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Medical Terminology: A Living Language, 5e (Fremgen/Frucht)Final Exam

Multiple-Choice

1) A combining form consists of a word root and a ________.A) vowelB) prefixC) suffixD) second word rootAnswer: AExplanation: A) Correct. A combining form consists of a word root and a vowel, usually o.B) A prefix precedes a combining form.C) A suffix follows a combining form.D) A combining form has only one word root.Page Ref: 3Learning Obj.: Chapter 1: Discuss the four parts of medical terms.Taxonomy: KnowledgeQuestion Type: Word Building

2) Which word part frequently gives the location of an organ?A) suffixB) word rootC) combining vowelD) prefixAnswer: DExplanation: A) A suffix indicates a condition, disease, or procedure.B) The word root is the foundation of the term, indicating the body part being discussed.C) The combining vowel connects word parts and makes the medical term pronounceable.D) Correct. A prefix gives information about the location of an organ, number, or time.Page Ref: 4Learning Obj.: Chapter 1: Discuss the four parts of medical terms.Taxonomy: KnowledgeQuestion Type: Word Building

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3) What portion of a Medical Record contains reports from various treatments and therapies?A) History and PhysicalB) Consultation ReportC) Ancillary ReportD) Discharge SummaryAnswer: CExplanation: A) The History and Physical details a patient's history and results of the physician's exam.B) A Consultation Report contains the results of a specialist's evaluation of a patient.C) Correct. An Ancillary Report contains results of treatments and therapies.D) A Discharge Summary outlines a patient's entire hospital stay.Page Ref: 12Learning Obj.: Chapter 1: Recognize the documents found in a medical record.Taxonomy: KnowledgeQuestion Type: Medical Record

4) Which healthcare setting provides services in a prepaid system?A) Health Maintenance OrganizationB) HospicesC) Nursing HomesD) Home Health CareAnswer: AExplanation: A) Correct.B) Hospices provide supportive care to terminally ill patients and their families.C) Nursing Homes provide long-term care for patients needing extra time to recover.D) Home Health Care provides services in the patient's own home.Page Ref: 13Learning Obj.: Chapter 1: Recognize the different healthcare settings.Taxonomy: KnowledgeQuestion Type: Healthcare Settings

5) Which plane divides the body into anterior and posterior portions?A) frontal planeB) sagittal planeC) coronal planeD) both A and CAnswer: DExplanation: A) Frontal plane is one possible answer, but not the best answer.B) The sagittal plane divides the body into left and right portions.C) Coronal plane is one possible answer, but not the best answer.D) Correct. Frontal plane and coronal plane are interchangeable terms.Page Ref: 33Learning Obj.: Chapter 2: Define the body planes.Taxonomy: Knowledge



Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

6) Skin belongs to which organ system?A) gastrointestinalB) endocrineC) cardiovascularD) integumentary systemAnswer: DExplanation: A) The gastrointestinal system contains the stomach and other digestive organs.B) The endocrine system contains glands like the thyroid and pancreas.C) The cardiovascular system contains the heart and blood vessels.D) Correct. The integumentary system contains the skin and its accessory organs.Page Ref: 27Learning Obj.: Chapter 2: List the major organs found in the 12 organ systems.Taxonomy: KnowledgeQuestion Type: Anatomy and Physiology

7) Which of the following phrases does NOT describe the anatomical position?A) palms facing the side of the bodyB) feet and toes pointing forwardC) arms at the sidesD) standing erectAnswer: AExplanation: A) Correct. In the anatomical position, the palms face forward.B) In the anatomical position, the feet and toes point forward.C) In the anatomical position, the arms are down at the sides of the body.D) In the anatomical position, the person is standing erect.Page Ref: 31Learning Obj.: Chapter 2: Describe the anatomical position.Taxonomy: KnowledgeQuestion Type: Anatomy and Physiology

8) The knee joint is ________ to the ankle joint.A) proximalB) lateralC) distalD) ventralAnswer: AExplanation: A) Correct. The knee is closer to the beginning of the leg than the ankle.B) Lateral means to the side.C) The knee is not further away from the beginning of the leg than the ankle.D) Ventral means on the front or belly-side of the body.Page Ref: 37



Learning Obj.: Chapter 2: Define directional and positional terms.Taxonomy: ApplyQuestion Type: Anatomy and Physiology

9) Which anatomical division of the abdomen is in the center of the upper row?A) umbilicalB) epigastricC) hypochondriacD) hypogastricAnswer: BExplanation: A) The umbilical region is in the center of the middle row.B) Correct. The epigastric region is in the center of the upper row.C) The hypochondriac region is on the left and right ends of the upper row.D) The hypogastric region is in the center of the lower row.Page Ref: 36Learning Obj.: Chapter 2: Locate and describe the nine anatomical and four clinical divisions of the abdomen.Taxonomy: KnowledgeQuestion Type: Anatomy and Physiology

10) Which body cavity contains the heart and lungs?A) thoracic cavityB) spinal cavityC) pelvic cavityD) abdominal cavityAnswer: AExplanation: A) Correct. The thoracic cavity contains the heart and lungs.B) The spinal cavity contains the spinal cord.C) The pelvic cavity contains the bladder and reproductive organs.D) The abdominal cavity contains the stomach and other digestive organs.Page Ref: 34-35Learning Obj.: Chapter 2: List the body cavities and their contents.Taxonomy: KnowledgeQuestion Type: Anatomy and Physiology



11) Which of the following is NOT an accessory organ of the skin?A) sebaceous glandB) fatC) nailsD) hairAnswer: BExplanation: A) Sebaceous or oil glands are accessory organs of the skin associated with hairs.B) Correct. Fat makes up the tissue in the subcutaneous layer.C) The fingernails and toenails are accessory organs of the skin.D) Body hair is an accessory organ of the skin.Page Ref: 54Learning Obj.: Chapter 3: List and describe the accessory organs of the skin.Taxonomy: KnowledgeQuestion Type: Anatomy and Physiology

12) Which common skin lesion is a crack-like groove on the skin?A) maculeB) whealC) fissureD) papuleAnswer: CExplanation: A) A macule is a flat, discolored skin area.B) A wheal is a round, raised area that itches.C) Correct. A fissure is a crack-like groove on the skin.D) A papule is a solid, circular, raised spot on the skin.Page Ref: 59Learning Obj.: Chapter 3: Identify and define selected integumentary system pathology terms.Taxonomy: KnowledgeQuestion Type: Pathology

13) Which of the following neoplasms is benign?A) basal cell carcinomaB) malignant melanomaC) Kaposi's sarcomaD) none of the aboveAnswer: DExplanation: A) Basal cell carcinoma is a cancerous tumor of the basal cell layer of the skin.B) Malignant melanoma is a dangerous skin cancer caused by an overgrowth of melanin.C) Kaposi's sarcoma is a form of skin cancer frequently found in AIDS patients.D) Correct. These three neoplasms are all malignant.Page Ref: 63, 66Learning Obj.: Chapter 3: Identify and define selected integumentary system pathology terms.Taxonomy: Knowledge



