test booklet code & serial no. aaaanote :note :this paper contains fifty fiftyfifty (50)...

24
Time Allowed : 1¼ Hours] [Maximum Marks : 100 Time Allowed : 1¼ Hours] [Maximum Marks : 100 Time Allowed : 1¼ Hours] [Maximum Marks : 100 Time Allowed : 1¼ Hours] [Maximum Marks : 100 Number of Pages in this Booklet : 24 24 24 24 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 50 50 50 50 Signature and Name of Invigilator Signature and Name of Invigilator Signature and Name of Invigilator Signature and Name of Invigilator 1. (Signature) ......................................... (Name) ................................................ 2. (Signature) ......................................... (Name) ................................................ Seat No. (In figures as in Admit Card) Seat No. .............................................................. (In words) OMR Sheet No. (To be filled by the Candidate) ECONOMICS ECONOMICS ECONOMICS ECONOMICS JAN - 11218 JAN - 11218 JAN - 11218 JAN - 11218 Instructions for the Candidates Instructions for the Candidates Instructions for the Candidates Instructions for the Candidates 1. Write your Seat No. and OMR Sheet No. in the space provided on the top of this page. 2. This paper consists of 50 50 50 50 objective type questions. Each question will carry two marks. All questions of Paper-II will be compulsory, covering entire syllabus (including all electives, without options). 3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet will be given to the student. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as follows : (i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept a booklet without sticker-seal or open booklet. (ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions Tally the number of pages and number of questions Tally the number of pages and number of questions Tally the number of pages and number of questions in the booklet with the information printed on the in the booklet with the information printed on the in the booklet with the information printed on the in the booklet with the information printed on the cover page. Faulty booklets due to missing pages/ cover page. Faulty booklets due to missing pages/ cover page. Faulty booklets due to missing pages/ cover page. Faulty booklets due to missing pages/ questions or questions repeated or not in serial questions or questions repeated or not in serial questions or questions repeated or not in serial questions or questions repeated or not in serial order or any other discrepancy should not be order or any other discrepancy should not be order or any other discrepancy should not be order or any other discrepancy should not be accepted and correct booklet should be obtained accepted and correct booklet should be obtained accepted and correct booklet should be obtained accepted and correct booklet should be obtained from the invigilator within the period of 5 minutes. from the invigilator within the period of 5 minutes. from the invigilator within the period of 5 minutes. from the invigilator within the period of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet will be Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet will be Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet will be Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet will be replaced nor any extra time will be given. The same replaced nor any extra time will be given. The same replaced nor any extra time will be given. The same replaced nor any extra time will be given. The same may please be noted. may please be noted. may please be noted. may please be noted. (iii) After this verification is over, the OMR Sheet Number should be entered on this Test Booklet. 4. Each question has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on the correct response against each item. Example : Example : Example : Example : where (C) is the correct response. 5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR OMR OMR OMR Sheet given inside the Booklet only. Sheet given inside the Booklet only. Sheet given inside the Booklet only. Sheet given inside the Booklet only. If you mark at any place other than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be evaluated. 6. Read instructions given inside carefully. 7. Rough Work is to be done at the end of this booklet. 8. If you write your Name, Seat Number, Phone Number or put any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair means, you will render yourself liable to disqualification. 9. You have to return original OMR Sheet to the invigilator at the end of the examination compulsorily and must not carry it with you outside the Examination Hall. You are, however, allowed to carry the Test Booklet and duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on conclusion of examination. 10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen. 11. Use of any calculator or log table, etc., is prohibited. Use of any calculator or log table, etc., is prohibited. Use of any calculator or log table, etc., is prohibited. Use of any calculator or log table, etc., is prohibited. 12. There is no negative marking for incorrect answers. There is no negative marking for incorrect answers. There is no negative marking for incorrect answers. There is no negative marking for incorrect answers. 1. 2. 3. (i) (ii) (iii) 4. (A), (B), (C) (D) (C) 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. A B D A B D A B D A B D A B D A B D A B D A B D A Test Booklet Code & Serial No.

