solutions · aits-cpt # 02 (solutions) (medical dropper) (set-a) - 2018-19 potential & concept...

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ANSWER KEY

AITS-CPT # 02 [SET-A]

DROPPER MEDICAL

(PHYSCIS, CHEMISTRY)

TARGET : NEET - 2019

Exam. Date : 27-01-2019

AITS-CPT # 02 (Solutions) (Medical Dropper) - 2018-19 (SET-A)

AITS-CPT # 02 (Solutions) (Medical Dropper) (SET-A) - 2018-19

Potential & Concept Educations Page. 2

ANSWER KEYS FOR CPT # 02 DROPPER MEDICAL [SET # A]

DATE : 27-01-2019

ANSWERS [PHYSICS]

1. C 2. A 3. B 4. B 5. D 6. B 7. B 8. B 9. B 10. B11. B 12. B 13. B 14. C 15. D 16. A 17. A 18. C 19. A 20. A21. B 22. B 23. C 24. A 25. B 26. D 27. B 28. C 29. C 30. D31. B 32. A 33. C 34. C 35. D 36. B 37. C 38. C 39. D 40. C41. B 42. D 43. A 44. D 45. B

ANSWERS [CHEMISTRY]

46. D 47. A 48. D 49. D 50. D 51. B 52. B 53. C 54. C 55. C56. D 57. A 58. A 59. A 60. B 61. A 62. B 63. D 64. C 65. C66. A 67. A 68. C 69. B 70. D 71. A 72. A 73. C 74. B 75. A76. C 77. C 78. C 79. A 80. A 81. B 82. A 83. D 84. D 85. D86. D 87. B 88. A 89. C 90. D

ANSWERS [BOTANY]

91. C 92. A 93. B 94. D 95. C 96. B 97. B 98. C 99. B 100. B101. D 102. D 103. D 104. A 105. C 106. A 107. B 108. B 109. D 110. C111. D 112. D 113. C 114. B 115. A 116. C 117. D 118. A 119. C 120. C121. C 122. B 123. B 124. D 125. D 126. B 127. D 128. C 129. C 130. B131. A 132. B 133. C 134. A 135. B

ANSWERS [ZOOLOGY]

136. B 137. C 138. D 139. A 140. B 141. D 142. B 143. D 144. C 145. B146. B 147. A 148. B 149. B 150. B 151. A 152. B 153. A 154. B 155. C156. B 157. D 158. B 159. B 160. B 161. A 162. C 163. A 164. C 165. C166. A 167. D 168. B 169. B 170. A 171. D 172. D 173. C 174. D 175. A176. D 177. D 178. B 179. C 180. C



PHYSICS AITS-CPT-02Medical

Dropper Batch

1. The resultant force on a system of particles is zero.

(A) The centre of mass of the system must be at rest.(B) Acceleration of each particle may be in the same direction.(C) Velocity of each particle may be in the same direction at some instant of time.(D) If only one particle has initially non-zero velocity then it is possible that all the particles have zerovelocity after some time.Solution :The answer is (C).

2. A person P of mass 50 kg stands at the middle of a boat of mass 100 kg moving at a constant velocity 10m/s with no friction between water and boat and also the engine of the boat is shut off. With what velocity(relative to the boat surface) should the person move so that the boat comes to rest.

(A) 30 m/s towards right (B) 20 m/s towards right(C) 30 m/s towards left (D) 20 m/s towards leftSolution :Momentum of the system remains conserved as no external force is acting on the system in horizontaldirection. (50 + 100) 10 = 50 × V + 100 × 0 V = 30 m/s towards right, as boat is at rest. VPboat = 30m/sHence the answer is (A).

3. A ball of mass m approaches a moving wall of infinite mass with a speed ‘v’ along the normal to the wall.The speed of the wall is ‘u’ toward the ball. The speed of the ball after ‘elastic’ collision with wall is :(A) u + v away from the wall (B) 2u + v away from the wall(C) |u – v| away from the wall (D) |v – 2u| away from the wallSolution :The answer is (B).