Question Type: Pathology

14) Which of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched?A) dermis — also called the coriumB) epidermis — contains basal cell layerC) dermis — contains nervesD) epidermis — contains blood vesselsAnswer: DExplanation: A) These choices are correctly matched; the terms dermis and corium are interchangeable.B) The basal cell layer is the deepest layer of the epidermis.C) The dermis contains nerves for temperature, touch, pain, and pressure.D) Correct. The epidermis depends on the dermis for its blood supply.Page Ref: 53-54Learning Obj.: Chapter 3: List and describe the three layers of skin and their functions.Taxonomy: KnowledgeQuestion Type: Anatomy and Physiology

15) Which term below means to scrape away superficial skin layers?A) liposuctionB) cryosurgeryC) debridementD) curettageAnswer: DExplanation: A) Liposuction means to remove fat from beneath the skin by means of suction.B) Cryosurgery means to use extreme cold to freeze and destroy tissue.C) Debridement means to remove foreign material and dead or damaged tissue from a wound.D) Correct. Curettage means to use a surgical instrument to scrape the skin.Page Ref: 71Learning Obj.: Chapter 3: Identify and define selected integumentary system therapeutic procedures.Taxonomy: KnowledgeQuestion Type: Therapeutic Procedures



16) Which medication is used to kill bacteria in skin cuts and wounds?A) antiviralB) antisepticC) corticosteroid creamD) anestheticAnswer: BExplanation: A) An antiviral is used to treat herpes simplex infections.B) Correct. An antiseptic is used to kill bacteria in skin cuts and wounds.C) Corticosteroid cream is used for its anti-inflammatory properties.D) An anesthetic is used to deaden pain.Page Ref: 72Learning Obj.: Chapter 3: Identify and define selected medications relating to the integumentary system.Taxonomy: KnowledgeQuestion Type: Pharmacology

17) Which of the following is NOT part of the appendicular skeleton?A) craniumB) metacarpalsC) scapulaD) femurAnswer: AExplanation: A) Correct. The cranium is part of the axial skeleton.B) The metacarpals are part of the appendicular skeleton.C) The scapula is part of the appendicular skeleton.D) The femur is part of the appendicular skeleton.Page Ref: 92-95Learning Obj.: Chapter 4: Correctly place bones in either the axial or the appendicular skeleton.Taxonomy: KnowledgeQuestion Type: Anatomy and Physiology



18) What is the common name for the clavicle?A) shoulder bladeB) knee capC) breast boneD) collar boneAnswer: DExplanation: A) The shoulder blade is the scapula.B) The knee cap is the patella.C) The breast bone is the sternum.D) Correct. The collar bone is the clavicle.Page Ref: 94Learning Obj.: Chapter 4: Locate and describe the major organs of the musculoskeletal system and their functions.Taxonomy: KnowledgeQuestion Type: Anatomy and Physiology

19) Which term describes a fracture in which the bone is shattered?A) comminutedB) closedC) compoundD) greenstickAnswer: AExplanation: A) Correct. In a comminuted fracture, the bone is shattered, splintered, or crushed.B) A closed fracture is a fracture with no open skin wound.C) A compound fracture is a fracture in which the bone has broken through the skin.D) A greenstick is an incomplete break in which one side of the bone bends rather than breaks.Page Ref: 101Learning Obj.: Chapter 4: Identify and define selected musculoskeletal system pathology terms.Taxonomy: KnowledgeQuestion Type: Pathology



20) What type of muscle is found in the walls of hollow organs, like the stomach?A) cardiac muscleB) skeletal muscleC) smooth muscleD) striated muscleAnswer: CExplanation: A) Cardiac muscle is found only in the heart.B) Skeletal muscle is found attached to the skeletal bones.C) Correct. Smooth muscle is found in the walls of hollow organs, ducts, and blood vessels.D) Striated muscle is another term for skeletal muscle.Page Ref: 114Learning Obj.: Chapter 4: Describe the characteristics of the three types of muscle tissue.Taxonomy: KnowledgeQuestion Type: Anatomy and Physiology

21) Which term means movement away from the midline of the body?A) adductionB) eversionC) pronationD) abductionAnswer: DExplanation: A) Adduction means movement toward the midline of the body.B) Eversion means turning outward, especially at the ankle.C) Pronation means to turn downward, especially the palm.D) Correct. Abduction means movement away from the midline of the body.Page Ref: 116Learning Obj.: Chapter 4: Use movement terminology correctly.Taxonomy: KnowledgeQuestion Type: Anatomy and Physiology



22) Which term refers to the surgical fusion of a joint to provide stability?A) arthroclasiaB) arthrotomyC) arthrocentesisD) arthrodesisAnswer: DExplanation: A) Arthroclasia means purposeful surgical breaking of a joint.B) Arthrotomy means a surgical procedure to cut into a joint capsule.C) Arthrocentesis means to puncture a joint for the purpose of withdrawing fluid.D) Correct. Arthrodesis means surgical fusion of a joint.Page Ref: 107Learning Obj.: Chapter 4: Identify and define selected musculoskeletal system therapeutic procedures.Taxonomy: KnowledgeQuestion Type: Therapeutic Procedures

23) Which abbreviation stands for a surgical procedure?A) ORIFB) LEC) RAD) BDTAnswer: AExplanation: A) Correct. ORIF stands for "open reduction-internal fixation."B) LE stands for "lower extremity."C) RA stands for "rheumatoid arthritis."D) BDT stands for "bone density testing."Page Ref: 110Learning Obj.: Chapter 4: Define selected abbreviations associated with the musculoskeletal system.Taxonomy: ComprehensionQuestion Type: Abbreviations



24) Which diagnostic procedure provides an X-ray of a joint after injection of a contrast medium into the joint space?A) arthroscopyB) myelographyC) dual-energy absorptiometryD) arthrographyAnswer: DExplanation: A) Arthroscopy is a visual examination of the inside of a joint using an arthroscope.B) Myelography provides an X-ray of the spinal column.C) Dual-energy absorptiometry is a test of bone density to diagnose osteoporosis.D) Correct. Arthrography provides an X-ray of a joint after injection of a contrast medium into the joint space.Page Ref: 106Learning Obj.: Chapter 4: Identify and define selected musculoskeletal system diagnostic procedures.Taxonomy: KnowledgeQuestion Type: Diagnostic Procedures

25) ________ are blood vessels that carry blood away from the heart.A) VeinsB) CapillariesC) Vena cavaeD) ArteriesAnswer: DExplanation: A) Veins carry blood from the body's tissues back to the heart.B) Capillaries connect arteries and veins and are the site of gas exchange with the tissues.C) The vena cavae are veins returning blood to the heart.D) Correct. Arteries like the aorta carry blood away from the heart and to the body's tissues.Page Ref: 147Learning Obj.: Chapter 5: List and describe the characteristics of the three types of blood vessels.Taxonomy: KnowledgeQuestion Type: Anatomy and Physiology



26) Which of the choices below is NOT a heart valve?A) semilunarB) mitralC) tricuspidD) perilunarAnswer: DExplanation: A) There are two semilunar valves in the heart, aortic and pulmonary.B) The mitral valve is between the left atrium and ventricle.C) The tricuspid valve is between the right atrium and ventricle.D) Correct. There is no perilunar valve.Page Ref: 143Learning Obj.: Chapter 5: Describe the anatomy of the heart.Taxonomy: KnowledgeQuestion Type: Anatomy and Physiology

