Private Pilot Study Guide(DON’T PRINT THIS, ITS 63 PAGES LONG)

*V speeds and emergencies not included in study guide. You will have to have them memorized, be able to explain them, and have them 100% correct or they will UNSAT you on the spot. This is the first thing tested on your oral review.

*Contains 172 systems. Refer to the appropriate POH sections for further details.

1. Since you have your private pilot’s certificate you decide to go over to Grand Forks flight support and rent their new mighty Cessna 172 they just purchased and take a flight to Winnipeg with three of your friends. What documents will be required for you to make this flight with your friends to Winnipeg? Note: The aircraft is under an Approved MEL program in accordance with 91.213.

First the Aircraft will be required to have the MARROW document on board the aircraft.

1. The minimum equipment list will need to be in the aircraft. All UND Aerospace Cessna 172 aircraft operate on a minimum equipment list which is a document designed to allow the aircraft to be operated with certain non essential equipment inoperative.

a. How did UND go about getting the MEL?The FSDO will first send the group desiring the MEL a document called the master minimum equipment list. Due to the fact that we are operating a single engine aircraft there is only one master minimum equipment list that can be used. For light twins the FAA has made make and model specific MEL’s. Consider the differences in equipment between the Piper Warrior and Arrow. The components that differ in the arrow are necessary for the landing gear system and the controllable pitch propeller. Obviously these can not be inoperative therefore only one master minimum equipment list is needed for single engine aircraft.

Once the party receives the master minimum equipment list they begin to write a procedures document for the use of the minimum equipment list. The operator can remove items from the master minimum equipment list that they wish to have operative in their aircraft, but can not add additional items that can be inoperative apart from those in the master minimum equipment list. This document describes the exact operation used to MEL an item. This procedure will involve defining if an O operator (pilot) or M maintenance will be able to MEL the item at hand. The preamble to the MMEL describes the process that was used to determine what items can be operated with inoperative.

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This is another of the four components of the MEL. Finally the FAA will approve the procedures document that the operator presents to them and issue a letter of authorization for the use of that minimum equipment list. The LOA has a list of the aircraft registrations and serial numbers that can be used with that minimum equipment list. If the FAA is not satisfied with the procedures document that is written then they will not issue the LOA until they see a document that satisfies their desires. (How it really happens is that the FSDO will issue the LOA if they believe that the operator will write an effective procedures document even before the operator finishes the procedures document).

To recap the four parts of the MEL are the LOA (Letter of Authorization, Procedures Document, Preamble, and Master Minimum Equipment List. All of these four components together make up a supplemental type certificate. A supplemental type certificate allows the aircraft to be operated in a fashion other then it was initially certified for.

UND has a fleet specific MEL. Therefore all 172’s have the same MEL.

2. Airworthiness Certificate – After the aircraft is manufactured it is inspected by a representative from the FAA. This individual issues an airworthiness certificate for the aircraft which will define that category with respect to certification of aircraft that the aircraft falls under. This certificate must be in clear view of all on board the aircraft. Therefore it must be in the clear pocket by your lower left leg in the C172. Things that can make the airworthiness certificate invalid are lack of an annual inspection (progressive in our case), if the aircraft has damage which renders it unairworthy, if airworthiness directives are not complied with.

3. Federal Registration Certificate – The FAA requires that all aircraft be registered. The federal registration is valid for as long as the aircraft is in the same ownership as it was initially registered. Remember to be careful in new aircraft that the federal registration as a temporary certificate is only good for 90 days and also is not valid for flight outside of the US. Therefore our flight to Winnipeg would be illegal.

4. State Registration – The state of ND requires that we register our aircraft annually. At UND you can find this document in the dispatch book. The state registration is not required by the FAA and will not be enforced on a ramp check by the FAA. The stickers on the side of the plane are no longer used so look for the document in the aircraft book.

5. Radio Station License – This is a document that is required to be in the Aircraft on international flights. This document is not required by the FAA, but rather the FCC. The document is good for 10 ten years. UND aerospace has a fleet specific radio station license. So if someone says Andy Philbin is a

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___________ _____________ __________ (fill in whatever vulgarities your little heart desires). Over the radio and finishes the call off with ND…. UND could loose its FCC radio station license and we could be fined and then no more fun Winnipeg flights.

6. Required Documents – This is one that I have added. Even though the flight is VFR I like to make sure that we have the required supplements that are not present in section 9 of the FAA Approved flight manual in the aircraft. By this I mean the book required for the use of the G1000. The compass card for the magnetic compass can be included in this document list.

7. Operating Limitations – I CAN NOT STRESS ENOUGH THAT THIS IS NOT THE p”O”h . Check the FAR’s 91.9 the regulation says that we need AN FAA APPROVED FLIGHT MANUAL. That is what the document is called. The difference between the FAA approved flight manual and the POH is the fact that the flight manual is aircraft specific and contains serial number information for the aircraft it belongs too. Therefore the owner of the aircraft will receive continuous updates for new information on the aircraft for the FAA approved flight manual. The other components of the Operating Limitations of the aircraft can be found under section two of the FAA approved flight manual and are the placards required for flight. A total list of these is seen in section 2 if any are missing the plane is not good to go. Also the numbers on all of the gauges instruments and circuit breakers must be perceivable.

8. Weight and Balance – This does not just include section six of the FAA approved flight manual being present in the aircraft. This required document includes an updated equipment list in the aircraft which includes an updated basic empty weight which takes into account all of the removed or newly installed equipment and gives a weight and total moment of the aircraft in order to allow the pilot to compute an accurate CG.

9. And if you want to get real picky…..the aircraft needs to have a US customs sticker on it…..if you don’t have one no big deal…they cost $25 and you can buy one when you get back UND will reimburse you.

DOCUMENTS THE PILOT MUST CARRY

Check 61.3 – Private Pilots Certificate, medical certificate, government issued photo ID (Drivers License, State ID, Passport, something that gains you access to a secure area on an airport)

Remember our flight is outside of the US and we have to deal with customs when we get down on the ground in Canada and also in the US when we get back to GFUNK (grand forks). You need to have proof of us citizenship as well (Passport)

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Since the flight is outside of the US airspace we need to meet the FCC requirement of a Restricted Radio Telephone Operators Permit which is good for as long as you live.

Pilots if required by any local, state, or federal law enforcement agent or a FAA representative will be required to prove their currency. You are not required to have your log book on board the aircraft as a private pilot, but it is a good idea. You have 10 days to prove currency if you are asked to.

Also depending on the type of aircraft your flying, you may need additional ratings or endorsements.

1a. The MEL that you find in the aircraft is the same MEL that UND aerospace used for the aircraft when UND previously owned the aircraft. Is it legal for GFK Flight Support to use this MEL?

They can use the procedures document (with permission from the author), preamble and MMEL, but they will be required to obtain their own letter of authorization this document does not transfer with sale.

2. What are the three classes of medical certificates, who needs them, and how long are they valid?

If you hold And on the date ofexamination for your most recent medical certificate you were

And you are conducting an operationrequiring

Then your medical certificate expires, for that operation, at the end of the last day of

the(1) A first-class

medical certificate

(i) Under age 40 an airline transport pilot certificate

12th month after the month of the date of examination shown on the medical certificate.

(ii) Age 40 or older an airline transport pilot certificate

6th month after the month of the date of examination shown on the medical certificate.

(iii) Any age a commercial pilot certificate or an air traffic control tower operator certificate

12th month after the month of the date of examination shown on the medical certificate.

(iv) Under age 40 a recreational pilot certificate, a private pilot certificate, a flight instructor certificate (when acting as pilot in command

60th month after the month of the date of examination shown on the medical certificate.

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or a required pilot flight crewmember in operations other than glider or balloon), a student pilot certificate, or a sport pilot certificate (when not using a U.S. driver's license as medical qualification)

(v) Age 40 or older a recreational pilot certificate, a private pilot certificate, a flight instructor certificate (when acting as pilot in command or a required pilot flight crewmember in operations other than glider or balloon), a student pilot certificate, or a sport pilot certificate (when not using a U.S. driver's license as medical qualification)

24th month after the month of the date of examination shown on the medical certificate.

(2) A second-class medical certificate

(i) Any age a commercial pilot certificate or an air traffic control tower operator certificate

12th month after the month of the date of examination shown on the medical certificate.

(ii) Under age 40 a recreational pilot certificate, a private pilot certificate, a flight instructor certificate (when acting as pilot in command or a required pilot flight crewmember in operations other than glider or balloon), a student pilot certificate, or a sport pilot certificate (when not using a U.S. driver's license as medical qualification)

60th month after the month of the date of examination shown on the medical certificate.

(iii) Age 40 or older a recreational pilot certificate, a private pilot certificate, a flight instructor certificate (when acting as pilot in command or a required pilot flight crewmember in operations other than glider or balloon), a student pilot certificate, or a sport pilot certificate (when not using

24th month after the month of the date of examination shown on the medical certificate.

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a U.S. driver's license as medical qualification)

(3) A third-class medical certificate

(i) Under age 40 a recreational pilot certificate, a private pilot certificate, a flight instructor certificate (when acting as pilot in command or a required pilot flight crewmember in operations other than glider or balloon), a student pilot certificate, or a sport pilot certificate (when not using a U.S. driver's license as medical qualification)

60th month after the month of the date of examination shown on the medical certificate.

(ii) Age 40 or older a recreational pilot certificate, a private pilot certificate, a flight instructor certificate (when acting as pilot in command or a required pilot flight crewmember in operations other than glider or balloon), a student pilot certificate, or a sport pilot certificate (when not using a U.S. driver's license as medical qualification)

24th month after the month of the date of examination shown on the medical certificate.

3. What are the currency requirements for this flight if it is in a Cessna 172 at night?

Initially we need to meet the requirements of 61.56 which is the flight review requirements. Every 24 calendar months pilots are required to complete a flight review or have received a new certificate or rating within that period of time. The regulation requires that at least on hour of ground on part 91 of the regulations and one hour of flying are required. Another way of completing this requirement is to participate in the FAA approved wings program which involves attending briefings sponsored by the pilot proficiency program and then receiving three hours of flight training which include one hour of takeoffs and landings, one hour of instrument maneuvers, and one hour of VFR maneuvers. An endorsement for meeting the requirements of 61.56 must be in the pilot’s logbook.

Since we will be carrying passengers we need to meet the requirements of 61.56 and need to have three night landings to a full stop in the same category class and type of aircraft if a type rating is required. In our case the takeoffs and landing must be in an Airplane of the single engine land class. Therefore is we are current in a piper arrow we are current in the

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piper warrior. If these landings were to be done in a tailwheel aircraft during the day all of the landings must be to a full stop.

3a. Speaking of currency……what pilot time are we required to log?Only the time which is required to be logged for currency, or to meet the requirements of a new certificate or rating.

4. So now that we have determined that we have the required documents for ourselves and the aircraft and that we are current to make the flight what inspections will be necessary for our VFR flight to Winnipeg? What do we at the University of North Dakota do Instead of some of the inspection requirements?

Since the flight is VFR we will only need the following inspections…….

Annual Inspection and since for hire (Aircraft Rental) 100 Hour – The only difference between these inspections is who can sign off on the completion of the inspection Any certified A&P airframe and powerplant mechanic can sign off on a 100 hour inspection, but an A&P with an IA or inspection authorization is needed to sign off on an annual inspection. Most aircraft insurance companies either require or lower their rates if at each 100 hour inspection an annual is performed (an A&P with IA endorses the books). The work on these inspections can be done by the pilot himself as long as it is signed off by the appropriate individual. With the 100 hour inspections the pilot can overfly the 100 hours if enroute to a facility to perform the inspection. A maximum of 10 hours can be used for this purpose which causes the next inspection to be due in 90 hours rather then 100.

At the University of North Dakota we do not perform annual inspections or 100 hour inspections on our aircraft. Instead we meet these requirements through the use of a progressive inspection program. The progressive inspection program is made up of six phases for the Cessna.

Each of these phases are completed at 50 hour intervals. We have a +10/-10 rule here at UND. If you over fly the times enroute to the point of inspection you can do this by a maximum of 10 hours, but the next inspection will be do in 40 hours rather then 50.

Since we will be operating out Mode C transponder it needs to be inspected as well – this inspection occurs every 24 calendar months.

The aircraft’s ELT will need to be inspected every 12 calendar months.

These are the minimum inspection requirements for our flight. Since the aircraft is certified for IFR flight and used to operate on IFR flight plans from time to time it will need to have a pitot static and altimeter inspection which occur at 24 calendar month intervals.

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5. Other then the inspection what requirements are needed considering the ELT?

The battery of the ELT must be replaced when the following occur, more then one hour of use of the ELT, the date of the shelf life (50% of their usable life) of the battery is met, or the date that is physically stamped on the battery (Yes you have to check this sometimes I did on my private ride in CLE)

6. If the ELT is removed for inspection and repair what requirements will be necessary to keep the aircraft flyable? 91.207

The ELT may not be removed for more then 90 days and a placard must be in full view of the pilot which states “ELT not installed”

7. We find that the 172 we are going to rent from flight support is out of its annual inspection and this is the only plane we want to take because it has an awesome avionics package. Flight support has all of its inspection work done in Fargo now and we need to get the aircraft down to Fargo. How can we legally fly the aircraft to Fargo to have the inspection completed?

