environmental engineering i objective questions (repaired)

Environmental Engineering-I Objective Question Bank - Prof S S Jahagirdar

TE (CIVIL) Div- A and B

Environmental Engineering- I

Unit Wise Objective Question Bank

Unit-I

1. Indicator/s used in alkalinity test is/are _______________________.

a) Phenolphthalein (PP) b) Methyl orange (MO) c) PP and MO d) None of these

2. The permissible limit of MPN for drinking water per 100 ml is _____________. a) 1 b) 10 c) 100 d) 1000

3. The indicator used in determination of chlorides is a) EBT b) Starch c) Potassium chromate d) MO

4. In DO test, titrant used is __________________.

a) Sodium Thiosulphate b) Starch c) Buffer solution d) NaCl

5. The nature of end point in chloride test is ________________. a) Yellow to brick red b) White to yellow c) Red to yellow d) Blue to green

6. A condition that tends to increase corrosiveness of water on metals is _______. a) High DO content b) Low DO content c) Polyphosphate d) Low TDS

7. CO2 acidity is determined by using the indicator __________. a) PP b) MO c) Starch d) EBT

8. Design period of water works depends upon _____________.

a) Funds availability b) Life of pipe material and other structural materials

c) Rate of interest on loan taken to complete the project

d) All of above

9. National board of fire under writers formula for estimating fire demand Q =4637 √P (1+ 0.01P) where P indicates ________________.

a) Population b) Population in thousands c) Population in hundreds d) Population in Lakh

10. _____________ formula gives number of simultaneous fire streams.

a) Buston’s b) MUD c) Kuichling’s d) Freeman’s

11. In _____________ method population growth of a small town or area is related to big towns or big areas.

a) Ratio and correlation b) Graphical



c) Zoning d) Logistic 12. Generally ______________ supply will reduce rate of demand.

a) Continuous b) Intermittent c) Both a) and b) d) None of these

13. Algae and protozoa impart _____________ to water. a) Odour b) Colour c) Turbidity d) All of above

14. _____________ causes scaling in boilers.

a) Hardness b) Colour c) Odour d) Taste

15. Fluoride upto ______________ ppm will prevent dental caries of the children. a) 1 b) 1.2 c) 1.5 d) 2.0

16. Phenols can impart ________________ to the water. a) Colour b) Turbidity c) Objectionable taste d) Hardness

17. As per IS-1172-1957, for cooking _______________ lit of water is required. a) 50 b) 100 c) 1 d) 5

18. As per Boston’s formula Q is expressed in _____________

a) m3/sec a) Lit/hr b) Lit/min c) lit

19. For calculating future population at the end of 30 years the value of ‘n’ in arithmetic mean method is _____________

a) 5 b) 30 c) 0.3 d) 3

20. If total hardness of water is greater than its total alkalinity, then the carbonate hardness will be equal to _______________________.

a) Total alkalinity b) Total hardness c) Total hardness – total alkalinity d) Non carbonate hardness

21. Column A (Laboratory tests) i) Alkalinity ii) D.O iii) Hardness iv) Chlorides

Column B (Indicators) P) EBT Q) Starch R) Potassium chromate S) MO and PP

a) i) – S ii) – Q iii) – R iv) – P b ) i) – S ii) – Q iii) – P iv) – R c ) i) – Q ii) – S iii) – P iv) – R d ) i) – Q ii) – S iii) – R iv) – P

22. The unit of turbidity of water is __________________

a) JTU b) NTU c) PPM d) All of above



23. If degree of hardness is 3, then nature of water will be __________________ a) Extremely soft b) Very soft c) Soft water d) Hard water

24. As per Is-1172-1957, per capita demand for domestic purpose is _________ lpcd. a) 150 b) 135 c) 170 d) 130

25. The equation for Kuichling’s formula is given by __________________

a) Q = 3000 √P b) Q = 3182 √P c) Q = 3180 √P d) Q = 3181√P

26. Purpose of water treatment is ___________________________________. a) To remove odours b) To remove taste c) To kill pathogens d) All of above

27. BIS limit for residual chlorine at users end is _____mg/lit. a) 0.55 b) 0.5 c) 0.2 d) 1.0

28. If population of a town is 100 thousands, then by Buston’s formula, fire demand is _______ Lit/min.

a) 31820 b) 3182 c) 5663 d) 56630

29. Procedure of adding 1 ml Manganous Sulphate and 1 ml Alkali Iodide Azide in 300 ml sample collected in BOD bottle is known as _____________________.

a) Aeration b) De-aeration c) DO Fixation d) Solidification

30. _______ test is used for finding out optimum Alum dose.

a) Char b) Ghar c) Jar d) None of these

31. In DO test, after DO fixation, white precipitate is obtained. Which means DO is ____________.

a) Absent b) Present c) Saturated d) All of above

32. In DO test, after DO fixation, brown precipitate is obtained. Which means DO is ____________.

a) Absent b) Present c) Saturated d) All of above

33. The most common cause of acidity in waters is ______________. a) Carbon dioxide b) Oxygen c) Hydrogen d) Nitrogen

34. Standard EDTA (Ethylene Diamine Tetra Acetic Acid) solution is used to determine__________________.

a) Hardness in water b) Turbidity in water c) Dissolved oxygen in water d) Residual chlorine in water