27) The ________ is the pacemaker of the heart.A) atrioventricular nodeB) sinoatrial nodeC) atrioventricular bundleD) autonomic nervous systemAnswer: BExplanation: A) The atrioventricular node conducts the contraction signal, but does not initiate a heartbeat.B) Correct. The sinoatrial node initiates a heartbeat.C) The atrioventricular bundle conducts the contraction signal, but does not initiate a heartbeat.D) The autonomic nervous system can change the heart rate, but does not initiate a heartbeat.Page Ref: 145Learning Obj.: Chapter 5: Explain how the electrical conduction system controls the heartbeat.Taxonomy: KnowledgeQuestion Type: Anatomy and Physiology

28) Which term below describes severe chest pain?A) myocardial infarctionB) aneurysmC) angina pectorisD) endocarditisAnswer: CExplanation: A) A myocardial infarction is the death of heart muscle tissue, a heart attack.B) An aneurysm is a weakened and enlarged artery wall.C) Correct. Angina pectoris is severe chest pain from oxygen deficiency to the heart muscle.D) Endocarditis is an inflammation of the inner layer of the heart.Page Ref: 154Learning Obj.: Chapter 5: Identify and define selected cardiovascular system pathology terms.Taxonomy: Knowledge




29) Which term is used to indicate a surgical procedure to dilate a vessel using a balloon?A) endarterectomyB) defibrillationC) arterial anastomosisD) angioplastyAnswer: DExplanation: A) Endarterectomy removes the diseased inner lining of an artery.B) Defibrillation uses electrical shocks to the heart to restore normal heart rhythm.C) Arterial anastomosis joins together two arteries.D) Correct. Angioplasty inflates a balloon inside a vessel to dilate it and increase blood flow.Page Ref: 163Learning Obj.: Chapter 5: Identify and define selected cardiovascular system therapeutic procedures.Taxonomy: KnowledgeQuestion Type: Treatments and Procedures

30) Which term describes the use of ultrasound to visualize internal cardiac structures?A) echocardiogramB) Holter monitorC) electrocardiogramD) stress testingAnswer: AExplanation: A) Correct. An echocardiogram utilizes ultrasound to obtain an image of inside the heart.B) A Holter monitor is a portable electrocardiograph unit worn for a period of time.C) An electrocardiogram is a record of the electrical activity of the heart.D) Stress testing uses a treadmill to evaluate cardiovascular fitness.Page Ref: 160Learning Obj.: Chapter 5: Identify and define selected cardiovascular system diagnostic procedures.Taxonomy: KnowledgeQuestion Type: Diagnostic Procedures



31) Which type of blood transfusion uses a patient's own blood?A) homologousB) plasmapheresisC) autologousD) venipunctureAnswer: CExplanation: A) A homologous transfusion uses blood donated by another person.B) Plasmapheresis is a procedure that removes plasma from a person.C) Correct. An autologous transfusion returns a patient's own blood to him or her.D) Venipuncture is a procedure to remove a sample of blood from a vein.Page Ref: 189Learning Obj.: Chapter 6: Identify and define selected blood and lymphatic and immune system therapeutic procedures.Taxonomy: KnowledgeQuestion Type: Therapeutic Procedures

32) Which abbreviation is NOT a blood test?A) KSB) ESRC) HCTD) CBCAnswer: AExplanation: A) Correct. KS stands for "Kaposi's sarcoma," a type of cancer.B) ESR stands for "erythrocyte sedimentation rate," a blood test.C) HCT stands for "hematocrit," a blood test.D) CBC stands for "complete blood count," a blood test.Page Ref: 190Learning Obj.: Chapter 6: Define selected abbreviations associated with the blood and lymphatic and immune systems.Taxonomy: ComprehensionQuestion Type: Abbreviations



33) Which term is a condition in which the body tissues contain excessive amounts of fluid?A) lymphadenitisB) mononucleosisC) systemic lupus erythematosusD) lymphedemaAnswer: DExplanation: A) Lymphadenitis is inflammation of the lymph nodes.B) Mononucleosis is an acute infectious disease with a large number of atypical lymphocytes.C) Systemic lupus erythematosus is a chronic autoimmune disorder of connective tissue.D) Correct. Lymphedema occurs when excessive fluid accumulates in the tissues.Page Ref: 201Learning Obj.: Chapter 6: Identify and define selected blood and lymphatic and immune system pathology terms.Taxonomy: KnowledgeQuestion Type: Pathology

34) Which of the following is NOT one of the formed elements of blood?A) erythrocytesB) plasmaC) plateletsD) leukocytesAnswer: BExplanation: A) Erythrocytes are the red blood cells found in blood and carry oxygen.B) Correct. Plasma is the liquid portion of blood.C) Platelets are small cellular fragments found in blood and play a role in clot formation.D) Leukocytes are white blood cells found in blood and fight infections.Page Ref: 180Learning Obj.: Chapter 6: List the major components, structures, and organs of the blood and lymphatic and immune systems and their functions.Taxonomy: KnowledgeQuestion Type: Anatomy and Physiology



35) Which of the following tests measures the volume of erythrocytes within the total volume of blood?A) prothrombin timeB) monospotC) differentialD) hematocritAnswer: DExplanation: A) A prothrombin time measures the blood's coagulation abilities.B) Monospot is a test for mononucleosis.C) A differential determines the number of each variety of leukocytes.D) Correct. A hematocrit measures the volume of erythrocytes within the total volume of blood.Page Ref: 188Learning Obj.: Chapter 6: Identify and define selected blood and lymphatic and immune system diagnostic procedures.Taxonomy: KnowledgeQuestion Type: Diagnostic Procedures

36) Which medication is used to dissolve existing blood clots?A) anticoagulantB) hematinicC) thrombolyticD) antihemorrhagicAnswer: CExplanation: A) An anticoagulant is used to prevent blood clot formation.B) A hematinic is used to increase the number of erythrocytes.C) Correct. A thrombolytic is a drug used to dissolve existing blood clots.D) An antihemorrhagic is used to prevent or stop bleeding.Page Ref: 190Learning Obj.: Chapter 6: Identify and define selected medications relating to the blood and lymphatic and immune systems.Taxonomy: KnowledgeQuestion Type: Pharmacology



37) A fetus receiving antibodies from its mother across the placenta is an example of ________ immunity.A) passive acquiredB) naturalC) innateD) active acquiredAnswer: AExplanation: A) Correct. Antibodies crossing the placenta is an example of passive acquired immunity.B) Natural immunity is not acquired through prior exposure to a pathogenic agent.C) Innate immunity does not involve antibodies.D) Active acquired immunity occurs when a person has a disease.Page Ref: 197Learning Obj.: Chapter 6: Discuss immunity, the immune response, and standard precautions.Taxonomy: ApplyQuestion Type: Anatomy and Physiology

38) Which of the following conditions is a hereditary disease with a prolonged blood clotting time?A) polycythemia veraB) hemophiliaC) sarcoidosisD) hematomaAnswer: BExplanation: A) Polycythemia vera occurs when there is an excessive number of red blood cells.B) Correct. Hemophilia is a genetic disease that results in prolonged and uncontrolled bleeding.C) Sarcoidosis is an inflammatory disease of the lymphatic system.D) Hematoma is the medical term for a bruise.Page Ref: 185Learning Obj.: Chapter 6: Identify and define selected blood and lymphatic and immune system pathology terms.Taxonomy: KnowledgeQuestion Type: Pathology



