial variable

d. the technical coefficient of the constraint

56. The parts of a network that represent the origins are

a. the axes

b. the flow

c. the nodes

d. the arrows

57. The number of units shipped from origin i to destination j is represented by

a. xij. b. xji.

c. cij. d. cji.

58. The difference between the transportation and assignment problems is that

a. total supply must equal total demand in the transportation problem

b. the number of origins must equal the number of destinations in the transportation problem

c. each supply and demand value is 1 in the assignment problem

d. there are many differences between the transportation and assignment problems

59. In an assignment problem,

a. one agent can do parts of several tasks.

b. one task can be done by several agents.

c. each agent is assigned to its own best task.

d. None of the alternatives is correct.

60. Arcs in a transshipment problem

a. must connect every node to a transshipment node.

b. represent the cost of shipments.

c. indicate the direction of the flow.

d. All of the alternatives are correct.

61. To use the Hungarian method, a profit-maximization assignment problem requires

a. converting all profits to opportunity losses.

b. a dummy agent or task.

c. matrix expansion.

d. finding the maximum number of lines to cover all the zeros in the reduced matrix.

62. The critical path

a. is any path that goes from the starting node to the completion node.

b. is a combination of all paths.

c. is the shortest path.

d. is the longest path.

63. When activity times are uncertain,

a. assume they are normally distributed.

b. calculate the expected time, using (a + 4m + b)/6.

23

c. use the most likely time.

d. calculate the expected time, using (a + m + b)/3.

64. The critical path is the __________ path through the network.

a. longest b. shortest

c. straightest d. none of the above

65. In a CPM/PERT network the critical path is the

a. lowest path through the network

b. highest path through the network

c. shortest path through the network

d. longest path through the network

66. The transportation model relies on certain assumptions. They include all of the following excepta. the items must be homogeneous

b. there is only one route being used between each origin and destination

c. the shipping cost per unit is the same

d. the items must be large scale

e. none of the above

67. Which of the following are supply points that a transportation model can analyze?a. Factoriesb. warehousesc. departmentsd. all of the abovee. none of the above

68. The basis for the transportation model isa. a way to provide a map for people to see resultsb. a method to arrive at the lowest total

shipping costc. so delivery drivers know where to god. a form of accountinge. to provide data for use in other areas

69. The following transportation model is a programming model:a. analyticalb. non-linearc. lineard. rotatinge. variable

70. Before the analyst of the transportation model can begin, what data would they need to collect?a. A list of destinationsb. Unit cost to shipc. A list of originsd. All of the abovee. None of the above

71. What does the transportation problem involve finding:a. highest cost-planb. lowest cost-planc. closest destinationsd. farthest destinationse. none if the above

72. Transportation problems be solveda. manuallyb. with a tablec. with exceld. with software packagese. all of the above

73. The objective function of the transportation model is toa. reduce shipping costsb. decrease shipping distancec. maximize costsd. minimize costse. none of the above

74. Goods are not sent froma. warehouses

24

b. factoriesc. grocery storesd. department storese. goods are sent from all of these locations

75. Goods are received at all of the following excepta. docksb. departmentsc. factoriesd. warehousese. all of the above

76. The method for finding the lowest-cost plan for distributing stocks of goods or supplies from multiple origins to multiple destinations that demand the goods isa. cost-volume analysisb. transportation model analysisc. factor rating analysisd. linear regression analysise. MODI analysis

77. Except to be used to minimized the costs associated with distributing good, transportation model can also be used ina. production planningb. capacity planningc. transshipment problemd. comparison of location alternativee. all of the above

78. Which one of the following is a linear programming model ?a. Cost-volume analysisb. Transportation model analysisc. Factor rating analysisd. linear regression analysise. MODI analysis

79. Destination points are a. points that receive goods from factories, warehouses, and departmentsb. points where goods are sent from factories, warehouses, and departments

c. supply pointsd. selling pointse. none of the above

80. Transportation problems can be solved manually in a straightforward manner except for a. medium problemsb. very small, but time consuming problemsc. large problemsd. all of the abovee. none of the above

81. The transportation model is aa. linear modelb. quadratic modelc. model with two variablesd. both a and ce. none of the above

82. The transportation model is used to determinea. what type of transportation to use (boat, truck, train or plane) to transport goods, while minimizing costsb. what day of the week goods should be transportation on to minimize costsc. how to distribute goods from multiple origins to multiple destinations to minimize total shipping costsd. how to best package goods so that they wouldn't break while transporting theme. none of the above

83. What assumption is used in the transportation model?:a. The items to be shipped are heterogeneous.b. Shipping cost per unit is the different regardless of the number of units shipped.c. There is more than one route or mode of transportation being used between each origin and each destination.d. The items to be shipped are the same regardless of their source or destination.e. None of the above

25

84. Which of the following is needed for a transportation model?a. A list of origins and each one's capacity or supply quantity per periodb. A list of destinations and each one's demand per periodc. The unit cost of shipping items from each origin to each destinationd. All of the above

e. Only A and B

85. The transportation model is a linear __ model.a. Solutionb. Programmingc. Datad. Shippinge. Distribution

MANAGEMENT INFORMATION SYSTEM

1. The department in charge of recording all financial activity is the __________ department.

a. human resources

b. accounting

c. marketing

d. production

2. Which department actually creates the finished goods?

a. marketing

b. research

c. human resources

d. production

3. The __________ department handles all aspects of promotion.

a. research

b. marketing

c. production

d. accounting

4. This management level is responsible for monitoring the day-to-day events in an organization and taking any required corrective action.

