1. The communications management plan usually provides all of the following except:

*A) Information to be communicated, including language, format, content, and level of detail*B) Time frame and frequency for the distribution of required information*C) Methods or technologies used to convey the information, such as memos, e-mail, and/or press releases*D) Memos, correspondence, reports, and documents related to the project from all stakeholders

2. Manual filing systems, electronic databases, electronic communication tools, and web interfaces to scheduling and project management software are examples of

*A) Integrated project management information systems (IPMIS)*B) Internal communication systems*C) Information distribution tools*D) Project records

3. Factors related to communication technology that can affect the project generally include all of the following except

* A) Duration of the project* B) Availability of technology* C) Executive requirements* D) Urgency of the need for information

4. As part of the communications process, the sender is responsible for

* A) Ensuring the receiver agrees with the message* B) Confirming that the information is properly understood* C) Presenting the information in the most favorable manner* D) Decoding the medium correctly

5. As part of the communications process, the receiver is responsible for:

* A) Agreeing with the sender`s message* B) Pretending that the message is received only partially, to encourage further discussions* C) Making sure that the information is received in its entirely, understood correctly, and acknowledged* D) Specifying that a verbal message does not give insight to problem areas, and requiring that the message be reduced to writing to avoid potential confusion

6. Information typically used to determine project communication requirements includes all of the following except

* A) Project organization and stakeholder responsibility relationships* B) Disciplines, departments, and specialties involved in the project* C) Logistics of how many persons will be involved with the project and at which locations* D) Availability of in place technology at the project location

7. Communication activity has many potential dimensions that generally include all of the following except

* A) Written, oral, and non-verbal* B) Internal and external* C) Conceptual and definitive* D) Formal and informal

8. Lessons learned documentation generally includes all of the following except:

* A) The causes of issues* B) Updates of the statement of work to reflect training and learning requirements* C) Reasoning behind the corrective action chosen* D) Other types of lessons learned about information distribution

9. Project managers spend the majority of their time communicating with team members and other project stakeholders. To communicate effectively, the project manager should generally do all of the following except

* A) Calculate the potential number of communication channels accurately and update it regularly to develop a bridge between diverse stakeholders and a common perspective on the project among them, regardless of their cultural and organizational backgrounds* B) Develop an awareness of the communication styles of other parties involved in the project* C) Develop an awareness of cultural issues, relationships, and personalities of project stakeholders* D) Understand what information to provide, what information to receive, and which interpersonal skills will help communicate effectively with various project stakeholders

10. You are the project manager of a home construction project. You are interviewing the homeowners to determine their wants and needs for the home construction. You are discussing, room by room, what they would like in their home. This long process is called what?

* A) Risk analysis* B) Quality determination* C) Scope creation* D) Identify Stakeholders

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1. Which one of the following is an assumption?

* A) The project must be completed by November* B) The project must cost less than $250 million.* C) The project must be completed in the summer because the weather is better.* D) The project must be completed by the end of the year because of a new regulation.

2. You have created the project schedule and management has asked to review the schedule. They have concerns that your labor estimates may be too aggressive. If management recommends resource leveling what will likely happen to your project schedule?

* A) Nothing, only more labor will be added* B) Nothing, only more costs will be added* C) The schedule will take longer to complete* D) The project duration will increase

3. Which calendar will tell you, the project manager, if Juana, the network engineer, is available on July 4?

* A) Resource calendar* B) Project calendar* C) Project schedule* D) HR calendar

4. Assume that your actual costs are $1,000; your planned value is $1,200; and your earned value is $1,500. Based on these data, what can be determined regarding your schedule variance?

* A) At -$300, the physical progress is being accomplished at a slower rate than is planned, indicating an unfavorable situation.* B) At + $300, the situation is favorable, as physical progress is being accomplished ahead of your plan.* C) At + $500, the situation is favorable, as physical progress is being accomplished at a lower cost than was forecasted.* D) At -$300, you have a behind-schedule condition, and your critical path has slipped.