35. Which of the following practices cause reduction in the per capita consumption?

a) Good quality water b) Hotter climate



c) Modern living d) Metering system 36. The suitable method for forecasting population for a young and a rapidly developing

city is ________________________. a) Arithmetic mean method b) Geometric mean method c) Comparative graphical method d) None of these

37. The suitable method for forecasting population for a old and developed large city is ________________________.

a) Arithmetic mean method b) Geometric mean method c) Comparative graphical method d) None of these

38. The devices installed for drawing water from different water sources are called _________________.

a) Filters b) Intakes c) Outlets d) Inlets

39. Safe water is that water which does not contain ______________.

a) Pathogenic bacteria b) Turbidity c) Any taste d) Any colour

40. The measure of the amount, to which light is absorbed or scattered by the suspended material in water is called _______________.

a) Opacity b) Turbidity c) Clarity d) Diffraction

41. Turbidity meters working on principle of scattering of light are known as ___________.

a) Spectrometers b) Nephelometer c) Tintometers d) Optimeters

42. The colour imparted to water because of suspended solids is ________________.

a) True colour b) Apparent colour c) colour d) none of these

43. The colour imparted to water because of dissolved solids is ________________.

a) Apparent colour b) True colour c) Colour d) Both b) and c)

44. pH value of water indicates _____________________. a) Acidity b) Alkalinity c) Both a) and b) d) None of these

45. Water having one unit lesser pH will be ___________________________. a) 1 time more acidic b) 10 times more acidic c) 100 times more acidic d) None of these

46. Temporary hardness of water is caused by___________________________.

a) Carbonates and bicarbonates of Calcium and Magnesium

b) Bicarbonates of Sodium and Potassium

c) Carbonates of Calcium and Magnesium

d) Dissolve CO2

47. When fluoride concentration in water exceeds 1.5 mg/lit or more the disease that may be caused is ____________________________.



a) Methanemoglobinemia b) Fluorosis c) Dental carries in children d) Poliomyelitis

48. Dental caries in children may be caused due to water supplies which are deficient in ____________.

a) Calcium b) Iron c) Fluorides d) None ofthese

49. Blue baby disease may be caused in infants due to drinking waters containing higher concentrations of _________________.

a) Nitrites b) Nitrates c) Lead d) Arsenic

50. The maximum safe permissible limit of chlorides in domestic water supplies is __________ mg/lit.

a) 0.5 b) 100 c) 200 d) 1000

51. The total amount of dissolved salts present in the water can be easily determined by measuring _______________________________of water.

a) Specific conductivity b) Electrical resistance c) Solids test d) All of above

52. Chlorides are generally present in the water in the form of __________.

a) KCl b) NaCl c) MgCl2 d) All of above

53. Micro-organisms capable of causing diseases are known as _________________.

a) aliens b) pathogens c) parasites d) none of these

54. ________________ types of indicator micro organisms are used to detect presence of pathogenic bacteria.

a) E-coli b) B-coli c) C- coli d) F-coli

55. If alkalinity of coloured sample is to be determined, then ______________ shall be used during titration.

a) PP b) MO c) pH meter d) both a) and b)

56. A city supply includes ______________________________.

a) Domestic water demand b) Industrial and commercial water demand

c) Fire demand d) Water losses

e) All of above

57. The factor/s affecting per capita demand is/are __________________________.

a) Size of city b) Climatic conditions c) Pressure in the mains d) Cost of water

e) All of above

58. ___________________ treatment reduces salinity of water.

a) Flocculation b) Reverse osmosis



c) Electro-dialysis d) Both b) and c) 59. Water having pH value 9, will have hydroxyl ion concentration, equal to _______.

a) 109 b) 10-9 c) 105 d) 10-5

60. Water with having pH value 9, will have hydrogen ion concentration equal to ___.

a) 9 mol/l b) 10-9 mol/l c) 109 mol/l d) None of these

61. With increase in temperature specific conductivity of water _______________.

a) Increases b) Decreases c) Remains same d) There is no such relation

62. Electrical conductivity and Total dissolved solids are interrelated. The values of EC will ___________________________________________________________.

a) Decrease with increase in TDS b) Increase with increase in TDS c) Deceases initially and increases

afterwards d) All of above

63. Column A a. Absence of fluorides b. Excess of lead c. Presence of excess nitrates d. Absence of iodide

Column B i. Methemoglobinemia ii. Goitre iii. Dental caries iv. Anemia

a b c d a) 3 4 2 1 b) 2 3 4 1 c) 3 4 1 2 d) 1 2 4 3

60. Column A (Water Quality) a. Hardness b. Chlorine c. DO d. Chloride

Column B (Method of determination) i. Winkler method ii. EDTA method iii. Orthotolidine test iv. Mohr method

a b c d a) 3 4 2 1 b) 2 3 1 4 c) 3 4 1 2 d) 1 2 4 3

61. The population of a town in three consecutive years are 5000, 7000 and 8400 respectively. The population of town in the fourth consecutive year according to geometric increase method is ____________ a) 9500 b) 9800 c) 10100 d) 10920