a. supervisory

b. middle-managerial

c. stockholder

d. top-managerial

5. This management level deal with control, planning and decision making.

a. supervisory


c. stockholder

d. top-managerial

6. This management level is concerned with long-range planning for the organization.

a. supervisory


c. stockholder

d. top-managerial

7. Top managerial-level information flow is vertical, horizontal, and

26

a. diagonal

b. multidimensional

c. ethereal

d. external

8. This level of management require summarized information in capsule form to reveal the overall condition of the business.

a. top management

b. middle management

c. supervisors

d. stockholders

9. This level of management need access to information from outside the organization.

a. top management


c. supervisors

d. stockholders

10. This level of management need summarized information such as weekly or monthly reports.

a. top management


c. supervisors

d. stockholders

11. These systems (__________) record day-to-day transactions such as customer orders, bills, inventory levels, and production output.

a. TPS

b. MIS

c. DSS

d.ESS

12. These systems (__________) summarize the detailed data of the transaction processing systems in standard reports for middle-level managers.

a. CSS

b. MIS

c. DSS

d. ESS

13. Management Information Systems are used by

a. employee-level workers


c. supervisor-level management

d. top-level management

14. These systems (__________) present information in a very highly summarized form.

a. TPS

b. MIS

c. DSS

d. ESS

15. These systems (__________) help top-level managers oversee the company’s operations and develop strategic plans.

a. TPS

b. MIS

27

c. DSS

d. ESS

16. The __________ activity records the customer requests for goods or services.

a. payroll

b. sales order processing

c. inventory

g. general ledger

Answer: B

17. Money collected from or owed by customers is

a. accounts payable

b. inventory

c. accounts receivable

d. sales order processing

18. The __________ control system keeps records of the number of each kind of part or finished good in the warehouse.

a. payroll

b. inventory

c. sales order processing

d. general ledger

19. The buying of goods and services is referred to as

a. sales order processing

b. accounts receivable

c. inventory

d. purchasing

20. The money that the company owes for goods or services is handled by

a. accounts receivable

b. inventory


d. accounts payable

21. The __________ activity is concerned with calculating employees’ paychecks.

a. payroll

b. general ledger

c. accounts payable

d. sales order processing

22. The __________ is the summary of all foregoing transactions.

a. inventory

b. general ledger


d. accounts payable

23. The __________ shows a company’s financial performance.

a. general ledger

b. balance sheet

c. income statement

d. statement of cash flows

24. The overall financial condition of the organization is listed in the

a. income statement

28

b. profit and loss statement

c. balance sheet

d. statement of cash flows

25. Management information systems produce reports that are

a. predetermined

b. encrypted

c. graphically simplified

d. dynamic

26. __________ reports are produced at regular intervals.

a. Management

b. Periodic

c. Exception

d. Demand

27. When sales reports are combined into monthly reports for the regional sales manager, they are said to be

a. management reports

b. periodic reports

c. exception reports

d. demand reports

28. A sales report that shows that certain items are selling significantly above or below marketing department forecasts is an example of this type of report.

a. periodic

b. demand

c. inventory

d. exception

29. These types of systems would most likely be used to assist a manager in getting answers to unexpected and generally nonrecurring kinds of problems.

a. TPS

b. MIS

c. DSS

d. ESS

30. Which of the following refers to a decision-making support system for teams?

a. TPS

b. GDSS

c. ESS

d. MIS

31. In a GDSS, the __________ is generally a decision-maker.

a. programmer

b. technician

c. user

d. client

32. The basic information that makes up a GDSS is called the

a. system software

b. user

c. decision model

d. data

29

33. Data from within the organization consist principally of transactions from the

a. TPS

b. MIS

c. ESS

d. accounts receivable

34. This management level control the work of the organization, such as financial planning and sales promotion planning.

a. strategic level managers

b. corporate stock holders

c. tactical level mangers

d. operational level managers

35. This management level are responsible for accomplishing the organization’s day-to-day activities.

a. strategic level managers

b. corporate stock holders

c. tactical level mangers

d. operational level managers

36. Which component gives a GDSS its decision-making capabilities?

a. user

b. data

c. decision model

d. system software

37. These systems permit a firm’s top executives to gain direct access to information about the company’s performance.

a. TPS

b. MIS

c. ESS

d. DSS

38. These systems often present summary information in graphical format.

a. TPS

b. DSS

c. MIS

d. ESS

39. __________ workers distribute, communicate, and create information.

a. White collar

b. Data mine

c. Information

d. Organization

40. Employees involved with the distribution and communication of information are called

a. managers

b. data workers

c. IT staff

d. knowledge workers

41. Employees who create information are called

30

a. managers

b. data workers

c. IT staff

d. knowledge workers

42. __________ systems focus on managing documents, communicating, and scheduling.

a. Office automation

b. Transaction processing

c. Knowledge work

d. Executive support

43. These systems are computer systems that allow people located at various locations to communicate and have in-person meetings.

