test booklet code & serial no. aaaanote :note :this paper contains fifty fiftyfifty (50)...
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![Page 1: Test Booklet Code & Serial No. AAAANote :Note :This paper contains Fifty FiftyFifty (50) (50)(50) multiple choice questions, each question carrying Two (2)Two (2)Two (2) marks](https://reader034.vdocuments.mx/reader034/viewer/2022042022/5e79482fcec27a63cd4744f2/html5/thumbnails/1.jpg)
Time Allowed : 1¼ Hours] [Maximum Marks : 100Time Allowed : 1¼ Hours] [Maximum Marks : 100Time Allowed : 1¼ Hours] [Maximum Marks : 100Time Allowed : 1¼ Hours] [Maximum Marks : 100
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 24242424 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 50505050
Signature and Name of InvigilatorSignature and Name of InvigilatorSignature and Name of InvigilatorSignature and Name of Invigilator
1. (Signature) .........................................
(Name) ................................................
2. (Signature) .........................................
(Name) ................................................
Seat No.
(In figures as in Admit Card)
Seat No. ..............................................................
(In words)
OMR Sheet No.
(To be filled by the Candidate)
ECONOMICSECONOMICSECONOMICSECONOMICS
JAN - 11218JAN - 11218JAN - 11218JAN - 11218
Instructions for the CandidatesInstructions for the CandidatesInstructions for the CandidatesInstructions for the Candidates1. Write your Seat No. and OMR Sheet No. in the space provided
on the top of this page.2. This paper consists of 50505050 objective type questions. Each question
will carry two marks. All questions of Paper-II will be compulsory,covering entire syllabus (including all electives, without options).
3. At the commencement of examination, the question bookletwill be given to the student. In the first 5 minutes, you arerequested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it asfollows :(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the
paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accepta booklet without sticker-seal or open booklet.
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questionsTally the number of pages and number of questionsTally the number of pages and number of questionsTally the number of pages and number of questionsin the booklet with the information printed on thein the booklet with the information printed on thein the booklet with the information printed on thein the booklet with the information printed on thecover page. Faulty booklets due to missing pages/cover page. Faulty booklets due to missing pages/cover page. Faulty booklets due to missing pages/cover page. Faulty booklets due to missing pages/questions or questions repeated or not in serialquestions or questions repeated or not in serialquestions or questions repeated or not in serialquestions or questions repeated or not in serialorder or any other discrepancy should not beorder or any other discrepancy should not beorder or any other discrepancy should not beorder or any other discrepancy should not beaccepted and correct booklet should be obtainedaccepted and correct booklet should be obtainedaccepted and correct booklet should be obtainedaccepted and correct booklet should be obtainedfrom the invigilator within the period of 5 minutes.from the invigilator within the period of 5 minutes.from the invigilator within the period of 5 minutes.from the invigilator within the period of 5 minutes.Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet will beAfterwards, neither the Question Booklet will beAfterwards, neither the Question Booklet will beAfterwards, neither the Question Booklet will bereplaced nor any extra time will be given. The samereplaced nor any extra time will be given. The samereplaced nor any extra time will be given. The samereplaced nor any extra time will be given. The samemay please be noted.may please be noted.may please be noted.may please be noted.
(iii) After this verification is over, the OMR Sheet Numbershould be entered on this Test Booklet.
4. Each question has four alternative responses marked (A), (B),(C) and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below onthe correct response against each item.Example :Example :Example :Example : where (C) is the correct response.
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMROMROMROMRSheet given inside the Booklet only. Sheet given inside the Booklet only. Sheet given inside the Booklet only. Sheet given inside the Booklet only. If you mark at any placeother than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be evaluated.
6. Read instructions given inside carefully.7. Rough Work is to be done at the end of this booklet.
8. If you write your Name, Seat Number, Phone Number or putany mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the spaceallotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose youridentity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfairmeans, you will render yourself liable to disqualification.
9. You have to return original OMR Sheet to the invigilator at theend of the examination compulsorily and must not carry it withyou outside the Examination Hall. You are, however, allowedto carry the Test Booklet and duplicate copy of OMR Sheet onconclusion of examination.
10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen.Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen.Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen.Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen.11. Use of any calculator or log table, etc., is prohibited.Use of any calculator or log table, etc., is prohibited.Use of any calculator or log table, etc., is prohibited.Use of any calculator or log table, etc., is prohibited.12. There is no negative marking for incorrect answers.There is no negative marking for incorrect answers.There is no negative marking for incorrect answers.There is no negative marking for incorrect answers.
1.
2.
3.
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
4. (A), (B), (C) (D)
(C)
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
A B DA B DA B DA B D
A B DA B DA B DA B D
AAAATest Booklet Code & Serial No.
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1. Autonomous Demand indicates
that .......................... .
