environmental engineering ii objective questions

Environmental Engineering-II Objective Question Bank

TE (CIVIL) Div- A and B

Environmental Engineering- II

Unit Wise Objective Question Bank

Unit-I

Collection and Conveyance of sewage

1. In absence of exact data the wastewater flow is considered as _____% of water supply.

a) 70 b) 80 c) 90 d) 95

2. For a town with 20,000 to 50,000 population the population density per hectare is _____________

a) 150 – 200 b) 200 – 250 c) 250 – 300 d) 300 – 400

3. Design period of a sewer network is considered as __________ years. a) 15 b) 20 c) 25 d) 30

4. For average sewage production of 135 Lit/c/day the population should be __________ Lacs.

a) < 2 b) 2 – 5 c) 5 – 7 d) 7 – 10

5. Minimum rate of groundwater infiltration for sewers laid below ground water table is considered as __________ Lit/km/d.

a) 200 b) 300 c) 500 d) 1000

6. Maximum monthly peak flow is ____________ times annual average flow. a) 1.2 b) 1.4 c) 1.5 d) 1.8

7. Peak factor for contributory population 20,000 to 50,000 is ___________ a) 1.5 b) 2.25 c) 2.5 d) 3

8. In Kuichling’s formula of rainfall intensity the unit of ‘t’ is __________

a) Sec b) Min c) Hr d) Day

9. Self cleansing velocity to carry wastewater with fine sand and clay is ___________ m/s.

a) 0.075 b) 0.10 c) 0.15 d) 0.20



10. Non scouring velocity (m/s) for stoneware sewer material is ________

a) 0.6 – 1.2 b) 1.2 – 2.5 c) 2.5 – 3 d) 3 – 4.5

11. In a circular sewer for d/D = 0.5 the r/R is _________

a) 0.857 b) 1.0 c) 1.110 d) ≥ 1.110

12. Dry Weather Flow (DWF) is the flow in sewers available in ________ periods. a) Rainy b) Non-rainfall c) Both a and b d) None of these

13. Pumping machinery is designed for period ___________ years. a) 1 0 b) 15 c) 2 0 d) 30

14. For a town having population above 1,00,000 the density of population considered is _______ people/hectare.

a) 250 – 300 b) 300 – 350 c) 350 – 1000 d) 1000 – 2000

15. For population more than 10 lacs the rate of water supply is _________ lit/capita/day.

a) 50 – 100 b) 100 – 150 c) 150 – 200 d) 200 – 250

16. For population between 5 to 10 lacs the sewage production is ________ lit/capita/day.

a) 110 – 120 b) 130 – 140 c) 150 – 170 d) 180 – 200

17. The value of Manning’s N for smooth plastic is____________ a) 0.011 b) 0.010 c) 0.013 d) 0.012

18. The value of Hazen and William’s coefficient C for A.C. pipes is ___________

a) 110 b) 120 c) 130 d) 140

19. Max. permissible velocity for unlined storm water drain for rock and gravel is ____________ m/sec.

a) 1.0 b) 1.5 c) 2.0 d) 2.1

20. Separate system of sewerage is a type of _____________ system.

a) Water carriage b) Conservancy c) Both a & b d) None of these

21. Match the pairs Indicators Tests

a. Starch i. COD



b. Ferroin ii. DO c. PP and MO iii. Chlorides d. Potassium chromate iv. Alkalinity/Acidity