5. The CPI on your project is 0.44, which means that you should.

* A) Place emphasis on improving the timeliness of the physical progress*B) Reassess the life-cycle costs of your product, including the length of the life-cycle phase* C) Place emphasis on improving the productivity by which work was being performed* D) Recognize that your original estimates were fundamentally flawed, and your project is in an atypical situation

6. Your project is considered very risky. You plan to perform numerous what if scenarios on your schedule using simulation software that will define each schedule activity and calculate a range of possible durations for each activity. The simulation then will use the collected data from each activity to calculate a distribution curve (or range) for the possible outcomes of the total project. Your planned approach is an example of which following technique?

* A) Three Point Estimation* B) Monte Carlo analysis* C) Linear programming* D) Concurrent engineering

7. A number of items may be part of the schedule data for the project. The amount of additional detail will vary, but the data should include all the following items except.

* A) Schedule activities* B) Activity attributes* C) Identified assumptions* D) Resource breakdown structure

8. Which tool or technique is not used for schedule control?

* A) Variance analysis* B) Project management software* C) Work performance information* D) Schedule change control system

9. Decomposition is a technique used to break larger, complex items into smaller and more manageable items. Which following statement best describes the role decomposition plays in creating the WBS?

* A) Final output of creating the WBS is described in terms of phases of a project life cycle.* B) Final output of creating the WBS is described in terms of schedule activities.* C) Final output of creating the WBS is described in terms of deliverables or tangible items.* D) Final output of creating the WBS is described in terms of the scope of the project.

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1. A cost management plan should establish and document the various earned value rules of performance measurement. Along with defining the WBS to the level that the earned value analysis will be performed and establishing how earned value will be credited to the project (0-100,0-50-100, and so on), which following rule is also recognized in regards to performance measurement?

* A) Determine the formula for calculating the estimate to complete (ETC) for the project* B) Determine the code of accounts allocation provision for the WBS* C) Determine the formula for calculating the estimate at completion (EAC) for the project* D) Determine the variance thresholds to be used in the project

2. The estimate costs process uses all the following tools and techniques except.

* A) Three-point estimate formulas* B) Cost of quality assumptions* C) Reserve analysis (contingency reserves)* D) Basis of estimates

3. Which of the following statements is true regarding schedule variances?

* A) Schedule variances impact scope, which impacts the schedule.* B) Schedule variances sometimes impact the schedule.* C) Schedule variances always impact the schedule.* D) Schedule variances never impact the schedule.

4. You are a project manager for Bachas PM Productions. Your new project is coming in over budget and requires a cost change through the cost change control system. You know all of the following statements are true regarding Control Costs except for which one?

* A) A description of how cost changes should be managed and controlled is found in the cost management plan.* B) Cost changes are reflected in the cost baseline.* C) EVM is used to determine the cost performance that must be realized for the remaining work of the project to meet the goal.* D) This equation, EAC = BAC/cumulative CPI, is used to forecast an estimate at completion assuming future project performance will be the same as past performance.

5. Which of the following might require rebaselining of the cost baseline?

* A) Corrective action* B) Revised cost estimates* C) Updates to the cost management plan* D) Budget updates

6. This measurement is the value of the work that has been completed to date compared to the budget.

* A) PV

* B) AC* C) EV* D) EAC

7. You are a contract project manager for a wholesale flower distribution company. Your project is to develop a website for the company that allows retailers to place their flower orders online. You will also provide a separate link for individual purchases that are ordered, packaged, and mailed to the consumer directly from the grower?s site. This project involves coordinating the parent company, growers, and distributors. You are preparing a performance review and have the following measurements at hand: PV = 300, AC = 200, and EV = 250. What do you know about this project?

*A) The EAC is a positive number, which means the project will finish under budget.*B) You do not have enough information to calculate CPI.*C) The CV is a negative number in this case, which means you have spent less than you planned to spend as of the measurement date.*D) The CV is a positive number in this case, which means you are under budget as of the measurement date.

8. A negative result from an SV calculation means which of the following?

* A) PV is higher than EV.* B) PV equals 1.* C) EV is higher than PV.* D) EV is higher than AC.

9. You are a contract project manager for a wholesale flower distribution company. Your project is to develop a website for the company that allows retailers to place their flower orders online. You will also provide a separate link for individual purchases that are ordered, packaged, and mailed to the consumer directly from the growers site. This project involves coordinating the parent company, growers, and distributors. You are preparing a performance review and have the following measurements at hand: PV = 300, AC = 200, and EV = 250. What is the CPI of this project?