62. The polluted water is one which



a) contains pathogenic bacteria b) consists of undesirable substances rendering it unfit for drinking and domestic use

c) is safe and suitable for drinking and domestic use

d) is contaminated

63. The dissolved oxygen level in natural unpolluted waters, at normal temperature is found to be of the order of_______ a) 1 mg/lit b) 10 mg/lit

c) 100 mg/lit d) 1000 mg/lit 64. The most common cause of acidity in water is_____________

a) carbon dioxide b) oxygen

c) hydrogen d) nitrogen 65. In a distribution system for population 2.5 lakhs the peak factor is considered

as _____________ a) 2 b) 2.5

c) 3 d) 4 66. Multiplying factor, as applied to obtain the maximum daily water demand, in relation

to the average, i.e. per capita daily demand is ______________ a) 1.5 b) 1.8

c) 3.0 d) 2.7 67. Design period for water supply projects is generally ______yrs.

a) Less than 10 b) 20-30

c) 50 d) More than 50 68. Find population at the end of 2011 by arithmetical increase method

Year Population 1951 1,00,000 1961 1,09,000 1971 1,16,000 1981 1,28,000

a) 1,26,000 b) 1,36,000

c) 1,46,000 d) 1,56,000 69. The most common cause of acidity of water is _________________.

a) Oxygen b) Hydrogen

c) Nitrogen d) Carbon dioxide 70. Water is considered as hard if its hardness is in the order of _________mg/lit as

CaCO3 a) 50 b) 100

c) 150 d) Over 200 71. Dosage of alum is decided by ______________test.

a) Hardness b) Chloride

c) Jar d) Char 72. As per IS : 1172-1963, water required per head per day for average domestic



purposes, is_____________

a) 50 litres b) 135 litres.

c) 85 litres d) 65 litres 73. Pick up the correct statement from the following :

a) Excess quantities of iron and manganese in water, cause discolouration of clothes

b) Lead and barium salts have toxic effect

c) Arsenic and selenium are poisonous to human health

d) Higher copper content affects the lungs

e) All the above.

74. If pH value of water is ________________________________

a) 7 water it is said to be neutral b) less than 7 it is said to be acidic

c) more than 7 it is said to be alkaline

d) all the above

75. Water supply system includes ______________________________________

a) digging a well for water b) construction of dams

c) construction of canals d) entire arrangement from source to distribution

76. The population growth curve is _______________

a) S-shaped curve b) parabolic curve

c) circular curve d) straight line

e) none of these

77. Turbidity of raw water is a measure of ______________________

a) suspended solids b) acidity of water

c) B.O.D. d) none of these 78. Water supply includes _______________________________________.

a) collection, transportation and treatment of water

b) distribution of water to consumers

c) provision of hydrants for fire fighting

d) mains, sub-mains and branch lines of water supply

e) all the above

79. By boiling water, hardness can be removed if it is due to ______________

a) calcium sulphate b) magnesium sulphate

c) calcium nitrate d) calcium bicarbonate

e) none of these

80. The factor affecting per capita demand, is________________________

a) size of the city b) climatic conditions

c) pressure in water mains d) cost of water

e) All the above.



81. Water supply includes _______________________________________.

f) collection, transportation and treatment of water

g) distribution of water to consumers

h) provision of hydrants for fire fighting

i) mains, sub-mains and branch lines of water supply

j) all the above

82. The fire demand of a city may be worked out by_____________________

a) Kuichling's formula b) Freeman formula

c) Under Writers formula d) Bustan's formula

e) All the above

83. a) b)

c) d)



Unit-II

1. For design of flocculator the value of G.t should be ___________.

a) 104 to 105 b) 100 to 1000 c) 106 to 109 d) All of above

2. ______________ law is valid for laminar flow. a) Newton’s b) Stoke’s c) Reynolds’s d) Camp’s

3. Cleaning interval for rapid sand filter bed is_____________.

a) 3 – 4 months b) 6 – 8 months c) 1 – 2 year d) 24 hours

4. Immediately after addition of Alum, __________ mixing is necessary. a) Gentle b) Rapid c) no d) None of these

5. ___________________ is done to check growth of weeds, algae and bacteria in raw water.

a) Post chlorination b) Double chlorination c) Pre chlorination d) De-chlorination

6. For flow of 5 mld with detention period of 6 hrs, _________m3 of volume will be required for sedimentation tank.

a) 1250 b) 1255 c) 1245 d) 1200

7. The amount of chlorine consumed in the oxidation of impurities, before any disinfection takes place is known as ____________________.

a) Chlorine dose b) Residual chlorine c) Chlorine demand d) Free chlorine

8. Chemical formula of Bleaching powder is __________.

a) Ca(OCl)2 b) Ca(OCl) c) Ca(OH)2 d) Ca2(OCl)

9. The film formed around media particle in slow sand filter is known as ________.

a) Dirty skin b) Dirty thing c) Pure film d) skin

11. For flow of 15 mld with SOR 20 m2/m3/d, surface area of sedimentation tank is____m2.

e) 750 f) 450 g) 650 h) 550

12. For ideal settling basin vs is settling velocity. If particle is having settling velocity (vs’) more than that of vs, then particle will removed with _____ efficiency.