(A) Commodity is used both for the
export and direct domestic
consumption
(B) Commodity is used both for the
direct domestic consumption
and as an input to produce
another commodity
(C) Commodity is needed for direct
use but not as an input to
produce another commodity
(D) Commodity is needed as an
input to produce another
commodity but not for the direct
use
EconomicsEconomicsEconomicsEconomicsPaper IIPaper IIPaper IIPaper II
IIIIIIII
Time Allowed : 75 Minutes] [Maximum Marks : 100Time Allowed : 75 Minutes] [Maximum Marks : 100Time Allowed : 75 Minutes] [Maximum Marks : 100Time Allowed : 75 Minutes] [Maximum Marks : 100
Note :Note :Note :Note : This paper contains FiftyFiftyFiftyFifty (50)(50)(50)(50) multiple choice questions, each question
carrying Two (2)Two (2)Two (2)Two (2) marks. Attempt All questions.
(50)(50)(50)(50) (2)(2)(2)(2)
1.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
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2. Stay-out pricing approach
.................. .
(A) Helps the firm to ascertain the
maximum possible price it can
charge from its consumers
(B) Helps the firm to ascertain the
minimum possible price it can
charge from its consumers
(C) Helps the firm to ascertain the
maximum price it can pay to its
vendors
(D) Helps the firm to ascertain the
minimum price it can pay to its
vendors
3. Profit maximising amount of inputs
occurs when .................. .
(A) The slope of the Iso-profit line
equals the slope of the
production function
(B) The slope of the Iso-profit line
exceeds the slope of the
production function
(C) The slope of the production
function exceeds the slope of the
Iso-profit line
(D) The slope of the Iso-profit line
exceeds the slope of the Iso-
quant
2.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
3.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
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4. The producer shall not produce in
the third stage of production because
in that stage ................ .
(A) The total product is negative
(B) The marginal product is
negative
(C) The average product is
stagnant
(D) The marginal product is falling
5. If the commodities are perfect
substitutes, the corresponding
indifference curves would be
................... .
(A) Negatively sloping curves
(B) Positively sloping straight lines
(C) Negatively sloping straight
lines
(D) L-shaped straight lines
4.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
5.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D) L
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6. In the context of welfare economics,
the social welfare function was put
forward by .................... .
(A) Hicks and Samuelson
(B) Pigou and Samuelson
(C) Robbins and Scitovszky
(D) Samuelson and Bergson
7. The average fixed cost (AFC) of
production curve is denoted by
............................ .
(A) Rectangular hyperbola
(B) U-shaped curve
(C) L-shaped curve
(D) J-shaped curve
8. In the context of demand theory, the
expression ‘Choice reveals
preference’ is ascribed to .................. .
(A) Paul Samuelson
(B) J.R. Hicks
(C) F. Machlup
(D) Robert Dorfman
6.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
7.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
8.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
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9. Risk-return trade off plays an
important role in whose theory of
money demand ?
(A) Tobin’s Portfolio Choice
(B) Friedman’s restated quantity
theory
(C) Baumol’s inventory theoretic
choice
(D) Cambridge money demand
theory
10. Ratchet effect relates to :
(A) Life-cycle hypothesis
(B) Permanent income hypothesis
(C) Relative income hypothesis
(D) Absolute income hypothesis
9.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
10.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
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11. The Samuelson-Hicks type business
cycle models will show stability as
well as cyclical fluctuations only :
(A) Income movement equation
shows complex roots whose
magnitudes are less than one
(B) Income movement equation
shows real roots whose
magnitudes are less than one
(C) Income movement equation
shows complex roots whose
magnitudes are more than one
(D) Income movement equation
shows real roots whose
magnitudes are more than one
12. In simple Keynesian model of output
determination, government
expenditure will have a bigger
impact if :
(A) Marginal propensity to consume
is lower
(B) Marginal propensity to consume
is higher
(C) Marginal propensity to save is
constant
(D) Marginal propensity to consume
is zero
11.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
12.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
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13. Match the following :
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 1 Statement 2
(a) Inventory (i) Edmund
approach to Phelps
money demand
(b) Adaptive (ii) William
expectation Baumol
(c) Upper turning (iii)John Hicks
point
(d) Permanent (iv) Milton
income Friedman
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(C) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(D) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
13.