39) Which of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched?A) trachea—windpipeB) larynx—bronchiC) alveoli—air sacsD) pharynx—throatAnswer: BExplanation: A) The trachea is commonly known as the windpipe.B) Correct. The larynx is commonly known as the voice box.C) The alveoli are commonly known as the air sacs.D) The pharynx is commonly known as the throat.Page Ref: 222-223Learning Obj.: Chapter 7: Locate and describe the major organs of the respiratory system and their functions.Taxonomy: KnowledgeQuestion Type: Anatomy and Physiology

40) The collections of lymphatic tissue found in the throat are known as the ________.A) epistaxisB) epiglottisC) ciliaD) tonsilsAnswer: DExplanation: A) Epistaxis means a nosebleed.B) The epiglottis is a flap of tissue that covers the trachea during swallowing.C) Cilia are small hairs in the nose that filter out dirt particles.D) Correct. Tonsils are collections of lymphatic tissues to fight bacteria in the throat.Page Ref: 222Learning Obj.: Chapter 7: Locate and describe the major organs of the respiratory system and their functions.Taxonomy: KnowledgeQuestion Type: Anatomy and Physiology



41) An instrument used to measure lung capacity is the ________.A) oximeterB) bronchoscopeC) intubationD) spirometerAnswer: DExplanation: A) An oximeter is used to measure the amount of oxygen in the bloodstream.B) A bronchoscope is an instrument used to view the inside of a bronchus.C) Intubation is the insertion of a tube into the trachea to allow free air movement.D) Correct. A spirometer is an instrument used to measure the air capacity of the lungs.Page Ref: 239Learning Obj.: Chapter 7: Identify and define selected respiratory system diagnostic procedures.Taxonomy: KnowledgeQuestion Type: Diagnostic Procedures

42) Which of the following conditions is commonly known as whooping cough?A) asphyxiaB) atelectasisC) cystic fibrosisD) pertussisAnswer: DExplanation: A) Asphyxia is a lack of oxygen that may lead to death, also known as suffocation.B) Atelectasis is a condition in which the lung tissue collapses.C) Cystic fibrosis is an inherited disease in which the patient produces very thick mucus.D) Correct. Pertussis is an infectious lung disease known as whooping cough.Page Ref: 233Learning Obj.: Chapter 7: Identify and define selected respiratory system pathology terms.Taxonomy: KnowledgeQuestion Type: Pathology



43) Which procedure is a surgical puncture of the chest wall to remove fluid?A) pleurocentesisB) thoracostomyC) thoracentesisD) bronchoplastyAnswer: CExplanation: A) Pleurocentesis is the insertion of a needle into the pleural space to withdraw fluid.B) A thoracostomy is the insertion of a tube into the chest cavity to drain off either fluid or air.C) Correct. Thoracentesis is a surgical puncture of the chest wall to remove fluid.D) Bronchoplasty is the surgical repair of a bronchial tube.Page Ref: 241Learning Obj.: Chapter 7: Identify and define selected respiratory system therapeutic procedures.Taxonomy: KnowledgeQuestion Type: Therapeutic Procedures

44) Which of the following pathologies is caused by a fungal infection?A) empyemaB) histoplasmosisC) pneumothoraxD) silicosisAnswer: BExplanation: A) Empyema is pus within the pleural space, usually from an infection.B) Correct. Histoplasmosis is caused by a fungus carried in bird droppings.C) Pneumothorax is the collection of air in the pleural space and causes the lung to collapse.D) Silicosis results from the inhalation of silica dust.Page Ref: 235Learning Obj.: Chapter 7: Identify and define selected respiratory system pathology terms.Taxonomy: KnowledgeQuestion Type: Pathology



45) Which of the following is a function of the digestive system?A) digest foodB) eliminate wasteC) absorb nutrientsD) all of the aboveAnswer: DExplanation: A) Digestion of food is a function of the digestive system, but this is not the best answer.B) Elimination of waste is a function of the digestive system, but this is not the best answer.C) Absorption of nutrients is a function of the digestive system, but this is not the best answer.D) Correct. All of the above are functions of the digestive system.Page Ref: 258Learning Obj.: Chapter 8: Locate and describe the major organs of the digestive system and their functions.Taxonomy: KnowledgeQuestion Type: Anatomy and Physiology

46) Which choice below has the structures of the alimentary canal in proper order?A) stomach—jejunum—sigmoid colonB) rectum—duodenum—cecumC) stomach—ascending colon—ileumD) cecum—sigmoid colon—ascending colonAnswer: AExplanation: A) Correct. These structures are in the correct order.B) The correct sequence is duodenum—cecum—rectum.C) The correct sequence is stomach—ileum—ascending colon.D) The correct sequence is cecum—ascending colon—sigmoid colon.Page Ref: 258Learning Obj.: Chapter 8: Locate and describe the major organs of the digestive system and their functions.Taxonomy: ComprehensionQuestion Type: Anatomy and Physiology



47) Which of the teeth listed below are for tearing and cutting food?A) molarsB) bicuspidsC) incisorsD) both A and BAnswer: CExplanation: A) The molars are for crushing and grinding food.B) The bicuspids are for crushing and grinding food.C) Correct. The incisors are for tearing and cutting food.D) The molars and bicuspids are for crushing and grinding food.Page Ref: 260Learning Obj.: Chapter 8: Identify the shape and function of each type of tooth.Taxonomy: KnowledgeQuestion Type: Anatomy and Physiology

48) Which term below refers to indigestion?A) gastralgiaB) dyspepsiaC) emesisD) polyphagiaAnswer: BExplanation: A) Gastralgia means stomach pain.B) Correct. Dyspepsia means indigestion.C) Emesis means to vomit.D) Polyphagia means to eat excessively.Page Ref: 269Learning Obj.: Chapter 8: Identify and define selected digestive system pathology terms.Taxonomy: KnowledgeQuestion Type: Pathology

49) Which term below means having gallstones?A) cholecystitisB) cirrhosisC) cholelithiasisD) choledocholithotomyAnswer: CExplanation: A) Cholecystitis means gallbladder inflammation.B) Cirrhosis is a chronic liver disease.C) Correct. Cholelithiasis means the condition of having gallstones.D) Choledocholithotomy means an incision in the common bile duct to remove stones.Page Ref: 276Learning Obj.: Chapter 8: Identify and define selected digestive system pathology terms.Taxonomy: Knowledge




50) Which term means inflammation of a pouch or sac opening off the intestines?A) enteritisB) diverticulitisC) ulcerative colitisD) diverticulosisAnswer: BExplanation: A) Enteritis means inflammation of the small intestines.B) Correct. Diverticulitis means inflammation of a pouch or sac opening off the intestines.C) Ulcerative colitis means inflammation of the colon from many small ulcers.D) Diverticulosis means the condition of having a pouch or sac opening off the intestines.Page Ref: 273Learning Obj.: Chapter 8: Identify and define selected digestive system pathology terms.Taxonomy: KnowledgeQuestion Type: Pathology

51) Which medication is used to treat nausea?A) anorexiantB) laxativeC) antiemeticD) antacidAnswer: CExplanation: A) An anorexiant treats obesity by suppressing appetite.B) A laxative treats constipation by stimulating a bowel movement.C) Correct. An antiemetic is used to treat nausea.D) An antacid is used to neutralize stomach acid.Page Ref: 281Learning Obj.: Chapter 8: Identify and define selected medications relating to the digestive system.Taxonomy: KnowledgeQuestion Type: Pharmacology