a) 100 % b) Less than 100 % c) 0 % (no removal) d) None of these

13. In ___________ settling concentration of particles is less.

a) Type IV b) Type III



c) Type II d) Type I 14. Unit of weir loading is _________________.

a) Lit/m2/d b) Lit/m2/sec2 c) Lit/m/d d) Lit/d

15. __________________ are compounds of ammonia and chlorine. a) Ozone b) CFC c) Chloramines d) All of above

16. Period of cleaning interval for slow sand filter is ________. a) 1 to 2 months b) 1 to 2 yrs c) 1 to 2 days d) 1 to 2 hrs

17. Sec-1 is unit of __________.

a) Velocity gradient b) Detention period c) Power input d) Area of paddle

18. The method of cleaning rapid sand filter is__________________.

a) Scraping top layer b) Replacement of sand c) Backwashing d) All the above

19. If the sedimentation tank is rectangular in shape having length L, width W and depth D, then for discharge (Q), the settling velocity of particle would be ________________.

a) Q/ (W x D) b) Q / (L x W) c) Q / (D x L) d) Q / (L x W x D)

20. Molecular formula for bleaching powder is ___________.

a) ClO2 b) CaCl2 c) Ca(OH)2 d) Ca(OCl)2

21. Aeration of water is employed to remove __________ in form of precipitate.

a) Iron b) Hardness c) Alkalinity d) Oxygen

22. The disinfection by chlorination is most efficient at pH _________ a) 2.0 b) 5.0 c) 10.0 d) 7.0

23. Activated carbon can be used in water treatment for removing ___________

a) Colour b) Tastes and odours c) Turbidity d) All of above

24. For slow sand filters period of cleaning is ______________

a) 1 to 2 days b) 1 to 2 years c) 1 to 2 months d) No cleaning is required

25. __________________ is not a coagulant. a) Alum b) Chlorinated coppers c) Lime d) Sodium Aluminate

26. _____________ sedimentation is concerned with the settling/removal of non flocculating, discrete particles from the water.

a) Type – I b) Type – II



c) Type – III d) Type – IV 27. _____________ type of filter requires large area.

a) Slow sand b) Rapid sand c) Vaccume d) None of these

28. _____________ means removal of excess chlorine from water.

a) Pre-chlorination b) Post chlorination c) De-chlorination d) Break point chlorination

29. _____________ does not cause permanent hardness.

a) Calcium sulphate b) Calcium bicarbonate c) Magnesium sulphate d) Calcium chloride

30. Aerator removes __________________

a) Silt b) Taste and odour c) Sand d) Flocs

31. In case of flocculator ‘G’ means __________________ a) Power dissipated b) Specific gravity c) Velocity gradient d) Viscosity

32. In rapid sand filters the permissible head loss is __________________ a) Between 2.5 and 3.5 m b) Exactly 2.5 m c) Less than 5 m d) All of above

33. Period of clearing for slow sand filter is __________________

a) 15 days b) 2 to 3 days c) 6 months d) 1 to 2 months

34. Stokes law is applicable for Reynolds number when Re __________________ a) More than 5 b) Greater than one c) Equal to ten d) Less than one

35. Temporary hardness can be removed by __________________ a) Aeration b) Boiling c) Co-agulation d) Freezing

36. Air diffusion is a type of ____________ system. a) Chlorination b) Flocculation c) Aeration d) Sedimentation

37. Settling tank efficiency is reduced by ___________.

a) Eddy currents b) Surface currents c) Vertical convection d) All of above

38. For a rectangular tank L x B x H is 5 x 4 x 3 m3 and design discharge is 600 m3/d. Hence, SOR will be ______________.

a) 40 m3/m2/d b) 50 m3/m2/d c) 30 m3/m2/d d) 20 m3/m2/d

39. In case of rapid sand filters ___________ formula is used for estimation of sand depth.

a) Hudson b) Chezy’s c) Manning’s d) Hardy’s



40. The requirement of residual chlorine ________________ with decrease in temperature and increase in pH.

a) Does not changes b) Decreases c) Both a) and b) d) increases

41. Zeolites can be regenerated by passing a solution of ___________. a) Sugar b) Salt c) Wine d) All of above

42. The process in which chlorination is done beyond break point is______________.

a) Pre chlorination b) Super chlorination c) Post chlorination d) Break point chlorination

43. The effective size of sand particles used in slow sand filter is __________ mm. a) 0.20 to 0.35 b) 0.35 to 0.6 c) 0.6 to 1 d) 1 to 1.80

44. If in a sedimentation tank, volume of tank is 20 m x 10 m x 3 m and flow rate is 3600m3/d, then detention time will be ____________hr

a) 4 b) 6 c) 3 d) 2

45. The efficiency of sediments removal in sedimentation tank does not depends upon ___________________.

a) Discharge through the tank b) Width of the tank c) Length of the tank d) Depth of the tank

46. The most widely used coagulant in water treatment is ____________________.

a) Lime soda b) Alum c) Ferrous sulphate d) Chlorinated copperas

47. A clariflocculator is a ___________________________.

a) Plain sedimentation unit b) Aeration unit c) Coagulation –sedimentation unit d) None of the above