1 1 1 1 2 2 2 2
(a) (i)
(b) (ii)
(c) (iii)
(d) (iv)
::::
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(C) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(D) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
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14. According to Cambridge version of
demand for money, money demand
will increase if :
(A) Velocity of money increases
alone
(B) GDP in the economy decreases
alone
(C) GDP in the economy and velocity
increase at the same rate
(D) Velocity in the economy
decreases alone
15. If investment becomes totally
interest insensitive, then :
(A) Fiscal policy is ineffective
(B) Fiscal policy is effective
(C) Monetary policy is effective
(D) Both fiscal and monetary policy
are ineffective
14.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
15.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
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16. Long-run Phillips curve will not be
vertical if :
(A) Price inflation partially takes
into account expected price
inflation
(B) Price inflation fully takes into
account expected price inflation
(C) Price inflation does not take into
account expected price inflation
at all
(D) Expected price inflation is
always zero
17. Prof. Mahalanobis developed ...........
model in 1955 which was later used
in Five Year Plans of India.
(A) Four sector
(B) Two sector
(C) Single sector
(D) Three sector
18. World Bank has indicated GDP
growth rate in India is 7.6 percent
in 2016 and will be .................. in
2017.
(A) 7.8%
(B) 7.7%
(C) 7.9%
(D) 8.0%
16.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
17.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
18.
GDP
(A) 7.8
(B) 7.7
(C) 7.9
(D) 8.0
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19. In which strategic sector of Indian
Economy hundred percent Foreign
Direct Investment (FDI) is allowed
recently ?
(A) Science and technology
(B) Space
(C) Defence sector
(D) Critical medicines
20. Which one of the following has
propounded the modern theory of
distribution ?
(A) Nicholas Kaldor
(B) David Ricardo
(C) Mrs. Joan Robbinson
(D) J.S. Mill
21. Cost-Benefit Analysis was developed
in USA for appraisal of investments
in ..................... .
(A) Agriculture and Health projects
(B) Health and Garden projects
(C) Irrigation and Transportation
project
(D) Technology and Health project
19.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
20.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
21.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
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22. Quaternary Sector involves
.................. .
(A) Research and development
(B) Provision of services
(C) Industry and manufacturing
(D) Agricultural services
23. Match the following :
Theory Theory Theory Theory
(a) Theory of stages of economic
growth
(b) Theory of unlimited supplies of
labour
(c) The Big Push Theory
(d) Theory of unbalanced growth
PropounderPropounderPropounderPropounder
(i) Arthur Lewis
(ii) W.W. Rostow
(iii)A.O. Hirschman
(iv) Rosenstein Rodan
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(B) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(C) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(D) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
22. (Quarternary)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
23.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
::::
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(B) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(C) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(D) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
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24. To ensure fiscal autonomy to states,
14th Finance Commission
recommended to increase its share
from :
(A) 32% to 42%
(B) 30% to 42%
(C) 30% to 40%
(D) 35% to 40%
25. An Integrated Goods and Services
Tax (IGST) would be collected by :
(A) State Governments
(B) Central Government
(C) Municipal Corporations
(D) Finance Commission
26. Who is not the member of 14th
Finance Commission ?
(A) Sushma Nath
(B) Sudipto Mundle
(C) M. Govind Rao
(D) C.H. Hanumanta Rao
24.
(A) 32% 42%
(B) 30% 42%
(C) 30% 40%
(D) 35% 40%
25.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
26.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
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27. Which one of the following is not a
Non-Debt Capital Receipts ?
(A) Disintvestment receipts
(B) Dividend receipts
(C) Short-term borrowing
(D) Tax Revenue
28. A public good is ..................... .
(A) A good that the public must pay
for
(B) Non-rival in consumption
(C) More costly than a private good
(D) Paid for by a government
29. Reduction in consumer’s welfare as
a result of tax is referred to :
(A) Equity in taxation
(B) Dead weight loss
(C) Efficiency in taxation
(D) Incidence of tax
30. Which one of the following is the
major component of revenue
expenditure of Central Government ?
(A) Pensions
(B) Interest payments
(C) Defence expenditure
(D) Expenditure on education
27.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
28.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
29.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
30.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
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31. All transactions of ............... nature
are included in the current account
of Balance of Payments.
(A) Stock
(B) Volatile
(C) Flow
(D) Fluctuating
32. The commodity in which a nation
has the least absolute disadvantage
represents its area of :
(A) Comparative disadvantage
(B) Comparative advantage
(C) Absolute advantage
(D) Cannot say without additional
information
33. Ricardo’s theory of comparative
advantage is based on :
(A) The opportunity cost theory
(B) The labour theory of value
(C) The law of diminishing returns
(D) The psychological law of
consumption
31.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
32.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
33.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
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34. We can best understand Smith’s
views on trade if we regard them as
a reaction to :
(A) The law of comparative
advantage
(B) The mercantilist view on trade
(C) Ricardo’s views on trade
(D) The law of absolute advantage
35. Uniformity in exchange rate occurs
due to :
(A) Foreign exchange arbitrage
(B) Devaluation
(C) Hedging
(D) Speculation
36. If a country can produce 10 units
of good x or 4 units of good y, the
opportunity cost of 1 y is :
(A) 1 x
(B) 0.4 x
(C) 2.5 x
(D) 10 x
34.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
35.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
36.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
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37. Match the following :
(a) Infant industry argument
(b) Import substituting industrial-
ization
(c) Reduction in the rates of
protection for manufacturing by
developing countries
(d) Industrialization of high
performance Asian economies
(i) Domestic industries are
established under the protection
of tariffs or import quotas
(ii) New industries need a temporary
period of protection
(iii)Not via import substitution but
via export of manufactured goods
(iv) Rapid growth of trade
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(B) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(C) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(D) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
37. :
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
::::
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(B) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(C) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(D) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
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38. What can you say about the
following statements pertaining to
Foreign Direct Investment in India ?