a. project managers

b. videoconferencing

c. telemarketing

d. data conferencing

44. Which of the following is an example of a knowledge work system?

a. project manager

b. Web server

c. Videoconferencing system

d. CAD/CAM

45. CAD/CAM would be most useful in what industry?

a. motion picture

b. automobile manufacturing

c. food service

d. retail

46. Information is

a. Data

b. Processed Data

c. Manipulated input

d. Computer output

47. Data by itself is not useful unless

a. It is massive

b. It is processed to obtain information

c. It is collected from diverse sources

d. It is properly stated

48. For taking decisions data must be

a. Very accurate

b. Massive

c. Processed correctly

d. Collected from diverse sources

49. Strategic information is needed for

a. Day to day operations

b. Meet government requirements

c. Long range planning

d. Short range planning

50. Strategic information is required by

a. Middle managers

b. Line managers

c. Top managers

31

d. All workers

51. Tactical information is needed for





52. Tactical information is required by

a. Middle managers

b. Line managers

c. Top managers

d. All workers

53. Operational information is needed for





54. Operational information is required by

a. Middle managers

b. Line managers

c. Top managers

d. All workers

55. Statutory information is needed for





56. In motor car manufacturing the following type of information is strategic

a. Decision on introducing a new model

b. Scheduling production

c. Assessing competitor car

d. Computing sales tax collected

57. In motor car manufacturing the following type of information is tactical





58. In motor car manufacturing the following type of information is operational





59. In motor car manufacturing the following type of information is statutory





60. In a hospital’s information system the following type of information is strategic

32

a. Opening a new children’s ward

b. Data on births and deaths

c. Preparing patients’ bill

d. Buying an expensive diagnostic system such as CAT scan

61. In a hospital’s information system the following type of information is tactical

a. Opening a new children’s’ ward




62. In a hospital’s information system the following type of information is operational





63. In a hospital’s information system the following type of information is statutory





64. A computer based information system is needed because

(i) The size of organization have become large and data is massive

(ii) Timely decisions are to be taken based on available data

(iii) Computers are available

(iv) Difficult to get clerks to process data

a. (ii) and (iii)

b. (i) and (ii)

c. (i) and (iv)

d. (iii) and (iv)

65. Volume of strategic information is

a. Condensed

b. Detailed

c. Summarized

d. Irrelevant

66. Volume of tactical information is

a. Condensed

b. Detailed

c. Summarized

d. relevant

67. Volume of operational information is

a. Condensed

b. Detailed

c. Summarized

d. Irrelevant

68. Strategic information is

33

a. Haphazard

b. Well organized

c. Unstructured

d. Partly structured

69. Tactical information is

a. Haphazard

b. Well organized

c. Unstructured


70. Operational information is

a. Haphazard

b. Well organized

c. Unstructured


71. Match and find best pairing for a Human Resource Management System

(i) Policies on giving bonus (iv) Strategic information

(ii) Absentee reduction (v) Tactical information

(iii) Skills inventory (vi) Operational Information

a. (i) and (v)

b. (i) and (iv)

c. (ii) and (iv)

d. (iii) and (v)

72. Match and find best pairing for a Production Management System

(i) Performance appraisal of machines (iv) Strategic information to decide

on replacement

(ii) Introducing new production (v) Tactical information technology

(iii) Preventive maintenance schedules (vi) Operational information for machines

a. (i) and (vi)

b. (ii) and (v)

c. (i) and (v)

d. (iii) and (iv)

73. Match and find best pairing for a Production Management System

(i) Performance appraisal of machines (iv) Strategic information to decide on replacement

(ii)Introducing new production (v) Tactical information technology

(iii) Preventive maintenance schedules (vi) Operational information for machines

a. (iii) and (vi)

b. (i) and (iv)

c. (ii) and (v)

d. None of the above

74. Match and find best pairing for a Materials Management System

(i) Developing vendor performance (iv) Strategic information measures

(ii) Developing vendors for critical (v) Tactical information items

(iii)List of items rejected from a vendor (vi)Operational information

34

a. (i) and (v)

b. (ii) and (v)

c. (iii) and (iv)

d. (ii) and (vi)




(iii) List of items rejected from a vendor (vi) Operational information

a. (i) and (iv)

b. (i) and (vi)

c. (ii) and (iv)

d. (iii) and (v)




(iii) List of items rejected from a vendor (vi) Operational information

a. (i) and (vi)

b. (iii) and (vi)

c. (ii) and (vi)

d. (iii) and (iv)

77. Match and find best pairing for a Finance Management System

(i) Tax deduction at source report (iv) Strategic information

(ii) Impact of taxation on pricing (v) Tactical information

(iii) Tax planning (vi) Operational information

a. (i) and (v)

b. (iii) and (vi)

c. (ii) and (v)

d. (ii)) and (iv)

78. Match and find best pairing for a Finance Management System

(i) Budget status to all managers (iv) Strategic information

(ii) Method of financing (v) Tactical information

(iii) Variance between budget and (vi) Operational information expenses

a. (i) and (v)

b. (iii) and (vi)

c. (ii) and (v)

d. (ii) and (iv)

79. Match and find best pairing for a Marketing Management System

(i) Customer preferences surveys (iv) Strategic information

(ii) Search for new markets (v) Tactical information

(iii) Performance of sales outlets (vi) Operational information

a. (i) and (iv)

b. (ii) and (v)

35

c. (iii) and (vi)

d. (ii) and (v)

80. Match and find best pairing for a Marketing Management System

(i) Customer preferences surveys (iv) Strategic information

(ii) Search for new markets (v) Tactical information

(iii) Performance of sales outlets (vi) Operational information

a. (iii) and (iv)

b. (i) and (vi)

c. (i) and (v)

d. (iii) and (v)

81. Match and find best pairing for a Research and Development Management

System

(i) Technical collaboration decision (iv) Strategic information

(ii) Budgeted expenses Vs actuals (v) Tactical information

(iii) Proportion of budget to be (vi) Operational information allocated to various projects

a. (i) and (iv)

b. (ii) and (v)

c. (iii) and (vi)

d. (iii) and (iv)