48. Cleaning of slow sand filter is done by ______________.

a) Scrapping and removal of sand b) Back washing c) Any of above d) None of above

49. Cleaning of rapid sand filter is done by ______________.

a) Scrapping and removal of sand b) Back washing c) Any of above d) None of above

50. Disinfection of water helps in _____________________________.

a) Removing turbidity b) Removing hardness c) Killing pathogenic bacteria d) Complete sterilization

51. Chlorine demand of water is equal to __________________________. a) Applied chlorine b) Residual chlorine c) a) –b) d) a) + b)

52. Which of the following compound can be used for chlorination of water?

a) Carbon dioxide b) Bleaching powder c) Alum d) All of above



53. The process of desalination of water, which makes use of micro-porous membrane, is _______________________.

a) Electrodialysis b) Solar distillation c) Freezing d) None of above

54. ________________ as a disinfectant leaves behind residuals. a) UV light b) Lime c) Chlorine d) All of above

55. ________________ as a disinfectant does not leaves behind residuals. e) UV light f) Chlorine dioxide g) Chlorine h) Bleaching powder

56. The process of passing the water through beds of granular materials is called _______________.

a) Screening b) Sedimentation c) Filtration d) Disinfection

57. Chlorination ofwater does not remove __________________________________.

a) Ammonia content b) BOD c) Organic matter content d) DO

58. The ratio of discharge and plan area in continuous flow type sedimentation tank is known as _________________________.

a) Surface overflow rate b) Weir loading c) Volumetric loading rate d) All of above

59. Wash water troughs are provided in ______________________. a) Rapid sand filter b) Flocculator c) Aerator d) Sedimentation tank

60. In rapid sand filter air binding is caused due to ________________. a) Negative pressure b) Pressure c) Turbidity d) All of above

61. Raw water treated only by chlorine is known as _________________. a) De-chlorination b) Pre-chlorination c) Super-chlorination d) All of above

62. To control growth of algae in reservoirs following chemical is used ___________.

a) Bleaching powder b) Copper sulphate c) HCl d) None of these

63. Type II settling in water treatment is defined a ______________________________.

a) Settling of discrete particles in dilute suspensions

b) Settling of flocculent particles in dilute suspensions

c) Settling of flocculent particles in concentrated suspensions

d) Settling of particles in sludge blanket

64. Air binding phenomena in rapid sand filter may occur due to ______________. a) Excessive negative pressure b) Mud ball formation c) Higher turbidity in the effluent d) Low temperature

65. At lower pH values of water, the contact period required for chlorination is _______. a) Lower b) Higher



c) Same d) None of above 66. Disinfection efficiency of chlorine treatment______________________________.

a) Is decreased at higher pH values of water

b) Is increased at higher pH values of water

c) Is unaffected at higher pH values of water

d) Is highest at pH 7

67. A river is the source of water for water supply scheme to a town. Its water is very turbid and polluted. The correct sequence of steps for treating the river water would be ______________________________________________________________.

a) Presedimentation prechlorination coagulation sedimentation filtration post chlorination

b) coagulation sedimentation post chlorination

c) sedimentation post chlorination d) coagulation sedimentation filtration post chlorination

68. The various treatment processes are listed below 1. Filtration 2. Chlorination 3. Sedimentation 4. Coagulation 5. Flocculation The correct sequence of these processes in water treatment is _______________________.

a) 1,2,3,4,5 b) 4,5,3,1,2 c) 2,3,1,5,4 d) 1,2,5,4,3

69. Column A a. Aerator b. rapid sand filter c. slow sand filter d. sedimentation tank

Column B i. excess CO2 and H2S removal ii. Settleable and colloidal matter iii. Suspended matter iv. Suspended colloidal and bacteriological matter

a b c d a) 3 4 2 1 b) 2 3 4 1 c) 3 4 1 2 d) 1 3 4 2

67. Column A a. Air binding b. Mud deposition c. Cracking of bed d. Sand incrustation

Column B i. Changes effective size of sand ii. Mud penetrates deeper inside the bed iii. Mounds and balls of mud are formed in the bed iv. air and gases get locked in the bed

a b c d a) 4 3 2 1 b) 2 3 4 1 c) 3 4 1 2



d) 1 3 4 2 68. The purpose of aeration used in water treatment is ___________

a) To reduce corrosion to water pipes b) To remove iron and manganese c) remove hydrogen sulphide d) All the above

69. Coagulation is generally adopted, when turbidity of water is greater than ____________ mg/L.

a) 50 b) 60 c) 40 d) 100

70. Strokes law is applied in design of ____________ treatment unit. a) Coagulation b) Filtration c) Sedimentation d) Aeration

71. In sedimentation process Type – I sedimentation is also called as ________ a) Discrete settling b) Hindered settling c) Zone settling d) Compression settling