(i) FDI through automatic route
does not require prior govt.
approval.
(ii) FDI through government route
requires approval of the
government through Foreign
Investment Promotion Board.
(A) Both statement (i) and
statement (ii) are incorrect
(B) Statement (i) is incorrect and
statement (ii) is correct
(C) Both statement (i) and
statement (ii) are correct
(D) Statement (i) is correct and
statement (ii) is incorrect
39. Which of the following is not a tool
used by RBI for regulating money
supply in India ?
(i) Open market operations
(ii) Repo rate
(iii) Statutory Liquidity Ratio
(iv) Disinvestment
(A) (iv)
(B) (i)
(C) (iii)
(D) (ii)
38.
(i)
(ii)
(A) (i) (ii)
(B) (i) (ii)
(C) (i) (ii)
(D) (i) (ii)
39.
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(A) (iv)
(B) (i)
(C) (iii)
(D) (ii)
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40. Which of the following are examples
of a direct tax in India ?
(i) Excise duty
(ii) Service tax
(iii) Income tax
(A) (i), (ii), (iii)
(B) Only (iii)
(C) (i) and (iii)
(D) (ii) and (iii)
41. In the year 1966, the exchange
value of rupee against American
dollar was devalued by ................ .
(A) 75%
(B) 65%
(C) 48%
(D) 57%
42. The All India Rural Credit Survey
Committee, 1954 was chaired by :
(A) D.R. Gadgil
(B) V.K.R.V. Rao
(C) A.D. Gorawala
(D) Vaikunthlal Mehta
40.
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(A) (i), (ii), (iii)
(B) (iii)
(C) (i) (iii)
(D) (ii) (iii)
41.
(A) 75%
(B) 65%
(C) 48%
(D) 57%
42.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
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43. Among top fifteen fastest growing
service sector countries ........... share
of services in its total GDP is less
than 50 percentage.
(A) France
(B) Germany
(C) China
(D) Australia
44. Which is the correct descending
order of India’s software export
destination in recent times ?
(i) Asia Pacific, North America,
Europe
(ii) Europe, Asia Pacific, North
America
(iii) Europe, North America, Asia
Pacific
(iv) North America, Europe, Asia
Pacific
(A) (iv)
(B) (iii)
(C) (i)
(D) (ii)
43.
GDP
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
44.
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(A) (iv)
(B) (iii)
(C) (i)
(D) (ii)
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45. The abbreviation ICOR suggests :
(A) International Credit Output
Ratio
(B) Incremental Capital Output
Ratio
(C) Incremental Capital Output
Range
(D) Indian Capital Output Rules
46. Statistic is a numerical quantity
which is calculated from :
(A) Population
(B) Sample
(C) Universe
(D) Hypothesis
47. Which of the following is used in
chain indices ?
(A)0
100np
p�
��
(B)1
100n
n
p
p �
��
�
(C)0
100np
p�
(D)0 0
100n np q
p q
��
�
45. ICOR
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
46.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
47.
(A)0
100np
p�
��
(B)1
100n
n
p
p �
��
�
(C)0
100np
p�
(D)0 0
100n np q
p q
��
�
![Page 23: Test Booklet Code & Serial No. AAAANote :Note :This paper contains Fifty FiftyFifty (50) (50)(50) multiple choice questions, each question carrying Two (2)Two (2)Two (2) marks](https://reader034.vdocuments.mx/reader034/viewer/2022042022/5e79482fcec27a63cd4744f2/html5/thumbnails/23.jpg)
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48. The most suitable average for
qualitative measurements is
..................... .
(A) Arithmetic mean
(B) Median
(C) Correlation coefficient
(D) Geometric mean
49. The strength (degree) of the
relationship between a set of
independent variable x and
dependent variable y is measured
by :
(A) Coefficient of correlation
(B) Coefficient of determination
(C) Standard Error of estimate
(D) All of the above
50. Consumer Price Index number is
also known as :
(A) Wholesale Price Index number
(B) Cost of Living Index
(C) Sensitive
(D) Composite
48.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
49. (x)
(y)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
50.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
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