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Page 1: Test Booklet Code & Serial No. AAAANote :Note :This paper contains Fifty FiftyFifty (50) (50)(50) multiple choice questions, each question carrying Two (2)Two (2)Two (2) marks

Time Allowed : 1¼ Hours] [Maximum Marks : 100Time Allowed : 1¼ Hours] [Maximum Marks : 100Time Allowed : 1¼ Hours] [Maximum Marks : 100Time Allowed : 1¼ Hours] [Maximum Marks : 100

Number of Pages in this Booklet : 24242424 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 50505050

Signature and Name of InvigilatorSignature and Name of InvigilatorSignature and Name of InvigilatorSignature and Name of Invigilator

1. (Signature) .........................................

(Name) ................................................

2. (Signature) .........................................

(Name) ................................................

Seat No.

(In figures as in Admit Card)

Seat No. ..............................................................

(In words)

OMR Sheet No.

(To be filled by the Candidate)

ECONOMICSECONOMICSECONOMICSECONOMICS

JAN - 11218JAN - 11218JAN - 11218JAN - 11218

Instructions for the CandidatesInstructions for the CandidatesInstructions for the CandidatesInstructions for the Candidates1. Write your Seat No. and OMR Sheet No. in the space provided

on the top of this page.2. This paper consists of 50505050 objective type questions. Each question

will carry two marks. All questions of Paper-II will be compulsory,covering entire syllabus (including all electives, without options).

3. At the commencement of examination, the question bookletwill be given to the student. In the first 5 minutes, you arerequested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it asfollows :(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the

paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accepta booklet without sticker-seal or open booklet.

(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questionsTally the number of pages and number of questionsTally the number of pages and number of questionsTally the number of pages and number of questionsin the booklet with the information printed on thein the booklet with the information printed on thein the booklet with the information printed on thein the booklet with the information printed on thecover page. Faulty booklets due to missing pages/cover page. Faulty booklets due to missing pages/cover page. Faulty booklets due to missing pages/cover page. Faulty booklets due to missing pages/questions or questions repeated or not in serialquestions or questions repeated or not in serialquestions or questions repeated or not in serialquestions or questions repeated or not in serialorder or any other discrepancy should not beorder or any other discrepancy should not beorder or any other discrepancy should not beorder or any other discrepancy should not beaccepted and correct booklet should be obtainedaccepted and correct booklet should be obtainedaccepted and correct booklet should be obtainedaccepted and correct booklet should be obtainedfrom the invigilator within the period of 5 minutes.from the invigilator within the period of 5 minutes.from the invigilator within the period of 5 minutes.from the invigilator within the period of 5 minutes.Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet will beAfterwards, neither the Question Booklet will beAfterwards, neither the Question Booklet will beAfterwards, neither the Question Booklet will bereplaced nor any extra time will be given. The samereplaced nor any extra time will be given. The samereplaced nor any extra time will be given. The samereplaced nor any extra time will be given. The samemay please be noted.may please be noted.may please be noted.may please be noted.

(iii) After this verification is over, the OMR Sheet Numbershould be entered on this Test Booklet.

4. Each question has four alternative responses marked (A), (B),(C) and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below onthe correct response against each item.Example :Example :Example :Example : where (C) is the correct response.

5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMROMROMROMRSheet given inside the Booklet only. Sheet given inside the Booklet only. Sheet given inside the Booklet only. Sheet given inside the Booklet only. If you mark at any placeother than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be evaluated.

6. Read instructions given inside carefully.7. Rough Work is to be done at the end of this booklet.

8. If you write your Name, Seat Number, Phone Number or putany mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the spaceallotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose youridentity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfairmeans, you will render yourself liable to disqualification.

9. You have to return original OMR Sheet to the invigilator at theend of the examination compulsorily and must not carry it withyou outside the Examination Hall. You are, however, allowedto carry the Test Booklet and duplicate copy of OMR Sheet onconclusion of examination.