* A) 0.80* B) 1.25* C) 1.5* D) 0.83

10. You accept project costs to date and assume future work (ETC) will be performed at the budgeted rate. If BAC = 800, ETC = 275, PV = 300, AC = 200, EV = 250, and cumulative CPI = 1.25, what is the EAC?

* A) 640* B) 750* C) 600* D) 550

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A continuación le presentamos algunos temas que debe conocer antes de presentar su examen, aunque no estan todos, si es importante que estos los conozca y en unos casos pueda aplicar:

Definicion y aplicación de: CPI, SPI, CV, SV, EV, PV, EAC, ETC, VAC, BAC, TCPI Porcentajes del 1, 2, 3 y 6 Sigma Formulas de Valor Presente y Futuro Tabla de rangos para la estimación de costos (al iniciar y al planear un proyecto) Cómo calcular el Recorrido hacia adelante (Forward Pass) y Recorrido hacia atras

(Backward Pass) Cómo calcular la Holgura (Slack) Características de las estructuras organizacionales Estrategias de respuesta al Riesgo Clase de poder de un Gerente de Proyecto Técnicas de resolución de Conflictos Escala de jararquias de Maslow Aplicación del Punto de Equilibrio del Proyecto desde el punto de vista del contratista

(PTA - Point of Total Assumption) Correspondencia entre Grupos de Procesos y áres de conocimiento (42 Procesos, 5

grupos de procesos, 9 áreas de conocimiento) Diferencias entre un proceso estándar y una regulación Característica del "Project Expeditor"

1. Requirements typically are classified into product requirements and project requirements. Capturing and managing both types of requirements is important for project success, so you and your team decided to follow this classification system on your project to modernize all the telecommunications equipment in your company. During such an approach, all the following are examples of product requirements except.

* A) Delivery requirements* B) Technical requirements* C) Security requirements* D) Performance requirements

2. While working as the project manager on a new project to improve overall ease of use in the development of a railroad switching station, you have decided to add a subject matter expert who specializes in ergonomics to your team. She has decided to observe the existing approach as you and your team work to define requirements for the new system. This method is also called.

* A) Mentoring* B) Coaching* C) Job shadowing* D) User experimentation

3. Verify scope works hand-in-hand with quality control and generally follows quality control. The tool most commonly used with verifying scope is.

*A) Requirements traceability matrix* B) Inspection* C) Project document updates* D) Variance analysis

4. Managing change to the scope baseline is the main objective of the process of control scope. The scope baseline consists of the following components except.

* A) Project scope statement* B) WBS* C) WBS dictionary* D) Scope management plan

5. You are working on a project that was proceeding well until a manufacturing problem occurred that requires corrective action. It turns out the problem was an unintentional enhancement to the product, and the marketing people are absolutely crazy about its potential. The corrective action is canceled, and you continue to produce the product with the newly discovered enhancement. As the project manager, you know that a change has occurred to the product scope because the problem changed the characteristics of the product. Which of the following statements is true?

* A) Changes to product scope should be reflected in the project scope.* B) Changes to product scope should be documented in the scope management plan.* C) Changes to product scope will result in cost changes.* D) Changes to product scope are a result of corrective action

6. You are working on a project that was proceeding well until a manufacturing problem occurred that requires corrective action. It turns out the problem was an unintentional enhancement to the product, and the marketing people are absolutely crazy about its potential. The corrective action is canceled, and you continue to produce the product with the newly discovered enhancement. As the project manager, you know that a variance has occurred. Which of the following is true?

* A) Common causes of variance, also known as special-cause variances, are situations that are unique and not easily controlled at the operational level.* B) Random variances, known or predictable variances, and variances that are always present in the process are known as common causes of variance.* C) Attribute inspection determines whether measurements fall within tolerable results.* D) Scatter diagrams display the relationships between an independent and a dependent variable

to show variations in the process over time.

7. Your project has experienced some changes to the agreed-upon WBS elements. The changes were approved through the proper change control process. The WBS changes might in turn require which of the following?