82. Match and find best pairing for a Research and Development Management

System

(i) Technical collaboration decision (iv) Strategic information

(ii) Budgeted expenses Vs actuals (v) Tactical information

(iii) Proportion of budget to be (vi) Operational information allocated to various projects

a. (i) and (v)

b. (iii) and (v)

c. (ii) and (v)

d. (i) and (vi)

83. Organizations are divided into departments because

a. it is convenient to do so

b. each department can be assigned a specific functional responsibility

c. it provides opportunities for promotion

d. it is done by every organization

84. Organizations have hierarchical structures because

a. it is convenient to do so

b. it is done by every organization

c. specific responsibilities can be assigned for each level

d. it provides opportunities for promotions

85 Which of the following functions is the most unlikely in an insurance company.

a. Training

b. giving loans

36

c. bill of material

d. accounting

86. Which of the following functions is most unlikely in a university

a. admissions

b. accounting

c. conducting examination

d. marketing

87. Which of the following functions is most unlikely in a purchase section of an organization.

a. Production planning

b. order processing

c. vendor selection

d. training

88. Which is the most unlikely function of a marketing division of an organization.

a. advertising

b. sales analysis

c. order processing

d. customer preference analysis

89. Which is the most unlikely function of a finance section of a company.

a. Billing

b. costing

c. budgeting

d. labor deployment

90. The quality of information which does not hide any unpleasant information is known as

a. Complete

b. Trustworthy

c. Relevant


91. The quality of information which is based on understanding user needs

a. Complete

b. Trustworthy

c. Relevant


92. Every record stored in a Master file has a key field because

a. it is the most important field

b. it acts as a unique identification of record

c. it is the key to the database

d. it is a very concise field

93. The primary storage medium for storing archival data is

a. floppy disk

b. magnetic disk

c. magnetic tape

d. CD- ROM

94. Master files are normally stored in

a. a hard disk

37

b. a tape

c. CD – ROM

d. computer’s main memory

95. Master file is a file containing

a. all master records

b. all records relevant to the application

c. a collection of data items

d. historical data of relevance to the organization

96. Edit program is required to

a. authenticate data entered by an operator

b. format correctly input data

c. detect errors in input data

d. expedite retrieving input data

97. Data rejected by edit program are

a. corrected and re- entered

b. removed from processing

c. collected for later use

d. ignored during processing

98. Online transaction processing is used because

a. it is efficient

b. disk is used for storing files

c. it can handle random queries.

d. Transactions occur in batches

99. On-line transaction processing is used when

i) it is required to answer random queries

ii) it is required to ensure correct processing

iii) all files are available on-line

iv) all files are stored using hard disk

a. i ,ii

b. i, iii

c. ii ,iii, iv

d. i , ii ,iii

100. Off-line data entry is preferable when

i) data should be entered without error

ii) the volume of data to be entered is large

iii) the volume of data to be entered is small

iv) data is to be processed periodically

a. i, ii

b. ii, iii

c. ii, iv

d. iii, iv

101. Batch processing is used when

i) response time should be short

ii) data processing is to be carried out at periodic intervals

iii) transactions are in batches

iv) transactions do not occur periodically

a. i ,ii

b. i ,iii,iv

c. ii ,iii

38

d. i , ii ,iii

102. Batch processing is preferred over on-line transaction processing when

i) processing efficiency is important

ii) the volume of data to be processed is large

iii) only periodic processing is needed

iv) a large number of queries are to be processed

a. i ,ii

b. i, iii

c. ii ,iii

d. i , ii ,iii

103. A management information system is one which

a. is required by all managers of an organization

b. processes data to yield information of value in tactical management

c. provides operational information

d. allows better management of organizations

104 Data mining is used to aid in

a. operational management

b. analyzing past decision made by managers

c. detecting patterns in operational data

d. retrieving archival data

105 Data mining requires

a. large quantities of operational data stored over a period of time

b. lots of tactical data

c. several tape drives to store archival data

d. large mainframe computers

106. Data mining can not be done if

a. operational data has not been archived

b. earlier management decisions are not available

c. the organization is large

d. all processing had been only batch processing

107. Decision support systems are used for

a. Management decision making

b. Providing tactical information to management

c. Providing strategic information to management

d. Better operation of an organization

108. Decision support systems are used by

a. Line managers.

b. Top-level managers.

c. Middle level managers.

d. System users

109. Decision support systems are essential for

a. Day–to-day operation of an organization.

b. Providing statutory information.

c. Top level strategic decision making.

39

d. Ensuring that organizations are profitable.

1. Which phase of the SDLC are

information needs identified?

a) Preliminary investigation

b) Systems analysis

c) Systems design

d) Systems development

2. In this phase of the SDLC, new or alternative information systems are designed.

a) preliminary investigation

b) systems analysis

c) systems design

d) systems development

3. In this phase of the SDLC, the new information systems are installed and adapted to the new system, and people are trained to use them.

a) preliminary implementation

b) systems analysis

c) systems design

d) systems development

4. This phase of the SDLC is known as the “ongoing phase” where the system is periodically evaluated and updated as needed.