22. For a town having population upto 5000 the density of population per hectare is considered as _______________

a) 50 – 75 b) 75 – 150 c) 100 – 200 d) 200 – 300

23. The design period for main sewers is considered as ____________ years. a) 10 b) 20 c) 30 d) 40

24. For population below 2 lacs the rate of water supply is considered as ______Lit/ c/d.

a) 100 – 130 b) 130 – 160 c) 150 – 170 d) 180 – 200

25. For population between 2 to 5 lacs the sewage production is considered as _____________ Lit/c/d.

a) 100 – 110 b) 110 – 120 c) 130 – 140 d) 150 – 170

26. In Babbit’s formula Qmax = (5 x Qavg)/ (P0.2) the value of P is restricted to maximum

_________ a) 1 b) 10 c) 100 d) 1000

27. For contributory population upto 20,000 the peak factor is ___________ a) 2.5 b) 3.0 c) 3.5 d) 4

28. Kvichling’s impermeability factor for water tight roof surface is _____________ a) 0.7 to 0.95 b) 0.85 to 0.90 c) 0.9 to 1.0 d) 1 to 2

29. As per U.S. Minstry of health formula value of constant a for 5 to 20 min. storm duration is ________

a) 10 b) 20 c) 30 d) 40

30. For sewer diameter 15 to 25 cm the self cleansing velocity required is _____________ cm/sec.

a) 75 b) 100 c) 125 d) 150

31. For transport of fine gravel the self cleansing velocity required is ________ cm/sec.

a) 15 b) 20 c) 25 d) 30



32. For circular sewer running fill the value of H.M.D. is _________

a) D/4 b) D/2 c) D d) 2D

33. Spacing of manholes is recommended by IS __________________ a) 800 b) 456 c) 2470 d) 1742

34. The design period of sewer is _________ years. a) 15 b) 20 c) 30 d) 25

35. Pumping machinery is designed for _________ years.

a) 15 b) 20 c) 25 d) 30

36. As per CPHEEO for town having population 50,000 to 1,00,000 the density of population per hectare is ________.

a) 150-250 b) 250-300 c) 300-350 d) 350-500

37. For population below 2,00,000 the sewage production is _____. a) 50-100 b) 75-100 c) 110-120 d) 120-150

38. In Babit’s formula for finding out variations in the rate of sewage the minimum value of P is _____.

a) 0 b) 0.5 c) 0.85 d) 1.0

39. For design of sewers the peak factor for population above 7,50,000 is considered as _______.

a) 2.0 b) 2.25 c) 2.5 d) 3.0

40. In hydraulic design of sewers Bazin’s constant k in Bazin’s formula for good earth channel is ______.

a) 0,25 b) 0.50 c) 0.75 d) 0.92

41. Self cleansing velocity for transport of fine sand and clay is _____cm/sec.

a) 5 b) 7.5 c) 15 d) 30

42. Self cleansing velocity for sewer having diameter above 60 cm is _______cm/sec.

a) 60 b) 75 c) 100 d) 150

43. In typical wastewater BOD5 at 200C for weak concentration is ______ mg/lit

a) 50 b) 110



c) 220 d) 300 44. HMD of sewer running full is _______.

a) D/4 b) D/2 c) D d) 2D

45. BOD5 at 20°C of strong domestic waste water is about ______mg/L. a) 300 b) 400 c) 500 d) 600

46. The sewerage system originates from ___________.

a) Outfall sewer b) Main sewer c) House sewer d) None of these

47. A sewer which receives the discharge from a number of independent houses is known as _____________.

a) Intercepting sewer b) House sewer c) Lateral sewer d) None of these

48. Combined sewer system carries ______________. a) Sewage and storm water b) Only storm water c) Only sewage d) Some times LPG gases

49. The sewer which transports the sewage to the point of treatment is called _____________.

a) House sewer b) Lateral sewer c) Outfall sewer d) None of these

50. The ratio of mainimum hourly flow to the average flow of sewage is ____________.

a) 1/3 b) 1/2 c) 1/4 d) 3

51. The most suitable section of a sewer in a separate sewerage system is ___________.

a) Rectangular b) Circular c) Egg shaped d) Parabolic

52. The most suitable section of a sewer in a combined sewerage system is ___________.

a) Rectangular b) Circular c) Egg shaped d) Parabolic

53. The flow velocity of sewer does not depend upon ____________.

a) Its grade b) Its length c) Its hydraulic mean depth d) Its roughness

54. Manholes are made circular : _______________________. a) For architectural reasons b) To strengthen the cover c) To prevent falling of cover into the

manhole d) To make entry convinient



55. Manholes are generally located ____________________________________. a) At all changes of direction of sewer b) At all changes of gradients of

sewer c) At all junctions of different sewers d) All of above

56. _____________gas/gases can be found in sewers.

