chapter-1 human resource management (hrm) -...
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Chapter-1 Human Resource Management (HRM)
1. ……………. are the resources that provide utility value to all other resources.
a. Men
b. Material
c. Money
d. Machinery
2. The term procurement stands for
a. recruitment and selection
b. training and development
c. pay and benefits
d. health and safety
3. The characteristics of human resources are ……………… in nature
a. homogeneous
b. heterogeneous
c. ductility
d. None of the above
4. Identify the managerial function out of the following functions of HR managers.
a. procurement
b. development
c. organizing
d. performance appraisal
5. Which of the following is an example of operative function of HR managers?
a. planning
b. organizing
c. procurement
d. controlling
6. The scope of human resource management includes
a. procurement
b. development
c. compensation
d. All of the above
7. Human resource management is normally ………… in nature.
a. proactive
b. reactive
c. combative
d. None of the above
8. The human resource management functions aim at…………..
a. ensuring that the human resources possess adequate capital, tool, equipment and
material to perform the job successfully
b. helping the organization deal with its employees in different stages of employment
c. improving an organization’s creditworthiness among financial institutions
d. None of the above
9. Which of these best describes the term 'hard' HRM?
a. A range of policies which emphasise the development of employees
b. An approach based on identifying key competencies in employees
c. A cost-centred, rational, approach to managing people
d. A range of policies which emphasise internal and external fit
10. What is meant by 'internal' and 'external' fit?
a. HR policies which are complementary and consistent within the organisation and
with the overall business strategy
b. The level of consistency between HR policies
c. The level of consistency and coherence between HR policies
d. None of these
11. Which of the following techniques are not connected with human resource planning?
a. Simple linear regression
b. Markov matrix analysis
c. Management of change
d. Succession planning
12. Human resource management (HRM) is concerned with the personnel policies and managerial
practices and systems that influence the workforce.
a) True
b) False
13. The human resources are…………………… in nature.
a) One-dimensional
b) Two-dimensional
c) Three-dimensional
d) multidimensional
14. Objectives of Human Resource Management are influenced by organizational objectives and
individual and social goals.
a) True
b) False
15. Human resource management policies are vital for organizations that are serious about resolving
personnel issues and finding hr solutions.
a) True
b) False
16. What is meant by RPO?
a. Recruitment Process Outsourcing.
b. Recruitment Process Output.
c. Recruitment Procedure Outsourcing.
d. None of these
17. What are the external environmental factors affecting recruitment? Select all that apply.
a. Legislation.
b. HR strategy.
c. Labour market.
d. Economy.
18. Human resources information systems (HRIS) can calculate labor costs, project future workforce
needs and store digitized personnel files with top-notch security features.
a) True
b) False
19. Objectives are pre-determined goals to which individual or group activity in an organization is
directed.
a) individual activity
b) group activity
c) Both a and b
d) None of these
20. HRM brings many long term benefits to the individuals (staff), the organization and the society.
a) True
b) False
Answers for Self Assessment Questions
1. (a) 2.(a) 3.(d) 4.(a) 5.(c) 6. (d) 7.(a)
8. (b) 9.(c) 10.(d) 11.(c) 12.(a) 13.(d) 14.(a)
15. (a) 16.(d) 17.(b) 18.(a) 19.(c) 20. (a)
Chapter-2 GLOBAL HUMAN RESOURCE MANAGEMENT
1. The country where the headquarters of a multinational company is located is known as
a. host country
b. home country
c. third country
d. None of the above
2. When an international firm follows a strategy of choosing only from the nationals of the parent
country, it is called
a. polycentric approach
b. geocentric approach
c. ethnocentric approach
d. None of the above
3. When the firms adopt a strategy of limiting recruitment to the nationalities of the host country
where the branch is located, it is called
a. polycentric approach
b. geocentric approach
c. ethnocentric approach
d. None of the above
4. Local people may view the multinational as a better citizen if it uses local management talent, and
some governments even press for the notarization of local management.
a) True
b) false
5. When the firms choose a strategy of recruiting the most suitable persons for the positions
available in the firm, irrespective of their nationalities, it is called
a. polycentric approach
b. geocentric approach
c. ethnocentric approach
d. None of the above
6. Which of the following factors is not related directly to the success of expatriate assignments?
a. the personality of expatriate employees
b. the intentions of expatriate employees
c. the incapability of the spouse to adjust to the new situation
d. the nature of products produced by the company
7. IHRM is an area of academic study which focuses on:
a) Comparative research
b) The movement of individuals across national boundaries
c) The exchange of ideas and practices
d) The policies and practices of MNC's
8. HR challenges which might be faced by internal companies include:
a) The needs for a diverse work-force
b) The relative underdevelopment of HR functions
c) Knowledge of national employment law
d) Knowledge of cultural norms and values
9. Human Resource Planning is not the process that helps organizations to provide adequate human
resources to achieve their current and future organizational objectives.
a) True
b) False
10. A global economy means:
a) Greater convergence of national economic and social identities
b) Greater divergence
c) Unrestricted movement of people across national boundaries
d) A global culture
11. Hofstadter’s five variables: power distance; individualism, masculinity /femininity; uncertainty
avoidance and long term versus short term orientation; were terms used to describe:
a) Family traits
b) HR strategy
c) National differences
d) Globalization
12. Cultural shock which is often the outcome of the negative experience of moving from a familiar
culture to one that is unfamiliar is important to understand in the context of internationalization
because:
a) It can effect soldiers returning form was zones
b) It can effect students on 'gap year' experiences
c) It can impact on individuals taking overseas assignments
d) Friends and families reunited
13. Planning has not a strategic element and should be viewed in the light of the strategic direction
of the practice.
a) True
b) False
14. Key to successful management of HR processes is the ability to?
a) Travel abroad
b) Recruit local managers
c) Identify key skills and competencies required for working overseas
d) Having appropriate training systems
15…………………….changes to legislation, particularly in the compliance area, may have an effect
on the viability of areas of the practice and require a change of emphasis in the types of services
provided.
a) Legal environment
b) Technological changes
c) Demographic trends
d) None of these
16. Planning has a strategic element and should be viewed in the light of the strategic direction of
the practice.
a) True
b) False
17. In the Delphi technique a number of partners and professional staff (experts) who are familiar
with the firm’s ………………………. each prepare a forecast.
a) long- and short-term plans
b) no long- and short-term plans
c) long- and no short-term plans
d) None of these
18. Human Resource Planning is not a mandatory part of every organization’s annual planning
process.
a) True
b) False
19. HR and hiring managers developed screening tools, such as applications, interviews, tests,
background checks and reference checks and begin accepting applications.
a) True
b) false
20. Cross-cultural training organizations are not experts in the area of cross-cultural relationships
and can provide training on many topics.
a) True
b) False
Answers for Self Assessment Questions
1. (b) 2.(c) 3.(a) 4.(a) 5.(b) 6. (d) 7.(d)
8. (b) 9.(b) 10.(a) 11.(c) 12.(c) 13.(b) 14.(c)
15. (a) 16.(a) 17.(a) 18.(b) 19.(a) 20. (b)
Chapter-3 RECENT TRENDS IN HUMAN RESOURCE MANAGEMENT (HRM)
1. E-HR Suite is a powerful on-demand Human Resource Management solution that energizes our
organization’s ability to ……………………… on employee investments.
a) maximize return
b) minimal return
c) Both a and b
d) None of these
2. …………………… Commitment to quality in all aspects of personnel administration will ensure
success.
a) Change agent
b) Quality Consciousness
c) Motivation
d) None of these
3. The e-HRM is not a specific stage in the development of HRM, but a choice for an approach to
HRM.
a) True
b) False
4. Strategic stretch involves………………
a. The fit between the organization and its environment.
b. Creating new opportunities by stretching and exploiting capabilities in new ways.
c. The skills of the senior management.
d. Utilizing all the resources of an organization to their full capacity.