10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen.Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen.Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen.Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen.11. Use of any calculator or log table, etc., is prohibited.Use of any calculator or log table, etc., is prohibited.Use of any calculator or log table, etc., is prohibited.Use of any calculator or log table, etc., is prohibited.12. There is no negative marking for incorrect answers.There is no negative marking for incorrect answers.There is no negative marking for incorrect answers.There is no negative marking for incorrect answers.

1.

2.

3.

(i)

(ii)

(iii)

4. (A), (B), (C) (D)

(C)

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

A B DA B DA B DA B D

A B DA B DA B DA B D

AAAATest Booklet Code & Serial No.

Page 2: Test Booklet Code & Serial No. AAAANote :Note :This paper contains Fifty FiftyFifty (50) (50)(50) multiple choice questions, each question carrying Two (2)Two (2)Two (2) marks

2222

JAN - 11218/II—AJAN - 11218/II—AJAN - 11218/II—AJAN - 11218/II—A

Page 3: Test Booklet Code & Serial No. AAAANote :Note :This paper contains Fifty FiftyFifty (50) (50)(50) multiple choice questions, each question carrying Two (2)Two (2)Two (2) marks

3 [P.T.O.3 [P.T.O.3 [P.T.O.3 [P.T.O.

JAN - 11218/II—AJAN - 11218/II—AJAN - 11218/II—AJAN - 11218/II—A

1. Autonomous Demand indicates

that .......................... .

(A) Commodity is used both for the

export and direct domestic

consumption

(B) Commodity is used both for the

direct domestic consumption

and as an input to produce

another commodity

(C) Commodity is needed for direct

use but not as an input to

produce another commodity

(D) Commodity is needed as an

input to produce another

commodity but not for the direct

use

EconomicsEconomicsEconomicsEconomicsPaper IIPaper IIPaper IIPaper II

IIIIIIII

Time Allowed : 75 Minutes] [Maximum Marks : 100Time Allowed : 75 Minutes] [Maximum Marks : 100Time Allowed : 75 Minutes] [Maximum Marks : 100Time Allowed : 75 Minutes] [Maximum Marks : 100

Note :Note :Note :Note : This paper contains FiftyFiftyFiftyFifty (50)(50)(50)(50) multiple choice questions, each question

carrying Two (2)Two (2)Two (2)Two (2) marks. Attempt All questions.

(50)(50)(50)(50) (2)(2)(2)(2)

1.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Page 4: Test Booklet Code & Serial No. AAAANote :Note :This paper contains Fifty FiftyFifty (50) (50)(50) multiple choice questions, each question carrying Two (2)Two (2)Two (2) marks

4444

JAN - 11218/II—AJAN - 11218/II—AJAN - 11218/II—AJAN - 11218/II—A

2. Stay-out pricing approach

.................. .

(A) Helps the firm to ascertain the

maximum possible price it can

charge from its consumers

(B) Helps the firm to ascertain the

minimum possible price it can

charge from its consumers

(C) Helps the firm to ascertain the

maximum price it can pay to its

vendors

(D) Helps the firm to ascertain the

minimum price it can pay to its

vendors

3. Profit maximising amount of inputs

occurs when .................. .

(A) The slope of the Iso-profit line

equals the slope of the

production function

(B) The slope of the Iso-profit line

exceeds the slope of the

production function

(C) The slope of the production

function exceeds the slope of the

Iso-profit line

(D) The slope of the Iso-profit line

exceeds the slope of the Iso-

quant

2.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

3.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Page 5: Test Booklet Code & Serial No. AAAANote :Note :This paper contains Fifty FiftyFifty (50) (50)(50) multiple choice questions, each question carrying Two (2)Two (2)Two (2) marks

5 [P.T.O.5 [P.T.O.5 [P.T.O.5 [P.T.O.

JAN - 11218/II—AJAN - 11218/II—AJAN - 11218/II—AJAN - 11218/II—A

4. The producer shall not produce in

the third stage of production because

in that stage ................ .

(A) The total product is negative

(B) The marginal product is

negative

(C) The average product is

stagnant

(D) The marginal product is falling

5. If the commodities are perfect

substitutes, the corresponding

indifference curves would be

................... .