We can call the Fargo FSDO (Flight Standards District Office) and request a ferry permit. They will fax us a document which will allow us to make a flight in an aircraft that is deemed unairworthy. We can make these flights to fly to a location to where the aircraft can be made airworthy, or if we are delivering an aircraft of foreign manufacture to the US, testing a new aircraft design, or to evacuate the aircraft from an area of natural disaster.

8. We get the aircraft back from the annual inspection and are finally ready to go on our flight to Winnipeg and find that the mechanic returned the aircraft to us with the landing light inoperative. Can you as a private pilot replace the landing light on a Grand Forks flight support Cessna 172?

Yes as a private pilot we are allowed to perform a certain list of items that is referred to as preventative maintenance these items are listed under Part 43 Appendix A. Private pilots performing preventative maintenance are required to make entries into aircraft log books.

9. You become extremely upset by the fact that you can not locate a landing light for a Cessna 172 down in Fargo and decide to take another aircraft. You go over to Vic’s Aircraft in Fargo and decide to take out the P-210 with a riley rocket conversion. The airplane has a Pratt and Whitney Turbo Prop engine throwing out 700 shaft horsepower. It has flaps a constant speed propeller and retractable landing gear. Finally the aircraft is pressurized and has a maximum operating altitude of FL280. What are the minimum pilot certification requirements that would be necessary to operate this aircraft on the flight to Winnipeg?

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Look under 61.31 and find the endorsements that will be necessary for this flight. Since the aircraft has flaps, controllable pitch propeller, and retractable landing gear the pilot will need a complex endorsement. A minimum pilot certification needed is a private pilot certificate in order to obtain the endorsement. Another endorsement needed will be a high performance endorsement due to the fact that the aircraft has over 200 horsepower. Finally since the aircraft has a maximum operating altitude ABOVE FL250 a high performance endorsement is needed.

9.a. - Ratings & Endorsements and how to obtain themMulti-Engine Rating – Required when PIC of aircraft with more than one engine - Involves ground/flight training; practical testInstrument Rating – Required when flying in IMC or under IFR -

Involves ground/flight training; knowledge & practical testType rating – Required when PIC of 1) Large aircraft (Max gross weight 12500+ lbs); 2) Turbojet aircraft; 3) Anything that the FAA says needs a type ratingComplex Endorsement – Required when PIC of complex aircraft (Retractable gear; constant-speed prop; flaps) - Must log ground & flight training, and receive one-time endorsement from CFIHigh-Performance Endorsement – Required when PIC of aircraft with engine over 200 HP - Must log ground & flight training, and receive one-time endorsement from CFITail Wheel Endorsement – Required when PIC of tail wheel aircraftMust log ground & flight training, and receive one-time endorsement from CFIHigh-Altitude Endorsement – Required when PIC of aircraft with service ceiling/max altitude of 25000’(it doesn’t matter if you plan on flying that high or not, if the airplane can do it you have to have it.)- Includes special training

10. Since you are the most unlucky pilot on the face of the earth you find that the P-210 has an inoperative cigarette lighter. The airplane does not have a minimum equipment list. How will you determine if the aircraft is legal to be operated with the cigarette lighter inoperative?

The pilot will need to reference 91.213 first. 91.213 will send the pilot to 91.205 to check the minimum equipment requirements for certain kinds of operation.

We will need to meet the requirements of both VFR day and VFR night flight.

T - TachometerO – Oil PressureM – Magnetic Direction IndicatorA - AltimeterT – Temperature gauge for liquid cooled engineO – Oil Temperature Gauge

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F – Fuel GaugesL – Landing Gear Position IndicatorA – Airspeed IndicatorM – Manifold Pressure GaugeE - ELTS – Seat BeltsS – Strobes

NIGHT

F – Fuses - one of each kind required for flight or one for each item that requires a fuseL – Landing Light (For Hire [Flight Instruction is not for hire]A – Anti-collision lightsP – Position Lights NAVsS – Source of Power – battery / alternator / generator

So we have checked the requirements if 91.205 and find that the cigarette lighter is not listed, but also the right wing is not listed. Where can we find a list of further items required for flight?

We next have to check the VFR day type certificate for the aircraft. This is a document that lists all of the items that are necessary for VFR day flight. It can be obtained from the manufacturer or the FAA and is NOT IN THE POH!!!!!!http://www.airweb.faa.gov/Regulatory_and_Guidance_Library/rgMakeModel.nsf/MainFrame?OpenFrameSet

Next we have to look kinds of operation equipment list. These lists show all of the items that are required on top of those items listed in the VFR day type certificate. It will include lists for all of the operations that the aircraft is certified for such as night, day IFR, night IFR, or flight into known icing. Obviously we will need to check the list for night. (This is in your POH)

Finally we will need to make a reference to the airworthiness directives to find if the item is required by any airworthiness directives. We can find AD’s on faa.govhttp://www.airweb.faa.gov/Regulatory_and_Guidance_Library/rgAD.nsf/MainFrame?OpenFrameSetThis site can be used to search by make and model.

If all of these conditions are met the pilot needs to make a safety if flight determination. This involves the fact that you know that regulation wise you are allowed to fly the airplane with the equipment, but do you as the pic feel that it is safe to operate the aircraft with the equipment inoperative.

11. Now we have finally figured out that the aircraft is airworthy and that we have the appropriate certifications to make the flight

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we are ready to find some weather information. What methods can be used to legally come up with a weather briefing?

Call the nearest flight service station / use the radio to contact a flight service station from a RCO, direct frequency, or through the use of a NAVAID / or the weather briefing can be obtained from a web service which requires a log on.

12. What are the four types of weather briefings and what information is given in these briefings?

Standard – VFR Flight Recommended / Not Recommended, Synopsis, Current Conditions, Forecast at time of departure for departure airport, Forecast at time of arrival, Route forecast, Winds and Temperatures Aloft, Hazardous Weather Advisories, Pilot Reports, Notams – Distant and local if within the jurisdiction of the FSS and FCC if requested, known ATC delays.

Abbreviated – Requested information to update a previously received briefing

Outlook – An outlook forecast for flights at times further then 6 hours from the current time.

In Flight – Information as requested by the pilot on a FSS frequency while in flight.

13. What are the three/four types of textual weather reports? When are they issued? How long are they Valid?

METAR/SPECI – Metars are issued between 10 before the hour and the hour, they are valid for one hour. The SPECI is issued any time other then that for the METAR

PIREPS – Have no specific valid time or time of issuance. These are issued when Pilots give some sort of reportable weather to a flight service station or air traffic controller.

SD – Radar Weather Report – These reports come out 35 after the hour and are good for an hour.

14. Decode the following weather reports?

14. Decode the following weather reports?

METAR KDEN 020653 AUTO 24015G37KT 220V270 1/2SM R35L/4000V6000 +RA MIBCFG OVC002 BKN/// 01/01 A2989 RMK PK WND 26037/15 RAB45SNE44 PRESRR T00110009 $ PWINO =

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Aviation Routine Weather Report from Denver on the second of the month automated observation winds are 240 at 15 knots with gusts to 37 knots the wind direction is variable between 220 and 270 visibility is one half mile the runway visual range on runway 35L is 4000 feet variable to 6000 feet there is heavy rain and shallow patches of fog. The ceiling is OVC at 200 and there is a broken layer below the observing station the temperature is 1 Celsius and the dew point is Celsius. The altimeter is 29.89 inches of mercury. Remarks – Peak wind 260 at 37 knots at 15 after the hour Rain began at 45 after the hour and snow ended at 44 after the hour. The pressure is rising rapidly. Temperature is 1.1 degrees Celsius and dew point is 0.9 degrees Celsius. The $ shows that maintenance is needed on the facility and the = symbolizes the end of the report.

UA / OV KGFK-KCKN / TM0500 / FL050 / TP PA28 / SK OVC009-TOP030 / TA M03 / TB MOD DURC / IC LGT-MOD RIME 010-030

PIREP taken between Grand Forks and Crookston / Time 0500Z / at 5000 feet / Type PA28 / Sky condition overcast at 900 MSL with tops at 3000 feet MSL/ Temperature minus 3 Celsius at 5000 / moderate turbulence during climb / light to moderate rime icing between 1000-3000 feet MSL

With PIREPS what are the types and intensities of icing and turbulence that can be depicted?Turbulence – Light, Moderate, Severe, Extreme

Light – Walking and cabin service easy / Aircraft in continuous positive control – slight erratic changes in pitch roll or yaw

Moderate – Turbulence causes changes in altitude or airspeed aircraft in positive control / Walking and cabin service difficult / Causes strain against the seatbelts for passengers.

Severe – Turbulence causes large changes in airspeed or altitude the aircraft may be out of control. Walking and food service are impossible

Extreme – The aircraft may experience structural damage and is violently tossed about.

Icing – Trace, Light, Moderate, Severe

What makes a PIREP urgent?Tornadoes, Funnel Clouds, Waterspouts, Severe or extreme turbulence, severe icing, hail, volcanic ash, low level wind shear fluctuations of airspeed of 10 knots or more below 2000 feet AGL.

Decode the following SD?

MVX 0635 AREA 9TRW+/+ 135/25 210/45 50W C3635 MT 450 at 180/30 AUTOCLE 0535 PPINE

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MVX 0435 PPINA

First out of Mayville at 0635Z an area of 9/10 coverage of thunder storms with heave rain showers increasing in intensity drawn out on the 135 degree radial 25 miles from Mayville to the 210 degree radial at 45 miles from Mayville the area is 50 miles wide with movement from the north at 35 knots with maximum tops at 45000 feet located at south of the station 30 NM away. The observation was automated.

Out of Cleveland at 0535Z Now Echoes

Out of Mayville at 0435Z the radar is not available.

14. Give the valid times and times of issuance for the following textual forecasts? What are the criteria for the issuance of the in-flight weather advisories?

TAFs (Terminal Area Forecasts) – Issued 4 times a day every 6 hours and is valid for 24 hours unless otherwise indicated?

        FAs (Area Forecasts – Area forecasts have 5 parts the communications header which lists out the valid times for the area forecast, the precautionary statement, the synopsis – good for 18 hours, VFR clouds and weather – good for 12 hours, and the categorical outlook – good for 6 hours after the 12 of the VFR clouds and weather. Area forecasts are issued three times a day every 8 hours.

        FDs (Winds Aloft Forecasts) – Winds and temperatures aloft are issued every 12 hours and are good for 12 hours (until the next forecast is issued)

        Inflight Advisories –WAs (Airmets) – AIRMET’s are good for six hours and are issued on a scheduled basis every six hours.

AIRMET Sierra – This AIRMET describes IFR conditions and extensive mountain obscuration – IFR = Ceilings less than 1000 feet and visibilities less then 3 miles.

AIRMET Tango – This AIRMET is issued for Turbulence and includes moderate turbulence, wind velocities at the surface greater then 30 knots sustained and low level wind shear that is non-convective.

AIRMET Zulu – This AIRMET gives conditions of moderate icing and lists the freezing level heights.

WSs (Sigmets) – SIGMETS are issued when conditions validate the issuance of a SIGMET and are valid for four hours. SIGMETS are issued for Severe or greater turbulence and clear air turbulence not associated with a thunderstorm, severe icing not

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associated with a thunderstorm, dust storms or sand storms lowering the surface visibility below 3SM, and volcanic ash.

WSTs (Convective Sigmets) – Convective SIGMETS are issued hourly at 55 after the hour and are good for two hours.

Convective SIGMETS are issued due to the following:Severe thunderstorms due to surface winds greater then or equal to 50 knots, hail greater then ¾ inch diameter at the surface, and tornadoes. Embedded ThunderstormsA line of thunderstormsThunderstorms producing precipitation of very heavy intensity or greater effecting 40% or more of an area of at least 3000 square miles.

15. How large is the area that a METAR is good for?

The METAR observation is only good for the area right over the ASOS station.

16. How large is the area in the terminal aerodrome forecast? Vicinity?

The area in the area forecast is 5SM and the vicinity is 5-10SM

17. How many areas are there with respect to the area forecast? What area do we fall under at GFK?

6 and Chicago

18. What is the significance of the following grouping names with respect to the TAF?

FM – The from group includes information that deals with a rapid change in weather conditions after the time that is given. The weather will become what is listed after the from grouping.

BCMG – The becoming group of the forecast deals with a gradual change that will occur between the listing of hours so if 1517 is the time given for the becoming forecast then there will be a change to the weather listed after between the hours of 1500Z and 1700Z

TEMPO – The conditions have a probability of greater then 50% of occurring for less then half of the time and no more then one hour at a time

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PROB30 – There is a 30 to less then 40 percent chance

PROB40 – There is a 40 to less then 50 percent chance

18a. How long are FA winds aloft forecasts good for?12 hours they come out at 00Z and 12Z

18b. When would the winds not show up in the winds aloft forecast? When the block of altitude reported is within 1500’ of the surface

18c. When would the temperature not show up?When the block of altitude is within 2500’ of the surface.