72. Rate of filtration for slow sand filter is _____ lit/hr/m2 a) 100-200 b) 500-1000 c) 3000-6000 d) All of above

73. The effective size of sand particles used in slow filter is ___________.

a) 0.25 to 0.35 mm b) 0.35 mm to 0.60 mm c) 0.60 to 1 mm d) 1.00 to 1.80 mm

74. The settling velocity of inorganic particles is less than 0.1 mm dia. varies with the dia. (d), in proportion ____________.

a) d3 b) d2 c) d d) None of above

75. Surface loading or overflow rate of sedimentation tank, passing a discharge Q, and having length = L, depth= D and width = B is given by_________.

a) Q/BD b) Q/BL c) QBD d) Q/BDL

76. Cleaning of slow sand filter is done by ________________. a) Scrapping and removal of sand b) Back washing c) Any of above d) None ofthese

77. Odour and taste is controlled by __________

a) Aeration b) Coagulation c) Disinfection d) Softening process

78. Pick up the correct statement from the following :________________________

a) Detention period for plain sedimentation tanks ranges between 4 to 8 hours

b) Detention period for sedimentation tanks, using coagulants usually ranges between 2 to 4 hours

c) The horizontally flow velocity in sedimentation tanks, is generally limited to 0.3 m/minute

d) All the above.

79.



a) b) c) d)



Unit-III

1. The value of ‘a’ in the equation to find economic diameter D = a√ Q is

a) 1 b) 1.5 c) 2 d) 2.5

2. NP-1 is a class of ______________ type of pipe a) C.I. b) Cement concrete c) Steel d) none of these

3. Spacing of bars in thrust block is restricted to _____________ mm C/C. a) 400 b) 500 c) 700 d) 1000

4. Minimum residual pressure at ferrule points for two storey building is _________ m.

a) 7 b) 10 c) 12 d) 17

5. Thrust block is designed for a minimum factor of safety of_________. a) 0.5 b) 1 c) 2 d) 4

6. ______________ pipes are free from corrosion. a) Steel b) C.I. c) Wrought Iron d) PVC

7. _____________ is constituent of Asbestos cement pipe. a) Sand b) Lime c) Portland cement d) Iron

8. Modulus of elasticity for CI pipe is _____________ Kg/m2

a) 7.5×109 b) 7.5×106 c) 7.5×1010 d) 7.5×105

9. _____________ Kg/cm2 pressure is required in distribution system for buildings above 10 storeys.

a) 5.5 b) 7 c) 8 d) 5.5. to 7

10. Minimum residual pressure for three storey building is _____________

a) 7 m b) 12 m c) 17 m d) 25 m

11. Economic diameter of pumping main is given by __________________

a) D = a √Q b) D = aQ2 c) D = aQ2/3 d) D = aQ

12. Cast iron pipes are cast in generally __________________ meters. a) 10 to 15 b) 20 to 25 c) 3 to 6 d) 100 to 200

13. Minimum residual pressure required for single storey building is_______. a) 12 m b) 15 m c) 7 m d) 10 m



14. Minimum size of pipe for a town with population above 50,000 is __________________ diameter.

a) 150 mm b) 100 mm c) 250 mm d) 500 mm

15. Velocity of sound in water is ____________m/sec. a) 1433 b) 1432 c) 1431 d) 1436

16. Corrosion is ____________________________ process. a) Electromagnetic b) Electrostatic c) Electrodynamic d) Electrochemical

17. _____________________ types of pipes are free from corrosion. a) Plastic b) Steel c) CI d) None of these

18. Pressure pipes are exclusively used for carrying water supplies because _______________________________________________________________.

a) Such pipes are closed and hence not exposed to pollution anywhere.

b) Since water runs under high pressure in these pipes, pollutants from outside cannot get entry, even if some joints are loose

c) Such pipes can go up and down the hills and valleys, thus requiring lesser depth for laying the pipes

d) All of above

19. Hoop stress in the water pipe is caused by __________________________.

a) Internal water pressure b) Water hammer pressure c) Traffic load d) All of above

20. Water hammer pressure can be reduced by ___________________________.

a) Rapid closing of valve b) Slow closing of valve c) Closing the valves in critical time d) None of these

21. Modulus of elasticity of steel pipe is __________kg/m2.

a) 2.1 x 1010 b) 2.1 x 1011 c) 2.1 x 1011 d) 2.1 x 1015

22. The water hammer pressure developed in a pipe will be __________________, if time of closure of valve is greater than critical time Tc.

a) Lesser than ph max b) Greater than ph max c) Equal to ph max d) None of these

23. The water hammer pressure developed in a pipe will be _________________, if time of closure of valve is lesser than critical time Tc.

a) Lesser than ph max b) Greater than ph max c) Equal to ph max d) None of these

24. The water hammer pressure developed in a pipe will be _________________, if time of closure of valve is equal to critical time Tc.

a) Lesser than ph max b) Greater than ph max



c) Equal to ph max d) None of these 25. To compensate water hammer pressure ______________________ are provided.

a) Surge tank b) Sedimentation tanks c) Merge tanks d) Intz tank

26. Anchorages in the pipe network are provided _________________________.

a) At all bends b) At other points of unbalanced pressure

c) At all steep slopes d) All of above

27. LA class of pipe will be found in ___________ pipes. a) Steel b) Copper c) Cast iron d) PVC

28. DI-K14 pipes are available in the form of ____________ a) socket b) spigot c) screwed d) welded flange

29. Graphite is most noble comparing to _____________

a) gold b) platinum c) copper d) both a) and b)