4. A smooth wire is bent into a vertical circle of radius a. A bead P can slide smoothly on the wire. The circleis rotated about diameter AB as axis with a speed as shown in figure. The bead P is at rest w.r.t. thecircular ring in the position shown. Then 2 is equal to :

(A) 2ga

(B) 2g

a 3 (C) g 3

a(D)

2ag 3

Solution :The answer is (B).



5. A stone of mass M is tied at the end of a string, is moving in a circle of radius R, with a constant angularvelocity . The total work done on the stone, in any half circle, is :(A) MR2 2 (B) 2 MR2 2 (C) MR2 2 (D) 0Solution :(Easy) Since there is no change in kinetic energy of stone, the total work done on stone in any durationis zero.Hence the answer is (D).

6. In the figure shown :

(A) current will flow from A to B (B) current may flow from A to B(C) current will flow from B to A (D) the direction of current will depend on r.Solution :

Hence the answer is (B).7. In the figure shown : (All batteries are ideal)

(I) current through 25 V cell is 20 A (II) current through 25 V cell is 12.5 A(III) power supplied by 20 V cell is 30 W (IV) power supplied by 20 V cell is 20 W(A) I & III (B) II & IV (C) I, II & III (D) None of theseSolution :

Hence the answer is (B).8. In the figure shown the current flowing through 2 R is :

(A) from left to right (B) from right to left (C) no current (D) None of these



Solution :

Hence the answer is (B).9. The maximum current in a galvanometer can be 10 mA. It’s resistance is 10. To convert it into an

ammeter of 1 Amp. a resistor should be connected in(A) series, 0.1 (B) parallel, 0.1 (C) series, 100 (D) parallel, 100Solution :

Hence the answer is (B).10. A non-ideal voltmeter and a non-ideal ammeter are connected as shown in the figure. The reading of the

voltmeter is 20 V and that of the ammeter is 4 A. The value of R is :

(A) 5 (B) less than 5 (C) greater than 5 (D) may be less than 5 Solution :

Hence the answer is (B).11. In the circuit shown in figure, the resistance of voltmeter is 6 K. The voltmeter reading will be :

(A) 6V (B) 5V (C) 4V (D) 3V



Hence the answer is (B).Hence the answer is ().

12. A battery of internal resistor ‘r’ and e.m.f. is connected to a variable external resistance AB. If thesliding contact is moved from A to B, then terminal potential difference of battery will:

(A) remain constant & is independent of value of external resistance(B) increase continuously(C) decrease continuously(D) first increase and then will decreaseSolution :The answer is (B).

13. In a practical wheat stone bridge circuit as shown, when one more resistance of 100 is connected inparallel with unknown resistance ‘x’, then ratio 1/2 become ‘2’. 1 is balance length. AB is a uniformwire. Then value of ‘x’ must be :

(A) 50 (B) 100 (C) 200 (D) 400 Solution :

Hence the answer is (B).



14. A variable current flows through a 1 resistor for 2 seconds. Time dependence of the current is shown inthe graph. Which is incorrect

(A) Total charge flown through the resistor is 10 C. (B) Average current through the resistor is 5A.(C) Total heat produced in the resistor is 50 J. (D) Maximum power during the flow of current is 100 W.Solution :

Hence the answer is (C).15. Figure below shows a closed Gaussian surface in the shape of a cube of edge length 3.0 m. There exists

an electric field given by E [(2.0x 4.0)i 8.0 j 3.0k]N/C

, where x is in metres, in the region in whichit lies. The net charge in coulombs enclosed by the cube is equal to

(A) –54 0 (B) 6 0 (C) –6 0 (D) 54 0

Solution :

Hence the answer is (D).



16. Circuit for the measurement of resistance by potentiometer is shown. The galvanometer is first connectedat point A and zero deflection is observed at length PJ = 10 cm. In second case it is connect at point C andzero deflection is observed at a length 30 cm from P. Then the unknown resistance X is

(A) 2R (B) R2

(C) R3

(D) 3R

Solution :

Hence the answer is (A).17. The given figure gives electric lines of force due to two charges q1 and q2. What are the signs of the two

charges?