18d. How would light and variable winds be represented in the winds aloft?9900

18e. How would calm winds be represented in the winds aloft?0000

18f. What is the highest wind velocity that can be shown on the winds and temperature aloft forecast?199 knots

18g. Above what altitude to all temperatures go negative. 24000

18h. Decode the following wind and temperature block for GFK at 24000 752535Winds 250 at 125 Knots and the temperature is -35C

19. Decode the following textual weather forecasts?

TAF

KGFK COR 021140Z 021205 13012KT BKN100 WS020/35035KT TEMPO 1214 5SM BRFM1500 16015G25 P6SM SCT040 BKN250TEMPO 1719 VRB03KT 5SM BR SCT012 BCMG 1920 1/2SM FG BKN001 VCTS AMD NOT SKED AFT 0330Z =

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Corrected TAF from grand forks issued on the second at 1140 Zulu valid from the second at 12 Zulu to the third at 05 Zulu. Winds forecast 130 at 12 knots with broken ceilings at 10000 feet wind shift from 020 to 350 at 35 knots.

Temporarily between 12 and 14 Zulu 5 statute miles visibility with mist

From 1500 Zulu winds 160 at 15 gusts to 25 greater then six miles visibility with scattered clouds at 4000 at a broken ceiling at 25000.

Temporarily between 17 Zulu and 19 Zulu winds variable at three knots with 5 statute miles visibility and scattered clouds at 1200 feet AGL.

Becoming between 19Z and 20Z ½ statute mile visibility with fog and ceilings broken at 100 feet with thunderstorms in the vicinity.

An amendment is not scheduled after 0330Z and the equal signifies the end of the forecast.

AREA FORECAST

CHIC FA 030145SYNOPSIS AND VFR CLDS/WXSYNOPSIS VALID UNTIL 032000CLDS/WX VALID UNTIL 031400...OTLK VALID 031400-032000ND SD NE KS MN IA MO WI LM LS MI LH IL IN KY

The above section is the header and tells us the valid times in Zulu time for the Chicago area with the listing of the abbreviations of the states that it covers. Notice that LS and LM stand for Lake Superior and Lake Michigan.

SEE AIRMET SIERRA FOR IFR CONDS AND MTN OBSCN.TS IMPLY SEV OR GTR TURB SEV ICE LLWS AND IFR CONDS.NON MSL HGTS DENOTED BY AGL OR CIG..

The above is the precautionary statement kind of a CYA for the people who make the area forecast. This section tells us that there will be nothing forecasting the IFR conditions in this forecast and that one needs to turn to AIRMET sierra for this information. Also there is a blanket statement which basically says you’re screwed if you fly into a thunderstorm.

SYNOPSIS...LRG AREA OF HI PRES EXTDS FM THE CNTRL/SRN PLAINS TOTHE OH VLY. RDG WL SHFT EWD AND WKN AND WL EXTD FM WRN AR TO WRNPA BY 18Z. NEXT CDFNT IS ORGANIZING OVR SRN MAN-SRN SASK. BY 18ZCDFNT WL EXTD FM CNTRL ONT-CNTRL MN-SRN SD. GUSTY WNDS WL DVLPACRS THE NRN PLAINS/UPR MS VLY AND GRTLKS RGN AFT 15Z..The synopsis above is valid for 18 hours and tells us the basic happenings of the weather in the area.

Decoded it says the following: Large area of high pressure extends from the central southern plains to the Ohio valley. The ridge will shift eastward and weaken and will extend from western Arkansas to Pennsylvania by 1800Z.

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The next cold front is organizing over southern Manitoba and southern Saskatchewan. By 1800Z cold front will extend from central Ontario to central Minnesota to southern South Dakota. Gusty winds will develop across the northern plains / upper Mississippi valley and great lakes region after 1500Z.

NDNRN HALF...SCT-BKN CI. BECMG 06-09Z BKN100 BKN CI. OTLK...VFRWND.SRN HALF...SKC. 05Z SCT-BKN CI. OTLK...VFR WND..The next section of the area forecast includes the VFR clouds and weather good for 12 hours followed by the categorical outlook which states for the six hours after the 12 of the VFR clouds and weather if conditions will be VFR ceilings of 3000 or greater and visibilities of greater then 5SM, MVFR or marginal VFR with ceilings between 1000 feet and 3000 feet AGL with visibilities between 3SM and 5SM, or IFR with ceilings of less then 1000 feet and visibilities of less then 3 miles.

Decoding the above VFR clouds and weather and categorical outlook for ND we find that it says that the northern half of ND should expect scattered to broken cirrus clouds becoming between 06-09 Zulu broken at 10000 feet MSL with cirrus. Outlook VFR conditions with high wind. The southern half of ND can expect sky clear. After 0500 Zulu scattered to broken cirrus clouds and the outlook is VFR with high winds.

MNNRN...SCT-BKN100. BECMG 10-13Z BKN080-100. TOPS 140. ISOL -SHRA.OTLK...VFR SHRA WND BECMG VFR WND AFT 18Z.SRN...SKC. OTLK...VFR WND..LS UPR MISCT120 SCT CI. 06Z SCT-BKN100. OTLK...VFR WND BECMG VFR SHRA WNDAFT 17Z.

AIRMET

SIERRAWAUS1 KBOS 030131BOSS WA 030145AIRMET SIERRA FOR IFR AND MTN OBSCN VALID UNTIL 030800AIRMET MTN OBSCN...ME NH VT NYFROM 20E YSC TO CON TO 40W ALB TO MSS TO 20E YSCMTNS OCNL OBSC CLDS/PCPN/FG/BR. CONDS CONTG BYD 08Z..ENDG NR 14Z.

The AIRMET above is for IFR conditions and mountain obscuration: This AIRMET is issued for the Boston area on the third at 0131 Zulu

AIRMET sierra for IFR conditions and mountain obscuration valid until the third at 0800Z

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AIRMET for mountain obscuration for Maine, New Hampshire, Vermont, and New York

From 20 miles east of Sherbrooke, Quebec to Concord, New Hampshire to 40 miles west of Albany, New York to Massena, New York, to 20 to the east of Sherbrooke, Quebec

Mountains will be occasionally obscured from clouds / precipitation / fog / mist. Conditions will be continuing beyond 0800Z and ending near 1400Z

ZULUWAUS1 KBOS 030131BOSZ WA 030145AIRMET ZULU FOR ICE AND FRZLVL VALID UNTIL 030800AIRMET ICE...ME NH VT MA CT RI NY AND CSTL WTRSFROM 60NW PQI TO PQI TO 50WSW YSJ TO 140E ACK TO ACK TO SAX TOMPV TO YSC TO 60NW PQIOCNL MOD RIME OR MXD ICGICIP BTN FRZLVL AND FL200. FRZLVL 080-120. CONDS MOVG EWD..ENDG 08Z.FRZLVL...080-110 NW OF 120E ACK-ACK-HNK-PSB-AIR-ROD LN..110-130 SOF LN.

The AIRMET above is for icing and can be read in plain language mainly lets decode the seventh line and the eighth line of this AIRMET TANGO

Occasional moderate rime or mixed icing in clouds and precipitation between the freezing level and flight level 200 or 20000 feet. The freezing level in the area defined above is between 8000 and 12000 feet. These conditions are moving eastward and are ending at 0800Z

TANGO

WAUS1 KBOS 030131BOST WA 030145AIRMET TANGO FOR TURB VALID UNTIL 030800AIRMET TURB...ME NH VT NYFROM 60NW PQI TO PQI TO 50WSW YSJ TO MPV TO 40N SYR TO MSS TO YSCTO 60NW PQIOCNL MOD TURB BLW 100 DUE TO MOD LOW LVL WNDS. CONDS ENDG 08Z.The AIRMET above is for turbulence lets decode the last line of AIRMET tango above

Occasional moderate turbulence below 10000 due to moderate low level winds. Conditions ending at 0800Z

CONVECTIVE SIGMETWSUS40 KMKC 030152WSTE SIGMET 5EVALID UNTIL 0355ZPA MD FROM 10S ETX-20NE EMIDMSHG LINE EMBD TS 20 NM WIDE MOV FROM 27015KT. TOPS TO FL340.

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OUTLOOK VALID 030355-030755FROM ENE-150ENE ACK-200SE ACK-190ESE ECG-140SSE ILM-ILM-SAX-ENEWST ISSUANCES EXPD. REFER TO MOST RECENT ACUS01 KWNS FROM STORMPREDICTION CENTER FOR SYNOPSIS AND METEOROLOGICAL DETAILS.

DNB

The above is a convective SIGMET

Convective SIGMETS are issued for three sectors of the US and this can be seen as the second line is decoded. They are either issued for the eastern the central or the western portion of the US.

WST E tells us that the convective SIGMET above has been issued for the eastern portion of the US. The next line SIGMET 5E tells us that it is the 5th issuance of the day for the eastern sector

Valid until the 0355 Zulu. For Pennsylvania and Maryland from 10 south of ETX to 20 Northeast of EMI there is a diminishing line of embedded thunderstorms 20 nautical miles wide moving from the west at 15 knots tops of this line are up to 34000 feet.

The outlook is valid from the third at 0355 Zulu to the third at 0755 Zulu from ene to 15 nm east north east of ACK to 200 south east of ACK to 190 east southeast if ech to 140 south southeast of ILM to ILM to SAX to ENE Convective SIGMET Issuances are expected. Refer to the most recent convective outlook from the storm prediction center for synopsis and meteorological details.

DNB those are the initials of the guy or girl who prepared the report.

20. What is a great way to remember the valid times for any graphical weather information?

If the information is useful and is not associated with any textual weather report or forecast directly then it is good for three hours

Surface AnalysisWeather Depiction

If the chart seems too complicated or is useless to us in most respects it is good for 12 hours.

Composite moisture stability chartVolcanic Ash Dispersment Chart

If the chart is associated with any textual product it is valid for the same times as that textual product

Radar SummaryWinds and Temperatures Aloft

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If the chart has a time listed in the name then it is valid for those times DUH!!!

12 and 24 hour low level significant weather prognostic chart?????? I wonder how long that one if good for

21. What are the four types of NOTAMS and what kind of information can be derived from each?D NOTAMS, GPS NOTAMS, FDC NOTAMS

Understanding 'D' NOTAMS Made Easy on FltPlan.comAlmost every pilot has lamented reviewing (what seems like) an endless list of NOTAMS for an airport, and then missing a runway closure buried among notams for 'out of service' obstruction lights. In the following article we will try to help make your job easier in reading through Notams.  First, for those unfamiliar, Notams on FltPlan.com are displayed in our Weather section. Whenever you ask for weather for a particular location, we will also display the airport notams.

The basicsAn FAA 'D' notam (which now include Distant Notams and Local Notams) is broken down as follows:a.) the location/facility accountable for issuing the notamb.) numbering sequence for the notamc.) the affected airportd.) keyword (or category) for what type of notame.) the message of the notam

Using the following notam as an example:========================MIA 12/096 SUA RWY 7/25 CLSDMIA (Miami FL) is the facility that is accountable for issuing the notam.12/096 means that this notam is the 96th notam issued in December by MIA.SUA (Stuart FL) is the affected airport.RWY means this is a notam that pertains to runways at SUA (not MIA).7/25 CLSD is the actual message of the notam -- i.e. the Runway (RWY) notam pertains to 7/25 and the runway is closed (CLSD).========================Remember on the notam above, the affected airport is SUA (and not MIA)

And one more.========================ORL 09/004 ORL TWY E BTN TWY E5, E6 NON-MOVEMENT AREAORL (Orlando FL) is the facility that is accountable for issuing the notam.09/004 means the 4th notam issued in September by ORL.ORL is the affected airport.TWY this is a taxiway notam.E BTN TWY E5, E6 NON-MOVEMENT AREA Taxiway E is a non-movement area between Taxiway E5 and E6.========================

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Notice in the above examples, RWY and TWY were keywords to alert the pilot as to what the notam pertains to.

"D" notams are broken down into 12 categories by keywords. AD, AIRSPACE, APRON, COM, NAV, OBST, RAMP, RWY, SVC, TWY, and (O) and (U).http://www.aopa.org/flightplanning/articles/2007/071227notams.pdf

Examples:------------------------------AD (Aerodrome)ACK 11/012 ACK AD CAUTION DEER ON AND INVOFSTL 09/123 M05 AD WINDSOCK LGTS OTSENW 05/013 ENW AD ALL RWY SIGNS MARKED INCORRECTLYBGR 09/024 3B4 AD CLSD EXC 48 HR PPR 410-336-5951/321-231-1952JHW 12/014 JHW AD PTCHY THN ICE WEF 0912062130------------------------------AIRSPACE (Airspace)UAR 06/001 SUU AIRSPACE OAKEY TWO ARRIVAL PROCEDURE NOT AUTHORIZED.        EXPECT ALTERNATE RNAV/RADAR ARRIVAL INSTRUCTIONS FROM ATC.------------------APRON (Apron)HYS 11/006 HYS APRON 6 IN DROPOFF NORTH OF SECURITY BOX LGTD/BARRICADEDDLG 12/103 CLP APRON ALL PTCHY THN ICE WEF 0912071946-------------------------COM (Communications)HUF 03/134 I99 COM NEW UNICOM 123.05 CMSNDOLY 12/001 OLY COM AWOS 119.275 OTS-----------------------NAV (NAVAID)PVC 11/006 PVC NAV RWY 7 ILS DME OTS WEF 0912011200-0912182200ORD 11/319 ORD NAV RWY 32L ILS GP OTS TIL 1004012200---------------------OBST (Obstructions)OAK 12/016 HAF OBST TOWER 139 (89 AGL) 0.28 E LGTS OTS (ASR 1013024) TIL 0912171147---------------------RAMP (Ramp)DKB 12/009 DKB RAMP ALL PTCHY THN SN WEF 0912071800LOU 09/031 M97 RAMP ENTRANCE F AND NE SIDE OF RAMP CLSD-------------------RWY (Runway)HDO 12/006 HDO RWY 8/26 CLSD WEF 0912091300WVI 12/003 WVI RWY 8 PAPI OTS------------------SVC (Services)ANB 03/264 1M4 SVC FUEL UNAVBL WKEND EXC PPR 205-494-9527CVO 11/012 CVO SVC AWOS OTS

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--------------------TWY (Taxiway)OAK 12/038 OAK TWY T EDGE LGTS OTSVNY 12/004 VNY TWY N HOLD SIGN AT RWY 16R/34L UNLGTD--------------------(O) (Other Aeronautical Information)SWD 06/006 SWD (O) RWY 31 APCH END NESTING EAGLESPTU 12/001 PTU (O) PORTABLE EMERGENCY RUNWAY LIGHTS OTS----------------------(U) (Unverified Movement Area)Sorry, couldn't find any current (U) Keyword notams.------------------------------ FDC NOTAMS – Flight Data Center NOTAMS are issued from the National Flight Data Center in Washington, D.C. These NOTAMS deal with TFR’s or temporary flight restrictions. Such as the fact that when President Bush travels he has a roaming TFR which is 30NM wide and extends up to FL180. Also these NOTAMS deal with changes to navigation publications.