* A) Scope changes* B) Cost changes* C) Schedule revisions* D) Risk response changes

8. You are a project manager for Dumb Software Consulting Services. You are working with a major retailer that offers its products through mail-order catalogs. It is interested in knowing customer characteristics, the amounts of first-time orders, and similar information. The stakeholders have accepted the project scope. Work has begun on the project, and you are confirming some of the initial work results with the stakeholders. You have asked for acceptance of the work results. Which process are you in?

* A) Monitor and Control Risks* B) Perform Quality Control* C) Verify Scope* D) Control Scope

9. You are the project manager for a top-secret software project for a secret agency of the Colombian government. Your mission should you choose to accept it - is to complete the project using internal resources. The reason is that getting top-secret clearances for contractors takes quite a bit of time and waiting for clearances would jeopardize the implementation date. Your programmers are 80 percent of the way through the programming and testing work when your agency appoints a new executive director. Your programmers are draw off this project to work on the executive directors hot new project. Which of the following addresses the purpose of Verify Scope in this case?

* A) Verify Scope determines the correctness and completion of all the work.* B) Verify Scope documents the level and degree of completion.* C) Verify Scope determines whether the project results comply with quality standards.* D) Verify Scope documents the correctness of the work according to stakeholders expectations.

10. Which plan documents the project scope change control system?

* A) Project Management Plan* B) Change Management Plan* C) Change Control System* D) Risk Response Plan

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1. You are managing a project that has five subcontractors. You must monitor contract performance, make payments, and manage provider interface. One subcontractor submitted a change request to expand the scope of its work. You decided to award a contract modification based on a review of this request. All these activities are part of.

* A) Administer procurements* B) Conduct procurements* C) Form contract* D) Resolve disputes

2. Generally, a bid differs from a proposal in that the term:

* A) Proposal is used when source selection will be based on price* B) Proposal is used when the project time frame is limited* C) Bid is used when the seller selection decision will be based on price* D) Bid is used when technical capability and technical approach considerations are paramount

3. The buyer structures procurement documents to accomplish all of the following except

* A) Facilitate an accurate and complete response from each prospective seller* B) Include the relevant procurement statement of work (SOW) and any required contractual provisions* C) Include the relevant procurement statement of work (SOW) and any required contractual provisions* D) Provide a list of potential bidders to each prospective seller

4. Payment systems generally include all of the following characteristics except

*A) Payments are typically processed after certification of satisfactory work by an authorized person on the project team*B) All payments should be made and documented in strict accordance with the terms of the contract*C) Renegotiations of price and other terms of the contract are typically conducted prior to authorizing payments to the seller*D) payments to the seller are typically processed by the accounts payable system of the buyer

5. Which of the following is one of the terms used to describe contested changes and potential constructive changes where the buyer and seller cannot reach an agreement on compensation for the change, or cannot agree that a change has occurred?

* A) Forcing* B) Mediation* C) Complaints* D) Claims

6. Constructive changes are

* A) Postponed as long as possible to protect the budget* B) Viewed as negative, quantified, and tabulated* C) Uniquely identified and documented by project correspondence* D) Submitted for bids the relevant vendor list

7. Outputs from the close procurements process generally include all of the following except

* A) Close procurements* B) Formal written notice that the deliverables have been accepted or rejected* C) The request for proposal (RFP) or Request for Quotation (RFQ), and the contractor´s working proposal* D) Lesson learned documentation

8. Cost plus fixed fee contracts (CPFF) have all of the following characteristics except

* A) seller is reimbursed for all allowable cost for performing the contract work* B) Seller receives a fixed fee payment calculated as a percentage of the actual project costs* C) Seller receives a fixed fee payment calculated as a percentage of the initial estimated project costs* D) The fixed fee does not change due to seller performance unless the project scope changes

9. Ana Milena is the project manager of the BETA Project for her organization. She would like to request seven vendors for a price to supply 1,000 pieces of furniture for her project. What type of a document would Ana Milena issue to the vendors in this scenario?

* A) Request for proposal* B) Request for quotation* C) Request for information* D) Invitation for bidders' conference

10. What is the point of the lessons learned documentation?

* A) These documents keep the project manager focused on the project work.* B) Maintains communication with Senior Management.