a) H2S b) CO2 c) CH4 d) All of above

57. Appropriate percentage of water in the sewage is ________%.

a) 90 b) 99 c) 99.90 d) 99.99

58. Well oxidized sewage will contain nitrogen, in the form of ___________.

a) nitrites b) nitrates c) Free ammonia d) All of above

59. Imhoff cone is used to measure ______________ solids in the sewage.

a) Volatile b) Suspended c) Settleable d) None of these

60. Minimum DO prescribed for a river stream to avoid fish kill is ______mg/lit

a) 2 b) 4 c) 8 d) 10

61. For BOD test standard temperature refers to ____0C.

a) 10 b) 105 c) 20 d) 550

62. In COD test organic matter is oxidized by ________________.

a) K2Cr2O7 b) H2SO4 c) K2CrO4 d) All of above

63. COD is always _____________ than BOD.

a) lesser b) greater c) Equal d) No such relation

64. In COD test, ____________________ is used as oxidizing agent.

a) Potassium dichromate b) Sulphuric acid

c) Mercuric sulphate d) None of these

65. In solids test, for finding SS concentration, ___________________filter paper is used.

a) Whatman’s b) Catman

c) Batman d) Hatman

66. Before discharging the foul sewage in the rivers, it is generally treated



by_________________________________________________________.

a) Screen chamber and grit removal tank

b) Primary sedimentation tank

c) Activated sludge process followed by disinfection

d) All of above

67. With self cleansing velocity of the sewer ________________________________.

a) Silting occurs at bottom b) Scouring occurs at bottom c) Both silting and scouring occurs at

bottom d) Neither silting nor scouring

occurs at bottom 68. In COD test organic matter is oxidized by Potassieum Dichromate in presence of

_____________________________. a) HCL b) H2SO4

c) HNO3 d) All of above

69. The wastewater from bathrooms, kitchens, washing places and wash basins is known as_______________.

a) Sullage b) Rubbish c) Refuse d) None of these

70. The ground water which finds entry into sewers through leaks is known as___________________.

a) Subsoil water b) Surface water c) Polluted water d) All of above

71. In COD test, _______________ acts as a catalyst which enables dichromate to oxidize low molecular weight fatty acids and straight chain aliphatic compounds.

a) Silver sulphate b) Mercuric sulphate

c) Sewage d) None of these

72. In COD test, ______________ is added in sample to prevent interference of chlorides in wastewater.

a) Silver sulphate b) Mercuric sulphate

c) Sewage d) None of these

73. Choose correct option and tick mark the same in the box provided against it : Standard BOD means ________________

a) BOD measures after 7 days at 27°C b) BOD measures after 1 days at 25°C

c) BOD measures after 5 days at 20°C d) None of these 74. Quantity of wastewater flowing through sewers in dry season is known as

_____________ a) WWF b) DWF c) Storm water flow d) Sullage



75. _______________ sewer collects sewage directly from houses.

a) Trunk b) Lateral c) Sub main d) All of above

76. Pick out the odd one ____________

a) Sutro weir b) Parshall flume c) Proportional flow weir d) V-notch



Unit-II

Unit operations

1. ASP is a ___________ treatment.

a) anaerobic b) aerobic c) facultative d) none of these

2. Medium bar screens have clear openings of __________ mm. a) 10 to 20 b) 20 to 50 c) 50 to 75 d) 75 to 100

3. Molecular weight of Alum is _______

a) 500 b) 670.2 c) 666.7 d) 730.1

4. Hydraulic loading rate for low rate trickling filters is __________ m3/d/m2. a) 0.5 to 2 b) 1 to 4 c) 2 to 5 d) 5 to 8