GPS NOTAMS – These NOTAMS deal with predicted RAIM outages Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (Don’t worry you’ll learn about that in 222) or a GPS satellite that is out of service or loosing its Ephemeris (orbital plane – cool word eh?)

22. Decode the following NOTAMS?

!FDC 4/7361 ZOB FI/T AIRWAY ZOB.V117 BELLAIRE (AIR) VOR/DME, PA TO WISKE, PA MEA 3100.

The above NOTAM is an example of a FDC NOTAM issued for the purpose of a change in publication –

This is FDC NOTAM number 4/7361 dealing with airway changes in the Cleveland Center Airspace of Oberlin

Victor 117 near the Bellaire VOR/DME facility in Pennsylvania to the WISKE intersection in Pennsylvania now has a minimum enroute altitude of 3100 Feet.

!FDC 4/4769 ZID OH.. DAYTON, OHIO, LASER LIGHT ACTIVITY WILL BE CONDUCTED AT RIVERSCAPE, 111 E. MONUMENT AVE, DAYTON, OH. 394552N/0841121W AND PATTERSON /FFO/ VORTAC 242 DEGREE RADIAL AT 7.01 NM. SET UP: 0000-0400 UTC DLY WEF 0405110000-0405300400SHOW: 0000-0400 UTC DLY WEF 0405310000-0410310400 AND 0100-0500 UTC DLY WEF 0411010100-0503060500. BEAMS WILL PROJECT CLOCKWISE FROM 200 TO 260 DEGREES. LASER LIGHT BEAMS MAY BE INJURIOUS TO PILOTS'/PASSENGERS' EYES WITHIN 3661 FEET MSL VERTICALLY AND 2.73 NM LATERALLY FROM THE LIGHT SOURCE. FLASH BLINDNESS OR COCKPIT ILLUMINATION MAY OCCUR BEYOND THESE DISTANCES. DAYTON /DAY/ AFSS, 937-454-4610 IS THE FAA COORDINATION FACILITY.

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The FDC NOTAM above is issued for hazardous activity due to a laser light show.

# 4/4769 from Indianapolis center in Ohio near Dayton Ohio

There will be laser light activity conducted at riverscape 111 East Monument Ave, In Dayton Ohio longitude / latitude of the point are 39* 45min and 52 sec north / 09* 41 minutes and 21 seconds west and off of the Patterson Vortac with an Ident of FFO this point can be found on the 242 radial from the VOR at 7.01 DME.

Set up times will be 0000-0400 ZULU Daily when effective from (left to right read as 2004 the fifth month and the 11th day at 0000Z to 2004 in the fifth month 30th day at 0400Z)

Show times 00-0400 ZULU daily when effective May 31 2004 at 0000 Zulu to October 31 2004 at 0400 Zulu and 0100 Zulu- 0500 Zulu daily when effective November 1 2004 at 0100 Zulu through March 6th 2005 at 0500 Zulu

The rest can be translated in plain English!YNG 10/002 YNG 23 CLSD LNDG

This distant NOTAM from Youngstown is the second issuance for Youngstown for the month of October and at the Youngstown Warren Regional Airport runway 23 is closed to landing traffic.

!HZY 09/010 HZY TOWER 1177 (299 AGL) 4.2 NNW LGTS OTS (ASR 1011701)TIL 0410142342

This D NOTAM for Hazley is the tenth issuance for the month of September and states that there is a tower that is 1177 feet MSL and 299 feet AGL 4.2 NNW of the airport with lights that will be out of service until October 14, 2004 at 2342Z. The number that is listed as ASR 1011701 is a number that is Used by the FCC to identify the tower with the failed lights. Tell that to the stage check pilot and really impress him/her.

23. Name some factors that effect aircraft performance?

   Atmospheric Conditions (Wind, Humidity, etc) – When dealing with wind if we have a headwind on takeoff or landing we will notice that we will have better takeoff performance and landing performance due to the slower groundspeed needed to rotate or at touchdown. Also we will notice a reduction of performance in cruise due to the same fact

Humidity – The more humid the air the less dense the air. High humidity is caused by a high moisture content in the air. Water is much less dense then the other elements found in the atmosphere. Therefore the aircraft will not have as many air molecules to grab to create lift and for the propeller to grab to pull the aircraft forward through the air.

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        Density Altitude – Pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature

An increase in temperature will drop the density of the air and therefore cause there to be fewer molecules and therefore cause a reduction in performance all around. A higher density altitude will result in higher cruising true airspeeds due to the reduction in drag causing air molecules, but the engine will not be able to create as much power at high density altitudes. The opposite is true for low density altitudes.

        Pressure Altitude – Indicated altitude corrected for nonstandard pressure. As the pressure drops the pressure altitude rises. The higher the pressure altitude the worse the performance of the aircraft due to the fact that there are fewer air molecules for the aircraft to use to create lift and the engine to use to burn fuel.

        Runway Conditions – Is the runway up sloping or down sloping and are you landing or taking off. Is the runway dry / wet / or icy. Is the runway surface paved / turf / tightly or loosely packed gravel.

        Associated Conditions Listed on the Performance Charts – check performance charts to see if anything else affects the performance of the aircraft. Think of the 172 the configuration of the aircraft (Flaps) effects the takeoff distance and landing distance

        Pilot Proficiency – technique used. If you are not up to par then you will not be able to fly the aircraft as prescribed by the charts.

        Weight and CG Location – The higher the weight the worse the performance. The aircraft will need a longer takeoff distance due to the fact that lift must equal weight and be greater then weight to make the aircraft climb therefore the rotational speed will increase and it will take a longer distance to develop the inertia to allow the aircraft to become airborne.

During the landing the aircraft must approach the runway to land at higher speeds for the same reason the takeoff numbers are higher and also this will increase the stopping distance.

In cruise flight the aircraft will have a slower cruising speed due to the fact that the aircraft has to be in a nose up attitude to generate enough lift to maintain level flight and therefore will have more induced drag and not be able to cruise as fast.

The forward CG has the exact same effects as high weight – consider that the nose will need to be in a pitch up attitude in cruise to overcome the forward CG’s nose down tendency and the nose will be harder to rotate therefore increasing the takeoff distance and speed will need to be carried in on final increasing the landing distance, but the aircraft will be

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more stable in stall recovery due to the fact that it will easily recover to a nose low attitude.

The AFT CG brings about an increase in performance but a decrease in stability due to the fact that the aircraft in the stall will not have the same nose down pitch tendencies experienced with a forward CG.

24. Define the following weight and balance terms?        Gross Weight – Basic Empty weight of the aircraft including the

weight of fuel, crew, and payload.         Ramp/Takeoff/Landing Weights – Weight that the aircraft will see

before engine start after loading / Weight the aircraft will see after engine start, taxi, and run-up / Weight the aircraft will see upon arrival at the destination taking into consideration fuel burn.

        Arm – A distance determined from a reference datum in the aircraft or a reference point used to measure the distances rearward in an aircraft. The further aft an arm the greater the effect weight will have on the rearward shift of the center of gravity. The reference datum of the 172 is the firewall.

        Station – A station is a name that is given to a point in the aircraft with reference to its arm.

        Moment – Weight of an object times the arm at which it is located at yields its moment. Think of a washer on a string spinning around your finger. The further the radius from your finger the greater the MOMENTum it acts outward with.

        Basic Empty Weight – Includes the weight of the standard airplane, optional equipment, removed equipment, unusable fuel, and full operating fluids including full engine oil.

        Standard Empty Weight – consists of the airframe, engines, and all items of operating equipment that have fixed locations and are permanently installed in the airplane, including hydraulic fluid, unusable fuel, and full engine oil. (Optional equipment was not included)

       Licensed Empty Weight – Weight of the basic empty weight excluding full oil

        Useable/Unusable Fuel – Usable fuel includes all fuel that is able to be burnt during normal cruising flight. Unusable fuel is the undrainable fuel that is left over in the tanks.

        Useful Load – Maximum gross weight – Basic Empty Weight        Payload – Weight of passengers, baggage, and cargo, does not

include flight crew or any non revenue generating items onboard the aircraft.

25. What are the standard weights of AVGAS, oil, and water per gallon?

AVGAS – 6 pound per gallonOil - 7.5 Pounds per gallon – 1.875 pounds per quartWater – 8.35 Pounds per gallon.

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26. What are the three methods of weight and balance computation?

Computational, Graphical, and Tabular.

27. What is the weight shift formula?

28. What are the regulatory requirements for pilots with the consumption of alcohol or the usage of illicit drugs? UND?

The FAR’s require that you have eight hours of time from the consumption of alcohol before performing the duties of pilot in command or a required crew member, the individual must also have a blood alcohol content of less then .04% and also not be physically under the influence of drugs or alcohol. Illicit drug usage is strictly prohibited.

UND requires 12 hours from bottle to throttle

29. According to 91.103 what is the minimum preflight action required?

For flights in the vicinity of the airport a TOLD card is the basic requirement which includes runway lengths of airports of intended use and takeoff and landing distances. Do you see why we do performance every time we fly now?

For flights outside of the vicinity of the airport that pilot should be familiar with weather information, fuel requirements, known ATC delays, and alternates if required.

30. When must you as a pilot in command wear your seatbelt and shoulder harness?

The pilot of an aircraft must wear his safety belt at all times when at his crew station he must also wear the shoulder harness during takeoff and landing unless the shoulder harness interferes with his ability to perform as pilot in command.

31. When must passengers wear their safety belts and shoulder harnesses?Passengers must wear their safety belts and shoulder harnesses at a minimum during taxi takeoff and landing.

32. When may aircraft be operated in formation flight?When the distances between aircraft are far enough away to not cause a collision hazard, when the formation flight was discussed by both pilots in

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command before the flight commenced, and also when there are no passengers or property being carried for compensation or hire.

33. Answer the following right of way questions?You are coming up on a Boeing 747 at the same altitude who is off of your right wing who has the right of way?The Boeing has the right of way due to the fact that the aircraft is to the right.

You are converging head to head with a glider at the same altitude?Both of the aircraft are to divert course to the right even though the glider is less maneuverable.

You are on final approach in you 172 and a glider is above you in the pattern on final overtaking you?

Even though a glider is less maneuverable then you….you are both lower then the glider and being overtaken by the glider therefore you have the right of way.

A helicopter is to the left of you at the same altitude and you are approaching each other?You are to the right of the helicopter and are both considered in the same maneuverability category and therefore he has to give way to you.

An SR-71 on fire is quickly approaching to land and you are being overtaken by him?Any aircraft in distress will have the right of way….therefore the SR-71 has the right of way.

The order of aircraft maneuverability by category from most maneuverable to least maneuverable is as follows.

Aircraft / RotorcraftAirshipGliderBalloon

34. List the minimum safe altitudes for the following situations and also the horizontal clearances required as well?

Over the city of Cleveland in the downtown area?1000 feet above the highest obstacle with at least 2000 foot horizontal clearance – unless on final approach to land or departing

Over the town of Euclid, MN (its tiny)?500 feet from any person place or thing that can be damaged this is either horizontal or vertical – this is not necessary when departing or on final approach to land.

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Out in the middle of Lake Erie?

At an altitude which allows for a safe engine out landing….therefore 1 foot off of the water is legal (kinda cool)

34a. What are the speed restrictions imposed on aircraft?Aircraft operating below 10000’ MSL are restricted to speeds at a max of 250 knots. Aircraft operating above this altitude are permitted to achieve maximum speeds of less then mach 1 unless the aircraft can be positive the sonic boom will not reach the ground…..see why the Concorde never really worked over here?

Aircraft within 4NM and below 2500 AGL in a class D or class C airspace are allowed a max of 200 knots.