52) Which abbreviation is NOT a pathological condition?A) PUDB) IBSC) GERDD) CBDAnswer: DExplanation: A) PUD stands for "peptic ulcer disease."B) IBS stands for "irritable bowel syndrome."C) GERD stands for "gastroesophageal reflux disease."D) Correct. CBD stands for "common bile duct."Page Ref: 282Learning Obj.: Chapter 8: Define selected abbreviations associated with the digestive system.Taxonomy: ComprehensionQuestion Type: Abbreviations

53) Name the structure that leads from the bladder to the outside of the body.A) renal pelvisB) uretersC) urethraD) meatusAnswer: CExplanation: A) The renal pelvis is the area within the kidneys where urine collects.B) The ureters connect the kidneys to the bladder.C) Correct. The urethra carries urine from the bladder to the outside of the body.D) The meatus is the external opening of the urethra.Page Ref: 301Learning Obj.: Chapter 9: Locate and describe the major organs of the urinary system and their functions.Taxonomy: KnowledgeQuestion Type: Anatomy and Physiology



54) Which abbreviation stands for a blood test to measure kidney function?A) CRFB) ESWLC) BUND) HDAnswer: CExplanation: A) CRF stands for "chronic renal failure."B) ESWL stands for "extracorporeal shockwave lithotripsy."C) Correct. BUN stands for "blood urea nitrogen," a blood test that measures the level of nitrogenous waste that is in the blood.D) HD stands for "hemodialysis."Page Ref: 316Learning Obj.: Chapter 9: Define selected abbreviations associated with the urinary system.Taxonomy: ComprehensionQuestion Type: Abbreviations

55) Name the first stage of urine production.A) secretionB) micturitionC) filtrationD) reabsorptionAnswer: CExplanation: A) Secretion is the third stage of urine production.B) Micturition is the medical term for urination or voiding.C) Correct. Filtration is the first stage of urine production.D) Reabsorption is the second stage of urine production.Page Ref: 302Learning Obj.: Chapter 9: Describe the nephron and the mechanisms of urine production.Taxonomy: KnowledgeQuestion Type: Anatomy and Physiology



56) Which term means an abnormal excretion of large amounts of urine?A) diuresisB) hesitancyC) enuresisD) urgencyAnswer: AExplanation: A) Correct. A diuretic is a substance that increases the amount of urine excreted.B) Hesitancy is a decrease in the force of the urine stream.C) Enuresis is the involuntary discharge of urine after the age by which bladder control should have been established.D) Urgency is feeling the need to urinate immediately.Page Ref: 306Learning Obj.: Chapter 9: Identify and define selected urinary system pathology terms.Taxonomy: KnowledgeQuestion Type: Pathology

57) The term calculus means:A) a spasm in a tubular organ.B) a stone.C) a bacterial infection.D) a blood test.Answer: BExplanation: A) The term calculus does not refer to a spasm.B) Correct. A calculus is another term for stone.C) The term calculus does not refer to a type of infection.D) The term calculus does not refer to a blood test.Page Ref: 306Learning Obj.: Chapter 9: Identify and define selected urinary system pathology terms.Taxonomy: KnowledgeQuestion Type: Pathology



58) Which procedure uses ultrasound to break up stones?A) peritoneal dialysisB) catheterizationC) nephrolithotomyD) extracorporeal shockwave lithotripsyAnswer: DExplanation: A) Peritoneal dialysis is a method of removing waste substances from the bloodstream.B) Catheterization is the insertion of a tube into the bladder to drain urine.C) Nephrolithotomy removes stones, but the kidney is cut open in order to remove the stones.D) Correct. Extracorporeal shockwave lithotripsy uses ultrasound waves to break up stones.Page Ref: 313Learning Obj.: Chapter 9: Identify and define selected urinary system therapeutic procedures.Taxonomy: KnowledgeQuestion Type: Therapeutic Procedures

59) A child born before completing at least 37 weeks of gestation is ________________.A) a spontaneous abortionB) stillbirthC) gravidaD) prematureAnswer: DExplanation: A) A spontaneous abortion is the loss of a fetus without any artificial aid. Also called a miscarriage.B) A stillbirth occurs when a viable-aged fetus dies before or at the time of delivery.C) Gravida is the medical term for a pregnant woman.D) Correct. A child born before completing 37 weeks of gestation is premature.Page Ref: 337Learning Obj.: Chapter 10: Use medical terms to describe circumstances relating to pregnancy.Taxonomy: KnowledgeQuestion Type: Anatomy and Physiology



60) Which organ is NOT one of the female internal organs of reproduction?A) uterine tubesB) clitorisC) ovariesD) vaginaAnswer: BExplanation: A) The uterine tubes are internal organs of reproduction that carry the ovum to the uterus.B) Correct. The clitoris is a small organ containing erectile tissue found on the outside of the body.C) The ovaries are internal organs of reproduction that produce and release an ovum each menstrual cycle.D) The vagina is an internal organ of reproduction that extends from the cervix of the uterus to the outside of the body.Page Ref: 335-336Learning Obj.: Chapter 10: Locate and describe the major organs of the reproductive systems and their functions.Taxonomy: KnowledgeQuestion Type: Anatomy and Physiology

61) Which medication is used to treat impotence?A) erectile dysfunction agentsB) oxytocinC) androgen therapyD) fertility drugsAnswer: AExplanation: A) Correct. Erectile dysfunction agents are used to treat impotence.B) Oxytocin is a female hormone that begins or improves uterine contractions during labor and delivery.C) Androgen therapy provides replacement of male hormones to treat patients who produce insufficient hormone naturally.D) Fertility drugs are medications that trigger ovulation.Page Ref: 362Learning Obj.: Chapter 10: Identify and define selected medications relating to the reproductive system.Taxonomy: KnowledgeQuestion Type: Pharmacology



62) Which term means painful cramping associated with menstruation?A) amenorrheaB) eclampsiaC) menorrhagiaD) dysmenorrheaAnswer: DExplanation: A) Amenorrhea means the absence of menstruation.B) Eclampsia refers to convulsive seizures and coma that may occur between the 20th week of pregnancy and up to 6 weeks postpartum.C) Menorrhagia means excessive bleeding during the menstrual period.D) Correct. Dysmenorrhea combines the combining form for menstruation with the prefix for painful and the suffix for flow.Page Ref: 342Learning Obj.: Chapter 10: Identify and define selected reproductive system pathology terms.Taxonomy: KnowledgeQuestion Type: Pathology

63) Which treatment procedure removes a core of cervical tissue?A) episiotomyB) conizationC) lumpectomyD) dilation and curettageAnswer: BExplanation: A) An episiotomy uses an incision of the perineum to facilitate the delivery process.B) Correct. Conization removes a core of cervical tissue.C) A lumpectomy removes a breast tumor and the tissue immediately surrounding it.D) Dilation and curettage is a surgical procedure in which the opening of the cervix is dilated and the uterus is scraped or suctioned of its lining or tissue.Page Ref: 349Learning Obj.: Chapter 10: Identify and define selected reproductive system therapeutic procedures.Taxonomy: KnowledgeQuestion Type: Therapeutic Procedures