5. Organic loading rate for high rate trickling filter is ___________ kg/d/m3. a) 100 – 400 b) 400 – 600 c) 500 – 1000 d) 1000 – 2000

6. Lower F/M ratioin a conventional ASP will mean __________________. a) Lower BOD removal b) Higher BOD removal c) No effect on BOD removal d) None of these

7. The term sludge age is associated with _______.

a) Aeration b) Sedimentation c) Trickling filter d) None of these

8. For low rate trickling filters hydraulic loading rate considered is ________m3/m2/d.

a) 0.5 -1 b) 1 - 4 c) 4 - 6 d) 6 - 10

9. _____________ is recycled in ASP.

a) Sludge b) Sewage c) Screenings d) Grit material

11. _________________ is recycled in trickling filter. a) Sludge b) Sewage c) Screenings d) Grit material

12. Length of grit chamber shall be in the range of _______________

a) 10 to 18 b) 2 to 5

c) 15 to 20 d) More than 20



13. Unit of SVI is ____________.

a) ml/gm b) mm/gm

c) Lit/kg d) None of above

14. Pick out the odd one - _________.

a) Screen chamber b) Grit chamber

c) PST d) Septic tank

15. ______________________________ is essentially a extended aeration system

a) Oxidation pond b) Oxidation ditch

c) Grit chamber d) Septic tank

16. Grit chamber removes particles having Sp. Gr. in the range of _____ to _____.

a) 2.2.,2.65 b) 2.4,2.65

c) 2,3 d) 1,1.5

17. Purpose of screen chamber is , to _______________________________________.

a) Remove large Suspended Solids c) Protect the pumps from clogging b) Prevent the pipes from clogging d) All of above

18. Purpose of grit chamber is, to _______________________________________.

a) Remove heavy settleable solids c) Protect the pumps from wear and abrasion

b) Protect digesters d) All of above 19. Velocity control devices are provided in _____________.

a) Screen chambers b) Aeration tank c) Grit chamber d) PST

20. Detention period varies from __________ sec, in grit chambers

a) 45 to 90 b) 100 to 150 c) 10 to 45 d) None of these

21. _______________________ can be used to control velocity of flow in grit chambers.

a) Sutro weir b) Proportional flow weir c) Parabolic grit chamber d) All of above

22. Horizontal flow velocity in case of grit chambers should be _______cm/sec. a) 15 to 30 b) 30 to 45 c) 45 to 60 d) 1 to 3

23. Proportional flow weir can be used in grit chamber, when cross section is of _______________ shape.

a) Rectangular b) Circular



c) Parabolic d) Triangular 24. Parshall Flume can be used in grit chamber, when cross section is of

_______________ shape. a) Parabolic b) Circular c) Rectangular d) Triangular

25. Angle of inclination of bars in screen chamber varies from _________0. a) 30 to 80 b) 10 to 45 c) 90 to 120 d) None of these

26. Facultative bacteria are those which can survive in _________________. a) Presence of oxygen b) Absence of free oxygen c) Both a) and b) d) Liquid nitrogen

27. In trickling filters, slime layer formed is aerobic up to depth of ____________mm. a) 0.1 to 0.2 b) 0.5 to 0.6 c) 0.01 to 0.02 d) 0.9 to 1.0

28. _______ rate trickling filters require large area.

a) High b) Low c) Falling head d) Constant head

29. In case of trickling filter ventilation takes place because of __________ difference between, sewage and surrounding air.