b) Systems design

c) Systems implementation

d) Systems maintenance

5. A recent survey by Money magazine determined that out of 100 widely-held jobs that they researched, the top job classification was a

a) network administrator

b) cryptographer

c) systems analyst

d) computer engineer

6. Many organizations have determined that there is a __________ -year backlog of work for systems analysts.

a) one

b) two

c) three

d) four

7. The first step in preliminary analysis is to

a) purchase supplies

b) hire consultants

c) define the problem

d) propose changes

8. In the preliminary investigation phase of the SDLC, which one of the following tasks would not be included?

a) briefly defining the problem

b) suggesting alternative solutions

40

c) gathering the data

d) preparing a short report

9. In order to obtain financing for the analysis phase, the systems analyst must

a) prepare a preliminary investigation report

b) justify the expense of upgrading

c) consider abandoning the project

d) train users on the new system

10. The first step of the systems analysis phase of the SDLC is to

a) propose changes

b) analyze data

c) gather data

d) write system analysis report

11. Which of the following shows levels of management and formal lines of authority?

a) organization chart

b) decision table

c) pyramid diagram

d) grid chart

12. A list of questions used in analysis is called a(n)

a) organization chart

b) interview guideline

c) grid table

d) checklist

13. What type of analysis starts with the “big picture” and then breaks it down into smaller pieces?

a) financial

b) reverse

c) top-down

d) executive

14. Which of the following is used to show the rules that apply to a decision when one or more conditions apply?

a) system flowchart

b) decision table

c) grid chart

d) checklist

15. Which of the following tools shows the data or information flow within an information system?

a) grid chart

b) decision table

c) system flowchart

d) data flow diagram

16. These software packages evaluate hardware and software alternatives according to requirements given by the systems analyst.

a) project management

b) automated design tools

c) spreadsheets

d) report generators

41

17. Which of the following is not found on a data flow diagram?

a) entities

b) process

c) offline storage

d) file

18. The final step of the systems analysis phase in the SDLC is to

a) gather data

b) write system analysis report

c) propose changes

d) analyze data

19. Which of the following would not be described in the systems analysis report?

a) the current information system

b) the requirements for a new system

c) the development schedule

d) the training requirements for users

20. Which of the following tasks is not part of the systems design phase?

a) designing alternative systems

b) selecting the best system

c) writing a systems design report

d) suggesting alternative solutions

21.The first task to complete in the design phase of the SDLC is to

a) design alternative systems

b) select the best design

c) examine hardware requirements

d) write a systems design report

22. After designing alternative systems, the system analyst must

a) prepare a system design report

b) diagram the system

c) prepare a data flow diagram

d) select the best alternative

23. The final task in the design phase of the SDLC is to

a) select the best design

b) design alternative systems

c) prepare a system design report

d) examine hardware requirements

24. A feasibility study is used to determine the proposed systems.

a) resource requirements

b) costs and benefits

c) availability of hardware and software

d) all of the above

25. Determining if employees, managers, and clients will resist a proposed new system is part of this feasibility study.

a) technical feasibility

42

b) economic feasibility

c) organizational feasibility

d) operational feasibility

26. Determining whether expected cost savings and other benefits will exceed the cost of developing an alternative system is related to

a) technical feasibility

b) economic feasibility

c) organizational feasibility

d) operational feasibility

27. The first step of systems development is to purchase or custom design

a) software

b) a network

c) hardware

d) training materials

28. The final step of development is to

a) acquire software

b) acquire hardware

c) prepare a systems development report

d) test the system

29. During which phase of the SDLC are users trained to use the new system?


b) Systems implementation

c) Systems development

d) Systems maintenance

30. The first step in implementing a new system is to determine the

a) hardware requirements

b) software requirements

c) conversion type

d) best alternative

31. The __________ approach conversion type simply involves abandoning the old system and using the new.

a) direct

b) pilot

c) phased

d) parallel

32. The old and new systems run side by side for a period of time when using the __________ approach to implementation.

a) direct

b) parallel

c) phased

d) pilot

33. Although this conversion approach (__________) is considered low risk, keeping enough equipment and people active to manage two systems at the same time can be very expensive.

a) direct

43

b) parallel

c) phased

d) pilot

34. Using the __________ approach, a new system is tested in one part of the organization before being implemented in others.

a) direct

b) phased

c) pilot

d) parallel

35. The __________ implementation approach is broken down into smaller parts that are implemented over time.

a) pilot

b) direct

c) parallel

d) phased

36. The implementation approach that is the least risky would be the

a) direct approach

b) parallel approach

c) phased approach

d) pilot approach

37. This implementation approach (__________) is preferred when there are many people in an organization performing similar operations.

a) direct

b) parallel

c) phased

d) pilot

38. The final step of the implementation phase of the SDLC is to

a) train the users

b) develop documentation

c) select the conversion type

d) write the implementation report

39. Which of the following phases of the SDLC is considered as the “ongoing process”?

a) systems development

b) systems analysis

c) systems design

d) systems maintenance

40. The ongoing testing and analysis of an existing system is called system__________.

a) maintenance

b) implementation

c) design

d) analysis

41. During a systems audit, the system performance is compared to

a) similar systems

b) newer systems

c) the design specifications

44

d) competing systems

42. A modifiable model built before the actual system is installed is called a(n)

a) sample

b) example

c) template

d) prototype

43. The process of building a model that demonstrates the features of a proposed product, service or system is called a

a) JAD

b) RAD

c) template

d) prototype

44. A modifiable model of a proposed product, system, or system is called a(n)

a) prototype

b) benchmark

c) factor

d) template

45. RAD stands for

a) Redundant Array of Disks

b) Rapid Application Development

c) Remove and Destroy

d) Replication Applet Diagram

MCQs sub Part 2

1. In the relational modes, cardinality is termed as:

(A) Number of tuples

(B) Number of attributes.

(C) Number of tables

(D) Number of constraints.