(A) Negatively sloping curves

(B) Positively sloping straight lines

(C) Negatively sloping straight

lines

(D) L-shaped straight lines

4.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

5.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D) L

Page 6: Test Booklet Code & Serial No. AAAANote :Note :This paper contains Fifty FiftyFifty (50) (50)(50) multiple choice questions, each question carrying Two (2)Two (2)Two (2) marks

6666

JAN - 11218/II—AJAN - 11218/II—AJAN - 11218/II—AJAN - 11218/II—A

6. In the context of welfare economics,

the social welfare function was put

forward by .................... .

(A) Hicks and Samuelson

(B) Pigou and Samuelson

(C) Robbins and Scitovszky

(D) Samuelson and Bergson

7. The average fixed cost (AFC) of

production curve is denoted by

............................ .

(A) Rectangular hyperbola

(B) U-shaped curve

(C) L-shaped curve

(D) J-shaped curve

8. In the context of demand theory, the

expression ‘Choice reveals

preference’ is ascribed to .................. .

(A) Paul Samuelson

(B) J.R. Hicks

(C) F. Machlup

(D) Robert Dorfman

6.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

7.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

8.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Page 7: Test Booklet Code & Serial No. AAAANote :Note :This paper contains Fifty FiftyFifty (50) (50)(50) multiple choice questions, each question carrying Two (2)Two (2)Two (2) marks

7 [P.T.O.7 [P.T.O.7 [P.T.O.7 [P.T.O.

JAN - 11218/II—AJAN - 11218/II—AJAN - 11218/II—AJAN - 11218/II—A

9. Risk-return trade off plays an

important role in whose theory of

money demand ?

(A) Tobin’s Portfolio Choice

(B) Friedman’s restated quantity

theory

(C) Baumol’s inventory theoretic

choice

(D) Cambridge money demand

theory

10. Ratchet effect relates to :

(A) Life-cycle hypothesis

(B) Permanent income hypothesis

(C) Relative income hypothesis

(D) Absolute income hypothesis

9.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

10.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Page 8: Test Booklet Code & Serial No. AAAANote :Note :This paper contains Fifty FiftyFifty (50) (50)(50) multiple choice questions, each question carrying Two (2)Two (2)Two (2) marks

8888

JAN - 11218/II—AJAN - 11218/II—AJAN - 11218/II—AJAN - 11218/II—A

11. The Samuelson-Hicks type business

cycle models will show stability as

well as cyclical fluctuations only :

(A) Income movement equation

shows complex roots whose

magnitudes are less than one

(B) Income movement equation

shows real roots whose

magnitudes are less than one

(C) Income movement equation

shows complex roots whose

magnitudes are more than one

(D) Income movement equation

shows real roots whose

magnitudes are more than one

12. In simple Keynesian model of output

determination, government

expenditure will have a bigger

impact if :

(A) Marginal propensity to consume

is lower

(B) Marginal propensity to consume

is higher

(C) Marginal propensity to save is

constant

(D) Marginal propensity to consume

is zero

11.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

12.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Page 9: Test Booklet Code & Serial No. AAAANote :Note :This paper contains Fifty FiftyFifty (50) (50)(50) multiple choice questions, each question carrying Two (2)Two (2)Two (2) marks

9 [P.T.O.9 [P.T.O.9 [P.T.O.9 [P.T.O.

JAN - 11218/II—AJAN - 11218/II—AJAN - 11218/II—AJAN - 11218/II—A

13. Match the following :

Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 1 Statement 2

(a) Inventory (i) Edmund

approach to Phelps

money demand

(b) Adaptive (ii) William

expectation Baumol

(c) Upper turning (iii)John Hicks

point

(d) Permanent (iv) Milton

income Friedman

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(B) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

(C) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)

(D) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

13.