30. Minimum surface reinforcement required in the thrust block is ______ kg/m2. a) 2 b) 3 c) 5 d) 9

31. For a discharge of 4 m3/s the economic diameter of pumping main will be__________ mm.

a) 1000 b) 2000 c) 4000 d) 5000

32. The minimum residual pressure for single storey building is __________

a) 5 m b) 7 m c) 10 m d) 15 m

33. Modulus of elasticity of CI pipe is _________kg/m2. a) 7.5 x 109 b) 7.5 x 106 c) 7.5 x 108 d) 7.5 x 105

34. The value of coefficient of expansion (α)for conduits per 0C may be taken as ______________ for steel.

a) 11.5 x 10-6 b) 7.5 x 10-6 c) 10 x 10-6 d) None of above

35. The corrosion in pipe is due to ________________. a) DO in water b) pH of water c) Impurities in the material

particularly those having a lower potential

d) All of above

36. Corrosion of a pipe _____________________________________

a) reduces its life span b) reduces its carrying capacity c) adds colour to water d) adds odour to water

e) all the above



37. Asbestos pipes are ___________________________________________________

a) light in weight and easy to transport

b) highly resistant to corrosion

c) high flexible to accommodate deflection upto 12°

d) very much smooth and hydraulically efficient

e) all the above

38. a) b) c) d)



Unit-IV

1. In pressure supply mains, water hammer pressure is reduced by providing__________________.

a) sluice valve b) air valve c) pressure relief values d) none of these

2. In equation of hf = K.Gn the value of ‘n’ for Hazen William’s formula is____. a) 1.85 b) 1.81 c) 1.7 d) 1.0

3. Washout valves are provided at ___________ points in the mains. a) Highest b) Lowest c) Summit d) All the above

4. Reflux valve is also known as _______________ valve.

a) gate b) Check c) scour d) sluice

5. Loss of head is minimum in ___________ system. a) dead end b) recticulation c) circular d) radial

6. The value of coefficient of friction (f) for laminar flow is _____________ a) 64 × Re b) Re/64 b) Re c) 64

7. The value of Manning’s ‘n’ for brass and glass pipe is ___________ a) 0.009 to 0.013 b) 0.010 to 0.012 c) 0.011 to 0.014 d) 0.016 to 0.020

8. Check valve is also known as ______________

a) Reflux valve b) Non-return valve c) Both a) and b) d) None of these

9. Summits are the points of ____________ pressure.

a) High b) Low c) Equal d) None of these

10. Match the pairs

Column A i. Gate valve ii. Air relief valve iii. Reflux valve iv. Safety valves

Column B P) located at high pressure points Q) Used to shut off the supplies R) To provide exit for accumulated air S) Allows water to flow in one direction

i – Q, ii – R, iii – S, iv – P b i – Q, ii – R, iii – P, iv – S

i – R, ii – Q, iii – P, iv – S i – Q, ii – P, iii – R, iv – S

11. Match the pairs

Column A i. Check valve

Column B P) To remove silt in pipe line



ii. Sluice valve iii. Air valve iv. Scour valves

Q) To check water flow in one direction R) To control flow of water through pipe line S) To release accumulated air

i – Q, ii – R, iii – S, iv – P i – Q, ii – R, iii – P, iv – S

i – R, ii – Q, iii – P, iv – S i – Q, ii – P, iii – R, iv – S

11. Storage capacity of distribution reservoir is determined by _____________ a) Hydrograph method b) Mass curve method c) Log curve method d) Both (a) and (b)

12. In case of minor losses value of ‘K’ for 90° elbow is _____________ a) 0.5 b) 1.0 c) 0.5 to 1.0 d) 0.05

13. Air relief valves are provided at the __________________ along water pipe.

a) Summits b) Sag c) Mid-point d) None of the above

14. Reflux valves are also known as __________________ valves. a) Sluice b) Check c) Non-return d) Both b and c

15. In Hazen William’s formula, the coefficient C depends upon __________________.

a) Pipe material b) Age of pipe c) Diameter of pipe d) All of above

16. The value of Manning’s ‘n’ for concrete pipe with rough joints is __________________.

a) 0.016 to 0.017 b) 0.009 to 0.013 c) 0.010 to 0.012 d) 0.50 to 1.5

17. For well planned cities __________________ type of distribution system is used.

a) Dead end b) Grid-iron c) Circular d) Radial

18. Stagnation of water occurs in __________________ system.

a) Radial b) Grid iron c) Circular d) Dead end

19. Reflux valves are also known as ______________ valves.

a) Shut off b) Check c) Cut off d) Air relief

20. To obtain value of friction factor ______________ charts are commonly used.

a) Manning’s b) Moody’s c) Noody’s d) Chezy’s

21. The value of k in equation hm = k x (V2/2g) for entrance is _____________. a) 0.6 b) 0.4 c) 0.5 d) 0.7

22. Radial system is reverse of ___________ system.



a) Dead end b) Grid Iron c) Circular d) All of above

23. The valve which allows flow in one direction is ___________________.

a) Reflux b) Sluice c) Gate valve d) None of these

24. A blow off valve is provided in water distribution system at ________________. a) Low points b) High points c) Junction points d) All of above