a) Level b) Colour c) Temperature d) All of above

30. Depth of low rate trickling filter varied from _____________m.

a) 1.8 to 3 b) 2.5 to 4 c) 3 to 5 d) 1 to 1.8

31. Under drainage system is provided in trickling filters, to ______________________________.

a) Carry away liquid effluent b) To carry away sloughed biological solids

c) To distribute air through the bed d) All of above 32. Under drainage system in low rate trickling filter should run _______________.

a) Full b) Partially full (less than 50%) c) Empty d) None of these

33. In low rate trickling filters, filter walls may be made of _______________________.

a) Brick masonry b) Stone masonry c) RCC d) All of above

34. For low rate trickling filters, speed of rotation of distributor arm is _____rpm for small sized distributors.

a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5



35. Influent BOD5 of low rate trickling filter is 300 mg/lit and effluent BOD5 is 30 mg/lit. The efficiency of trickling filter is equal to _____________ %.

a) 80 b) 50 c) 0.9 d) 90

36. A trickling filter is operating with efficiency of 90%, if its effluent BOD5 is 25 mg/lit, then its influent BOD5 would be __________mg/lit.

a) 250 b) 0.250 c) 350 d) 450

37. A trickling filter is operating with efficiency of 90%, if its influent BOD5 is 350 mg/lit, then its effluent BOD5 would be __________mg/lit.

a) 250 b) 0.250 c) 315 d) 450

38. Moisture content of sludge obtained from trickling filter system is as high as ____%

a) 99 b) 100 c) 98 d) 95.99

39. Effluent obtained from low trickling filter is highly ________________.

a) Nitrified b) Stabilised c) Both a) and b) d) None of these

40. ______________ consists of returning a portion of the treated or partly treated sewage to the treatment.

a) Recalculation b) Reaeration c) Prechlorination d) Recirculation

41. Secondary effluent from the high rate trickling filter is ____________________. a) Not fully oxidised b) Brownish black in colour c) Contains fine particles d) All of above

42. Secondary effluent from the low rate trickling filter is ____________________.

a) Fully oxidized b) Black in colour c) Contains light fine particles d) All of above

43. Effluent obtained from high trickling filter is ________________. a) Not fully Nitrified b) Not fully Stabilised c) Nitrified d) Stabilised

44. For high rate trickling filters recirculation ratio usually ranges from _______. a) 0.5 to 3 b) 0.6 to 8 c) 6 to 5 d) 0.5 to 1

45. Attached growth process include ________________________________. a) ASP b) Aerated lagoon c) Sludge digestion systems d) All of above

46. Sewage in the aeration tank is referred as _____________.



a) Black liquor b) Brown liquor c) Mixed liquor d) Sweet liquor

47. If volume of aeration tank is 15500 m3 and influent flow rate is 50000 m3/d, then aeration period of ASP is ______hrs.

a) 7.44 b) 6.55 c) 8.44 d) 10

48. In ASP, contact stabilization is also known as _____________.

a) Biosorption b) Adsorption c) Absorption d) Chemisorption

49. Compression settling occurs in ________________________.

a) Screen chamber b) Secondary settling tanks c) Grit chamber d) All of above

50. Rotating biological contactor is _____________ process.

a) Suspended growth b) Attached growth c) Dual growth d) None of these



Unit-III

Anaerobic treatment and low cost treatment

1. Oxidation pond is type of __________ pond.

a) aerobic b) anaerobic c) facultative d) none of these

2. Range of Mesophilic digestion is _____________ °C a) 10 to 40 b) 40 to 60 c) 60 to 80 d) 80 to 100

3. Water closet has __________ equivalent fixture units in septic tank design. a) 3 b) 2 c) 1 d) 0.5

4. Depth of lagoon is restricted to ________m.

a) 1 -1.5 b) 2.5 to 4 c) 4 to 6 d) 5 to 10

5. Septic tank is _________________________. a) Settling tank b) Digestion tank c) Both a and b d) None of these

6. _______________ is a essentially an extended aeration activated sludge process. a) Oxidation ditch b) Oxidation pond c) Aerated lagoon d) None of these