64) Which male reproductive organ contains the seminiferous tubules?A) vas deferensB) epididymisC) seminal vesiclesD) testesAnswer: DExplanation: A) The vas deferens is a tube that carries sperm from the epididymis into the pelvic cavity. It is not the seminiferous tubules.B) The epididymis is a coiled tubule, but not the seminiferous tubules. It is for storing sperm.C) The seminal vesicles are small glands located at the base of the urinary bladder that secrete a fluid to nourish the sperm.D) Correct. The sperm are produced in the testes within the seminiferous tubules.Page Ref: 355Learning Obj.: Chapter 10: Locate and describe the major organs of the reproductive systems and their functions.Taxonomy: KnowledgeQuestion Type: Anatomy and Physiology

65) Which term means the failure of the testes to descend into the scrotal sac before birth?A) cryptorchidismB) hypospadiasC) anorchismD) phimosisAnswer: AExplanation: A) Correct. Cryptorchidism means hidden testes.B) Hypospadias means the opening of the male urethra is on the underside of the penis.C) Anorchism means the congenital absence of one or both testes.D) Phimosis means the narrowing of the foreskin over the glans penis.Page Ref: 358Learning Obj.: Chapter 10: Identify and define selected reproductive system pathology terms.Taxonomy: KnowledgeQuestion Type: Pathology



66) Which of the following is a yeast infection of the skin and mucous membranes?A) syphilisB) chlamydiaC) candidiasisD) gonorrheaAnswer: CExplanation: A) Syphilis is not caused by a yeast-like organism.B) A chlamydial infection is caused by a parasitic microorganism.C) Correct. Candidiasis is caused by a yeast organism. It can result in white plaques on the tongue and vagina.D) Gonorrhea is not caused by a yeast-like organism.Page Ref: 344Learning Obj.: Chapter 10: Identify the symptoms and origin of sexually transmitted diseases.Taxonomy: KnowledgeQuestion Type: Pathology

67) Which endocrine gland is found above the kidneys?A) adrenal glandsB) thyroid glandC) pituitary glandD) thymus glandAnswer: AExplanation: A) Correct. The adrenal glands sit above each kidney.B) The thyroid gland is found in the neck.C) The pituitary gland is found in the brain.D) The thymus gland is found in the thoracic cavity.Page Ref: 382Learning Obj.: Chapter 11: Locate and describe the major organs of the endocrine system and their functions.Taxonomy: KnowledgeQuestion Type: Anatomy and Physiology



68) Which endocrine gland secretes hormones that adjust the body's metabolic rate?A) parathyroid glandsB) thyroid glandC) testesD) pancreasAnswer: BExplanation: A) The parathyroid glands' hormones regulate the amount of calcium in the blood.B) Correct. The thyroid gland's hormones play a role in maintaining metabolism.C) The testes secrete testosterone, the male sex hormone.D) The pancreas' hormones regulate the level of sugar in the blood.Page Ref: 387Learning Obj.: Chapter 11: Locate and describe the major organs of the endocrine system and their functions.Taxonomy: KnowledgeQuestion Type: Anatomy and Physiology

69) Which of the following statements regarding the pituitary gland is NOT true?A) The pituitary gland is divided into the anterior pituitary and the posterior pituitary.B) The pituitary gland is often referred to as the master gland.C) The pituitary gland is divided into a cortex and a medulla.D) The posterior pituitary secretes antidiuretic hormone and oxytocin.Answer: CExplanation: A) This is a true statement; the pituitary gland is divided into anterior and posterior.B) This is a true statement; the pituitary gland plays a role in regulating other glands.C) Correct. This is a false statement. The adrenal glands are divided into a cortex and medulla.D) This is a true statement; the posterior pituitary secretes antidiuretic hormone and oxytocin.Page Ref: 385Learning Obj.: Chapter 11: Locate and describe the major organs of the endocrine system and their functions.Taxonomy: KnowledgeQuestion Type: Anatomy and Physiology



70) Which endocrine gland is NOT correctly matched with one of its pathological conditions?A) adrenal glands—Addison's diseaseB) pancreas—tetanyC) pituitary gland—gigantismD) thyroid gland—goiterAnswer: BExplanation: A) Addison's disease results from a deficiency in the adrenal glands.B) Correct. The pancreas is associated with diabetes mellitus.C) Gigantism results from an overproduction of growth hormone by the pituitary gland.D) A goiter is an enlargement of the thyroid gland.Page Ref: 392-393Learning Obj.: Chapter 11: Identify and define selected endocrine system pathology terms.Taxonomy: KnowledgeQuestion Type: Pathology

71) Which of the following statements regarding diabetes mellitus is NOT true?A) Exophthalmos is a symptom of diabetes mellitus.B) Diabetics have hyperglycemia.C) Retinopathy is a common complication of diabetes mellitus.D) Type II diabetics are not dependent on insulin.Answer: AExplanation: A) Correct. Exophthalmos is a symptom of Graves' disease, a thyroid gland condition.B) This is a true statement. Diabetics have a high level of sugar in their blood.C) This is a true statement. Diabetes affects the blood vessels in the retina.D) This is a true statement. Type II diabetics control their disease with diet and pills.Page Ref: 390Learning Obj.: Chapter 11: Identify and define selected endocrine system pathology terms.Taxonomy: KnowledgeQuestion Type: Pathology

72) Which of the following terms is incorrectly defined?A) polydipsia—excessive urinationB) ketoacidosis—accumulation of ketone bodies (waste products) in the bodyC) acromegaly—enlargement of the bones of the head and extremitiesD) hirsutism—excessive amount of hairAnswer: AExplanation: A) Correct. Polydipsia means excessive thirst. Polyuria means excessive (frequent) urination.B) Ketoacidosis is correctly defined.C) Acromegaly is correctly defined.D) Hirsutism is correctly defined.Page Ref: 391Learning Obj.: Chapter 11: Identify and define selected endocrine system pathology terms.Taxonomy: Knowledge




73) Which surgical procedure is used to relieve pressure on a spinal nerve?A) neurorrhaphyB) tractotomyC) neuroplastyD) laminectomyAnswer: DExplanation: A) Neurorrhaphy is a procedure to suture a nerve back together.B) Tractotomy is a procedure to interrupt a nerve tract in the spinal cord.C) Neuroplasty is the surgical repair of a nerve.D) Correct. A laminectomy removes part of a vertebra to relieve pressure on a spinal nerve.Page Ref: 432Learning Obj.: Chapter 12: Identify and define selected nervous system therapeutic procedures.Taxonomy: KnowledgeQuestion Type: Therapeutic Procedures

74) Which part of the neuron receives impulses?A) dendritesB) nerve cell bodyC) ganglionD) axonAnswer: AExplanation: A) Correct. Dendrites are branched nerve processes that receive impulses and carry them toward the nerve cell body.B) The nerve cell body is the part of the neuron that contains the nucleus.C) A ganglion is a knot-like mass of nerve tissue located outside the brain and spinal cord.D) The axon is a single projection of the neuron that conducts impulses away from the nerve cell body.Page Ref: 412Learning Obj.: Chapter 12: Describe the components of a neuron.Taxonomy: KnowledgeQuestion Type: Anatomy and Physiology



75) Which layer of the meninges has thin web-like filaments?A) dura materB) subdural spaceC) pia materD) arachnoid layerAnswer: DExplanation: A) The dura mater is a tough fibrous layer.B) The subdural space is an actual space found between the dura mater and the arachnoid layer.C) The pia mater is the soft, innermost layer of the meninges and is applied directly to the surface of the brain.D) Correct. The arachnoid layer is a thin, delicate layer attached to the pia mater by web-like filaments.Page Ref: 417Learning Obj.: Chapter 12: Distinguish between the central nervous system, peripheral nervous system, and autonomic nervous system.Taxonomy: KnowledgeQuestion Type: Anatomy and Physiology