(A) Both are negative (B) Both are positive(C) q1 is positive but q2 is negative (D) q1 is negative but q2 is positiveSolution :Since the lines of forces are terminating on the charges both have to be negative.Hence the answer is (A).

18. A mercury drop of water has potential ‘V’ on its surface. 1000 such drops combine to form a new drop.Find the potential on the surface of the new drop.(A) V (B) 10V (C) 100V (D) 1000VSolution :

Hence the answer is (C).



19. Figure shows three circular arcs, each of radius R and total charge as indicated. The net elecric potentialat the centre of curvature is :

(A) 0

Q2 R (B)

0

Q4 R (C)

0

2QR (D)

0

QR

Solution :

Hence the answer is (A).20. The figure shows a charge q placed inside a cavity in an uncharged conductor. Now if an external electric

field is switched on :

(A) only induced charge on outer surface will redistribute.(B) only induced charge on inner surface will redistribute.(C) both induced charge on outer and inner surface will redistribute.(D) force on charge q placed inside the cavity will change.Solution :The distribution of charge on the outer surface, depends only on the charges outside, and it distributesitself such that the net, electric field inside the outer surface due to the charge on outer surface and all theouter charges is zero. Similarly the distribution of charge on the inner surface, depends only on thecharges inside the inner surface, and it distributes itself such that the net, electric field outside the innersurface due to the charge on inner surface and all the inner charges is zero.Also the force on charge inside the cavity is due to the charge on the inner surface.Hence the answer is (A).

21. Figure shows a solid hemisphere with a charge of 5 nC distributed uniformly through its volume. Thehemisphere lies on a plane and point P is located on the plane, along a radial line from the centre ofcurvature at distance 15 cm. The electric potential at point P due to the hemisphere, is :

(A) 150 V (B) 300 V (C) 450 V (D) 600 V



Solution :

Hence the answer is (B).22. Two concentric conducting spherical shells are given equal charges. If the ratio of radius of outer shell to

inner shell is n (where n > 1), then the ratio of the final charges on the inner shell and the outer shell afterearthing the inner shell will be :(A) n (B) –1/n (C) – n (D) n2

Solution :

Hence the answer is (B).23. A charge q is placed at the centre of the cubical vessel (with one face open) as shown in figure. The flux

of the electric field through the surface of the vessel is

(A) zero (B) q/0 (C) 5q/60 (D) 0

q4

Solution :The answer is (C).

24. An isolated triple star system consists of two identical stars, each of mass m and a fixed star of mass M.They revolve around the central star in the same circular orbit of radius r. The two orbiting stars arealways at opposite ends of a diameter of the orbit. The time period of revolution of each star around thefixed star is equal to :

(A) 3/ 24 r

G(4M m)

(B) 3/ 22 r

GM

(C) 3/ 22 r

G(M m)

(D) 3/ 24 r

G(M m)



Solution :

Hence the answer is (A).25. Check the correct statement :

(A) internal energy is a path function, while heat is not(B) heat is path function, while internal energy is not(C) both heat and internal energy are path functions(D) both heat and internal energy are not path functionsSolution :The answer is (B).

26. When an ideal diatomic gas is heated at constant pressure, the fraction of the heat energy supplied whichincreases the internal energy of the gas is(A) 2 / 5 (B) 3 / 5 (C) 3 / 7 (D) 5 / 7Solution :The answer is (D).

27. A diatomic ideal gas is heated at constant volume until the pressure is doubled and again heated atconstant pressure until volume is doubled. The average molar heat capacity for whole process is :

(A) 13R

6(B)

19R6

(C) 23R

6(D)

17R6

Solution :

Hence the answer is (B).28. A diatomic ideal gas undergoes a thermodynamic change according to the P–V diagram shown in the

figure. The total heat given of the gas is nearly :

(A) 2.5 P0V0 (B) 1.4 P0V0 (C) 3.9 P0V0 (D) 1.1 P0V0



Solution :

Hence the answer is (C).29. Figure shows the velocity time graph of a particle. Its average velocity in 20 seconds will be :