7. In case of oxidation ditch, sewage is aerated by __________________. a) Surface rotor b) Diffused aerator c) Ventilator d) All of above

8. Septic tank is _________________ type of treatment.

a) aerobic b) anaerobic c) facultative d) all of above

9. Example/s of aerobic treatment unit/s is/are ___________________.

a) ASP b) Trickling filter c) Oxidation ditch d) All of above

10. Example/s of anaerobic treatment unit/s is/are ___________________.

a) Septic tank b) Anaerobic lagoon c) Anaerobic sludge digestion d) All of above

11. Depth of facultative pond is in the range of ______m

a) 1 to 1.5 b) 2 to 3 c) 0.5 to 1 d) 2.5 to 5

12. Depth of anaerobic ponds ranges from __________m . a) 1 to 1.5 b) 2 to 3



c) 0.5 to 1 d) 2.5 to 5 …

13. _______________________ is observed in oxidation ponds. a) Bacteria-algal symbiosis b) COD - BOD symbiosis c) Algae-protozoa symbiosis d) None of these

14. Bacteria-algal symbiosis is observed in ____________________.

a) ASP b) Trickling filter c) Oxidation ponds d) None of these

15. Oxidation ditch is essentially ________________ process. a) Extended aeration b) Trickling filter c) RBC d) UASB

16. a) b) c) d)

17. a) b) c) d)

18.

a) b) c) d)

19.

a) b) c) d)

20.

a) b) c) d)

21.

a) b) c) d)

22. a) b) c) d)

23. a) b) c) d)

24.

a) b) c) d)



Unit-IV

Disposal of waste water

1. In the zone of active decomposition D.O.% is __________

a) ≤ 40 b) 40 – 50 c) 50 – 100 d) ≥100

2. The value of self purification constant for swift streams is ____________ a) 1.5 – 2.0 b) 2.0 – 3.0 c) 3.0 – 5.0 d) ≥ 5.0

3. The value of self purification constant for small ponds and back water is in the range _______________

a) 0.25 – 0.5 b) 0.5 – 1.0 c) 1.0 – 1.5 d) 1.5 – 2.0

4. For finding deoxygenation constant for 4 to 20°C temp. range the value of θ is ______________

a) 1.0 b) 1.55 c) 1.30 d) 1.135

5. If the dilution factor is above ______ then no treatment to waste water is required. a) Less than 150 b) 150 - 300 c) 300 - 500 d) Above 500

6. DO level in the stream may be zero in the zone of _______. a) Clear water b) Degradation c) Active decomposition d) Recovery

7. DO value of the stream is maximum at ____________. a) noon b) morning c) night d) throughout the day

8. Sewage disposal by dilution is most preferred, where: __________________.

a) The sewage arriving at outfall point is fresh and non septic

b) There are strong forward currents

c) Discharge in water body is not low d) All of above 9. Industrial waste with flow rate of 20 m3/day with temp of 400 C is being discharged

in to the river with flow rate of 400 m3/d having temperature of 200C. The temperature of resulting mix would be ____ 0C.

a) 20.95 b) 10.95 c) 20 d) 40

10. DO deficit = DOsat – _____________

a) Initial DO b) Final DO c) Actual DO d) None of these



11. If in self-purification of river study, critical time is 2.4 days and velocity of flow is 1.2 m/s, then critical distance at which critical DO deficit occurs is_____________ km.

a) 248.832 b) 348.9 c) 550.67 d) 1000.0

11. DO saturation values of water at 20°C is ____________ mg/lit. a) 10.20 b) 9.17 c) 8.22 d) 25.0

12. a) b) c) d)

13.

a) b) c) d)

14. a) b) c) d)

15. a) b) c) d)

16. a) b) c) d)

17.

a) b) c) d)

18.

a) b) c) d)

19.

a) b) c) d)

20.

a) b) c) d)