76) Which medication is used to treat minor to moderate pain?A) analgesicB) sedativeC) anestheticD) hypnoticAnswer: AExplanation: A) Correct. An analgesic is used to treat minor to moderate pain.B) A sedative is a medication with a relaxing or calming effect.C) An anesthetic is used to produce a loss of sensation or consciousness.D) A hypnotic is a drug that promotes sleep.Page Ref: 432Learning Obj.: Chapter 12: Identify and define selected medications relating to the nervous system.Taxonomy: KnowledgeQuestion Type: Pharmacology



77) Which term means paralysis on only one side of the body?A) quadriplegiaB) hemiplegiaC) paraplegiaD) hemiparesisAnswer: BExplanation: A) Quadriplegia means paralysis of all four limbs.B) Correct. Hemiplegia means paralysis on only one side of the body.C) Paraplegia means paralysis of the lower portion of the body and both legs.D) Hemiparesis means weakness of one side of the body, but not paralysis.Page Ref: 423Learning Obj.: Chapter 12: Identify and define selected nervous system pathology terms.Taxonomy: KnowledgeQuestion Type: Pathology

78) What is the medical term for stroke?A) epilepsyB) concussionC) astrocytomaD) cerebrovascular accidentAnswer: DExplanation: A) Epilepsy is a recurrent disorder of the brain in which convulsive seizures and loss of consciousness occur.B) Concussion is an injury to the brain resulting from the brain being shaken inside the skull from a blow or impact.C) An astrocytoma is a brain or spinal cord tumor.D) Correct. The term cerebrovascular accident means stroke, the development of an infarct due to loss of blood supply to an area of the brain.Page Ref: 425Learning Obj.: Chapter 12: Identify and define selected nervous system pathology terms.Taxonomy: KnowledgeQuestion Type: Pathology



79) Which inner eye structure is responsible for the blind spot?A) macula luteaB) fovea centralisC) optic diskD) ciliary bodyAnswer: CExplanation: A) The image a person sees falls on the macula lutea; it is a point of clear vision.B) The fovea centralis contains cones and is the point of clearest vision.C) Correct. The optic disk is the point where the optic nerve leaves the eyeball and there are no sensory receptor cells there.D) The ciliary body is a muscular structure that changes the shape of the lens.Page Ref: 449Learning Obj.: Chapter 13: Locate and describe the major structures of the eye and ear and their functions.Taxonomy: KnowledgeQuestion Type: Anatomy and Physiology

80) The middle layer of the eyeball is the:A) choroidB) retinaC) corneaD) scleraAnswer: AExplanation: A) Correct. The choroid is the middle layer of the eyeball and provides the blood supply for the eye.B) The retina is the innermost layer of the eyeball and contains the sensory receptor cells.C) The cornea is the outer portion of the anterior eyeball. It allows light to enter the interior of the eye.D) The sclera is the outer layer of the eyeball and is a tough protective layer.Page Ref: 449Learning Obj.: Chapter 13: Locate and describe the major structures of the eye and ear and their functions.Taxonomy: KnowledgeQuestion Type: Anatomy and Physiology



81) Which healthcare professional is an MD physician?A) opticianB) ophthalmologistC) exophthalmosD) optometristAnswer: BExplanation: A) An optician is a specialist in grinding corrective lenses.B) Correct. An ophthalmologist is a physician specialized in treating conditions and diseases of the eye.C) Exophthalmos is a medical term meaning the abnormal protrusion of the eyeball.D) An optometrist is a doctor of optometry (DO) who specializes in testing visual acuity and prescribing corrective lenses.Page Ref: 455Learning Obj.: Chapter 13: Identify and define selected eye and ear pathology terms.Taxonomy: KnowledgeQuestion Type: Pathology

82) Which disease is due to increased intraocular pressure that may result in blindness?A) cataractB) glaucomaC) esotropiaD) nystagmusAnswer: BExplanation: A) A cataract is the diminished vision resulting from the lens of the eye becoming opaque.B) Correct. Glaucoma results in an increase in intraocular pressure and leads to the atrophy of the optic nerve.C) Esotropia is the inward turning of the eye.D) Nystagmus is a jerky-appearing involuntary eye movement.Page Ref: 456Learning Obj.: Chapter 13: Identify and define selected eye and ear pathology terms.Taxonomy: KnowledgeQuestion Type: Pathology



83) Which of the following terms is NOT an ossicle?A) stapesB) cerumenC) malleusD) incusAnswer: BExplanation: A) The stapes is one of the ossicles.B) Correct. Cerumen is the term for earwax.C) The malleus is one of the ossicles.D) The incus is one of the ossicles.Page Ref: 468Learning Obj.: Chapter 13: Locate and describe the major structures of the eye and ear and their functions.Taxonomy: KnowledgeQuestion Type: Anatomy and Physiology

84) Which term means a fungal infection of the ear?A) vertigoB) tinnitusC) otomycosisD) tympanoplastyAnswer: CExplanation: A) Vertigo means dizziness.B) Tinnitus means ringing in the ears.C) Correct. Otomycosis means a fungal infection of the ear.D) Tympanoplasty means surgical repair of the eardrum.Page Ref: 472Learning Obj.: Chapter 13: Identify and define selected eye and ear pathology terms.Taxonomy: KnowledgeQuestion Type: Pathology



85) Which term means the hearing changes that occur as a result of the aging process?A) presbycusisB) Ménière's diseaseC) acoustic neuromaD) anacusisAnswer: AExplanation: A) Correct. Presbycusis describes the deterioration in hearing due to the normal aging process.B) Ménière's disease is the abnormal condition of the inner ear that can lead to a progressive loss of hearing.C) An acoustic neuroma is a benign tumor of the eighth cranial nerve.D) Anacusis means the total absence of hearing.Page Ref: 472Learning Obj.: Chapter 13: Identify and define selected eye and ear pathology terms.Taxonomy: KnowledgeQuestion Type: Pathology

86) Which abbreviation stands for a surgical procedure of the eye?A) REMB) LASIKC) ASLD) OSAnswer: BExplanation: A) REM stands for "rapid eye movement."B) Correct. LASIK stands for "laser-assisted in-situ keratomileusis."C) ASL stands for "American Sign Language."D) OS stands for "left eye."Page Ref: 464Learning Obj.: Chapter 13: Define selected abbreviations associated with the eye and ear.Taxonomy: ComprehensionQuestion Type: Abbreviations



87) When a company manufactures a drug for sale, it must choose a unique ________ name for the drug.A) genericB) nonproprietaryC) brandD) chemicalAnswer: CExplanation: A) The generic name can be used by all manufacturers of the drug.B) The nonproprietary name is the same as the generic name for the drug.C) Correct. The brand name is the company's trademark for the drug.D) The chemical name describes the molecular structure of the drug.Page Ref: 491Learning Obj.: Chapter 14: Describe pertinent information relating to pharmacology.Taxonomy: KnowledgeQuestion Type: Pharmacology