1 1 1 1 2 2 2 2

(a) (i)

(b) (ii)

(c) (iii)

(d) (iv)

::::

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(B) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

(C) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)

(D) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

Page 10: Test Booklet Code & Serial No. AAAANote :Note :This paper contains Fifty FiftyFifty (50) (50)(50) multiple choice questions, each question carrying Two (2)Two (2)Two (2) marks

10101010

JAN - 11218/II—AJAN - 11218/II—AJAN - 11218/II—AJAN - 11218/II—A

14. According to Cambridge version of

demand for money, money demand

will increase if :

(A) Velocity of money increases

alone

(B) GDP in the economy decreases

alone

(C) GDP in the economy and velocity

increase at the same rate

(D) Velocity in the economy

decreases alone

15. If investment becomes totally

interest insensitive, then :

(A) Fiscal policy is ineffective

(B) Fiscal policy is effective

(C) Monetary policy is effective

(D) Both fiscal and monetary policy

are ineffective

14.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

15.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Page 11: Test Booklet Code & Serial No. AAAANote :Note :This paper contains Fifty FiftyFifty (50) (50)(50) multiple choice questions, each question carrying Two (2)Two (2)Two (2) marks

11 [P.T.O.11 [P.T.O.11 [P.T.O.11 [P.T.O.

JAN - 11218/II—AJAN - 11218/II—AJAN - 11218/II—AJAN - 11218/II—A

16. Long-run Phillips curve will not be

vertical if :

(A) Price inflation partially takes

into account expected price

inflation

(B) Price inflation fully takes into

account expected price inflation

(C) Price inflation does not take into

account expected price inflation

at all

(D) Expected price inflation is

always zero

17. Prof. Mahalanobis developed ...........

model in 1955 which was later used

in Five Year Plans of India.

(A) Four sector

(B) Two sector

(C) Single sector

(D) Three sector

18. World Bank has indicated GDP

growth rate in India is 7.6 percent

in 2016 and will be .................. in

2017.

(A) 7.8%

(B) 7.7%

(C) 7.9%

(D) 8.0%

16.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

17.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

18.

GDP

(A) 7.8

(B) 7.7

(C) 7.9

(D) 8.0

Page 12: Test Booklet Code & Serial No. AAAANote :Note :This paper contains Fifty FiftyFifty (50) (50)(50) multiple choice questions, each question carrying Two (2)Two (2)Two (2) marks

12121212

JAN - 11218/II—AJAN - 11218/II—AJAN - 11218/II—AJAN - 11218/II—A

19. In which strategic sector of Indian

Economy hundred percent Foreign

Direct Investment (FDI) is allowed

recently ?

(A) Science and technology

(B) Space

(C) Defence sector

(D) Critical medicines

20. Which one of the following has

propounded the modern theory of

distribution ?

(A) Nicholas Kaldor

(B) David Ricardo

(C) Mrs. Joan Robbinson

(D) J.S. Mill

21. Cost-Benefit Analysis was developed

in USA for appraisal of investments

in ..................... .

(A) Agriculture and Health projects

(B) Health and Garden projects

(C) Irrigation and Transportation

project

(D) Technology and Health project

19.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

20.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

21.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Page 13: Test Booklet Code & Serial No. AAAANote :Note :This paper contains Fifty FiftyFifty (50) (50)(50) multiple choice questions, each question carrying Two (2)Two (2)Two (2) marks

13 [P.T.O.13 [P.T.O.13 [P.T.O.13 [P.T.O.

JAN - 11218/II—AJAN - 11218/II—AJAN - 11218/II—AJAN - 11218/II—A

22. Quaternary Sector involves

.................. .

(A) Research and development

(B) Provision of services

(C) Industry and manufacturing

(D) Agricultural services

23. Match the following :

Theory Theory Theory Theory

(a) Theory of stages of economic

growth

(b) Theory of unlimited supplies of

labour

(c) The Big Push Theory

(d) Theory of unbalanced growth

PropounderPropounderPropounderPropounder

(i) Arthur Lewis

(ii) W.W. Rostow

(iii)A.O. Hirschman

(iv) Rosenstein Rodan

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

(B) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

(C) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

(D) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

22. (Quarternary)

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

23.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

::::