* C) Ensures that all of the project work is complete.* D) Allows other project managers to learn from this project.

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1. You recently took over a relatively new project expected to last another seven years. The previous project manager completed most of the WBS. When you begin to define the project activities, you realize that the WBS work packages expected to occur in the next year are planned in detail, but the work packages for later in the future (three years or more) are not planned with much detail, if any detail at all. You determine

* A) It is a major problem. The WBS is incomplete and you need to redefine the project scope to complete the project schedule.* B) It is a problem that must be resolved quickly. The previous project manager was not done with the WBS, and you must stop the project to complete the WBS in sufficient detail.* C) It is not a problem at this time. The previous project manager was using the rolling wave planning technique, so you are able to continue defining the activities.* D) It is not a problem at this time. You can only plan what you know. You plan to communicate to the project sponsor that the WBS is not sufficient to plan the whole project and that the sponsor can worry about the details.

2. In the initial stage of the project life cycle, the projects technical objectives are apt to be understood only in a general sense. A major component of project conflict during this stage of the project is.

* A) Concerns over priorities and procedures.* B) Concerns about technical issues* C) Schedules* D) Confusion of establishing a project in the matrix management environment

3. Risk registers, planned risk responses, and defined risk impacts are examples of which of the following in the develop project management plan process:

* A) Enterprise environmental factors* B) Organizational process assets* C) Part of the projects risk management plan, which as a subsidiary plan will be part of the project management plan

* D) Project documents that are included as configuration items and are part of the configuration management plan

4. Although the project charter serves to state the project managers authority and responsibility on the project, the project manager further requires which type of power in order to be an effective leader?

* A) Expert* B) Legitimate* C) Position* D) Referent

5. The performance measurement baseline consists of all the following except.

* A) Scope baseline* B) Quality baseline* C) Schedule baseline* D) Cost baseline

6. If you apply the configuration management system along with change control processes project wide, you will achieve all but which following objective?

* A) Establish an evolutionary method to continuously identify and request changes to established baselines and to assess the value and effectiveness of those changes.* B) Provide an opportunity to continuously validate and improve the project by considering the impact of each change.* C) Document the specific responsibilities of each stakeholder in the perform integrated change control process.* D) Provide the mechanism for the project team to consistently communicate all changes to the stakeholders.

7. Constraints common to projects include.

* A) Scope, quality, schedule, budget, and risk* B) Scope, teaming, planning, and resources* C) Scope* D) Practice, practice, and practice

8. You are developing a project charter and want to ensure that any changes that may occur after the project begins will be controlled rigorously. You have consulted your company configuration management knowledge base, and it contains versions and baselines of all the following official company documents except.

* A) Standards* B) Strategic plans* C) Policies* D) Procedures

9. Your project management office implemented a project management methodology that emphasizes the importance of integrated change control. It states that change requests can occur in all the following forms except.

* A) Indirect* B) Legally mandated* C) Informal* D) Internally initiated

10. Configuration management describes procedures for applying technical and administrative direction and surveillance. Which one of the following tasks is not performed in configuration management?

* A) Identifying functional and physical characteristics of an item or system* B) Controlling changes to characteristics* C) Performing an audit to verify conformance to requirements* D) Allowing automatic approval of changes

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1. If you decide to follow an open subordination approach to resolving conflict, you are using which style of conflict resolution?

* A) Avoiding* B) Accommodating* C) Compromising* D) Collaborating

2. All of the following are examples of ways to generate options for mutual gain during negotiations except.

* A) Separating inventing from deciding* B) Options broadening* C) Zero-sum game analysis* D) Multiplying options by shuttling between the specific and the general

3. Effective leadership is one key to successful project management. There are several theories of leadership. One model is Hershey and Blanchard?s situational leadership model that describes directive behavior and supportive behavior. Of the following, which one is not a key word for supportive behavior?

* A) Listen* B) Structure* C) Praise* D) Facilitate

4. Successful project management involves both project leadership as well as project management skills. Several different leadership styles are appropriate in different phases of the project life cycle. Assume that you are working on a project, and it is in the execution phase. The leadership style that is most appropriate should consist of a blend of all but which one of the following?