5 What are core competences?
A) Resources which critically underpin competitive advantage and that others cannot
obtain.
B) Activities and processes needed to meet customers' minimum requirements and
therefore to continue to exist.
C) Key skills required for success in a particular business.
D) Activities that underpin competitive advantage and are difficult for competitors to
imitate or obtain.
6. The value chain attempts to identify those activities which add value to……………
A) The organization’s stakeholders.
B) The senior strategic managers in the organization.
C) The organization’s shareholders.
D) The customer or final user.
7. The value chain is composed of primary & support activities. Which answer below provides the
correct components for primary activities?
A) Service, human resource management, marketing & sales, operations and outbound
logistics.
B) Marketing & Sales, Operations, Outbound Logistics and Service.
C) Procurement, Firm Infrastructure, Human Resource Management, Technology
Development and Marketing & Sales.
D) Inbound Logistics, Operations, Outbound Logistics, Marketing & Sales and Service.
8. What is the purpose of an activity map?
A) A system to facilitate better time-planning.
B) It is used in business process reengineering to show how the different activities of an
organization are linked together.
C) It is used to identify and understand strategic capability by mapping how the different
activities of an organization are linked together.
D) A list of activities undertaken by an organization.
9. Competitive advantage through linkages between the organization and its value network can be
achieved by:
A) Vertical integration.
B) Adopting common quality standards internally and externally (with suppliers).
C) Examining supplier specifications, common merchandising, applying quality
management principles or by collaborating with other organizations in the form of
strategic alliances or joint ventures.
D) Outsourcing customer service to India.
10. Cost efficiency is determined by which of the following drivers?
A) Supply Costs, Experience, Product/Process Design and Economies of Scale.
B) Supply Costs & Economies of Scale.
C) Product/Process Design and Economies of Scale.
D) Experience.
11. Robustness of strategic capabilities is more likely when:
a. Linkages in the value network are exploited.
b. Core competences are complex, ambiguous and dependent on culture/history.
c. Competences lie with specific individuals.
d. Core competences lie in separate parts of the organization’s value chain.
12. Which types of organisational knowledge is a source of competitive advantage?
a. Explicit knowledge which is classified and formalized in a planned and systematic
way.
b. Personal knowledge which is hard to communicate and formalize.
c. Customer databases, market research reports, management reports.
d. Collective and shared experience accumulated through systems, routines and
activities of sharing across the organization.
13. In the resource-based view of strategy, what type of strategic capabilities are the source of
sustainable competitive advantage?
a. Unique resources and core competences.
b. Dynamic capabilities.
c. Operational excellence.
d. Strategic capabilities which are valuable to buyers, rare, robust and non-
substitutable.
14. What are the three criteria for the robustness of strategic capability?
a. Core competences, unique resources and dynamic capabilities.
b. Complexity, causal ambiguity and value to customers.
c. Complexity, causal ambiguity and rarity.
d. Complexity, causal ambiguity and culture/history.
15. Industry/sector benchmarking compares:
a. Organizational performance between firms/public sector organizations in different
industries or sectors.
b. Organizational performance between firms/public sector organizations in the same
industry or sector.
c. Organizational performance between firms/public sector organizations in different
countries.
d. Organizational performance between different divisions of the firm.
16. Best in Class Benchmarking seeks to assess organizational performance against:
a. The nearest geographical competitor.
b. The competitor who is 'best in class' wherever that may be.
c. The competitor who is the best in the industry.
d. The nearest principal competitor.
17. The purpose of a SWOT analysis is to analyze:
A) The business environment in which an organization operates.
B) The strategic capability of an organization.
C) The business environment and the strategic capability of an organization relative to
its competitors.
D) External and organizational environments.
18. SWOT should be:
a) A general list of issues under each heading.
b) Focused on key issues and as specific as possible.
c) Completed when an analysis of the external environment has been conducted.
d) SWOT analysis is the best strategic management framework for analyzing the competitive
positioning of an organization.
19. The use of e-HRM technology also is expected to lead to changes in time spent by HR
professional spent on specific HR activities.
a) True
b) False
20. Informational e-HRM support cannot be characterized as support that is primarily focused on
improving the operational efficiency of the HR system.
a) True
b) False
Answers for Self Assessment Questions
1. (a) 2.(b) 3.(a) 4.(b) 5.(d) 6. (d) 7.(d)
8. (c) 9.(c) 10.(a) 11.(a) 12.(d) 13.(d) 14.(d)
15. (b) 16.(b) 17.(c) 18.(b) 19.(a) 20. (b)
Chapter-4 LABOR LEGISLATION IN INDIA
1. Which Act of Parliament defines a `trade union’ and governs much of the law on industrial
relations?
a. The Trade Union and Labor Relations Act 2005.
b. The Trade Union and Labor Relations (Consolidation) Act 1991.
c. The Trade Union Act 1955.
d. The Trade Union and Labor Relations (Consolidation) Act 1992.
2. Under which of the following situations may a union refuse to admit a person or expel a member?
a. Because of their current state of health.
b. Because they do not feel that they are a suitable member.
c. Because of their financial means.
d. Because of misconduct.
3. Who is responsible for the maintenance of the `lists’ of independent trade unions?
a. Acas.
b. The Certification Officer.
c. The Central Arbitration Committee.
d. The Health and Safety Executive.
4. Which of the following best explains the term `union ballots’?
a. A ballot is the method by which a union recruits new members.
b. A ballot is the method by which a union expels members.
c. A ballot is the system by which union members vote for, e.g. industrial action.
d. A ballot is the system by which union members put forward information for `listing’.
5. What is the role of the `independent scrutinizer’?
a. To oversee the operation of union sickness and absence schemes.
b. To oversee union recruitment and selection.
c. To oversee the operation of any ballot (unless the ballot is on industrial action and
the number of members entitled to vote does not exceed 50.)
d. To oversee the discipline of union members who have committed gross misconduct
offences.
6. What is meant by the term `collective bargaining’?
a. A process by which a union recruits new members.
b. A process by which a union meets with another union to discuss recruitment.
c. A process by which a union negotiates with suppliers for the provision of e.g. office
furniture.
d. A process by which a union negotiates with an employer on behalf of its members on
matters concerning the terms and conditions of employment.
7. Which of the following is not an `industrial tort’?
a. Inducement.
b. Intimidation.
c. Gross misconduct.
d. Conspiracy.
8. Which of the following can a union do once it is `recognized’?
a. Apply for union status.
b. Engage in collective bargaining with an employer.
c. Apply to engage in the `closed shop’.
d. Apply to be referred to as a `workplace union’.
9. Can the members of a union who feel that they have been unjustifiably disciplined complain to
the Employment Tribunal?
a. Yes, but only if they pay the union £500.
b. Yes
c. No, because a union can make its own decisions re: disciplinary action.
d. No, because the union is not listed.