25. Pressure relief valves installed along water mains are provided for relieving ____________________.

a) Air pressure b) Water hammer pressure c) Ice pressure d) All of above

26. The suitable layout for a water supply distribution system for irregularly grown city is _________________________.

a) Dead end system b) Grid iron system c) Ring system d) Radial system

27. The suitable layout for a water supply distribution system for well planned city with rectangular road pattern is ___________________

a) Dead end system b) Grid iron system c) Ring system d) Radial system

28. In Hardy-Cross method more the number of iterations (trials), ___________ is the correction in discharge (ΔQ).

a) More b) Constant c) Multiple d) Lesser and accurate

29. ______________________________ method/methods is/are used for analysis of pipe network.

a) Hardy cross b) Newton-Raphson c) Linear Theory d) All of above

30. Match the pairs

Column A i. Dead end system ii. Grid iron system iii. Ring system iv. Radial system

Column B P) Equal pressures and multiple flow paths Q) Both economy and reasonably equal pressures R) Economy and simplicity S) zonal distribution

i – Q, ii – R, iii – S, iv – P b i – Q, ii – R, iii – P, iv – S

. i – R, ii – P, iii – Q, iv – S i – Q, ii – P, iii – R, iv – S

31. In a pipe network ABCD (including common pipe AC) of 5 pipes, which of the following statement is true?

a) Correction is applied twice (Two times) to pipe AC

b) Only one Correction is applied to pipe AC

c) No correction is applied to pipe d) Correction is neglected for pipe



AC AC

32. Reflux valve is also known as ____________ valve. a) gate b) check c) scour d) sluice

33. Intermittent system of supply will require large no. of valves. This statement is _____________

a) True b) False c) Can’t say d) Hypothetical

34. Loss of head is minimum in _____________ system. a) dead end b) reticulation c) circular d) radial

35. Pumping system is best suited when ____________________________ a) Fire accidents occurs frequently b) Source of water is at low level c) Density of population is high and

space available is less d) Power failure are more

common 36. An Advantage of intermittent system of supply is ______________________.

a) It is economical b) Supply is assured during fire accidents

c) Pumping is for limited period d) Repairs can be carried out during non supply hours

37. Distribution system in which, mains, submains and branches are connected with each other is ___________________.

a) Tree system b) Grid iron system c) Radial system d) None

38. The valve used for controlling the flow is ______________. a) Sluice valve b) Check valve c) Scour valve d) Pressure relief valve

39. Scour valve in a water distribution system is provided at _____________. a) Low points b) High points c) Junction points d) All of above

40. In pressure supply mains, water hammer pressure is reduced by providing______

a) sluice valves b) air valves c) pressure relief valves d) none of the these

41. In distribution pipes, drain valves are provided at _______________

a) lower point b) higher point c) junction points d) any where.

42.

e) f) g) h)

43. a) b) c) d)



Unit-V

1. For determining storage capacity of reservoirs ______________ equation is used.

a) McDonald b) McDermott c) McMillan d) None of these

2. To absorb the hourly variation in demand ______________ type of reservoirs are provided.

a) Sedimentation b) Filtration c) Penetration d) Distribution

3. Total Capacity of distribution reservoir is _______________________________. a) Balancing reserve b) Fire reserve c) Break down reserve d) Sum of a), b) and c)

4. In McDonalds formula, coefficients a and b are ____ and _____ respectively

a) 0.2, 0.1 b) 0.2, 0.3 c) 0.4, 0.5 d) 0.1, 0.4

5. In hydrograph method, balancing capacity of the reservoir is ___________. a) Area above or below average

pumping line b) Maximum ordinate

c) Sum of maximum ordinate d) All of above 6.

In above graph, balancing capacity of reservoir is given by___________________.

a) A+B b) A-B c) B-A d) Max of A or B

7. In hydrograph method, capacity of reservoir can be calculated by _____________ formula.

a) Trapezoidal b) Simpson’s c) Both a) and b) d) None of these

8. One of the following type of method may give error while determining balancing capacity.

a) Analytical b) Graphical c) Both a) and b) d) None of these

9. While determining balancing capacity of distribution reservoir, in graphical method ____________________________________________is plotted on Y-axis.

a) Cumulative demand b) Cumulative supply or pumping

Time in hrs

Cumulative

supply and

demand

A

B

Supply

line

Demand

Curve



c) Cumulative losses d) Both a) and b) 10. While determining balancing capacity of distribution reservoir, in graphical method

______is plotted on X-axis. a) Discharge in lit b) Time in hrs c) Time in days d) Time in months

11. The storage capacity of reservoir can be found out by ______________

a) Heytograph b) Flow frequency curve c) Mass curve d) All of above

12.

a) b) c) d)

environmental engineering i objective questions (repaired)

Technology

odour b colour c turbidity

pp b mo c starch d ebt

lithr b litmin c

continuous b intermittent

population b population

jtu b ntu d

r iv p b i s

thousands c population