Unit-V

Solid waste disposal

1. A city with 0.5 to 1 million population the average value of solid waste generated is ____________ kg/c/d.

a) 0.10 b) 0.15 c) 0.20 d) 0.25

2. In controlled tipping method of refuse disposal depth of hollow is ________ m. a) 0.5 to 1 b) 1 to 2 c) 2 to 2.5 d) ≥ 2.5

3. In Indore method of composting volume of pit is made as _______ cu.m. a) 6 b) 7 c) 8 d) 9

4. In trenching method of solid waste disposal depth of trench is ________ m.

a) 0.5 to 0.75 b) 0.75 to 1 c) 1 to 2 d) 2 to 4

5. In Bangalore method of composting the refuse is stabilized __________________. a) aerobically b) anaerobically c) burning d) washing

6. In a typical Indian city the garbage is found _____________ %. a) 40 b) 45 c) 50 d) 55

7. In trenching method the length of trench is ____________m. a) 2 to 8 b) 4 to 10 c) 6 to 12 d) 8 to 14

8. The colorific value of refuse from as typical Indian city is ______ kilocal/kg.

a) 1500-1800 b) 2000 - 2500 c) 3000 - 4000 d) 4000 - 6000

9. In the method of controlled tipping of disposal of refuse the depth of hollows is restricted to ______m.

a) 0.5 to 1m b) 0.6 to 1 c) 1 to 2 d) 2 to 4

10. __________________________ is not a combustible waste. a) Paper b) Wood c) Glass d) Cardboard

11. Which of the following is not a combustible waste? a) paper b) wood c) glass d) clothes

12. Which of following is not a biodegradable waste?



a) food b) garden trimmings c) rubber d) plastic

13. In composting by trenching method trenches are kept ______________ long a) 4 to 10 m b) 1 to 2 m c) 10 to 15 m d) None of these

14. Density of ash is in between _____________________. a) 700 to 850 kg/m3 b) 70 to 85 kg/m3 c) 7000 to 8500 kg/m3 d) 70 to 80 kg/m3

15. __________________________ is not a combustible waste. a) Paper b) Wood c) Glass d) Cardboard

16. ______________ is ultimate disposal option considered in Municipal Solid (MSW) Waste management.

a) Landfill b) Incineration c) Composting d) Open burning

17. _______________ Property/ properties of MSW is/are for landfill design.

a) Permeability b) Density c) Field capacity d) All of above

18. Which of the following is not a combustible waste?

a) Wood b) cardboard c) bagasse d) Glass

19. Developing countries have_______ per capita daily solid waste generation rate than developed countries.

a) Lesser b) Greater c) Same d) None of these

20. Pick out the odd one__________ a) Deep well injection b) Landfilling c) Land farming d) Composting

21. _____________ can be collected from landfills. a) Leachate b) Gas c) Both a) & b) d) None of these

22. In trenching method of solid waste disposal depth of trench is ________ m.

a) 0.5 to 0.75 b) 0.75 to 1 c) 1 to 2 d) 2 to 4

23. Abodoned vehicles are ___________ type of solid waste. a) combustible b) Biodegradable c) Bulky d) All of above

24. Leftover Food items require _______ time to disintegrate. a) 1 to 2 weeks b) 1 month c) 1 year d) 24 hrs

25 In India ___ % of solid waste is biodegradable.



a) 45 to 55 b) 10 to 20 c) 5 to 10 d) None of these

26 Paper waste requires _____ days to disintegrate. a) 10 to 30 b) 30 to 50 c) 60 to 90 d) 1 to 2

27

a) b) c) d)

28 a) b) c) d)

29 a) b) c) d)

30

a) b) c) d)