10. When will the actions of a union attract statutory immunity?
a. When they are in contemplation or furtherance of a trade dispute.
b. When the government allows this to be the case.
c. When they are discussed with the Certification Officer.
d. When they are in contemplation of mass union recruitment.
11. Working-age households without earnings have generally seen their benefits fall behind average
incomes, unless they have children.
a) True
b) False
12. The introduction and development of tax credits have expanded and transformed support for
working people with ……………………………….
a) high income
b) middle income
c) low income
d) None of these
13. Equal Employment Opportunity means equal access to jobs and benefits and services for all
employees and prospective employees in the workplace.
a) True
b) False
14. “Diversity Management” is a strategy to promote the perception, acknowledgement and
implementation of diversity in organizations and institutions.
a) True
b) False
15. Layers of Diversity are a source of creativity and innovation that can provide the potential for
future development and…………………...
a) competitive disadvantage
b) competitive advantage
c) Both a and b
d) None of these
16. Diversity management is not frequently confused with affirmative action and valuing diversity.
a) True
b) False
17. Diversity Management managing diversity is different from both ………………. because it
focuses on the business case for diversity.
a) affirmative action
b) valuing diversity
c) Motivation
d) Both a and b
18. Affirmative action is based on an assimilations model that focuses on getting people into an
organization rather than changing organizational culture (valuing diversity).
a) True
b) False
19. Managing diversity, on the other hand, is strategically driven, and brings a non pragmatic
orientation.
a) True
b) False
20. Strategic human resource management is a complex process which is constantly evolving and
being studied and discussed by academics and commentators.
a) True
b) False
Answers for Self Assessment Questions
1. (d) 2.(d) 3.(b) 4.(c) 5.(c) 6. (d) 7.(c)
8. (b) 9.(b) 10.(a) 11.(a) 12.(c) 13.(a) 14.(a)
15. (a) 16.(b) 17.(d) 18.(a) 19.(b) 20. (a)
Chapter-5 JOB ANALYSIS AND JOB DESIGN
1. Job analysis is a process of gathering information about the
a. job holder
b. job
c. management
d. organization
2. The final process of a job analysis is the preparation of two statements, namely,
a. job observation and job description
b. job specification and job observation
c. job description and job specification
d. None of the above
3. Which of the following terms is not associated with job analysis?
a. task
b. duty
c. position
d. competitor
4. The process of bringing together different tasks to build a job is called…………….
a. job evaluation
b. job design
c. job classification
d. job description
5. The process of grouping of similar types of works together is known as
a. job classification
b. job design
c. job evaluation
d. job description
6. The system of ranking jobs in a firm on the basis of the relevant characteristics, duties, and
responsibilities is known as…………
a. job evaluation
b. job design
c. job specification
d. job description
7. The written statement of the findings of job analysis is called…………….
a. job design
b. job classification
c. job description
d. job evaluation
8. A structured questionnaire method for collecting data about the personal qualities of employees is
called……………
a. functional job analysis
b. management position description questionnaire
c. work profiling system
d. none of the above
9. The model that aims at measuring the degree of each essential ability required for performing the
job effectively is known as………………….
a. Fleishman Job Analysis System
b. common metric questionnaire
c. management position description questionnaire
d. functional job analysis
10. The method that depends mainly on the ability and experience of the supervisors for gathering
relevant information about the job is called the……………..
a. task inventory analysis method
b. technical conference method
c. diary maintenance method
d. critical incident method
11. Designing a job according to the worker’s physical strength and ability is known as………
a. ergonomics
b. task assortment
c. job autonomy
d. none of the above
12. Which of the following is not a component of job design?
a. job enrichment
b. job rotation
c. job reengineering
d. job outsourcing
13. Moving employees from one job to another in a predetermined way is called…….
a. job rotation
b. job reengineering
c. work mapping
d. job enrichment
14. Personnel selection and assessment is an area………………
a. That has only recently become popular and researched within work psychology
b. Where work psychology has made a significant contribution
c. Of minor importance within work psychology
d. In which work psychologists have focussed mainly on administrative and
managerial issues
15. Which of the following is not a specific technique used to elicit job holders’ reports?
a. Position analysis questionnaire
b. Job components inventory
c. Repertory grid technique
d. Critical competency indicator
16. In the context of validating existing personnel selection systems, the most rigorous type of
validity is……………….
a. Synthetic validity
b. Faith validity
c. Face validity
d. Criterion-related validity
17. Reliability refers to……………………
a. The extent to which it measures consistently under varying conditions
b. The accuracy of the method in actually measuring what it is claiming to
c. The strength of the relationship between the predictor and the criterion
d. The lack of stability in the measurement tools
18. A description about the job duties, responsibilities, and expected behavior on the job.
a) environment
b) equipment
c) activities
d) job title
19. Direct observation, a person conducting the analysis simply observes employees in the
performance of their duties.
a) True
b) False
20. Job design involves systematic attempts to organize tasks, duties and responsibilities into a unit
of work to achieve certain objectives.
a) True
b) False
Answers for Self Assessment Questions
1. (b) 2.(c) 3.(d) 4.(b) 5.(a) 6. (a) 7.(c)
8. (a) 9.(b) 10.(a) 11.(d) 12.(a) 13.(b) 14.(d)
15. (d) 16.(a) 17.(c) 18.(a) 19.(a) 20. (a)
Chapter-6 HUMAN RESOURCE PLANNING
1.An expert forecasting technique used in environmental scanning where individual ideas, round
robin listing and ranking occurs is known as…………
a) Delphi Technique
b) Impact Analysis
c) Trend Analysis
d) Nominal Group Technique
e) Priority Ranking Method
2. Which is NOT one of the key elements of the 5C Model of HRM Impact?
a) cost
b) contribution
c) critical incident
d) compliance
e) client satisfaction
3. An error of omission when a job description or specification fails to incorporate important aspects
of the job required for success is called………………..
a) contamination
b) deficiency
c) performance gap
d) generalization
4. Regression analysis may be used in HR forecasting. Another term for independent variable in
such analysis is………………
a) target variable
b) correlation
c) causal variable
d) linear relationship
5. The likelihood that an individual in a specific job will exhibit one of the five movement
behaviours is known as……………………
a) transitional probabilities
b) chain effect
c) Markov cell
d) multiplier effect
6. In any downsizing initiative it is important to:
a) attend to rumours
b) make expectations clear
c) allow time for grieving
d) All of these
7. Which of the following is NOT a reason why an organization may outsource?
a) to improve employee morale
b) to improve service levels
c) to access specialized expertise
d) to save money
8. What is meant by 'internal' and 'external' fit?
a. HR policies which are complementary and consistent within the organization and
with the overall business strategy
b. The extent to which HR policies match business strategy
c. The level of consistency between HR policies
d. The level of consistency and coherence between HR policies
9. Which of the following techniques are not connected with human resource planning?
a. Succession planning
b. Management of change
c. Simple linear regression
d. Markov matrix analysis
10. Which of the following is not a selection technique?
a. Interviews
b. Ability tests
c. Performance appraisal
d. Psychometric testing
11. Which of the following would not form part of a flexible reward package?
a. Cafeteria benefits
b. Non-pay items such as child care vouchers
c. Performance-related pay
d. Ability to 'buy and sell' leave days
12. Human resource planning should be an integral part of business planning.
a) True
b) False
13. Human resource planning is important for helping both organizations and employees to prepare
for the future but you might be thinking
a) True
b) False
14. Forecasting the overall human resource requirement in accordance with the organizational plans
is one of the key aspects of demand forecasting.