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

(B) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

(C) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

(D) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

Page 14: Test Booklet Code & Serial No. AAAANote :Note :This paper contains Fifty FiftyFifty (50) (50)(50) multiple choice questions, each question carrying Two (2)Two (2)Two (2) marks

14141414

JAN - 11218/II—AJAN - 11218/II—AJAN - 11218/II—AJAN - 11218/II—A

24. To ensure fiscal autonomy to states,

14th Finance Commission

recommended to increase its share

from :

(A) 32% to 42%

(B) 30% to 42%

(C) 30% to 40%

(D) 35% to 40%

25. An Integrated Goods and Services

Tax (IGST) would be collected by :

(A) State Governments

(B) Central Government

(C) Municipal Corporations

(D) Finance Commission

26. Who is not the member of 14th

Finance Commission ?

(A) Sushma Nath

(B) Sudipto Mundle

(C) M. Govind Rao

(D) C.H. Hanumanta Rao

24.

(A) 32% 42%

(B) 30% 42%

(C) 30% 40%

(D) 35% 40%

25.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

26.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Page 15: Test Booklet Code & Serial No. AAAANote :Note :This paper contains Fifty FiftyFifty (50) (50)(50) multiple choice questions, each question carrying Two (2)Two (2)Two (2) marks

15 [P.T.O.15 [P.T.O.15 [P.T.O.15 [P.T.O.

JAN - 11218/II—AJAN - 11218/II—AJAN - 11218/II—AJAN - 11218/II—A

27. Which one of the following is not a

Non-Debt Capital Receipts ?

(A) Disintvestment receipts

(B) Dividend receipts

(C) Short-term borrowing

(D) Tax Revenue

28. A public good is ..................... .

(A) A good that the public must pay

for

(B) Non-rival in consumption

(C) More costly than a private good

(D) Paid for by a government

29. Reduction in consumer’s welfare as

a result of tax is referred to :

(A) Equity in taxation

(B) Dead weight loss

(C) Efficiency in taxation

(D) Incidence of tax

30. Which one of the following is the

major component of revenue

expenditure of Central Government ?

(A) Pensions

(B) Interest payments

(C) Defence expenditure

(D) Expenditure on education

27.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

28.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

29.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

30.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Page 16: Test Booklet Code & Serial No. AAAANote :Note :This paper contains Fifty FiftyFifty (50) (50)(50) multiple choice questions, each question carrying Two (2)Two (2)Two (2) marks

16161616

JAN - 11218/II—AJAN - 11218/II—AJAN - 11218/II—AJAN - 11218/II—A

31. All transactions of ............... nature

are included in the current account

of Balance of Payments.

(A) Stock

(B) Volatile

(C) Flow

(D) Fluctuating

32. The commodity in which a nation

has the least absolute disadvantage

represents its area of :

(A) Comparative disadvantage

(B) Comparative advantage

(C) Absolute advantage

(D) Cannot say without additional

information

33. Ricardo’s theory of comparative

advantage is based on :

(A) The opportunity cost theory

(B) The labour theory of value

(C) The law of diminishing returns

(D) The psychological law of

consumption

31.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

32.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

33.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

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34. We can best understand Smith’s

views on trade if we regard them as

a reaction to :

(A) The law of comparative

advantage

(B) The mercantilist view on trade

(C) Ricardo’s views on trade

(D) The law of absolute advantage

35. Uniformity in exchange rate occurs

due to :

(A) Foreign exchange arbitrage

(B) Devaluation

(C) Hedging

(D) Speculation

36. If a country can produce 10 units

of good x or 4 units of good y, the

opportunity cost of 1 y is :

(A) 1 x

(B) 0.4 x

(C) 2.5 x

(D) 10 x

34.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

35.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

36.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

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37. Match the following :

(a) Infant industry argument

(b) Import substituting industrial-

ization

(c) Reduction in the rates of

protection for manufacturing by

developing countries

(d) Industrialization of high

performance Asian economies

(i) Domestic industries are

established under the protection

of tariffs or import quotas

(ii) New industries need a temporary

period of protection

(iii)Not via import substitution but

via export of manufactured goods

(iv) Rapid growth of trade

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

(B) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

(C) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

(D) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

37. :

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

::::

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

(B) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

(C) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

(D) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

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38. What can you say about the

following statements pertaining to

Foreign Direct Investment in India ?