Unit-VI

Air pollution

1. The layer of atmosphere closest to earth surface is ___________

a) Mesosphere b) Troposphere c) Ionosphere d) None of these

2. The atmosphere extends upto __________ km from earths surface. a) 500 b) 700 c) 900 d) 1100

3. In a strong lapse rate ___________ plume is observed. a) coning b) lofting c) looping d) none of these

4. Gravity settling chamber is used to remove __________ pollutants.

a) gaseous b) particulate c) both a and b d) none of these

5. Sulphur dioxide is __________ pollutant. a) primary b) secondary c) tertiary d) both a and b

6. Cyclone separators are used to remove ____________. a) gas b) sulphurdioxide c) particulate matter d) none of these

7. Ozone is present in ____________. a) stratosphere b) mesosphere c) troposphere d) inosphere

8. Gravity settling chamber is used to remove _____________

a) Particulate matter b) Gas c) Acids d) None of these

9. Ozone is a type of _________________ pollutant.

a) Primary b) Secondary c) Both a) and b) d) None of these

10. Gravity settling chamber removes particles of size ______microns.

a) 5 to 10 b) 10 - 20 c) 20 - 30 d) 40 to 50

11. _______________________________ is secondary pollutant.

a) CO b) O3 c) N d) Ar

12. CFC gas is responsible for _________________________. a) Ozone depletion b) CO depletion



c) Self purification d) Ozone generation 13. Which of following is not a secondary pollutant? ________

a) PAN b) PBN c) Ozone d) CFC

14. Pick out the odd one from the following equipments

a) Settling chamber b) ESP c) Bag house d) Scrubber

15. Air pollution causes effects on _________________. a) Biotic world b) Abiotic world c) Both a) and b) d) None of these

16. Which of following is not an anthropogenic cause of air pollution? a) Burning of fossil fuels b) Burning of fire wood c) Agricultural activities d) Burning of forest due to

lightening 17. ___________ is secondary pollutant among the following.

a) Sulphur dioxide b) Sulphur trioxide c) hydrocarbons d) ozone

18. Primary pollutant formed due to incomplete combustion of organic matter is _____.

a) Methane b) Ozone c) Carbon Monoxide d) All of above

19. Rainfall is termed as acidic when pH value of rain is less than or equal to _____.

a) 5.6 b) 7 c) 8.5 d) 7.2

20. Ozone depletion mainly causes ___________________.

a) Skin cancer b) Lung cancer c) Coughing d) None of these

21. Green house effect causes _______________ of earth.

a) Cooling b) Warming c) Expansion d) Contraction

22. _______________ solves problem of air pollution but creates problem of water pollution.

a) ESP b) Bag house c) Cyclone d) Scrubbers

23. CO combines with Hemoglobin to form__________________. a) Carboxy- Hemoglobin b) Epoxy- Hemoglobin c) Mucus d) Pneumonia

24. Standard rate of DALR is _______________0C/100m

a) -1 b) +1



c) - 0.001 d) + 0.001 25. ______________ is always constant.

a) DALR b) ELR c) Inversion d) None of these

26. Pick out odd one – _____________

a) O3 b) PAN c) CO d) PBN

27. Stable atmosphere is _____________ for dispersion. a) Favorable b) Un-favourable c) Both a) and b) d) None of these

28. Most efficient particulate control equipment is _____________ a) Gravity settling chamber b) Cyclone separator c) Scrubber d) ESP

29. Mesosphere and Thermosphere together can be called as ____________

a) Chemosphere b) Lithosphere c) Ionosphere d) Radiosphere

30.

____________ pollution that originates from multiple sources over relatively large area.

a) Point source b) None point source c) Influent source d) Effluent source

31. _____________ is secondary pollutant amongst the following a) Sulphur dioxide b) Sulphur trioxide c) hydrocarbons d) ozone

32. a) b) c) d)

33.

a) b) c) d)

34. a) b) c) d)

35. a) b) c) d)

environmental engineering ii objective questions

Engineering

b page

c hr d day

water carriage b conservancy

rainy b nonrainfall

williams coefficient

population density

density of population

population upto