a) True
b) false
15. Here the supervisors and the management sit together and projections are made after joint
consultations.
a) bottom-up approach
b) top-down approach
c) participative approach
d) None of these
16. Human resource inventory helps in determining and evaluating the quantity of internal human
resources available.
a) True
b) False
17. Demand forecast is not the process of estimating the future quantity and quality of people
required.
a) True
b) False
18. New venture analysis will be useful when new ventures contemplate employment planning.
a) True
b) False
19. Which of the following best summarises the distinction between 'hard' and 'soft' HRP?
a. 'Hard' HRP emphasises direct control over employees, whereas 'soft' HRP
emphasises indirect control
b. There is no significant difference between 'hard' and 'soft' HRP
c. 'Hard' HRP emphasises indirect control over employees, whereas 'soft' HRP
emphasises direct control
d. None of these
20. Which of the following is not an objective method of demand forecasting?
a. Delphi technique
b. Ratio analysis
c. Time trends
d. Work study
Answers for Self Assessment Questions
1. (d) 2.(a) 3.(b) 4.(c) 5.(a) 6. (d) 7.(a)
8. (a) 9.(b) 10.(c) 11.(c) 12.(a) 13.(b) 14.(a)
15. (c) 16.(b) 17.(a) 18.(a) 19.(a) 20. (a)
Chapter-7 PREPARING MANPOWER INVENTORY
1. Best practices in recruitment and selection must be ………………..
a. legally defensible
b. systematic
c. measurable through the use of employment testing
d. scientific and use rigorous measures
2. In human resource system leadership, occupational health and safety and labour relations are all
important elements of………………………
a. performance management
b. strategic objectives
c. organization requirements
d. work environment
3. A human resource strategy should be consistent with the firm’s corporate and business strategies,
as well as with the other managerial functional strategies.
a. True
b. False
4. An awareness of one’s values and the organization’s values and culture are components of
a. organization vision
b. ethics
c. conflict of interest
d. culture
5. The Meiorin decision illustrated………………
a. the inaccuracy and unfairness of employment testing
b. that a completed job analysis will guarantee that legal standards are met
c. the need for the validation of selection procedures
d. the need for the reliability of selection procedures
6. What are the main components of a systematic formal selection process?
a. application, testing, behavioural interview, reference check, and hiring decision
b. recruitment, selection criteria evaluation, and employment offer
c. minimum qualifications, job tasks, and competencies
d. job analysis, KSAOs, and performance measures
7. Systematic errors in measurement, or inferences made from those measurements that are related
to different identifiable group membership characteristics such as age sex, or race is referred to
as………
a. discrimination
b. unfairness
c. bias
d. validity
8. In reference to recruitment and selection, what legislation has precedence over all other
legislations?
a. constitutional law
b. human rights law
c. Canada labour law
d. employment equity legislation
9. What rating error occurs when a rater tends to assign only average ratings regardless of the true
level of performance?
a. severity errors
b. central tendency errors
c. leniency errors
d. halo effect
10. What is the initial step in the selection process?
a. recruiting
b. screening
c. testing
d. advertising
11. Which best defines advertising designed to raise an organization’s profile in a positive manner in
order to attract interest from job seekers?
a. image advertising
b. realistic job preview
c. promotional recruitment
d. branding
12. Which factor defines a situation when there is no intention to discriminate but discrimination
occurs nonetheless?
a. direct discrimination
b. systemic discrimination
c. unplanned discrimination
d. bona fide occupational qualification
13. Which defines statements of education, experience, and personal attributes required to perform a
job satisfactorily that are used to screen applicants?
a. job postings
b. job requirements
c. minimum qualifications
d. qualifications
14. Outplacement is a service provided by companies to assist former employees in their search for
new jobs.
a. True
b. False
15. What screening methods could an organization consider?
a. application forms, résumés, and employment interview
b. application forms, employment testing, and employment interview
c. application forms, résumés, cover letters, and reference checks
d. application forms, résumés, and employment testing
16. Which of the following methods determines if an applicant meets the minimum requirements for
the job?
a. employment testing
b. employment interview
c. application form
d. job advertisement
17. Psychological testing is used for all of the following EXCEPT
a. to hire applicants
b. to classify applicants selected into the most appropriate positions
c. to assist in screening applicants
d. to identify applicant needs for training
18. Manpower needs, if planned properly, in terms of profile required, numbers, time and place, will
give the Company mileage over competitors in terms of consistency in output.
a. True
b. False
19. A trading assistant has not to also collaborate with dealers, portfolio executives, steward bank
and monitor or track portfolio cash positions.
a. True
b. False
20. What is the employment interview best suited to assess?
a. knowledge
b. skills
c. abilities
d. personal characteristics
Answers for Self Assessment Questions
1. (a) 2.(d) 3.(a) 4.(b) 5.(c) 6. (a) 7.(c)
8. (a) 9.(b) 10.(a) 11.(a) 12.(b) 13.(c) 14.(a)
15. (c) 16.(c) 17.(c) 18.(a) 19.(b) 20. (d)
Chapter-8 SELECTION
1. Selection, either internal or external, is a deliberate effort of organizations to select a …………….
of personnel from a large number of applicants.
a) not fixed number
b) fixed number
c) not variable number
d) variable number
2. In a sense the …………… is a highly structured interview in which the questions are standardized
and determined in advance.
a) initial interview of the candidate
b) application blank
c) employment tests
d) None of these
3. This test is used to find out the candidate’s intelligence.
a) aptitude test
b) interest test
c) intelligence test
d) None of these
4. Induction is not helps to employee to adapt to the organization easily in short period.
a) True
b) False
5. ……………….is used to measure the characteristics that constitute personality.
a) personality test
b) achievement test
c) interest test
d) None of these
6. Preliminary interview becomes a necessity, when a ………… of candidates apply for a job.
a) small number
b) large number
c) Both a and b
d) None of these
7. ………….. are widely used to measure the talent and ability of a candidate to learn a new job or
skill.
a) Aptitude or potential ability tests
b) Interest test
c) Intelligence test
d) None of these
8. Organization tends to hire the best suitable candidate for the job in which they have vacancy or
opening.
a) True
b) False
9. In addition to psychological analysis employers can use ……….. designed to measure our capacity
to perform in a particular way.
a) personality tests
b) aptitude tests
c) Both a and b
d) None of these
10. ……………… is the extent to which an instrument measures what it intends to measure.
a) Validity
b) Reliability
c) Preparation
d) None of these
11. The objective of interview is to get information from interviewee to know about his skills and
capabilities.
a) True
b) False
12. Exit interview is not taken to find out why the employee is leaving the company.
a) True
b) False
13. The candidate has to give detailed information about his background, special interest, etc.
a) Depth Interview
b) Stress Interview
c) Individual Interview
d) None of these
14……………. is an oral interview which can be arranged at any place.
a) Individual Interview
b) Informal interview
c) Formal Interview
d) Panel Interview
15. Employee outsourcing is not a practice that many companies around the world are adopting for
to achieve greater organizational flexibility, improved efficiency, reduced overheads and a hassle
free HR management.