2. Relational calculus is a

(A) Procedural language

(B) Non- Procedural language.

(C) Data definition language

(D) High level language.

3 The view of total database content is

(A) Conceptual view

(B) Internal view

(C) External view

(D) Physical View.

4. Cartesian product in relational algebra is

(A) a Unary operator

(B) a Binary operator

(C) a Ternary operator

(D) not defined

5. DML is provided for

(A) Description of logical structure of database.

(B) Addition of new structures in the database system.

(C) Manipulation & processing of database.

(D) Definition of physical structure of database system.

6. ‘AS’ clause is used in SQL for

(A) Selection operation

(B) Rename operation

(C) Join operation

(D) Projection operation.

45

7. ODBC stands for

(A) Object Database Connectivity.

(B) Oral Database Connectivity.

(C) Oracle Database Connectivity.

(D) Open Database Connectivity.

8. Architecture of the database can be viewed as

(A) Two levels

(B) Four levels

(C) Three levels

(D) One level

9. In a relational model, relations are termed as

(A) Tuples

(B) Attributes

(C) Tables

(D) Rows.

10. The database schema is written in

(A) HLL

(B) DML

(C) DDL

(D) DCL

11. In the architecture of a database system external level is the

(A) Physical level

(B) Logical level.

(C) Conceptual level

(D) View level.

12. An entity set that does not have sufficient attributes to form a primary key is a

(A) Strong entity set

(B) Weak entity set.

(C) Simple entity set

(D) Primary entity set.

13. In a Hierarchical model records are organized as

(A) Graph

(B) List

(C) Links

(D) Tree

14. In an E-R diagram attributes are represented by

(A) Rectangle

(B) Square

(C) Ellipse

(D) Triangle.

15. In case of entity integrity, the primary key may be

(A) Not Null

(B) Null

(C) Both Null & not Null

(D) Any value.

16. In tuple relational calculus P1 ®P2 is equivalent to

(A) ¬P1 Ú P2

(B) P1 Ú P2

(C) P1 Ù P2

(D) P1 Ù¬P2

17. The language used in application programs to request data from the DBMS is referred to as the

(A) DML

46

(B) DDL

(C) VDL

(D) SDL

18. A logical schema

(A) Is the entire database.

(B) Is a standard way of organizing information into accessible parts.

(C) Describes how data is actually stored on disk.

(D) Both (A) and (C)

19. Related fields in a database are grouped to form a

(A) Data file

(B) Data record.

(C) Menu

(D) Bank.

20. The database environment has all of the following components except:

(A) Users

(B) Separate files.

(C) Database

(D) Database administrator.

21. The language which has recently become the defacto standard for interfacing application programs with relational database system is

(A) Oracle

(B) SQL.

(C) Dbase

(D) 4GL.

22. The way a particular application views the data from the database that the application uses is a

(A) module

(B) Relational model.

(C) Schema

(D) Sub schema.

23. In an E-R diagram an entity set is represent by a

(A) rectangle

(B) Ellipse.

(C) Diamond box

(D) Circle.

24. A report generator is used to

(A) Update files

(B) Print files on paper

(C) Data entry

(D) Delete files.

25. The property / properties of a database is / are :

(A) It is an integrated collection of logically related records.

(B) It consolidates separate files into a common pool of data records.

(C) Data stored in a database is independent of the application programs using it.

(D) All of the above.

26. The DBMS language component which can be embedded in a program is

(A) The data definition language (DDL)

47

(B) The data manipulation language (DML)

(C) The database administrator (DBA)

(D) A query language.

27. A relational database developer refers to a record as

(A) A criteria

(B) A relation.

(C) A tuple

(D) An attribute

28. The relational model feature is that there

(A) Is no need for primary key data?

(B) Is much more data independence than some other database models.

(C) Are explicit relationships among records?

(D) Are tables with many dimensions?

29. Conceptual design

(A) Is a documentation technique.

(B) Needs data volume and processing frequencies to determine the size of the database.

(C) Involves modeling independent of the DBMS.

(D) Is designing the relational model.

30. The method in which records are physically stored in a specified order according to a key field in each record is

(A) Hash

(B) Direct.

(C) Sequential


31. A subschema expresses

(A) The logical view

(B) The physical view.

(C) The external view


32. Count function in SQL returns the number of

(A) Values

(B) Distinct values.

(C) Groups

(D) Columns

33. Which one of the following statements is false?

(A) The data dictionary is normally maintained by the database administrator.

(B) Data elements in the database can be modified by changing the data dictionary.

(C) The data dictionary contains the name and description of each data element.

(D) The data dictionary is a tool used exclusively by the database administrator.

34. An advantage of the database management approach is

(A) Data is dependent on programs.

(B) Data redundancy increases.

(C) Data is integrated and can be accessed by multiple programs.

(D) None of the above.

35. A DBMS query language is designed to

(A) Support end users who use English-like commands.

48

(B) Support in the development of complex applications software.

(C) Specify the structure of a database.


36. Transaction processing is associated with everything below except

(A) Producing detail, summary, or exception reports.

(B) Recording a business activity.

(C) Confirming an action or triggering a response.

(D) Maintaining data.

37. It is possible to define a schema completely using

(A) VDL and DDL

(B) DDL and DML.

(C) SDL and DDL

(D) VDL and DML.

38. The method of access which uses key transformation is known as

(A) Direct

(B) Hash

(C) Random

(D) Sequential

39. Data independence means

(A) Data is defined separately and not included in programs.

(B) Programs are not dependent on the physical attributes of data.