(A) 10 m/s (B) 0 m/s (C) 3.75 m/s (D) 15 m/sSolution :

Hence the answer is (C).30. A particle moves through the origin of an xy-cordinate system at t = 0 with initial velocity u = 4i – 5 j. The

particle moves in the xy plane with an acceleration a = 2i m/s2. Speed of the particle at t = 4 second is

(A) 12 m/s (B) 8 2 m/s (C) 5 m/s (D) 13 m/sSolution :

Hence the answer is (D).31. A particle moves along the parabolic path y = ax2 in such a way that the x component of the velocity remains

constant, say c. The acceleration of the particle is

(A) âck (B) 2ˆ2ac j (C) 2 âc k (D) 2 â cjSolution :

Hence the answer is (B).32. An object is thrown from a point ‘A’ horizontally from a tower and hits the ground 3s later at B. The line

from ‘A’ to ‘B’ makes an angle of 30º with the horizontal. The initial velocity of the object is :

(A) 15 3 m/s (B) 15 m/s (C) 10 3 m/s (D) 25/ 3 m/s



Solution :

Hence the answer is (A).33. The angular momentum of an electron in first orbit of Li++ ion is :

(A) 3h2

(B) 9h2

(C) h

2(D)

h6

Solution :

Hence the answer is (C).34. If first excitation potential of a hydrogen like atom is V electron volt, then the ionization energy of this

atom will be :

(A) V electron volt (B) 3V4

electron volt

(C) 4V3

electron volt (D) cannot be calculated by given information.

Solution :

Hence the answer is (C).35. All electrons ejected from a surface by incident light of wavelength 200 nm can be stopped before

travelling 1 m in the direction of uniform electric field of 4 N/C. The work function of the surface is :(A) 4 eV (B) 6.2 eV (C) 2 eV (D) 2.2 eVSolution :The electron ejected with maximum speed vmax are stopped by electric field E = 4N/C after travelling adistance d = 1m

Hence the answer is (D).36. An unknown stable nuclide after absorbing a neutron emits an electron, and the new nuclide splits

spontaneously into two alpha particles. The unknown nuclide is :(A) 4Be9 (B) 3Li7 (C) 2He4 (D) 5B10

Solution :

Hence the answer is (B).



37. A conical pendulum consists of a simple pendulum moving in a horizontal circle as shown. C is the pivot,O the centre of the circle in which the pendulum bob moves and the constant angular velocity of thebob. If L

is the angular momentum about point C, then

(A) L

is constant (B) only direction of L

is constant

(C) only magnitude of L

is constant (D) none of the above.Solution :The answer is (C).

38. A system of uniform cylinders and plates is shown in figure. All the cylinders are identical and there is noslipping at any contact. Velocity of lower & upper plate is V and 2V respectively as shown in figure. Thenthe ratio of angular speed of the upper cylinders to lower cylinders is

(A) 3 (B) 1/3 (C) 1 (D) none of theseSolution :The answer is (C).

39. A uniform ladder of length 5 m and mass 100 kg is in equilibrium between vertical smooth wall and roughhorizontal surface. Find minimum friction co-efficient between floor and ladder for this equilibrium.

(A) 1/2 (B) 3/4 (C) 1/3 (D) 2/3Solution :




40. Mass m is connected with an ideal spring of natural length whose other end is fixed on a smoothhorizontal table. Initially spring is in its natural length . Mass m is given a velocity ‘v’ perpendicular to thespring and released. The velocity perpendicular to the spring when its length is + x, will be

(A) 2v

x

(B)

22vx

(C)

vx

(D) zero

Solution :

Hence the answer is (C).41. A uniform disc of radius R lies in the x-y plane, with its centre at origin. its moment of inertia about zaxis

is equal to its moment of inertia about line y = x + c. The value of c will be

(A) R–2

(B) R2

(C) R4

(D) –4

Solution :

Hence the answer is (B).42. In the figure the variation of potential energy of a particle of mass m = 2kg is represented w.r.t. its

xcoordinate. The particle moves under the effect of this conservative force along the x-axis. Which of thefollowing statements is incorrect about the particle :