a) True
b) False
16. Employee Outsourcing can be a cost effective alternative to the expense and administrative
burden of a traditional ……………….. relationship.
a) man-man
b) employer-employee
c) customer-costomer
d) None of these
17. New employees are having dreams about some organization and the cultures, but the actual
situation may not be the same as they are thinking.
a) True
b) False
18. Placement is not defined as “the determination of the job to which an accepted candidate is to be
assigned and his assignment to that job.
a) True
b) False
19. Lowering of costs has helped many companies reap immense financial benefits.
a) True
b) False
20. A new employee must be provided operational knowledge that is specific to the position and
location.
a) True
b) False
Answers for Self Assessment Questions
1. (b) 2.(b) 3.(c) 4.(b) 5.(a) 6. (b) 7.(a)
8. (a) 9.(b) 10.(a) 11.(a) 12.(b) 13.(a) 14.(b)
15. (b) 16.(b) 17.(a) 18.(b) 19.(a) 20. (a)
Chapter-9 TRAINING AND DEVELOPMENT
1. Organizations develop through training and development which bring benefits to employees as
well as the organizations. Which of the following would not be regarded as a common feature that
would result from training in today's modern workplace?
a. Same job for life
b. Improve chances of promotion
c. Be able to move more easily between jobs and other organizations
d. Develop a range of transferable skills
2. Training needs analysis can take place at organizational, task, and person levels. At the
organizational level, it broadly examines what are the organization’s strategic plans and where is
training and development needed to fit into the planning. Organizational training needs generally
occur when:
a. information technology systems need upgrading.
b. there is some kind of barrier hindering the achievement of organizational aims and
objectives which is best removed by training.
c. government provides additional funding.
d. other competing organizations are conducting extensive training programmers.
3. The first phase of training programmers is a training needs analysis. What does this aim to do?
a. Produce selection criteria
b. Establish the training resources required
c. Identify the training objectives
d. All of these
4. In his contribution to understanding learning and learning outcomes, Gagne produced six types
of learning related to human performance which he called capabilities, but which of the following is
correct?
a. Cognitive strategies
b. Motor Skills
c. Basic learning
d. All of these
5. Training and development is the framework for helping employees to develop their personal and
organizational skills, knowledge, and abilities.
a) True
b) False
6. Anderson's theory of skill development distinguishes between declarative and procedural
knowledge. Procedural knowledge refers to knowing how to do something, but what is declarative
knowledge?
a. Automatic task processing
b. Muscle memory
c. Factual knowledge about a task
d. Associative knowledge of the task
7. When evaluating interventions, organizations often resort to the lowest level of Kirkpatrick’s
model and only gather reaction level data. However, reaction level data can be improved by asking
trainees:
a. how difficult they found the training.
b. how much they enjoyed the training.
c. how difficult and useful they found the training.
d. how useful and enjoyable they found the training.
8. Transfer of learning to the workplace needs to be made for the training programme to have been
successful. Which of the following can hinder this process?
a. Low self-efficacy
b. Ridicule from colleagues
c. Lack of managerial support
d. All of these
9. Job descriptions should be clear and concise and may serve as a major training tool for the
identification of guidelines.
a) True
b) False
10. The concept of communities of practice (CoP) has grown in the past decade and can evolve
formally or informally using communication and information technology. What is an appropriate
description of a CoP?
a. A gathering of experts in a particular field who allow their work to be disseminated
over the internet
b. Groups of people who interact regularly on issues important to them and share best
practice for their mutual benefit
c. An individual who is willing to disseminate relevant information to interested
parties
d. A workplace based group willing to communicate with others using the internet and
intranet
11. Methods for evaluation are pre-and post- surveys of customer comments cards, the
establishment of a cost/benefit analysis outlining our expenses and returns, and an increase in
customer satisfaction and profits.
a) True
b) False
12. A planned program designed to …………the knowledge, proficiency, ability and skills of district
personnel is vital to the overall administration of district programs.
a) decrease
b) increase
c) Both a and b
d) None of these
13. The training of district employees should be approached systematically to avoid duplication of
effort and to get the most out of district training dollars.
a) True
b) False
14. Training should be accomplished whenever possible through self development or ……………
training.
a) off-the-job
b) on-the-job
c) the-job
d) none of these
15. Under this method, skilled co-workers or supervisors instruct employees and they learn the job
by personal observation and practice.
a) Job Instructing Training (JIT)
b) On-The –Job Training
c) Off the job training
d) None of these
16. During the training period the trainee can earn pay and learners pay usually increase
automatically as their skills improve.
a) True
b) False
17. This method involves teaching by a superior about the knowledge and skills of a job to the junior
or subordinate.
a) True
b) False
18. The coach is usually either a ………….. executive or a behavioral scientist with extensive
experience as a management consultant.
a) successful informer
b) unsuccessful former
c) successful former
d) None of these
19. Resistance to change arises due to deferring perception, personalities and needs. If the employee
perceives the change is unfavorable to them, they resist to the change.
a) True
b) False
20. OD is also portrayed as an approach to change that deals with both the ‘hard elements’
a) strategy
b) structure,
c) processes
d) All of these
Answers for Self Assessment Questions
1. (a) 2.(b) 3.(c) 4.(d) 5.(a) 6. (b) 7.(c)
8. (d) 9.(a) 10.(b) 11.(a) 12.(b) 13.(a) 14.(b)
15. (b) 16.(b) 17.(a) 18.(c) 19.(a) 20. (d)
Chapter-10 Performance Management System
1. Which of the following is not one of the main reasons for major changes in performance appraisal
in recent years?
a. Government legislation.
b. Knowledge management initiatives.
c. Team working initiatives.
d. Total quality management.
2. Which of the following statement are correct? Select all that apply.
a. Performance appraisal is diminishing in importance.
b. Performance appraisal now includes previously untouched organisations and
occupational groups.
c. Performance appraisal has become more widespread.
d. Performance appraisal is not used in the public sector.
3. Which of the following is not a type of performance appraisal?
a. Customer appraisals.
b. Appraisal of managers.
c. Team based appraisal.
d. 45 degree appraisal.
4. Why might an organization use multiple systems of appraisal? Select all that apply.
a. Different systems for different part of the organization.
b. To separate reward and non-reward aspects of appraisal.
c. Different systems for different organizational groups.
d. To provide employees with a choice of methods.
5. Which of the following is not a reason why performance appraisal is used by organizations?
a. To determine promotion.
b. To motivate employees.
c. Because it is a legal requirement.
d. To clarify and define performance expectations.
6. A good potential appraisal system provides opportunities continuously for the employee to know
his strengths and weaknesses.
a) True
b) False
7. Which of the following statements about performance management systems is not true?
a. They cause stress for employees.
b. Performance management systems are ineffective.
c. Commitment from line managers is questionable.
d. They improve organizational performance in the long-term.
8. Performance management in government is the managerial activity necessary to promote well-
performing policy management and service delivery.
a) True
b) False
9. Which of the following statements about performance appraisal is not true?
a. Companies use appraisal to encourage employee loyalty and commitment.
b. Performance appraisal has become a tool to motivate and control workers.
c. Performance appraisal reduces managerial control.
d. Employees may be appraised on both objective and subjective measures.
10. What is the meaning of upward appraisal?
a. Line managers rate the performance of employees.
b. Employees rate the performance of their peers.
c. Senior managers rate the performance of line managers.
d. Employees rate the performance of their manager.