(C) Programs are not dependent on the logical attributes of data.

(D) Both (B) and (C).

40. The statement in SQL which allows changing the definition of a table is

(A) Alter

(B) Update.

(C) Create

(D) Select

41. E-R model uses this symbol to represent weak entity set?

(A) Dotted rectangle.

(B) Diamond

(C) Doubly outlined rectangle

(D) None of these

42. SET concept is used in:

(A) Network Model

(B) Hierarchical Model

(C) Relational Model

(D) None of these

43. Relational Algebra is

(A) Data Definition Language

(B) Meta Language

(C) Procedural query Language

(D) None of the above

44. Key to represent relationship between tables is called

(A) Primary key

(B) Secondary Key

(C) Foreign Key

(D) None of these

49

45. _______ produces the relation that has attributes of R1 and R2

(A) Cartesian product

(B) Difference

(C) Intersection

D) Product

46. The file organization that provides very fast access to any arbitrary record of a file is

(A) Ordered file

(B) Unordered file

(C) Hashed file

(D) B-tree

47. DBMS helps achieve

(A) Data independence

(B) Centralized control of data

(C) Neither (A) nor (B)

(D) Both (A) and (B)

48. Which of the following are the properties of entities?

(A) Groups

(B) Table

(C) Attributes

(D) Switchboards

49. In a relation

(A) Ordering of rows is immaterial

(B) No two rows are identical

(C) (A) and (B) both are true

(D) None of these.

50. Which of the following is correct?

(A) A SQL query automatically eliminates duplicates.

(B) SQL permits attribute names to be repeated in the same relation.

(C) A SQL query will not work if there are no indexes on the relations

D) None of these

51. It is better to use files than a DBMS when there are

(A) Stringent real-time requirements.

(B) Multiple users wish to access the data.

(C) Complex relationships among data.


52. The conceptual model is

(A) Dependent on hardware.

(B) Dependent on software.

(C) Dependent on both hardware and software

(D) Independent of both hardware and software

53. What is a relationship called when it is maintained between two entities?

(A) Unary

(B) Binary

(C) Ternary

(D) Quaternary

54. Which of the following operation is used if we are interested in only certain columns of a table?

(A) PROJECTION

(B) SELECTION

50

(C) UNION

(D) JOIN

55. Which of the following is a valid SQL type?

(A) CHARACTER

(B) NUMERIC

(C) FLOAT

(D) All of the above

56. The RDBMS terminology for a row is

(A) tuple

(B) Relation.

(C) Attribute

D) Degree

57. Which of the following operations need the participating relations to be union compatible?

(A) UNION

(B) INTERSECTION

(C) DIFFERENCE


58. The full form of DDL is

(A Dynamic Data Language

(B) Detailed Data Language

(C) Data Definition Language

(D) Data Derivation Language

59. Which of the following is an advantage of view?

(A) Data security

(B) Derived columns

(C) Hiding of complex queries


60. Which of the following is a legal expression in SQL?

(A) SELECT NULL FROM EMPLOYEE;

(B) SELECT NAME FROM EMPLOYEE;

(C) SELECT NAME FROM EMPLOYEE WHERE SALARY = NULL;


61. The users who use easy-to-use menu are called

(A) Sophisticated end users

(B) Naïve users.

(C) Stand-alone users

(D) Casual end users.

62. Which database level is closest to the users?

(A) External

(B) Internal

(C) Physical

(D) Conceptual

63. Which are the two ways in which entities can participate in a relationship?

(A) Passive and active

(B) Total and partial

(C) Simple and Complex

51


64. The result of the UNION operation between R1 and R2 is a relation that includes

(A) All the tuples of R1

(B) All the tuples of R2

(C) All the tuples of R1 and R2

(D) All the tuples of R1 and R2 which have common columns

65. A set of possible data values is called

(A) Attribute

(B) Degree

(C) tuple

(D) Domain

66. Which of the operations constitute a basic set of operations for manipulating relational data?

(A) Predicate calculus

(B) Relational calculus

(C) Relational algebra


67. Which of the following is another name for weak entity?

(A) Child

(B) Owner

(C) Dominant


68. Which of the following database object does not physically exist?

(A) Base table

(B) Index

(C) View


69. NULL is

(A) The same as 0 for integer

(B) The same as blank for character

(C) The same as 0 for integer and blank for character

(D) Not a value

70. Which of the following is record based logical model?

(A) Network Model

(B) Object oriented model

(C) E-R Model

(D) None of these

71. A data dictionary is a special file that contains:

(A) The name of all fields in all files.

(B) The width of all fields in all files.

(C) The data type of all fields in all files.


72. A file manipulation command that extracts some of the records from a file is called

(A) SELECT

(B) PROJECT

(C) JOIN

(D) PRODUCT

73. The physical location of a record is determined by a mathematical formula that transforms a file key into a record location is:

(A) B-Tree File

52

(B) Hashed File

(C) Indexed File

(D) Sequential file.

74. A primary key is combined with a foreign key creates

(A) Parent-Child relation ship between the tables that connect them.

(B) Many to many relationship between the tables that connect them.

(C) Network model between the tables that connect them.


75. In E-R Diagram derived attribute are represented by

(A) Ellipse

(B) Dashed ellipse

(C) Rectangle

(D) Triangle

76. Cross Product is a:

(A) Unary Operator

(B) Ternary Operator

(C) Binary Operator

(D) Not an operator

77. An instance of relational schema R (A, B, C) has distinct values of A including NULL values. Which one of the following is true?