Aircraft underlying a class B or inside a class B corridor are allowed a max of 200

Aircraft inside of a class B are allowed a max of 250

35. Within how many miles of the aircraft should you have the current altimeter setting set in the aircraft?

100 NM

36. What do you do if there is no reported altimeter setting at the field you depart from?

Set the altimeter to the field elevation of the airport of departure.

37. ATC light gun signals....what do the following signals mean……

Flashing green in the air? – Return to airport for landingFlashing green on the ground? – Cleared to taxiSteady Green on the ground? – Cleared for takeoffFlashing white in the air? Only needed on the ground not in the air stands for return to starting point on the airportAlternating red and white in the air? – Just kidding I made that one upAlternating red and green in the air? – Exercise extreme cautionFlashing red in the air? – Airport unsafe do not land

38. Why will the FAA set up a TFR (Temporary flight restriction) and what kind of NOTAM will be issued to show this TFR?

A TFR will be issued due to the fact that there is a large gathering of people and unnecessary flying activity can be considered hazardous, there also can be a TFR issued to keep aircraft from a hazardous area, also TFR’s are issued for important political figures to protect them form harm.

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Aircraft can receive clearance to enter a TFR if VFR if going directly to an airport for the purpose to land or they can be an aircraft on an IFR flight plan.

FDC NOTAMS will be issued

39. What are the FAA fuel requirements for both day and night VFR flight? UND?

91.151 requires that we PLAN to land with 30 minutes of fuel on board during the day and 45 at night. We can legally land with empty tanks. This doesn’t fly for part 135….literally.

UND requires us to LAND with 45 for both day and night

40. Who is able to obtain a special VFR clearance at day and night and what do the weather minimums become?

During the day a private pilot may receive a special VFR clearance which allows the weather minimums to become 1SM visibility and clear of clouds. During the night only an instrument rated pilot with an aircraft approved for IFR flight is allowed to receive a special VFR clearance and the weather minimums are still 1SM and clear of clouds.

41. How do we determine VFR cruising altitudes?

When operating more then three thousand feet AGL and on an eastbound heading the pilot is to fly at odd thousands plus 500 feet. For example 5500 feet. This can go up to 17500. On the western headings the max altitude is 16500 and the pilot cruises at even thousands plus 500 feet.

42. When are we required to have our position lights on? Anti-collision lights?Position lights are required between the hours of sunset and sunrise. The anti-collision lights are required whenever the aircraft is being operated unless the PIC feels that there use is unsafe – taxi at night, flight into IMC, near the runway on night landings.

43. When are we required to have an operable Mode C transponder being used in our aircraft?

Any flight above 10000 feet MSL but greater then 2500’ AGL, within 30NM of a Class B Airspace, within the lateral boundaries of class C airspace up to 10000 MSL, airports required by the administrator.

You need to ask for prior permission to make a flight into airspace with an inoperable transponder if one is required. One hour notice is desired and it is a good idea to get a ferry permit, because your aircraft does not meet the minimum equipment requirements to enter the desired airspace.

44. Name the following transponder codes…..29

VFR? - 1200Emergency? - 7700Lost Comm? - 7600Hijack? - 7500Acknowledgment of Military Interception? – 7777Air Force One? - 0000

45. What maintenance records are required to be kept?Maintenance records are required to be kept for any airframe, power plant, propeller, rotor or appliance. Records are to be kept of any required inspection, repair, replacement, or compliance with AD’s.

46. What are the privileges and limitations of a private pilot?

According to 61.113 private pilot may do the following…

Carry passengers – passengers may pay a pro rata share of the operating expenses of the flight. If the flight costs 100 dollars and you have three passengers you all can pay $25.

A private pilot may conduct a flight for compensation or hire if flight is only incidental to ones business or employment and the aircraft may not carry passengers or property for compensation or hire. What does all of this mean to you? The FAA considers compensation on a much broader scale than solely making money. If you receive some sort of advancement of your own personal or business gain through conducting the flight then you are being compensated. Also the FAA considers compensation in the form of flight hours as well.

The term incidental refers to the fact that flying the airplane is not your business it just so happens to be beneficial on this particular instance. A flight that would be incidental to ones business would be considered a flight down to the cities to attend a business meeting where the expense of aircraft rental is paid for by one’s boss. A flight in which the flying is directly the business and no longer incidental would include a flight for aerial photography purposes. You are now directly making money off of your flying and illegal according to 61.113.

Private pilots may operate on international flights

Private pilots may obtain special VFR clearances

Private pilots may operate VFR without visual reference to the ground

Private pilots may obtain endorsements from 61.31.

A private pilot with 200 hours of logged flight time may demonstrate an aircraft for the purpose of sale.

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A private pilot may perform a flight for a charitable lift donation and receive a donation for a charitable organization as long as the private pilot within seven days of the flight sends the FSDO a copy of his pilot certificate, medical, and log book proving currency according to the 90 day currency and also the flight review requirements and that the pilot has 200 hours of total flight time. And a signed letter proving that the organization is a charitable organization stating the date time and place of the flight. No aerobatic or formation flying is to take place, the flight must be done in the day in VFR conditions, the flight must have a standard airworthiness certificate, therefore not an experimental or limited category aircraft.

A private pilot may tow gliders after receiving an endorsement to do so

A private pilot may receive reimbursement for a flight for search and rescue purpose for the direct operating expense of the aircraft – fuel oil rental cost airport costs / from any federal state or local agency.

47. What are the oxygen requirements according to part 91?After exposure to true altitudes of 12,500 through 14,000 required crew members must use supplemental oxygen after ½ hour, Above 14,000 pilots must always have oxygen on, Above 15,000 supplemental oxygen must be offered to our passengers.

48. What are the recommended altitudes of usage for oxygen according to the AIM for both day and night?

The AIM recommends the usage of supplemental oxygen at altitudes above 10000 feet in the day and 5000 feet in the night.

49. How long do you have to report a conviction to the FAA regarding the use of drugs or alcohol?60 days

50. What are the penalties that could be seen for failure of a drug test, failure to submit the results of a drug test, or refusal to take a drug test?

The denial of application for a certificate or rating for up to one year. Suspension or revocation of certificates and ratings.

51. How long is a temporary certificate good for?These certificates are good for 120 days.

52. What things make a temporary certificate invalid?After 120 days the certificate is no longer valid. When you receive your permanent certificate the temp is no longer valid. When you are notified that your certificate is being revoked or denied.

53. How long do you have to notify the FAA of a change of address?30 days

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54. Use the University of North Dakota MEL procedures document in order to MEL the following items.

Passenger Seat

Landing Light

Engine Driven Fuel PumpMake sure that you use the appropriate ATA (Air Transport Association) Number when you MEL the above items. Make sure that you copy word for word the proper wording on the placard you place in the book and also over the item itself. Make sure the item can actually be MEL’d Fill out the discrepancy page with as much detail as possible and make sure to not mark an item as deferred if it can not be deferred.

55. Begin to plan a VFR cross country using your Twin Cities Sectional chart (don’t worry this won’t take that long). You are flying from Bemidji BJI to Grand Rapids GPZ. The weather is currently as follows:

METAR KBJI 031053 AUTO 27010KT 10SM SKC 15/07 A3002The area forecast is calling for light winds and clear skies and unrestricted visibilities.

The Winds aloft is as follows for the Alexandria area

FD 011149 012003000 6000 9000

AXN 1825 2725+10 1925+5

Grand Rapids is calling for the same current conditions as Bemidji.

What cruising altitude will you pick on your way to Grand Rapids? Why?I would pick 5500 due to the fact that we are on an east bound heading and this will lead to the most favorable winds aloft and the best ground speed for the ride down to Grand Rapids.

What is the true course to Grand Rapids?108

What is the magnetic course to Grand Rapids?With the magnetic variation of 3 to the east your initial course will be 105 due to the fact that with easterly variations you subtract the value as given on the isogonic line on the sectional charts remember east is least and west

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is best. As you transition further to the east the variation changes to 2 east so half way between you can change your magnetic course to 106.

What will your ground speed be in the cruise to grand rapids given the winds aloft above and figuring out the true airspeed at 75% power? What is your magnetic heading to Grand Rapids? To figure this answer you first look to the Engine and Cruise Performance chart for 75% power. This chart tells us that at a cruising altitude of 5000 we will at a true airspeed of 114 knots and at 6000 we will be at 113 knots. So truly we will be cruising at 113.5 if we are ½ way between these two numbers. Our engine RPM will be between 2690 and 2660 therefore around 2575 will be appropriate for the power setting. We now need to use a little interpolation to figure out the winds aloft at 5500. We are given that the forecast winds for 3000 ate 180 at 25 and up at 6000 they are 270 at 25. The velocities are the same therefore there will be no change in velocity for the 500 foot drop in cruising altitude from the 6000 foot winds aloft forecast. We have a 90 degree difference between the two wind directions. Using interpolation we find that with a drop of 500 feet and a total difference of 3000 feet between the two winds aloft forecasts we only are going down 1/6th of the way from the 6000 foot forecast. So if we take 90 and divide it by 6 we find that there is a 15 degree difference with the 500 foot drop. Therefore we will be 15 degrees closer to 180 from the 270 degrees reported at 6000 and our winds will be from 255 at 25 knots. Now we need to use the wind side of our E6B. We put in the wind direction under the true index. 255 goes on the top and mark a dot at 25 knots above the grommet in the center of the E6B. Now twist the true course of 108 under the true index. Now slide the E6B to align the pencil drawn dot with your computed true airspeed of 113.5 and read the ground speed under the grommet. You should get around 122.5 Knots. The wind correction angle is 11.5 degrees to the right therefore you would add 11.5 degrees to your magnetic course in order to derive your magnetic heading. Therefore your magnetic heading is 116.5 initially

How much fuel will you burn on your flight from Bemidji to Grand Rapids?First we need to realize that we loose 7 pounds during the taxi and run-up about 1.167 gallons.

Next we need to use the fuel time and distance to climb chart. To figure out the fuel burn in the climb. We need to figure out the pressure altitude at our airport of departure and out pressure altitude at cruise. We have a altimeter setting of 30.02 and therefore a .1 inch of mercury difference and with the higher pressure we realize that we multiply .1 by 1000 and get to subtract the resultant 100 from the field elevation and the cruise altitude of 5500. Now we have 1210 for the pressure altitude of the field elevation and 5400 for the temperature at the cruise altitude. We have a temperature at the surface of 15 and a temperature aloft at 6000 of 10 given standard lapse rate of 2* C per 1000’ we can figure that the actual temperature will be one degree higher with the 500’ drop. Therefore the temperature will be 11*C.

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Using the fuel time and distance chart we find that from the surface to 5400 we would burn about 3.5 gallons, but taking into account the pressure altitude of the airport of departure we find that we take away one gallon and therefore burn 2.5 gallons in the climb. We now need to figure the distance and using the same method with the distance blocks we see that it will take about 14 miles 16-2. We now take into account that there are 60 total NM between BJI and GPS and that we only will be in cruise flight for 46 miles. We take the ground speed information as computed above and realize that we will cruise at 122.5 knots. We use the computational side of the E6B to compute that it will take 22 minutes and 30 seconds. Now we realize that we are burning 11.4 gallons an hour so we place the 11.4 under the rate index on the computational side of the E6B. Now we find that we burn 4.5 gallons in cruise flight.

Taxi and Run-up 1.167 Gallons +Climb 2.5 Gallons +Cruise 4.5 Gallons +_____________________8.167 Gallons

How much fuel is needed for a UND reserve for this day cross country?Land with at least 45 minutes

Let’s say you have a ground speed of 125 knots, how long will it take to fly from over the top of Bemidji to your first checkpoint of the beginning of the town of Cass Lake?The beginning of Cass Lake is 15NM away from Bemidji at 125 it will take about 7 minutes and 15 seconds.

If it takes 7 minutes to fly from BJI to the beginning of the town of Cass Lake what is your ground speed?Line up the 15 on the outer scale with the 7 on the inner scale and read the number under the one hour index to find a ground speed of 128.5 knots.

What is the pressure altitude at BJI? The density altitude?1210’ we did this in a problem above. The density altitude is around 1500 feet as figured using the computational side of the E6B and sliding the temperature at the surface over the pressure altitude and reading up and seeing that the density altitude is about 1500 feet.

What would the calibrated airspeed be considering the 113.5 knot true airspeed?The calibrated airspeed would be 112 knots. After setting up the density altitude computation read the true airspeed on the outer scale and read down.

What frequency will you use to close your flight plan when you arrive at Grand Rapids?

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There is an RCO Remote Communications outlet on 122.05 to Princeton AFSS.

What services are provided at Grand Rapids?Major and minor airframe and power plant repair shown by the S4 in the AFD

How long is the longest runway at BJI?According to the sectional chart it is about 5700 feet, but the AFD says that 16/34 is 5755’

What is the distance in NM from BJI to GPZ?60 NM

56. What are the weather minimums for the following airspaces?

Class A – IFR traffic only there is no weather minimum

Class B – Three statute miles visibility clear of clouds

Class C – Three statute miles visibility 1000’ above clouds, 500’ below clouds, 2000’ horizontal clearance from clouds.

Class D – Three statute miles visibility 1000’ above clouds, 500’ below clouds, 2000’ horizontal clearance from clouds.