* A) Change master* B) Decision maker* C) Team and synergy* D) Trustworthiness

5. Assume that you are managing a project team. Your team is one in which its members confront issues rather than people, establish procedures collectively, and is team oriented. As the project manager, which of the following represents your team?s stage of development and the approach you should use during this time?

* A) Storming; high directive and supportive approach* B) Norming; high directive and low supportive approach* C) Norming; high supportive and low directive approach* D) Performing; low directive and supportive approach

6. Assume that you were the first person in your company to be PMP® certified and also that you earned a doctorate in project management. People throughout the organization admired your achievements. Based on your success in managing projects, your company now has adopted a management-by-projects philosophy. You have been appointed head of your companys project management office to lead the organization as it transitions to this new way of working. 50 far, people seem to willingly comply with your demands and requests. In this situation, you are using which type of power?

* A) Legitimate* B) Expert* C) Contacts* D) Referent

7. The nature of project work is such that it inevitably causes stress. Project managers thus need to learn how to cope with and manage stress and understand what stress is and why it is created. Project managers need to note that it can be a positive experience depending on how people perceive stress and should work to mentor team members accordingly. As you strive to become more aware of stress, which one of the following is not considered a stress-creating factor that is related to the project environment?

* A) Role ambiguity* B) Corporate politics* C) Career development* D) Selection of team members

8. Functional managers play a vital role in ensuring project success. Since most projects operate in a matrix environment, there is shared authority between project managers and functional managers. Functional managers tend to focus on.

* A) Who will do the task* B) Why the project manager needs resources* C) How much time and money is available for the task* D) Why will the task be done

9. During the stages of team development, your team is in which stage when there is problem solving and interdependence along with achievement and synergy?

* A) Storming* B) Forming* C) Norming* D) Performing

10. Behavior roles of tea m members influence the teams process, behavior, and effectiveness. An example of a task-oriented role to perform is that of a(n):

* A) Harmonizer* B) Initiator* C) Devils advocate* D) Group observer

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1. The workaround that you used to deal with a risk that occurred should be documented and included in which following processes?

*A. Report performance and monitor and control risks*B. Verify scope and perform quality assurance*C. Direct and manage project execution and perform integrated change control*D. Direct and manage project execution and monitor and control risks

2. The project scope baseline should be used in the identify risks process because it.

*A. Identifies project assumptions*B. Identifies all work that must be done; therefore, it includes all risks on the project*C. Helps organize all work that must be done on the project*D. Contains information on risks from prior projects

3. A watch list of low priority risks is documented in the:

*A. Work performance information*B. Risk register*C. Fallback plans*D. Risk response plan

4. Your project progressed as planned up until yesterday. Suddenly, an unexpected risk

event occurred. You quickly devised a response to deal with this negative risk event using which of the following outputs of Monitor and Control Risks?

*A. Risk management plan updates*B. Workarounds*C. Corrective action *D. Additional risk identification

5. ¿There's a risk that a new law will cause your project to fail. What risk response can you do about this possible law?

*A. Workaround*B. Transference*C. Exploit*D. Acceptance

6. Risk transference nearly always involves:

*A. Eliminating risk through beta testing*B. Policies and procedures for a response system*C. Accepting a lower profit if some activities overrun their budget*D. Payment of a risk premium to the party taking on the risk

7. Risk impact assessment to investigate the potential effect on a project objective such as schedule, cost, quality, or performance has the following characteristics except

*A. Evaluation of each risk can be conducted using a probability and impact matrix that leads to rating the risks as low, moderate, or high priority*B. Approaches used in evaluating risk impacts related to project objectives could be relative, numeric, linear, or nonlinear*C. Usually, risk ranking rules are specified by the organization in advance of the project and can be tailored to the specific project*D. The impact on the project objectives should be assessed primarily at the end of the project, as part of the lessons learned

8. The Delphi Technique has all of the following characteristics except:

*A. It is a way to reach a consensus of experts on a subject such as project risk*B. It is a technique in which project risk experts participate anonymously*C. It helps reduce bias in the data and keeps any one person from having undue influence on the outcome*D. It is based on an ancient Greek technique to ensure that actions of subordinates are aligned with the vision of senior executives