(A) If it is released at the origin it will move in negative x-axis.(B) If it is released at x = 2 + where 0 then its maximum speed will be 5 m/s and it will performoscillatory motion

(C) If initially x = – 10 and i. ˆu 6i then it will cross x = 10



(D) x = –5 and x = + 5 are unstable equilibrium positions of the particleSolution :

Hence the answer is (D).43. Work done by static friction on an object :

(A) may be positive (B) must be negative (C) must be zero (D) none of theseSolution :

Hence the answer is (A).44. A block is attached with a spring and is moving towards a fixed wall with speed v as shown in figure. As

the spring reaches the wall, it starts compressing. The work done by the spring on the wall during theprocess of compression is :

(A) 1/2 mv2 (B) mv2 (C) Kmv (D) zeroSolution :As point of application of force is not moving, therefore work done by the force is zero.Hence the answer is (D).

45. The diagram shows a solenoid and a loop such that the solenoid’s axis lies in the plane of the loop. Boththe solenoid and the loop carry constant currents in the directions as shown in the diagram. If the systemis released from rest, the loop

(A) move towards the solenoid, rotates clockwise (B) move towards the solenoid, rotates anticlockwise(C) move away the solenoid, rotates clockwise (D) move away the solenoid, rotates anticlockwiseSolution :The loop rotates anticlockwise due to magnetic torque and as a result north and south poles will attracteach other.Hence the answer is (B).



CHEMISTRY AITS-CPT-02Medical

Dropper Batch

46. For the two moving particles A and B, following values are givenParticle Velocity MassA 0.1 ms–1 m kgB 0.05 ms–1 5m kgRatio of de-Broglie wavelength associated with the particles A and B is(A) 2 : 5 (B) 3 : 4 (C) 6 : 4 (D) 5 : 2

Solution :


47. The wave number of the spectral line in the emission spectrum of H-atom will be equal to 89

times theRydberg's constant if the electron jumps from(A) n = 3 to n = l (B) n = 10 to n = 1 (C) n = 9 to n = 1 (D) n = 2 to n = 1

Solution :

Hence the answer is (A).48. Ionic mass of X3– is 31 g mol–1. lt has 16 neutrons. Thus, number of electrons in x3– is

(A) 15 (B) 16 (C) 17 (D) 18

Solution :




49. If 0.50 mole of BaCl2 is mixed with 0.20 mole of Na3PO4, the maximum number of moles of Ba3(PO4)2that can be formed is(A) 0.70 (B) 0.50 (C) 0.20 (D) 0.10

Solution :

Hence the answer is (D).50. In the redox reaction,

xKMnO4 + NH3 yKNO3 + MnO2 + KOH + H2O(A) x = 4, y = 6 (B) x = 3, y = 8 (C) x = 8, y = 6 (D) x = 8, y = 3

Solution :

Hence the answer is (D).51. The correct decreasing order of oxidation number of oxygen in compounds BaO2, O3, KO2 and OF2 is :

(A) BaO2 > KO2 > O3 > OF2 (B) OF2 > O3 > KO2 > BaO2

(C) KO2 > OF2 > O3 > BaO2 (D) BaO2 > O3 > OF2 > KO2

Solution :Oxidation no.of O and +2, 0, –1/2 and –1 respectivelyHence the answer is (B).

52. The IUPAC name for is

(A) 1, 1-dimethyl-1, 3-butanediol (B) 2-methyl-2, 4-pentanediol(C) 4-methyl-2, 4-pentanediol (D) 1, 3, 3-trimethyi-1, 3-propanediol

Solution :Hence the answer is (B).

53. IUPAC name of compound is

(A) 4-methyl-3-hexanol (B) heptanol(C) 4-methyl-2-hexanol (D) none of these

Solution :Hence the answer is (C).