Class E – If under 10000MSL Three statute miles visibility 1000’ above clouds, 500’ below clouds, 2000’ horizontal clearance from clouds. Otherwise the weather minimum above 10000 MSL it is 5 Statute miles visibility 1000’ above clouds 1000’ below clouds and 1SM horizontal clearance from clouds.

Class G – Day 1200’ AGL or lower 1SM visibility and clear of clouds,

Day above 1200’ AGL and below 10000’ MSL 1SM Visibility and 1000’ above clouds 500’ below clouds and 2000’ horizontal clearance from clouds

Day and Night above 10000’ MSL and above 1200’ AGL - 5 Statute miles visibility 1000’ above clouds 1000’ below clouds and 1SM horizontal clearance from clouds.

Night below 10000’ but above 1200 AGL or above 10000 but below 1200’ AGL – 3SM visibility and 500’ below clouds, 1000’ above clouds, 2000’ horizontal clearance from clouds.

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Note during the night the pilot may be at 1SM visibility and clear of clouds if within ½ NM from the runway. This is used to allow pilots to gain night currency. This is for in class G airspace.

NOTE: The weather minimums are increased above 10000’ due to the fact that the speed limits of the aircraft are non extant above 10000 MSL.

57. How are the following airspaces depicted on the sectional chart and in general where are they located?

Class A – This airspace is located over the 48 contiguous states FL180 and above and 12 miles outside of the US coast. This airspace extends to FL600. This airspace is not depicted on the sectional charts or any other aeronautical chart.

Class B – Class B airspace is located around the nations busiest airports and typically extends to an altitude of 10000 MSL. This airspace does not have standard size for the defining rings, but does have a mode C veil which requires the use of transponder of 30NM. Class B airspace is depicted by solid blue lines on a sectional chart.

Class C – This airspace is around the busier airports in the United States where radar control is necessary to safely make the transition to the terminal environment. This airspace has two defining rings which extend from the center of the airport to five miles. This inner ring goes from the surface to 4000’ AGL. The outer ring extends from 5 to 10 miles away from the center of the airport and goes from 1200 AGL up to 4000 AGL. There is an outer area defined which is not a regulatory airspace area of the class C. This area extends out from 10 to 20 away from the center of the class C airport. This area is used as a point to contact the approach control facility before entering the class C as a courtesy. The class C airspace is depicted with solid magenta lines where the outer area is depicted with white boxes which state contact ________ approach on _______ within 20NM.

Class D – Class D airspace is established where an air traffic control tower is necessary to safely sequence traffic to a runway. This airspace typically extends from the center of the class D airport out to 4NM or 5SM. This airspace extends up to 2500 AGL. It is depicted on the sectional charts as a dashed blue line.

Class E – Class E airspace is developed for many different reasons. It can be developed to protect aircraft on an IFR flight plan that are under positive control by an air traffic controller. Typically these areas extend from 1200 AGL up to 17999’ MSL. These are defined by shaded blue lines. Usually the area inside of the shaded blue line is class G up to 14,500 MSL. Also these areas can be defined at heights as necessary using a staggered solid blue line and inside of that box there will be a height in feet MSL listed. Also class E can be developed to protect an area where there is a non precision instrument approach. These areas typically have a shaded magenta line which depict class E airspace from 700 AGL up to 17999 feet. Developing

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this airspace in the aforementioned areas raises the VFR weather minimums and protects aircraft on approaches and enroute from collision hazards. A dashed magenta line protects areas surrounding airports with precision approaches. These areas extend from the surface up to 17999. The highest altitude that class E can start below class A is 14500 feet. Class E exists above FL600 as well.

Class G – Class G airspace will typically be underlying the class E areas that do not start at the surface. This airspace has no positive control abilities for IFR aircraft. The airspace is not depicted on the sectional chart. Wherever some other type of airspace is not depicted class G is present.

58. What services are provided to aircraft in the following airspaces?

Class A – All aircraft in class A airspace are under radar contact and being controlled by an air traffic controller. Only aircraft on an IFR flight plan are permitted in this airspace.

Class B – Controllers provide sequencing and separation for all traffic in class B airspace. Therefore both VFR and IFR aircraft will be treated like aircraft on an IFR flight plan receiving radar vectors and altitude assignments.

Class C – Class C controllers provide sequencing and separation of IFR aircraft from other aircraft and sequencing and separation of VFR aircraft on a work load permitting basis. So if they aren’t too busy they will do it. Otherwise they provide sequencing and separation of aircraft on the runway.

Class D – Class D airspace controllers provide sequencing and separation of aircraft on the runway only. If you collide on your way out to the practice area in Grand Forks it’s your own fault.

Class E – Controllers in class E airspace are not required to perform any services for VFR traffic, but can give VFR flight following on a workload permitting basis. Which involves basically giving traffic advisories for enroute VFR aircraft and updated altimeter settings.

Class G – There are no controllers in class G

59. What are the equipment requirements for entry into the following airspaces and what are the communications requirements prior to entering this airspace these answers are for VFR traffic only?

Class A – No VFR traffic

Class B – Mode C transponder within 30 and two way radio communication capabilities. Also the aircraft needs a clearance to get into the airspace. You need to hear N________ Cleared into the _________ Class Bravo Airspace.

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Class C – Mode C transponder inside the airspace and above the airspace up to 10000 MSL and two way radio communications. The controller needs to acknowledge the aircrafts call sign or clear the aircraft into the airspace. The following phrases allow an aircraft to enter the class C. Cessna N528ND stand by, aircraft calling approach cleared to enter the class C, Cessna N528ND enter left base runway 28L. The following phrases DO NOT allow you to enter a class C airspace. Cessna N528ND remain clear the class C. Aircraft contacting approach standby.

Class D – All that is needed to enter the class D is two way radio communications and the criteria are the same as those listed above for the class C.

Class E – No specific requirements

Class G – Not controlled.

60. Name each of the special use areas and other airspace areas and define where they are usually located, why they are created, the restrictions or services provided to pilots in these airspace areas, how to determine the controlling agency of the airspace with the use of the sectional chart or AFD?

Prohibited Airspace – This airspace is depicted on the sectional chart as a horizontally dashed blue line outlined by a solid blue line and has a defining number associated with it such as P-5343. You can look under the communications panel of the sectional chart to find the information on this airspace. The airspace may only be prohibited through a certain range of altitudes, if this is the case then the altitudes of restriction will be posted in the communications panel. If there is a controlling agency listed the name of it will be located in this panel also. ZMP for example is Minneapolis center. Pilots are not permitted to enter this airspace under any circumstances. If there is no air to ground communications frequency for the airspace then no a/g will be listed under the communications panel of the sectional chart.

Restricted Airspace – Restricted airspace is similar to prohibited, but usually has part time operation. It is depicted on the sectional chart the same way as the prohibited other then the name will be listed with an R-####. This airspace will have the listing of the times of operation under the communications panel. This information can also be received from a flight service station as well. A pilot may be able to receive a clearance through the restricted airspace by contacting the controlling agency in advance. Restricted areas have activity when active that can be quite dangerous to non participating aircraft such as aerial gunnery.

MOA – Military Operations Area – Military operations areas are defined on sectional charts by a horizontally dashed magenta line outlined by a solid magenta line and are named inside of the lines. Military operations areas include activity which may be hazardous to non participating aircraft such as

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low level high speed flight below 10000 MSL above 250 knots, formation flying, and aerobatics. The communications panels on a VFR sectional chart define the controlling agency of the area as well as the times and altitudes of use. Flight by VFR aircraft is not prohibited through these airspace areas, but an aircraft should contact an FSS within 100NM in order to obtain information regarding the MOA.

Warning Areas – These are areas located within three miles of the US coast line which include activity which may be hazardous to non participating aircraft. These air space areas are not prohibited to VFR aircraft, but are established as a precaution for aircraft passing through. Warning areas are numbered just as the prohibited areas and restricted areas example W-###. Warning areas are depicted on the VFR sectional and terminal area charts with the dashed blue line outlined by the solid blue line just as the restricted and prohibited areas. These areas can be located over domestic or international waters.

Alert Areas – Alert areas are developed in order to provide a depiction for high density training or other unusual aerial phenomenon which can pose a threat to non participating aircraft. Alert areas are depicted on the aeronautical sectional and terminal area charts in a similar fashion to the restricted area with the dashed blue line outlined by the solid blue line. The alert area will be numbered as well in the following fashion A-###. The symbol on the aeronautical chart will also inform the pilot of the activity that is present in the alert area such as concentrated student helicopter training. There are no specific restrictions for flight through an alert area, but pilots should use caution when traveling through an alert area.

Military Training Routes – MTR’s – Are depicted on the sectional and terminal area charts with a solid black line drawing the route and giving it an alpha numeric code. They are coded as either VR or IR representing an instrument or visual route. The numbers used to code these routes are either 4 or 3 digit. A 4 digit symbolizes that all portions of the route will be below an altitude of 1500 AGL where the 3 digit have at least one segment with altitudes above 1500 AGL. These routes are developed to depict areas where high speed traffic below 10000 MSL (above 250) knots will be located on a route segment. Non participating aircraft are strongly urged to contact a flight service station within 100NM of the MTR to find out the status of the MTR. There are no specific restrictions to VFR pilots traveling through a MTR.

CFA – Controlled Firing Area – Controlled firing areas are not depicted on any aeronautical chart and do not have any specific restriction to pilots. These areas are developed where aerial gunnery is taking place. There is no depiction or restriction necessary due to the fact that there are spotters either on the ground or in the air or radar looking for non participating aircraft and all activity will cease as a non participating aircraft traverses the area.

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LAA – Local Airport Advisory – these are areas defined within 10NM of an airport with an FSS on field. After the air traffic control tower closes the FSS will provide local airport advisory service to approaching aircraft.

RAA – Remote Airport Advisory – Within ten of an airport where the operating control tower has closed an off field flight service station will provide advisory service to arriving and departing aircraft. Both the RAA and LAA are not depicted on an aeronautical chart or regulatory in

TFR – Temporary Flight Restriction – These airspace areas are not depicted on any aeronautical chart due to the fact that they will not exist for the entirety of the six months that a VFR sectional or terminal area chart is valid for. These areas are defined through a FCC NOTAM and define airspace where flight is either restricted or prohibited due to some sort of national security issue, hazard to aircraft, or high density gathering of the public. For example a TFR will be defined around the president of the United States that extends up to 18000 MSL and is 30NM wide.

TRSA – Terminal Radar Service Area – I DON’T CARE WHAT YOUR GORUND SCHOOL TEACHER TOLD YOU THERE ARE MORE THEN TWO OF THESE IN THE US!!!!!!!! Now that I got that out of my system if we look down south of us to Fargo we find that we have a TRSA. It is an area of non regulatory airspace that is defined on a VFR sectional chart by a set of solid black rings around a class D airport. These rings define areas where class b radar services are available to aircraft who desire to participate, but participation is not mandatory. To back up my aforementioned statement look at the Chicago sectional and then add Fargo and I am from Cleveland, Ohio and directly east of us there is a TRSA in Youngstown add all of those up and you have way more then two.

ADIZ – Air Defense Identification Zone – These are areas defined around US borders and coastal waters. They require a DVFR (defense VFR) or IFR flight plan for their crossing and the use of a mode c transponder for radar identification purposes as you enter US controlled airspace. They are depicted on VFR sectional and terminal area charts as a dotted magenta line outlined by a solid magenta line and list the name of the ADIZ. Contact with a controlling agency is required for the crossing of an Air Defense Identification Zone.

Wildlife Refugees – are defined on VFR sectional charts and terminal area charts in order to make the suggestion that pilots fly at altitudes above 2500 AGL in order to not pose a hazard to wildlife below. These areas are not regulatory. There is a depiction on charts defined by a single dotted blue line outlined by a solid blue line and usually have a name listed inside of them.

There are other airspace areas that can be shown on the VFR sectional chart such as class B corridors which allow aircraft to transition through a class B airspace without contact with a controller, Miscellaneous airspace areas which are depicted by an airplane symbol with a U for ultra light activity, a h

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for hang glider activity or a g for glider activity. Also a parachute symbol will depict areas of parachute activity.

61. What is the purpose of the following runway marking and what types of operations does it allow?

The above markings are called chevron marks and they mark a displaced threshold on a runway which makes this area not usable for taxi takeoff or landing unless in an emergency.

This marks a displaced threshold where the displaced portion of the runway is available for taxi and takeoff only not for landings.

62. How are closed runways marked?Closed runways are marked by a large yellow X at the beginning of each end of the runway. They are marked with a large white lighted elevated X for the night time.

63. Name what each of the following signs depicts?

The above sign depicts a runway boundary. It is a location sign showing that you are at a boundary for runway 15-33

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This sign depicts that you are currently on taxi way tango it is a location sign.

This sign indicates that you are located on taxiway tango approaching runway 18-36

This is a runway boundary sign that would be facing a pilot exiting a runway marking the boundary of the runway they are exiting

This is a direction sign showing that a right turn will lead to taxiway alpha

This sign shows that there are three thousand feet remaining for the runway.

64. What color are runway edge lights?Runway edge lights are white but transition to amber by the last 2000’ or half of the runway whichever is smaller. 65. What color are runway centerline lights?Runway centerline lights are white for the majority of the runway by the last 3000 feet they alternate red and white and for the last 1000 feet the turn all red.