(A) A is a candidate key

(B) A is not a candidate key

(C) A is a primary Key

(D) Both (A) and (C)

78. Consider the join of a relation R with relation S. If R has m tuples and S has n tuples, then the maximum size of join is:

(A) mn

(B) m+n

(C) (m+n)/2

(D) 2(m+n)

79. The natural join is equal to:

(A) Cartesian Product

(B) Combination of Union and Cartesian product

(C) Combination of selection and Cartesian product

(D) Combination of projection and Cartesian product

80. Which one of the following is not true for a view:

(A) View is derived from other tables.

(B) View is a virtual table.

(C) A view definition is permanently stored as part of the database.

(D) View never contains derived columns.

81. A primary key if combined with a foreign key creates

(A) Parent-Child relationship between the tables that connect them.

(B) Many to many relationship between the tables that connect them.

(C) Network model between the tables that connect them.


82. In E-R Diagram relationship type is represented by

53

(A) Ellipse

(B) Dashed ellipse

(C) Rectangle

(D) Diamond

83. Hierarchical model is also called

(A) Tree structure

(B) Plex Structure

(C) Normalize Structure

(D) Table Structure

84. To delete a particular column in a relation the command used is:

(A) UPDATE

(B) DROP

(C) ALTER

(D) DELETE

85. The ______ operator is used to compare a value to a list of literals values that have been specified.

(A) BETWEEN

(B) ANY

(C) IN

(D) ALL

86. A logical schema

A) Is the entire database

B) Is a standard way of organizing information into a accessible part

C) Describe how data is actually stored on disk

D) None of these

87. A B-tree of order m has maximum of _____________ children

(A) m

(B) m+1

(C) m-1

(D) m/2

88. _____________ function divides one numeric expression by another and returns the remainder.

(A) POWER

(B) MOD

(C) ROUND

(D) REMAINDER

89. A data manipulation command the combines the records from one or more tables is called

(A) SELECT

(B) PROJECT

(C) JOIN

(D) PRODUCT

90. In E-R diagram generalization is represented by

(A) Ellipse

(B) Dashed ellipse

(C) Rectangle

(D) Triangle

91. _________ is a virtual table that draws its data from the result of an SQL SELECT statement.

(A) View

(B) Synonym

(C) Sequence

54

(D) Transaction

92. The method of access which uses key transformation is known as

(A) Direct

(B) Hash

(C) Random

(D) Sequential

93. A table joined with it is called

(A) Join

(B) Self Join

(C) Outer Join

(D) Equal Join

True/False

1. The accounting department records all financial transactions.

Answer: True

2. The human resources department manages the hiring, firing, and training of a company’s personnel.

Answer: True

3. The research department handles all aspects of promotion.

Answer: False

4. The production department creates the finished goods.

Answer: True

5. Supervisor-level management deals with control, planning and decision making.

Answer: False

6. Middle management monitors day-to-day operations.

Answer: False

7. Top managerial-level information flow is predominately vertical.

Answer: False

8. Middle-managerial level information flow is both vertical and horizontal.

Answer: True

9. The transaction processing system relies on information provided by the management information system.

Answer: False

10. The decision support system combines internal and external information to help analyze a wide range of problems.

Answer: True

11. A weekly production schedule is one report likely to be generated from a management information system.

Answer: True

12. “ESS” stands for Executive Simplified Summary.

Answer: False

13. Executive support systems are designed to be easy to use.

Answer: True

14. The sales order processing activity records the customer requests for goods or services.

Answer: True

15. The accounts receivable activity records money received from or owed by customers.

Answer: True

55

16. The parts and finished goods that a company has in stock are called surplus.

Answer: False17. Purchasing is the buying of materials and services.

Answer: True

18. Accounts payable is concerned with calculating employee paychecks.

Answer: False

19. The general ledger refers to money the company owes.

Answer: False

20. Income statements show a company’s financial performance.

Answer: True

21. A balance sheet is an example of a demand report.

Answer: False

22. A periodic report is created at set intervals.

Answer: True

23. An exception report calls attention to unusual events.

Answer: True

24. Team decisions can be facilitated by the use of a GDSS.

Answer: True

25. In general, the user of a GDSS is some sort of decision maker.

Answer: True

26. The system software provides a GDSS with its decision-making capabilities.

Answer: False

27. The data component of a GDSS is stored in the system software.

Answer: False

28. There are three basic decision models used in a GDSS: operational, strategic, and financial.

Answer: False

29. Top-level management is most concerned with strategic planning.

Answer: True

30. The strategic decision model assists in long-range planning.

Answer: True

31. The operation decision model helps to accomplish the organization’s day-to-day activities.

Answer: True

32. Employees who distribute, create, and communicate information are called e-workers.

Answer: False

33. Knowledge workers create information.

Answer: True

34. An office automation system consists of multifunctional robots.

Answer: False

56

35. Knowledge workers use specialized information systems called KWS to create information in their area of expertise.

Answer: True

36. CAD/CAM systems allow people located at various locations to have “in-person” meetings.

Answer: False

37. CAD/CAM systems use powerful microcomputers running special programs that integrate the design and manufacturing activities.

Answer: True

38. Videoconferencing systems allow people located at various locations to have “in-person” meetings.

Answer: True

39. CAD/CAM systems are widely used in the processing of perishable products.

Answer: False

http://bkitab.com/pages/bpage/18

57

operation and supply chain management.docx

Documents

jobbing processes

batch processes

mass processes

line process

continuous process types

continuous processesanswer

continuous processes2

continuous processes3