11. What is meant by 360 degree appraisal?
a. A system where every employee rates another employee chosen at random.
b. A system where the line manager rates subordinates simultaneously.
c. A system where feedback is obtained from peers subordinates and supervisors.
d. A system where a senior manager rates all line managers simultaneously.
12. Performance planning is not the first crucial component of any performance management
process which forms the basis of performance appraisals.
a) True
b) False
13. Which of the following statements about 360 degree appraisal is not true?
a. 360 degree appraisal may be linked to pay awards.
b. Feedback may comprise both open and closed questions.
c. The data generated is normally highly accurate, valid and meaningful.
d. 360 degree appraisal is normally conducted anonymously.
e. 360 degree appraisal has origins in the 1970s US army.
14. What is the purpose of a 'mystery shopper'?
a. A person who works for a competitor and pretends to be a customer in order to test
the service encountered.
b. A person who pretends to be a manager in order to test the service process.
c. A person who pretends to be an employee in order to test service process.
d. A person pretends to be a real customer in order to test the service encountered.
15. Which of the following statements is not true?
a. Deming believed performance appraisal was central to quality management.
b. Some line managers do not take the appraisal processes seriously.
c. The introduction of performance appraisal in the public sector has been
controversial.
d. Some performance appraisal systems have become bureaucratic.
16. What is meant by the 'Veblen effect'?
a. The practice of giving everyone random ratings.
b. The practice of giving everyone high ratings.
c. The practice of giving everyone low ratings.
d. The practice of giving everyone average ratings.
17. What is meant by 'Impression effect'?
a. Where the ratings reflect the similarity between appraiser and appraisee.
b. Where a single negative aspect dominates and distorts the appraisal.
c. The notion that some employees can manage their reputation to ensure managers
has a good impression of them.
d. The notion that closeness between manager and employee may create distortions in
the appraisal process.
18. The subordinates very often take those actions which are liked by their superiors. Subordinate
judges his own actions on the basis of the approval and appreciation of the superior.
a) True
b) False
19. Performance Appraisal helps in chalking out compensation packages for employees.
a) True
b) False
20. A good potential appraisal system provides opportunities continuously for the employee to
know his strengths and weaknesses.
a) True
b) False
Answers for Self Assessment Questions
1. (a) 2.(c) 3.(d) 4.(c) 5.(c) 6. (a) 7.(d)
8. (a) 9.(c) 10.(d) 11.(c) 12.(b) 13.(c) 14.(d)
15. (a) 16.(d) 17.(c) 18.(a) 19.(a) 20. (a)
Chapter-11 COMPENSATION
1. ………………….. refers to all forms of pay or rewards going to employees and arising from their
employment.
a. Reimbursement
b. Employee compensation
c. Salary
d. Benefits
2. Direct financial payments include all of the following except ……………….
a. wages
b. insurance
c. salaries
d. incentives
3. Which of the following is categorized as an indirect payment portion of employee
compensation?
a. wages
b. salaries
c. employer-paid insurance
d. commissions
4. Leaders need to watch for opportunities for new products and services and position the company
to succeed in a competitive environment.
a. True
b. False
5. Which of the following factors affects the design of any pay plan?
a. union
b. company policy
c. equity
d. all of these
6. Which law allows the secretary of labor to set wage rates for laborers and mechanics employed by
contractors working for the federal government?
a. Davis-Bacon Act
b. Walsh-Healey Public Contract
c. Fair Wages Act
d. Civil Rights Act
7. Pay-for-performance should not be considered a quick fix for an ailing compensation program or
waning company morale.
a. True
b. False
8. Which compensation-related law contains minimum wage, maximum hours, overtime pay, equal
pay, and child labor provisions?
a. Walsh-Healey Public Contract
b. Fair Wages Act
c. Civil Rights Act
d. Fair Labor Standards Act
9. Which of the following is addressed by the Fair Labor Standards Act?
a. minimum wage
b. maximum hours
c. child labor
d. all of these
10. The Fair Labor Standards Act covers workers employed in ………………...
a. manufacturing
b. retailing
c. agriculture
d. all of these
11. Which law makes it illegal to discriminate against any individual with respect to compensation
because of race, color, religion, sex, or national origin?
a. Fair Labor Standards Act
b. Civil Rights Act
c. Employee Retirement Income Security Act
d. Equal Pay Act
12. According to the Fair Labor Standards Act, if a worker covered by the act works more than 40
hours, he or she will receive overtime pay at a rate of ………….. of normal pay for any hours worked
over 40 in a workweek.
a. 50%
b. 100%
c. 125%
d. 150%
13. Jack worked 6 hours of overtime this week but has decided to take time off instead of overtime
pay. How many hours will Jack get off?
a. 3 hours
b. 6 hours
c. 9 hours
d. 12 hours
14. Which of the following occupations must adhere to overtime and minimum pay provisions
stated in the Fair Labor Standards Act?
a. paralegals
b. pharmacists
c. attorneys
d. department heads
15. All of the following occupations are exempt from the overtime provisions stated in the Fair Labor
Standards Act except ………………...
a. physicians
b. dentists
c. management trainees
d. teachers
16. Whether or not a position is exempt from provisions including overtime pay in the Fair Labor
Standards Act depends upon the …………… associated with the job.
a. job responsibilities
b. job duties
c. salary
d. All of these
17. The ……………. states that employees of one sex may not be paid wages at a rate lower than
that paid to employees of the opposite sex for doing roughly equivalent work.
a. American Disabilities Act
b. Civil Rights Act
c. Employee Retirement Income Security Act
d. Equal Pay Act
18. Under which condition below is it acceptable for employees of the opposite sex to receive
different pay for doing roughly equivalent work?
a. when the difference exists despite equal skills
b. when the difference exists despite equal efforts
c. when the difference exists despite similar responsibility
d. when the difference exists because of a merit system
19. Which act provided for the creation of government-run employer-financed corporations to
protect employees against the failure of their employer’s pension plan?
a. Fair Labor Standards Act
b. Civil Rights Act
c. Employee Retirement Income Security Act
d. Equal Pay Act
20. ………….. refers to the ownership employees build up in their pension plan should their
employment be terminated before retirement.
a. Portability
b. Equity
c. Vesting
d. Unemployment
Answers for Self Assessment Questions
1. (b) 2.(b) 3.(c) 4.(a) 5.(d) 6. (a) 7.(a)
8. (d) 9.(d) 10.(d) 11.(b) 12.(d) 13.(c) 14.(a)
15. (c) 16.(d) 17.(d) 18.(d) 19.(c) 20. (c)
Chapter-12 Management Development
1. Which of the following is not a goal of a management development programme?
a. To make certain that the managers are aware of the latest and best managerial
practices, measurement methods and work techniques
b. To ensure that the attitudes, values and beliefs of the managers match the core
values and strategy of the organization
c. To assist the managers to build on their strengths and work on their weaknesses
d. To ensure that there is no delay in the settlement of retirement benefits of the
managers
2. Teaching by a wise and trusted superior on a one-to-one basis is called
a. In-basket training
b. Behavior modeling
c. Mentoring
d. Action Learning
3. Role-playing can be defined as an educational or therapeutic technique in which some problems
involving human interaction, real or imaginary is presented and then spontaneously acted out.