66. What color are taxiway lights?Taxiway lights are blue omni directional lights.

67. What procedure would be used to activate pilot controlled lighting and how long will the lights remain active?

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The pilot must click the microphone over the appropriate frequency usually the Unicom or CTAF frequency this information can come from the AFD. The lights can be either set to low medium or high intensity. Depending on the system their can either be a one two or three step system. If the airport has HIRL (High Intensity Runway Lights)7 clicks within 5 seconds sets the lights to high intensity, 5 clicks within 5 sets the lights to medium and 3 clicks within 5 sets the lights to low. The recommended procedure is to click the mike 7 times initially and then step down to the desired intensity of lights. The activation will allow for 15 minutes of use. MIRL (Medium Intensity Runway Lights) have a two step. LIRL (low intensity runway lights) has a one step.

68. What color is the airport beacon at grand forks? When is it operated?The beacon at Grand Forks is alternating green and white and it is operated between the hours of sunset and sunrise and when the field has ceilings less then 1000 feet and visibilities under 3SM.

69. You are approaching the Grand Forks local area from the south and forgot your sectional chart and are unfamiliar with the area. How can you decipher the difference between the grand forks air force base and the city of Grand Forks in the night?

The air force base will have a dual peaked white flash followed by a green light in its rotating beacon due to the fact that it is a lighted military airport. Grand Forks will have the standard lighting for a lighted land airport. The rotating white and green. Rotating yellow and white is used for a lighted seaport.

70. To make our mighty mighty 172 run she needs three basic things fuel air and spark…….describe for me how the engine on the cessna gets fuel air and spark.

Fuel is delivered to the aircraft through the two wing mounted fuel tanks. Each fuel tank has a total capacity of 27.5 gallons with 26.5 usable. While preflighting the aircraft it is imperative that the pilot check that the fuel vents of the aircraft are free from debris. The purpose of these fuel vents is to allow air to enter the tanks as fuel is burned to prevent a vacuum from being created and rendering the fuel pumps inoperative due to the fact that they would not be able to overpower the strong suction created inside the tanks. Also these vents allow expanding fuel to be dumped overboard. This will typically occur on hot days when the tanks were just recently topped off. Also the pilot should check that the gasket (black piece of rubber) is present on the bottom of the fuel cap. This gasket creates a seal and prevents moisture from entering the tank and contaminating the fuel. The tanks have a float inside of them which sends information to the fuel quantity gauges. There is a low point in the fuel system with a sump attached to allow the pilot to check the quality of the fuel for debris content and that the proper type of fuel has been placed into the tanks as well. AVGAS 100 low lead will be the color blue, 100 is green 80/90 is red, 110 is purple, and JET A is straw

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colored and very oily. Our 172 is designed for 100 / 100LL in a pinch the next highest octane can be used which is 110. Lower octances are not permitted due to the fact that they will cause detonation to occur. The fuel is directed from the tanks to the fuel selector where there are three positions; left right and off. The fuel then flows into the engine cowling where it passes through a filter and to the low point in the fuel system where sediment will gather and be able to be sumped by the pilot prior to engine start. Fuel then flows to the electric boost pump. This pump increases the fuel pressure during engine start and can be used as a backup if the engine driven pump fails. Attached to this assembly is a solenoid valve which allows fuel to flow to cylinders 1, 2, and 4 if the primer button is activated. After the fuel flows through the electric boost pump it flows to the engine driven fuel pump which is driven off of the accessory case of the engine. This pump then feeds to the carburetor.

The warrior has a venturi type updraft carburetor. This means that fuel is metered by a pressure drop in the carburetor. As fuel enters the carburetor it fills a section called the fuel bowl. Inside of the fuel bowl there is a set of floats which are attached to a needle valve which stops fuel from flowing into the bowl unless it is needed. As the engine is operated under normal cruise power settings the needle valve is usually slightly displaced and allows a continuous flow of fuel as needed to the bowl of the carburetor

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In the above photo the device labeled as the mixture control has a variable size orifice which allows only a certain amount of fuel to enter the main metering jet As the throttle valve is opened there is a large pressure drop in the venture section of the carburetor. Static air pressure is fed into the fuel bowl which leaves the fuel at a higher pressure then the air being drawn across the top of the main metering jet. This creates a push which draws fuel out of the main metering jet. If only fuel passed into the main metering jet then a stream or drips of fuel would pass into the carburetor. This is not very efficient for allowing ignition to occur. Fuel vapor is what burns not the liquid fuel itself. If you throw a match into a full 55 gallon barrel of AVGAS the match will go out. If you toss the match into a 55 gallon barrel they you poured a cap full of gas into the barrel will have a violent ignition (warning do not try this at home). This is why we need an emulsion chamber. This is the device that mixes a small amount of air with the fuel in the main metering jet before it enters the carburetor. What this allows is a fine mist of

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fuel to flow through the main metering jet causing the fuel to be more efficiently burned. The throttle valve is directly attached to the throttle in the cockpit. This regulates the amount of airflow into the engine and therefore the size of the pressure drop and therefore the amount of fuel that flows to the engine. When we slam the throttle forward quickly in the Warrior the carburetor would not be able to keep up with the rapid change in throttle setting. This is why an accelerator pump is installed on the aircraft. The accelerator pump is a small cylinder that is actuated as the throttle is brought forward. A spring loaded piston comes down and forces fuel into the venturi of the carburetor.

Air – The engine gets fuel through the air intake which is on the right side of the cowling low. The air flows into this intake and then through an air filter. The air now flows through a carburetor air box which allows either filtered outside air to flow into the carburetor or unfiltered heated air by the use of the carb heat lever in the aircraft. The amount of airflow into the engine is regulated by the throttle valve. Next the air and fuel mixture flow through the intake manifolds and then through the intake valve into the cylinder where they are to be burned.

Spark – The engine of the Warrior receives its spark from a set of magnetos. The magnetos on the engine are driven by the engine off of the accessory case. We have dual magnetos on our aircraft for redundancy purposes and as well for added performance. The magnetos create electrical charge through the rotation of a magnet. Just like in grade school when you made an electromagnet using a battery and a nail with a wire around it…. the magneto uses a magnet to create electricity. Each time the poles are reversed as the magnet rotates an electrical current is induced. There is a set of two wires around the magnet that spin with it and pick up the current. The first winding of wire is very thick but the second is very thin and the thinness of the wire causes amplification in the voltage of the electricity. Think of volts as pressure and more volts are needed to get that electricity through the thin wire. The electricity wants to find the easiest way to a grounding source so as the magneto rotates in the upper portion of the magneto there is a device called a rotor which is directly attached to these windings of wire. As the rotor spins it makes contact with breaker points which are attached to the spark plug wires which are attached to the spark plugs. So as the rotor makes contact with the breaker point the electricity flows to the spark plug where it jumps a gap and allows for a spark to be created thus igniting the fuel.

Magneto

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Spark Plug Gap

71. List and describe the four strokes in a four stroke engine as seen in the Cessna 172?

Intake – the intake stroke occurs as the piston moves downward with the intake valve open and the air and fuel mixture are taken into the engine. To understand the four strokes you need to understand how the valves are actuated in the engine. A device called a camshaft is rotated as the engine turns. The camshaft has a set of lobes which rotate as it turns. Each of these lobes engage a valve tappet (also known as a roller or cam follower) as the lobe makes contact with the tappet it pushes a pushrod forward which is attached to a device called a rocker arm which is directly attached to the valve. As the lobe rotates away from the valve tappet a spring allows the valve to return to its closed position. The engine is designed in a fashion that allows each of the valves to open at its appropriate time. There are two valves per cylinder an intake and exhaust valve. For a better visualization of how this system works see the warrior systems software. So back to the intake stroke, as the piston moves downward the intake valve is opened by the process described above. The downward motion of the piston creates an increasing in volume and a lower pressure inside the cylinder and draws in the air fuel mixture.

Compression – During this stroke the piston is making its track back up the inside of the cylinder after the intake stroke has been completed. Both the intake and exhaust valve are closed. This allows the fuel and air to be compressed to create a powerful ignition. Remember that the warrior has an 8.5 to 1 compression ratio. This means it takes 8.5 parts of air and squeezes the air into a space made to fit one part of air when it reaches the top of the cylinder. Power – This stroke occurs as the engine ignites the fuel and power is created. As the piston is making its track up the cylinder on the compression stroke two sparks will be suddenly introduced which ignite the fuel. These sparks do not occur at the top of the cylinder. They actually occur at 25 degrees of rotation before the top of the cylinder. This position is referred to as 25 before top dead center. The fuel then begins to SLOWLY burn, and allows the engine to reach peak cylinder pressure at 15 degrees of rotation

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after top dead center. So to translate that into English the fuel is ignited a little early in order to allow the maximum amount of power to be created as it starts the downward portion of the power stroke.

Exhaust – After the cylinder bottoms out the exhaust valve will be fully open as the piston travels back upwards. This allows all of the exhaust gasses to exit through the exhaust manifold to the muffler and overboard the aircraft. After this occurs the process starts all over again.

The engine creates useful power through the crankshaft which is the device in which all of the pistons are attached to through connecting rods. For a better visualization on how all of this works check the warrior systems software.

72. Describe the engine found in the C172?The engine in the C172 is an IO-360-C1C6. The O refers to the fact that the engine is horizontally opposed. This is a description of the arrangement of the cylinders of the engine. Your car most likely has a V configuration or an inline configuration unless you have a Subaru like Greg Smith or an old Volkswagen. The 360 refers to the fact that the engine has 360 cubic inch displacement. This means that if we filled all of the cylinders with a fluid they would be able to hold 360 cubic inches of water. To put this into terms that you can understand 360 cubic inches is a 5.2 liter engine. The C refers to an alphabetical power rating assigned by the manufacturer Lycoming. The three refers to the front accessories of the engine specifically this three shows that we have 3/8 inch mounting flange bolts for the propeller rather then the standard 7/16th inch that most Lycoming engines have. The G refers to the rear accessories of the engine namely the fact that we have slick magnetos with 25 before top dead center timing and impulse coupling off of the left magneto. For future reference if the engine code has a fourth digit in its name after the initial three descriptors that number refers to the counter weight application on the crankshaft of the engine. For example the Seminole has an O-360-A1H6 the 6 refers to the fact that the engine has one 1/8th order and one 1/6th order counter weight on its crankshaft. All of the information provided above that describes the D3G descriptor for the engine is not required for your stage check, but if you really want to impress the stage pilot you can throw that at him/her. I bet he won’t even know that. The engine is direct drive which means that the propeller is directly driven by the engine. It is air cooled meaning that there are cooling fins which allow the air that passes over them to absorb heat and remove it from the cowling. The engine puts out 200 horse power at 2700 RPM. Kinda sad!

73. What devices are driven off of the accessory case of the engine of the 172?Off of the accessory case of the engine you will find the engine driven fuel pump, engine driven vacuum pump, oil pump, and both magnetos. All of these devices are gear driven and geared to the camshaft.

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74. Describe the oil system in the C172?The oil system in the 172 has an internal pump driven off of the accessory case of the engine. The oil is located in a sump at the bottom of the engine. It can carry a maximum of 8 quarts and has a minimum of 6 quarts for use. The engine manufacturer allows for a minimum of 2 quarts to be present, but this is a little less then safe. We at UND use Aeroshell 15W50 multi-viscosity ashless dispersant. The oil is drawn through the system using a gear type pump. Oil passes around the gears as the turn and allows it to flow through the system. Before the oil reaches the pump it is drawn through a screen to collect any debris. Oil is then sent to the oil filter. If this filter becomes clogged there is a built in bypass valve which allows the oil to be diverted direct to the system. Next the oil will flow through an oil cooler which allows the hot oil to be ducted through a series of tubes inside a radiator like device which have a cooling air directed around them to remove some of the heat. In the winter time a winterization kit is installed which blocks the flow of air to the oil cooler and prevents the oil form congealing. Remember it gets darn cold up here too. Now the oil is diverted through the system and makes contact with all moving parts of the engine and finds its way back down to the sump where the process starts all over again. Built into the system is a temperature sensing bulb which gives the oil temperature indications. Also there is a pressure transducer which senses oil pressure and gives that indication on the oil pressure gauge. Oil is what we would call a hygroscopic material meaning it absorbs water. As the engine oil temperature increases the water in the oil is released as water vapor. On some aircraft you will notice a white dash on the oil temp gauge or a dot at 180*. This is the temperature when all of the water in the oil will become vapor. As these vapors are released they have to be able to exit somewhere. This is the purpose of the breather tube which is at the rear of the engine on the left hand side hanging under the cowling. This tube allows the water vapor to escape. Be cautious in the winter especially that it is free from obstruction. In the winter these can easily freeze. The freezing will be noticeable in flight due to the fact that holes are drilled into the oil breather tube called whistle slots due to the loud screaming noise they make as air escapes from them. Another purpose of the breather is for the engine to be able to throw excess oil overboard. If there is too much oil in the system it will exit through the breather.

75. What are the six purposes of oil?Oil does the following –

Cleans – As oil travels through the engine it picks up debris which will eventually be trapped in the oil filter.

Cools – As the oil makes contact with hot engine parts heat is conducted into the oil and taken away.

Lubricates – Duh this one is obvious of course something greasy removes friction.