54. In the isoelectronic species the ionic radii (Å) of 3N , 2O and F are respectively given by(A) 1.36, 1.40, 1.71 (B) 1.36, 1.71, 1.40 (C) 1.71, 1.40, 1.36 (D) 1.71, 1.36, 1.40


55. The first four ionization energy values of an element are 191, 578, 872 and 5962 kcal. The number ofvalence electrons in the element is(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

Solution :Since the IV, I.E. is very high. Thus electron is to be removed from stable configuration.Hence the answer is (C).

56. The pair of amphoteric hydroxides is(A) LiOHOHAl ,)( 3 (B) 22 )(,)( OHMgOHBe (C) 23 )(,)( OHBeOHB (D) 22 )(,)( OHZnOHBe

Solution :Both Be(OH)2 and Zn(OH)2 are amphoteric in nature.Hence the answer is (D).

57. Initial temperature of an ideal gas is 75oC. At what temperature, the sample of neon gas would be heatedto double its pressure, if the initial volume of gas is reduced by 15% ?(A) 319oC (B) 592oC (C) 128oC (D) 60oC

Solution :

Hence the answer is (A).58. If 500 mL of gas A at 400 torr and 666.6 mL of B at 600 torr are placed in a 3 litre flask, the pressure of

the system will be(A) 200 torr (B) 100 torr (C) 550 torr (D) 366 torr

Solution :

Hence the answer is (A).59. Volume of an ideal gas is to be decreased by 10% by increase of pressure by x% under isothermal

condition. Thus, x is

(A) 100

9(B)

9100

(C) 10 (D) 1

10



Solution :

Hence the answer is (A).60. An ideal gas is at 300 K and 1 atm. Then volume remains constant if

(A) temperature is doubled and pressure is halved(B) temperature is halved and pressure is halved(C) only temperature is doubled(D) None of these

Solution :

Hence the answer is (B).61. Which of the following is least ionic ?

(A) AgCl (B) KCl (C) BaCl2 (D) CaCl2

Solution :

Hence the answer is (A).62. Covalent compounds are soluble in

(A) Polar solvents (B) Non-polar solvents (C) Concentrated acids (D) All solvents

Solution :

Hence the answer is (B).63. The number and type of bonds between carbon atoms in calcium carbide are

(A) Two sigma, one pi (B) Two sigma, two pi(C) One sigma, one pi (D) One sigma, two pi



Solution :

Hence the answer is (D).64. Correct sequence of increasing covalent character is represented by

(A) LiCl, NaCl, BeCl2 (B) BeCl2, NaCl, LiCl(C) NaCl, LiCl, BeCl2 (D) BeCl2, LiCl, NaCl

Solution :

Hence the answer is (C).65. Which of the following is non-existent according to molecular orbital theory ?

(A) 2H (B) 2O (C) He2 (D) 2O

Solution :


66. The molecular formula of diphenyl methane,

How many structural isomers are possible when one of the hydrogen is replaced by chlorine atom(A) 4 (B) 8 (C) 7 (D) 6

Solution :

Hence the answer is (A).67. The structures given below are :

(A) Enantiomers (B) Diastereomers (C) Geometrical isomers (D) Homomers



Solution :

Hence the answer is (A).68. Which of the following orders of acidic strength is correct ?

(A) RCOOH > CH = CH > HOH > ROH (B) RCOOH > ROH > HOH > CH = CH(C) RCOOH > HOH > ROH > CH = CH (D) RCOOH > HOH > CH = CH > ROH


69. Maximum enol content is in :

(A) (B) (C) (D)


70. Which is the correct matched forthe following reactions

(A) Free Radical reaction

(B) Electrophilic add ition

(C) Electrophilic substitution

(D) Nucreophitic substitution

Solution :Hence the answer is (D).

71. Which one of the following anions is NOT stabilised by delocalisation

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Solution :

Hence the answer is (A).72. An ideal gas expands in volume from 1 × 10–3 m3 to 1 × 10–2 m2 at 300 K against a constant pressure of

1 × 105 Nm–2. The work done is(A) – 900 J (B) – 900 kJ (C) 270 kJ (D) + 900 kJ

Solution :

Hence the answer is (A).