a. True
b. False
4. The development technique which educates the trainees about the need for and the techniques of
prioritizing the situations for decision-making is called
a. In-basket training
b. Action learning
c. Mentoring
d. Executive coaching
5. Trainees forming teams and assuming managerial roles in two or more imaginary but rival
companies is part of the _______ development technique.
a. university-based programmers
b. external coaching
c. in-house development centers
d. None of these
6. A programmed of one-to-one collaboration between a certified external expert and a manager for
developing the leadership skills of the latter is called
a. Executive Orientation
b. Executive coaching
c. Mentoring
d. None of these
7. The initial training effort to inform the new managers about the company, the job, and the work
group is known as
a. Action learning
b. Behavior modeling
c. Executive coaches
d. Executive orientation
8. Which of the following is not a hurdle for an effective succession management plan?
a. Lack of criteria for successor identification
b. Improper diagnosis of development requirements
c. Absence of managerial initiative and support
d. Absence of strike or lock-out
9. Which of the following is the most objective method of identifying the potential successor in
succession management?
a. Performance evaluation
b. Peer group suggestion
c. Superior’s recommendation
d. Management’s preference
10. Management development refers to the process of training and developing managerial talent
within a company or organization.
a. True
b. False
11. The constant need for ………………. and demonstration of added value as pressures grow for
justification of all non-core organizational activities in the face of increasing competition.
a. High-cost solution
b. low-cost solutions
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
12. ……………………. individuals can gain a massive amount of learning and other benefits for their
organization by implementing an aggressive management development programme.
a. Highly motivated
b. self-directed False
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
13. The process of ……….. feedback seeks views from a range of relevant viewpoints - peers,
superiors and subordinates, and sometimes even outsiders like customers and suppliers - based on a
framework of competencies.
a. 160 degree
b. 260 degree
c. 360 degree
d. None of these
14. Appraisals and even performance and development reviews can be perceived as subjective and
over-dependent on the views of the person doing the reviewing.
a. True
b. False
15. A significant part of decision making skills is not in knowing and practicing good decision
making techniques.
a. True
b. False
16. Listening is not the same as hearing. Take time to listen carefully to what others are saying
through both their verbal and non-verbal communication.
a. Learn to Listen
b. Relax
c. Be Positive
d. None of these
17. Human resource management may be unaware that a drifting of defined responsibilities and
tasks has taken place.
a. True
b. False
18. Politicians may use the term to state that the level of general knowledge is declining under the
current education policy.
a. True
b. False
19. General knowledge then could not mean knowledge that is very well known or known by nearly
everyone.
a. True
b. False
20. Interpersonal skills include not only how we communicate with others, but also our confidence
and our ability to listen and understand.
a. True
b. False
Answers for Self Assessment Questions
1. (d) 2.(c) 3.(a) 4.(a) 5.(d) 6. (b) 7.(d)
8. (d) 9.(a) 10.(a) 11.(b) 12.(c) 13.(c) 14.(a)
15. (b) 16.(a) 17.(a) 18.(a) 19.(b) 20. (a)
Chapter-13 Career Planning
1. The Action Centered Leadership model was put forward and developed in 1973 by whom?
a) Beer
b) Taylor
c) Adair
d) Fiedler
2. The authors take a broad view of leadership and management (L&M) development, including all
activities aimed at building ongoing L&M capacity, enabling the organization to meet its objectives,
to sustain it and to what else?
a) Transform itself
b) Develop talent
c) Agree strategy
d) Make money
3. The information, tools and connections to enable them to define and effectuate a career path that
is a good fit between individual and job.
a) True
b) False
4. Which of the four theorists added a Chinese dimension to Hofsted's cultural dimensions?
a) Schein
b) Bond
c) Trompenaars
d) Adler
5. Which of the following aspects do not have an impact on Employment Law?
a) Recruitment and selection.
b) Dismissal
c) Education qualifications
d) Finance
6. Whilst there is no consensus as to what global leadership competencies are there is agreement as
to what according to Neary and O'Grady?
a) Lead change
b) Internal and external networking
c) Management style
d) The need to develop managers through such an approach
7. A career cannot be defined as a sequence of separate but related work activities that provides
continuity, order and meaning in a person’s life.
a) True
b) False
8. Planning to learn from experience is in keeping with which of Mumford's four approaches to
learning?
a) Prospective approach
b) Intuitive approach
c) Incidental approach
d) Retrospective approach
9. International management development involves the CEO and the senior team and other key
elements. Which of the following is not one of the key elements?
a) The global strategy
b) Human resource and line capabilities
c) Senior Management involvement
d) Performance management
10. Career planning aims at matching individual potential for promotion and individual aspirations
with organizational needs and opportunities.
a) True
b) False
11. A person's career includes many significant events and experiences but in which areas has work
psychology been able to make a contribution?
a. Career counselling
b. Mentoring
c. Career choice
d. All of the above
12. A different way to look at career types is to consider the subjective experience of an employee.
Schein outlined eight different career anchors that people can hold, what mixture do they consist of?
a. Abilities, motives, needs and values
b. Motives, needs, status and salary
c. Pride, status, salary and abilities
d. Status, salary, pride and perks
13. It is difficult to get fully accurate figures but which of the following appears to be the most
commonly used career management technique in organizations?
a. Mentoring
b. Individual counseling
c. Career planning workshops
d. Internal vacancy notification
14. Career planning is making sure that the organization has the right people with the right skills at
the right time.
a) True
b) False
15. Succession planning is not a process whereby an organization ensures that employees are
recruited and developed to fill each key role within the company.
a) True
b) False
16. Employees are not motivated and engaged when they can see a career path for their continued
growth and development.
a) True
b) False
17. To develop the employees we need for our succession plan, we use such practices as………
a) lateral moves
b) assignment to special projects
c) team leadership roles
d) All of these
18. The CFO is a ………………..leader who has passed all the assessment criteria to be a high
potential, ready-now candidate for the CEO Job.
a) low performing
b) middle performing
c) high performing
d) None of these
19. Proper succession planning ensures that there is a continuous availability of qualified personnel
so that the organization can run smoothly without disruption.
a) True
b) False
20. In Succession Planning, employers select suitable potential successors for those vacant positions.
a) True
b) False
Answers for Self Assessment Questions
1. (c) 2.(a) 3.(a) 4.(b) 5.(d) 6. (d) 7.(b)
8. (b) 9.(d) 10.(a) 11.(d) 12.(a) 13.(d) 14.(a)
15. (b) 16.(b) 17.(d) 18.(c) 19.(a) 20. (a)
Chapter-14 INDUSTRIAL RELATIONS
1. Which of the following is usually not an objective of industrial relations?
a. Connectedness
b. Collective wisdom
c. Conflict prevention
d. None of these
2. Identify the major actor of industrial relations from the following.
a. Employers
b. Unions
c. Government
d. All of these
3. That the authority rests solely with the management with no right to anyone to challenge it is the
basis of the
a. Pluralist approach
b. System approach
c. Unitary approach
d. Social action approach
4. The balance of power is not vested with any one group; rather, it is maintained between the
parties to the industrial relations.” This is the essence of the
a. Pluralist approach
b. System approach
c. Unitary approach
d. Social action approach
5. That the behavior, actions and role of the individuals are primarily shaped by the cultures of the
society is the basic assumption in the
a. Pluralist approach
b. System approach
c. Unitary approach
d. Social action approach
6. Which of the following approaches assumes that the understanding of industrial relations requires
an understanding of the capitalized society?