88) Which of the following choices is NOT a parenteral method of drug administration?A) intracavitaryB) intramuscularC) intravenousD) inhalationAnswer: DExplanation: A) Intracavitary is a parenteral method involving injection into a body cavity.B) Intramuscular is a parenteral method involving injection into a muscle.C) Intravenous is a parenteral method involving injection into a vein.D) Correct. Inhalation is not a parenteral method. It involves inhaling a drug directly into the nose or mouth and does not require the skin to be punctured by a needle.Page Ref: 495Learning Obj.: Chapter 14: Describe pertinent information relating to pharmacology.Taxonomy: KnowledgeQuestion Type: Pharmacology



89) Which abbreviation means "by mouth"?A) OUB) poC) TOD) NPOAnswer: BExplanation: A) The abbreviation OU means "each eye."B) Correct. The abbreviation po means "by mouth."C) The abbreviation TO means "telephone order."D) The abbreviation NPO means "nothing by mouth."Page Ref: 498Learning Obj.: Chapter 14: Describe pertinent information relating to pharmacology.Taxonomy: KnowledgeQuestion Type: Pharmacology

90) Which abbreviation means "four times a day"?A) qidB) qhsC) qhD) qamAnswer: AExplanation: A) Correct. The abbreviation qid means "four times a day."B) The abbreviation qhs means "every night."C) The abbreviation qh means "every hour."D) The abbreviation qam means "every morning."Page Ref: 498Learning Obj.: Chapter 14: Describe pertinent information relating to pharmacology.Taxonomy: KnowledgeQuestion Type: Abbreviations



91) Which mental disorder is NOT correctly matched to its definition?A) eating disorder—bulimiaB) cognitive disorder—Alzheimer's diseaseC) mood disorder—major depressionD) anxiety disorder—amnesiaAnswer: DExplanation: A) These are correctly matched.B) These are correctly matched.C) These are correctly matched.D) Correct. An example of an anxiety disorder is panic attacks. Amnesia is a type of dissociative disorder.Page Ref: 500-501Learning Obj.: Chapter 14: Describe pertinent information relating to mental health.Taxonomy: KnowledgeQuestion Type: Mental Health

92) Which type of mental disorder is characterized by delusions and hallucinations?A) impulse control disordersB) hypochondriaC) schizophreniaD) phobiasAnswer: CExplanation: A) Impulse control disorders are characterized by an impulse to perform some act that is harmful to the individual or others.B) Hypochondria is characterized by a preoccupation with health concerns.C) Correct. Schizophrenia is characterized by delusions and hallucinations.D) A phobia is an irrational fear.Page Ref: 503Learning Obj.: Chapter 14: Describe pertinent information relating to mental health.Taxonomy: KnowledgeQuestion Type: Mental Health



93) Which imaging technique uses radioactive substances?A) radiologyB) nuclear medicineC) magnetic resonance imagingD) ultrasoundAnswer: BExplanation: A) Radiology uses high-energy radiation, or X-rays.B) Correct. Nuclear medicine uses radioactive substances.C) Magnetic resonance imaging uses electromagnetic energy.D) An ultrasound uses inaudible sound waves to outline shapes in the body.Page Ref: 510Learning Obj.: Chapter 14: Describe pertinent information relating to diagnostic imaging.Taxonomy: KnowledgeQuestion Type: Diagnostic Imaging

94) Which term describes a structure that allows X-rays to pass through?A) radioisotopeB) radiopaqueC) roentgenD) radiolucentAnswer: DExplanation: A) A radioisotope is the radioactive form of an element.B) A radiopaque structure is impenetrable to X-rays.C) A roentgen is a unit for describing an exposure dose of radiation.D) Correct. A radiolucent structure allows X-rays to pass through.Page Ref: 507Learning Obj.: Chapter 14: Describe pertinent information relating to diagnostic imaging.Taxonomy: KnowledgeQuestion Type: Diagnostic Imaging

95) Which of the following is NOT considered an "activity of daily living"?A) drivingB) eatingC) washingD) dressingAnswer: AExplanation: A) Correct. Driving is not considered an essential activity of daily living.B) Eating is considered an essential activity of daily living.C) Washing is considered an essential activity of daily living.D) Dressing is considered an essential activity of daily living.Page Ref: 514Learning Obj.: Chapter 14: Describe pertinent information relating to rehabilitation services.Taxonomy: Knowledge



Question Type: Rehabilitation Services

96) Which term refers to the use of equipment, such as braces, to correct musculoskeletal deformities?A) orthoticsB) prostheticsC) ergonomicsD) body mechanicsAnswer: AExplanation: A) Correct. Orthotics is the use of equipment to support a paralyzed muscle, promote a specific motion, or correct musculoskeletal deformities.B) Prosthetics is the use of artificial devices, such as limbs and joints, to replace a missing body part.C) Ergonomics is the study of human work including how the requirements to perform the work and the work environment affect the musculoskeletal and nervous systems.D) Body mechanics is the use of good posture and position while performing activities to prevent injury and stress on body parts.Page Ref: 515Learning Obj.: Chapter 14: Describe pertinent information relating to rehabilitation services.Taxonomy: KnowledgeQuestion Type: Rehabilitation Services

97) Which branch of medicine specializes in the treatment of tumors?A) radiologyB) oncologyC) gerontologyD) pediatricsAnswer: BExplanation: A) Radiology is the branch of medicine that uses X-rays.B) Correct. Oncology is the branch of medicine dealing with tumors.C) Gerontology is the study of the effects of aging and age-related diseases.D) Pediatrics is the branch of medicine specializing in the care of children.Page Ref: 526Learning Obj.: Chapter 14: Describe pertinent information relating to oncology.Taxonomy: KnowledgeQuestion Type: Oncology



98) The TNM staging system for tumors classifies tumors based on all the following except:A) tumor sizeB) lymph node involvementC) organs involvedD) presence of metastasesAnswer: CExplanation: A) The T in TNM stands for tumor size.B) The N in TNM stands for lymph node involvement.C) Correct. The organs involved in a tumor are not considered in classifying tumors using the TNM staging system.D) The M in TNM stands for the presence of metastases.Page Ref: 526Learning Obj.: Chapter 14: Describe pertinent information relating to oncology.Taxonomy: KnowledgeQuestion Type: Oncology

99) Which type of anesthesia is applied using a liquid or gel placed directly into a specific area?A) general anesthesiaB) topical anesthesiaC) local anesthesiaD) regional anesthesiaAnswer: BExplanation: A) General anesthesia produces a loss of consciousness including an absence of pain sensation.B) Correct. Topical anesthesia is applied directly into a specific area such as the skin.C) Local anesthesia produces a loss of sensation in one localized part of the body while the patient remains conscious.D) Regional anesthesia is also referred to as a nerve block. The patient loses pain sensation in a particular region of the body.Page Ref: 521Learning Obj.: Chapter 14: Describe pertinent information relating to surgery.Taxonomy: KnowledgeQuestion Type: Surgery



100) Which type of surgical instrument is used to grasp tissue or control bleeding?A) clampB) speculumC) probeD) curetteAnswer: AExplanation: A) Correct. A clamp is used to grasp tissue and control bleeding.B) A speculum is used to spread apart walls of a cavity.C) A probe is used to explore tissue.D) A curette is used to scrape and remove tissue.Page Ref: 521Learning Obj.: Chapter 14: Describe pertinent information relating to surgery.Taxonomy: KnowledgeQuestion Type: Surgery


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