73. fUo of formation of CH4(g)at a certain temperature is – 393 kJ mol–1. The value of fHo is(A) zero (B) < fUo (C) > fUo (D) = fUo

Solution :

Hence the answer is (C).74. Given, O3(g) O2(g) + O(g)

rHo = 106.5 kJ mol–1, fHo (O3)= 142.7 kJ mol–1

Thus, (BE) of (O=O) bond in O2 is(A) 249.2 kJ mol–1 (B) 498.4 kJ mol–1 (C) 747.6 kJ mol–1 (D) –249.2 kJmol–1

Solution :

Hence the answer is (B).75. Given that, Ka(HCN) = 4.9 × 10–10, Ka(HNO2) = 4.5 × 10–4

Thus, which of the following reaction is favoured in forward direction ?(A) HNO2(aq ) + CN– (aq ) 2NO (aq) + HCN(aq )

(B) 2NO (aq )+ HCN(aq) HNO2(aq ) + CN–(aq )(C) Both are favoured in forward direction(D) None is favoured in for-ward direction

Solution :

Hence the answer is (A).76. Given,

H3PO4 + H2O 2 4H PO + H3O+, 1apK = x 2 4H PO + H2O 2

4HPO + H3O+,2apK = y

24HPO + H2O 3

4PO + H3O+, 3apK = z

Thus, pH of 0.1 M K2HPO4 solution is



(A) 2.0 (B) x y

2

(C) y z2

(D) x y z2

Solution :

Hence the answer is (C).77. Four species are listed below

I. 3HCO II. H3O+ III. 4HSO IV. HSO3F

Which one of the following is the correct sequence of their acidic strength ?(A) IV < II < III < I (B) II < III < I < IV(C) I < III < II < IV (D) III < I < IV < II

Solution :

Hence the answer is (C).78. The pKa of a weak acid HA is 4.80 The pKb of a weak base BOH is 4.78. The pH of an aqueous solution

of the corresponding salt BA will be(A) 9.58 (B) 4.79 (C) 7.01 (D) 9.22

Solution :

Hence the answer is (C).79. Which one of the following is most reactive for hydrogenation reaction ?

(A) (B) CH3 – CH = CH2 (C) CH3 – CH = CH – CH3 (D)



Solution :

Hence the answer is (A).80. What is the Product (A) of following reaction

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Solution :

Hence the answer is (A).81. In the give reaction (A) is :

(A) (B)

(C) Both (a) and (b) (D) None of these


82. In the structure of NaCl given below, ratio Na Clr / r is

(A) 0.414 (B) 0.681 (C) 0.745 (D) 0.520



Solution :

Hence the answer is (A).83. How much ethyl alcohol (C2H5OH) must be added to 1 L of water so that solution will not freeze at – 4oF ?

(Kf of H2O = 1.86o mol–1 kg)(A) 122 g (B) 512 g (C) 370 g (D) 495 g

Solution :

Hence the answer is (D).84. There is formation of Prussian blue when Fe3+ reacts with [Fe(CN)6]4–. Two solutions as shown are

separated by a semipermeable membrane AB. Due to osmosis, there is

(A) blue colour formation in side X(B) blue colour formation in side Y(C) blue colour formation in both the sides X and Y(D) no blue colour forrnation

Solution :




85.

The reagent [X] may be(A) aq.NaOH (B) alc. KOH (C) (C2H5)3N (D) Both (B) and (C)

Solution :

Hence the answer is (D).86. What is the major product of the following reaction ?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Solution :Hence the answer is (D).

87. Product (A) is

(A) (B) (C) (D)


88. Compare rate of reaction with OH– :

(A) i > ii > iii (B) i > iii > ii (C) iii > ii > i (D) ii > i > iii

Solution :Hence the answer is (A).

89. Which quantity is temperature independent ?(A) Resistivity (B) Conductivity (C) Cell constant (D) Cell EMF

Solution :




90. Given, (Scm2 mol–1) for different electrolytes

Thus, of CH3COOH is(A) 516.5 (B) 420.3 (C) 172.9 (D) 390.7

Solution :


solutions · aits-cpt # 02 (solutions) (medical dropper) (set-a) - 2018-19 potential & concept...

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