(i) FDI through automatic route

does not require prior govt.

approval.

(ii) FDI through government route

requires approval of the

government through Foreign

Investment Promotion Board.

(A) Both statement (i) and

statement (ii) are incorrect

(B) Statement (i) is incorrect and

statement (ii) is correct

(C) Both statement (i) and

statement (ii) are correct

(D) Statement (i) is correct and

statement (ii) is incorrect

39. Which of the following is not a tool

used by RBI for regulating money

supply in India ?

(i) Open market operations

(ii) Repo rate

(iii) Statutory Liquidity Ratio

(iv) Disinvestment

(A) (iv)

(B) (i)

(C) (iii)

(D) (ii)

38.

(i)

(ii)

(A) (i) (ii)

(B) (i) (ii)

(C) (i) (ii)

(D) (i) (ii)

39.

(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

(A) (iv)

(B) (i)

(C) (iii)

(D) (ii)

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40. Which of the following are examples

of a direct tax in India ?

(i) Excise duty

(ii) Service tax

(iii) Income tax

(A) (i), (ii), (iii)

(B) Only (iii)

(C) (i) and (iii)

(D) (ii) and (iii)

41. In the year 1966, the exchange

value of rupee against American

dollar was devalued by ................ .

(A) 75%

(B) 65%

(C) 48%

(D) 57%

42. The All India Rural Credit Survey

Committee, 1954 was chaired by :

(A) D.R. Gadgil

(B) V.K.R.V. Rao

(C) A.D. Gorawala

(D) Vaikunthlal Mehta

40.

(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(A) (i), (ii), (iii)

(B) (iii)

(C) (i) (iii)

(D) (ii) (iii)

41.

(A) 75%

(B) 65%

(C) 48%

(D) 57%

42.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

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43. Among top fifteen fastest growing

service sector countries ........... share

of services in its total GDP is less

than 50 percentage.

(A) France

(B) Germany

(C) China

(D) Australia

44. Which is the correct descending

order of India’s software export

destination in recent times ?

(i) Asia Pacific, North America,

Europe

(ii) Europe, Asia Pacific, North

America

(iii) Europe, North America, Asia

Pacific

(iv) North America, Europe, Asia

Pacific

(A) (iv)

(B) (iii)

(C) (i)

(D) (ii)

43.

GDP

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

44.

(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

(A) (iv)

(B) (iii)

(C) (i)

(D) (ii)

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45. The abbreviation ICOR suggests :

(A) International Credit Output

Ratio

(B) Incremental Capital Output

Ratio

(C) Incremental Capital Output

Range

(D) Indian Capital Output Rules

46. Statistic is a numerical quantity

which is calculated from :

(A) Population

(B) Sample

(C) Universe

(D) Hypothesis

47. Which of the following is used in

chain indices ?

(A)0

100np

p�

��

(B)1

100n

n

p

p �

��

(C)0

100np

p�

(D)0 0

100n np q

p q

��

45. ICOR

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

46.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

47.

(A)0

100np

p�

��

(B)1

100n

n

p

p �

��

(C)0

100np

p�

(D)0 0

100n np q

p q

��

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48. The most suitable average for

qualitative measurements is

..................... .

(A) Arithmetic mean

(B) Median

(C) Correlation coefficient

(D) Geometric mean

49. The strength (degree) of the

relationship between a set of

independent variable x and

dependent variable y is measured

by :

(A) Coefficient of correlation

(B) Coefficient of determination

(C) Standard Error of estimate

(D) All of the above

50. Consumer Price Index number is

also known as :

(A) Wholesale Price Index number

(B) Cost of Living Index

(C) Sensitive

(D) Composite

48.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

49. (x)

(y)

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

50.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

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ROUGH WORKROUGH WORKROUGH WORKROUGH WORK