a. Marxist approach
b. Gandhian approach
c. Human relations approach
d. Giri approach
7. The utility of non-violence as the means of conflict resolution is the core principle of the
a. Marxist approach
b. Gandhian approach
c. Human relations approach
d. Giri approach
8. “Organizations are made up of people and the success of management lies in its dealings with
these people.” This is the fundamental of the
a. Marxist approach
b. Gandhian approach
c. Human relations approach
d. Giri approach
9. Which of the following approaches assumes that voluntary negotiations between employers and
employees are a means of settling disputes?
a. Marxist approach
b. Giri approach
c. Human relations approach
d. Gandhian approach
10. Which of the following approaches insists on investigating the underlying trends and patterns in
the cause and effect of industrial disputes?
a. Gandhian approach
b. Giri approach
c. Industrial sociology approach
d. Pluralist approach
11. Productivity bargaining is considered as a classic example of the
a. Oxford school approach
b. Giri approach
c. Human relations approach
d. Gandhian approach
12. Which Act of Parliament defines a `trade union’ and governs much of the law on industrial
relations?
a. The Trade Union and Labour Relations (Consolidation) Act 1992.
b. The Trade Union Act 1955.
c. The Trade Union and Labour Relations Act 2005.
d. The Trade Union and Labour Relations (Consolidation) Act 1991.
13. Under which of the following situations may a union refuse to admit a person or expel a
member?
a. Because of misconduct.
b. Because of their financial means.
c. Because they do not feel that they are a suitable member.
d. Because of their current state of health.
14. Who is responsible for the maintenance of the `lists’ of independent trade unions?
a. The Health and Safety Executive.
b. The Central Arbitration Committee.
c. The Certification Officer.
d. None of these
15. Which of the following best explains the term `union ballots’?
a. A ballot is the method by which a union expels members.
b. A ballot is the system by which union members vote for, e.g. industrial action.
c. A ballot is the system by which union members put forward information for `listing’.
d. A ballot is the method by which a union recruits new members.
16. Which of the following is not an `industrial tort’?
a. Intimidation.
b. Conspiracy.
c. Inducement.
d. Gross misconduct.
17. Which of the following can a union do once it is `recognized’?
a. Apply to be referred to as a `workplace union’.
b. Apply for union status.
c. Apply to engage in the `closed shop’.
d. Engage in collective bargaining with an employer.
18. An individual spends his maximum time at the workplace and his fellow workers are the ones
with whom he spends the maximum hours in a day.
a. True
b. False
19. Labor relations cannot refer broadly to any dealings between management and workers about
employment conditions.
a. True
b. False
20. Industrial relations are used to denote the collective relationships between management and the
workers.
a. True
b. False
Answers for Self Assessment Questions
1. (d) 2.(d) 3.(a) 4.(a) 5.(b) 6. (a) 7.(b)
8. (c) 9.(b) 10.(c) 11.(a) 12.(a) 13.(a) 14.(c)
15. (b) 16.(d) 17.(d) 18.(d) 19.(a) 20. (b)
Chapter-15 SAFETY AND HEALTH
1. The main statute governing health and safety at work is the……?
a. The Health and Safety of Independent Contractors Act 2005.
b. The Health and Safety of Employees Act 1974.
c. The Health and Safety at Work Act 1974.
d. The Health and Safety of Workers Act 2011.
2. Which of the following is not a source of the law on health and safety at work?
a. Guidance notes
b. Regulations.
c. Recent case law.
d. Common law.
3. Which of the following does not form part of an employer’s common law duty to take care?
a. Safe work equipment.
b. Competent fellow employees.
c. Reasonable salaries.
d. Safe work premises.
4. Which of the following best describes `contributory negligence’?
a. The claimant was partially responsible for the injury/damage that occurred.
b. The claimant had no responsibility for any injury/damage that occurred.
c. The claimant blames the defendant for his negligent actions.
d. The claimant was fully responsible for any injury/damage that occurred.
5. How would you define `volenti non fit injuria’?
a. An employee has consented to any injury/damage that has occurred.
b. That the employee has not consented to any injury/damage that has occurred.
c. That the employee was violent towards their employer.
d. That the employee takes full responsibility for any injury/damage that occurs.
6. Health and safety concerns everyone in an establishment although the main responsibility lies
with management in general and individual managers in particular.
a) True
b) False
7. What is the general duty outlined under Section 2 of the Health and Safety at Work Act 1974?
a. To ensure that all employees are provided with adequate equipment to enable them
to do their job.
b. To ensure that all employees are paid a salary set at least at the level of the national
minimum wage.
c. To ensure, so far as is reasonably practicable, the health, safety and welfare at work
of all his employees.
d. To provide competent employees.
8. Which organization is responsible for the enforcement of the Health and Safety at Work Act 1974?
a. The Equality and Human Rights Commission.
b. The Health and Safety Executive.
c. Acas
d. The Health and Safety Commission.
9. Occupational health issues are often given less attention than occupational safety issues because
the former are generally more difficult to confront.
a) True
b) False
10. Can an employer appeal against an improvement or prohibition notice?
a. Yes, but only against a prohibition and not an improvement notice.
b. Yes, under Section 24 of the Health and Safety at Work Act 1974.
c. No, there is no right to appeal.
d. Yes, but only against an improvement and not prohibition notice.
11. How many hours per week can a worker be required to work on average under the Working
Time Regulations 1998?
a. 35 hours.
b. 45 hours.
c. 48 hours.
d. None of these
12. Does an employer have to produce a health and safety statement outlining their policies?
a. Yes, but only if they employ over 5 people.
b. No, there is no requirement to provide a health and safety statement.
c. Yes, but only if they employ over 500 people.
d. Yes, but only if they employ over 100 people.
13 Bad healths of employees increases absenteeism of employees and hence, affects the production
process.
a) Physical Health
b) Mental Health
c) Noise Control
d) None of these
14. The Factories …………… provides for health safety and Welfare.
a) Act 1946
b) Act 1947
c) Act 1948
d) None of these
15. The Workplace Safety and Health Act is an essential part of the new framework to cultivate good
safety habits in all individuals so as to engender a strong safety culture in our workplace.
a) True
b) False
16. The Occupational Health and Safety…………. , (OHSA) is the Ontario law that governs health
and safety in the workplace.
a) Act, 1970
b) Act, 1980
c) Act, 1990
d) None of these
17. Workplace health promotion (WHP) has been defined as the combined efforts of employers,
employees and society to improve the health and well-being of people at work.
a) True
b) False
18. WHP has not a significant role to play in preparing and equipping people and organizations to
face these challenges.
a) True
b) False
19. Health promotion is supposed ‘…………………….’ for the organizations.
a) pay divided
b) pay skill
c) pay dividends
d) None of these
20. Industrial safety is primarily a management activity which is concerned with reducing,
controlling and eliminating hazards from the industries or industrial units.
a) True
b) False
Answers for Self Assessment Questions
1. (c) 2.(c) 3.(b) 4.(a) 5.(a) 6. (a) 7.(c)
8. (b) 9.(a) 10.(b) 11.(c) 12.(a) 13.(a) 14.(c)
15. (a) 16.(c) 17.(a) 18.(b) 19.(c) 20. (a)