9. Sensibility analysis:

*A. Examines the extent to which the uncertainty of project objectives affects each project element simultaneously*B. Examines the extent to which the uncertainty of each project element affects the objective being examined when all other uncertain elements are held at their baseline

values*C. Is a method for assessing stakeholders` tolerance to risk*D. Cannot be used to determine which risks have the most potential impact on the project

10. All of the following are characteristics of a decision tree except:

*A. A decision tree is a diagram that describes a decision under consideration and the implications of choosing one or another of available alternatives*B. Decision tree analysis is a risk analysis tool that can be used to choose the most appropriate responses*C. A decision tree is primarily a graphical, qualitative risk analysis technique and is not generally used in quantitative risk analysis*D. Decision tree analysis uses expected monetary value (EMV) analysis to help the organization identify the relative values of alternative actions

11. The risk management plan generally includes all of the following except:

*A. Methodology*B. Definitions of risk probability and impact*C. Responses to individual risks*D. Probability and impact matrix

12. The Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process assess the priority of identified risks using all of the following except:

*A. Relative probability or like hood of occurrence of identified risks*B. Impact on project objectives if the identified risks occur*C. A mathematical technique, such as expected monetary value (EMV), to create the impression of precision and accuracy*D. The organization`s risk tolerance associated with the project constraints of cost, schedule, scope and quality

1. You are working on a project and want to know how many activities in the previous month were completed with significant variances. You should use a:

A. Control chart B. Inspection C. Scatter diagram D. Run chart

2. To anticipate and help develop approaches to deal with potential quality problems on your project, you want to use a variety of root-cause analysis techniques including all the following approaches except:

A. Fishbone diagrams B. Ishikawa diagrams C. System or process flowcharts D. Checklists

3. You are working on a project and want to identify the cause of problems in a process by the shape and width of the distribution of the process variables. You should use a:

A. Histogram B. Pareto chart C. Scatter diagram D. Trend analysis

4. Control charts have all of the following characteristics except:

A. They are used to determine whether or not a process is stable or has predictable performance

B. They are used to monitor various types of output variables C. They are used to illustrate how various factors might be linked to potential

problems or effects

D. They are used to illustrate how a process behaves over time and when a process is subject to special cause variation, resulting in an out of control condition

5. To identify inefficient and ineffective policies, processes, and procedures in use on a project, you should conduct:

A. An inspection B. A process analysis C. Benchmarking D. A quality audit

6. You are the project manager on a project to improve traffic flow in the company´s parking garage. You decide to use flowcharting to:

A. Help anticipate how problems occur B. Show dependencies between tasks C. Show the results of a process D. Forecast future outcomes

7. Statistical sampling is a method in perform quality control to determine the conformance to requirements for some component or product of a project. Its greatest advantage is that it:

A. Does not require a large expenditure of resources B. Is accurate enough with a sampling of less than 1 % C. Does not require 100% inspection of the components to achieve a satisfactory

inference of the population D. Needs to be conducted only when a problem is discovered with the end product

or when the customer has some rejects

8. Your project sponsor wants to know whether process variables are within acceptable limits. To answer this question, you should:

A. Conduct a process analysis B. Conduct a root cause analysis C. Use a control chart D. Use a run chart

9. You are managing a major international project that involves multiple performing organizations. To establish the guiding rules for the project in regards to quality, you and your project team must develop a:

A. Improvement management plan B. Configuration management plan C. Quality policy D. List of quality metrics for the project

10. The basic approach to quality management in projects is to be compatible with which of the following:

A. Only the nonproprietary methods, such as Six-Sigma, failure mode and effect analysis (FMEA), and total quality management

B. Only the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) C. Proprietary methods, such as those recommended by Deming, Juran, and Crosby D. The ISO, proprietary, and nonproprietary methods

11. One of the fundamental tenets of modern quality management states that

A. Quality is planned and inspected in B. Quality does not cost C. Quality is planned, designed, and built in not inspected in D. Quality requires constant inspection

12. Design of experiments (DOE) is a statistical method used to:

A. Determine how various elements of a project interrelate B. Identify which factors may influence specific variables of a product or process

under development or in production C. Establish a standard by which to measure project performance D. Compare actual or planned project practices to those of others projects