Protects – Oil protects the internal engine parts from rust and corrosion. 49

Seals – Oil can be used to make a seal by preventing a gasket from drying up.

Actuates – Hydraulic fluid can be used to actuate certain devices. Think of the brakes on the 172 or the gear on the Seminole or arrow

76. What are the two main types of oil and when is each of these used?

Mineral Oil – This oil is used during engine break in periods. The qualities of mineral oil do not allow it to stick to the cylinders as well as ashless dispersant therefore it allows the piston rings to dig into the sleeves of the cylinders and to properly seat. This allows the piston rings to make a good tight seal and prevent future oil consumption problems. This oil is not to be used as the engine ages due to the fact it promotes unnecessary wear and tear.

Ashless Dispersant – This oil is used as the engine passes the break in period. This oil makes a better coating of the cylinders and allows for proper lubrication of parts preventing wear and tear.

77. How are the brakes in the 172 operated?

The system has a break fluid reservoir filled with MIL-H-5606 which is a red hydraulic fluid. This reservoir is located on the left side of the firewall in the cowling of the engine. This reservoir supplies hydraulic fluid to the four master cylinders and the parking break actuating cylinder. Each of the brake pedals in the 172 has its own independent actuating system. This means that each pedal has its own master cylinder which allows for a backup system in case one side fails. What a master cylinder does is hold a small amount of hydraulic fluid. As you press the brake pedal to the floor a piston forces the fluid through the hydraulic system. The fluid flows down to a caliper which receives the fluid and moves a piston which is against a brake pad which then makes contact with the brake disc. To actuate the parking brake the parking brake lever is pulled up. This forces fluid though all of the master cylinders can causes the brakes to lock in place. So to answer a stage pilots question of how many master cylinders are there in the aircraft the correct response is either four or five depending if the individual calls the parking brake actuating cylinder a master cylinder, but I do not.

78. How do we receive heat in the 172?There is a shroud around the muffler of the 172 that allows air flow around the muffler to absorb heat. As we are in cruise flight an opening on the left main entry point into the cowling deflects air down and around the exhaust shroud. Therefore if we do not move we do not get heat. There are two pilot controlled valves for this system. The first allows heat to enter the cabin through the floor vents. The second allows heat to be diverted to the defrost vents on the windscreen. The same shroud is that which is used to supply heat for the carburetor heat system.

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79. Name the deicing and anti-icing equipment we have on the 172?Pitot Heat, Defrost, Carb-Heat

80. How many volts and amps does the 172 alternator put out? The battery?The alternator puts out 28 volts and 60 amps. The battery puts out 35 amps and 24 volts. Think of amps as a volume or an amount of power and volts as a pressure to move that power.

81. How does the ammeter (loadmeter) in the 172 work?There is a shunt in the system which is a resistor which takes a resistance value and translates that into an amount of power flowing through the system. The more amps we are pulling the hotter the shunt will become.

82. Lets say we loose our alternator and are pulling 35 amps when the alternator went off line. Theoretically how long should we have before the battery dies. To figure this out you take the number of amps in the battery 35 and divide by the number you are pulling and you get 1 which tells us we have one hour of useful battery life. Well in real life this doesn’t always work out. The minimum amount of power that a battery is allowed to leave a factory with and still be legal to be installed in an aircraft is 80% of the rated power. As a battery ages it becomes less efficient as well, and as the temperature drops the battery will be extremely inefficient and have much less then its rated amperage. So remember that if you have an actual emergency with the electrical system getting rid of some of the electrical load and planning to land as soon as practical is probably a good idea if you have deteriorating weather or are flying in the night. THE ENGINE WILL NOT DIE IF YOU LOOSE THE ELECTRICAL SYSTEM!!!!!! Magnetos are separate from the electrical system they create their own power as described above.

83. What devices are operated off of the battery and are running even when the battery master is turned off?

The clock, the billing Hobbs meter – sorry if the oil pressure is high enough you are getting billed even if you shut the master off, the maintenance Hobbs meter, and the factory tachometer which we do not use for engine hours.

84. What is the purpose of the alternator control unit?The alternator control unit has two purposes….to serve as a voltage regulator and to serve as an over voltage relay. The voltage regulator portion allows an electronic monitoring of the output of the alternator with respect to voltage and keeps the voltage running through the system at acceptable levels neat the 28 volt mark. The over voltage relay takes the alternator off line if the alternator puts out excessively high voltage to the system.

85. How does a circuit breaker work?51

As a circuit is pulling too many amps heat begins to build. Circuit breakers are thermal release and pop after the breaker reaches the value on the face of the breaker in the cockpit. If you have a circuit breaker pop be sure to wait 2 to 5 minutes to allow the circuit to cool before you attempt to reset the breaker. Remember that the system is not using the amount of amps that are shown on a circuit breaker but rather about 80% of that number. The number you see is the number at which the breaker pops.

86. What happens when line service plugs in the external power source?The aircraft will behave as if the battery master switch as been turned on therefore all items on the main electrical bus will now be having electrical power flowing to them if they are turned on.

87. Name the primary flight controls in the 172?elevator, rudder, and ailerons

88. Name the secondary flight controls in the 172?Anti-servo tab, rudder trim, and flaps.

89. Describe the operation of the anti-servo tab and the elevator. As the elevator moves the anti-servo tab moves with the elevator in the direction of the control input but at a greater rate. This gives the pilot positive control feel and prevents the pilot from over controlling the aircraft. The anti-servo tab is also used as a trim device which allows the tab to move in the opposite direction of the control surface in order to remove the control pressures required to keep a desired pitch attitude. So for example if you trim the airplane nose up the elevator is tilted forward and the anti-servo tab is tilted back.

90. Name the four types of flaps? What type does the Cessna have?Plain, Split, Slotted, Fowler

The 172 flap has a definite slot which allows air to pass from the lower surface of the wing to the upper surface therefore the flaps are slotted.

91. Which instruments are pitot static instruments? Which uses the ram air from the pitot tube?The airspeed indicator, altimeter, and VSI. The airspeed indicator uses the ram air from the pitot tube.

92. What do we do if the static port freezes?You have an alternate static air source in the airplane which can be turned on. The POH recommends that the storm window is closed. The ram air vents are closed, and the heater defroster is on. This allows for the most accurate readings off of the pitot static instruments. The error on the altimeter with the use of an alternate static source should be less then 50 feet.

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93. Which of the gyroscopic instruments are vacuum operated? How do they receive their pressure?The attitude and heading indicators are vacuum operated. As the engine driven or alternate vacuum pump is spun up air will be drawn though a filter on the lower left hand side of the panel. If you stick your head under there you can see it. As this air is drawn through it passes through the suction gauge and a pressure transducer. The suction gauge should indicate between 4.8 and 5.2 inches of vacuum when the system is operating normally. If the pressure falls below 4.25 inches of vacuum then the VAC annunciator will light up. After the air flows through the suction gauge it meets the flight instruments. Inside of the casing of the attitude and heading indicator there are tiny buckets called rotor vanes that catch the air as it passes though the casing of the instrument and allow the gyros to spool up to 8000-18000 RPM. The air then flows through a check valve which will isolate a failed vacuum pump and prevent air from being dumped overboard prematurely. There is a pressure relief valve which will operate if the pump provides too much vacuum pressure and finally the air passes through the vane type pump and out into the cowling.

94. What principle of gyros is used in the attitude and heading indicator?Rigidity in space – as the gyro is spun up and the aircraft repositioned, the gyro stays in place and the aircraft moves about the gyro.

95. What powers the turn coordinator?Direct current electricity.

96. What type of fluid is in the magnetic compass and the inclinometer? Why?Denatured kerosene – it is not flammable and it has an EXTREMELY low freezing point.

97. When would an unintentional spin or stall most likely occur in flight?An unintentional spin or stall would most likely occur in the pattern. Think of the factors associated with climbing out of ground effect at a speed that is entirely too slow. As the aircraft climbs out of ground effect it will have greatly increased induced drag and therefore be more likely to stall. Spins are likely to occur while turning in the pattern. The turn crosswind to downwind on high wind days can be quite dangerous. The change from headwind to tailwind will cause a greatly reduced indicated airspeed. Spins will occur due to the fact that a pilot may be uncoordinated while turning. Another time that spins are likely to occur is the turn downwind to base or base to final.

98. What causes a spin?Spins are caused by stalling the aircraft in an uncoordinated condition this allows for both winds to be stalled but one wind to be more stalled then the other. In an uncoordinated condition one wing will have a higher rotational

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velocity then the other in a yawing turn. Think that the direction opposite the ball deflection before the spin will show the direction of the spin.

99. What are the four phases of a spin and describe what is occurring during each phase?Entry – This is when the control pressures are being applied to get the aircraft into an uncoordinated condition. No rotation has begun at this time.

Incipient – The aircraft has now stalled in an uncoordinated condition (one wing is more stalled then another) the forces of yaw roll and pitch have not equalized therefore the spin is not fully developed. If the control pressures required to get the aircraft into the spin are removed during the incipient phase then the aircraft will most likely recover from the spin on its own. The incipient phase usually lasts 2 about 2 rotations.

Fully Developed – This phase of a spin is characterized by autorotation. Autorotation means that the aircraft will spin and continue to spin on its own without the pilot holding any control deflections. The spin is stabilized and the aircraft is yawing rolling and pitching all at the same time at a stabilized rate. No control pressures are necessary to keep the aircraft in the spin. The aircraft rotates about the spin axis. The spin axis is not the same as the center of gravity. If the airspeed were zero then the aircraft would be pitching rolling and yawing about the center of gravity, but even though the aircraft is stalled it still has some forward velocity therefore the aircraft spins about a spin axis which is located at a point forward of the center of gravity. If during the spin the pilot places control inputs contrary to the recovery technique, and increases either yaw pitch or roll the remaining motions will automatically increase as well and the aircraft will yaw pitch and roll all at an increased but stabilized rate about the spin axis.

Recovery – The pilot applies corrective control pressures and autorotation stops and the pilot finally breaks the stall and resumes

100. What are the steps in the spin recovery process for the 172 and why do we perform each step?

Rudder Opposite Direction of the rotation – Pushing the rudder in the opposite direction will stop the rotation of the spin. If you pushed the rudder in the direction of the rotation then the yaw would increase. The aircraft would then increase roll and pitch down as well in order to balance the forces out around the spin axis. The direction of the spin is to be determined by the use of the miniature airplane of the turn coordinator. The ball will be useless because it will be functioning as a level. If the TC is on the left of the longitudinal axis of the aircraft the ball well fall to the left. If it is on the longitudinal axis then it will remain centered, and if it is to the right then the ball will fall to the right.

Control wheel ailerons neutral and full forward – The ailerons must be neutral for two reasons. If a pilot tries to roll an airplane out of a spin then he will be

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faced with adverse yaw. The yaw will occur in the direction opposite of the turn and therefore in the direction of the spin. Additional yaw forces in the direction of the spin will cause roll and pitch to increase as well. If the pilot rolls into the spin then the aircraft will obviously increase roll into the direction of the spin and to make the spin return to a balanced state it will increase the yaw and roll as well. The control wheel goes full forward to break the stall. Increased backpressure will keep the aircraft in its stalled condition.

Power Idle – This is done to eliminate the nose up tendency of the spin with power added. A vertical component of thrust will pull the aircraft into a nose high attitude. This leads to a flat spin which is almost impossible to recover from. Power must be removed to allow the nose to fall and the stall to be broken.

Rudder as required – remove the rudder pressure as the rotation stops.

Control as required – pitch and roll inputs as necessary to get the aircraft back into straight and level flight.

Throttle as required – power is added as necessary to resume normal flight.

101. What are the three types of spins?Normal – nose drops aircraft rotates about spin axis

Flat – Nose does not drop and aircraft rotates about spin axis

Inverted – Aircraft is in an inverted nose down spinning position rotating about the spin axis.

102. What causes a flat spin?A flat spin is caused by entering a spin with an extremely aft center of gravity. This leads to a/c instability and causes the nose to not fall when recovering from stalls. If the aircraft is uncoordinated while stalling a flat spin condition could occur. Think of the aircraft as having all of the weight being able to be balanced aft of the aft CG limit. If the airplane were to stall and all of the weight is resting in the rear then the tail will drop and the nose will not. This leads to an uncontrollable state. If a pilot were to get into a flat spin the best bet would be to shift all of the weight in the aircraft as forward as possible to try to get the nose to drop. The rudder will be ineffective without more airflow therefore the nose must come down.

103. How do you as a pilot prepare for a night flight in comparison to a day flight?I set my personal weather minimums higher. Night flight conditions are more demanding for a pilot and therefore with deteriorating weather there can be a great amount of undue stress added to a pilot. I also make sure that I have equipment necessary for conducting a night flight. I bring along a flash light with a red filter over the lens of the flash light. The red filter must be removable. I remove the red filter when viewing aeronautical charts due

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to the fact that the magenta coloration will not show up when a red light is being used with the chart and when checking the fuel to make sure the proper grade of fuel was added to the aircraft. To avoid night vision problems you can cup your hand over the light and only allow the necessary amount of light needed to escape in order to illuminate the object. Also pilots need to be extra cautious of their night vision. Exposure to bright white lights must be avoided for at least ½ hour before the flight. This enables the cells in the eyes which are extremely sensitive to light to fully adapt to the dark conditions. If a pilot knows that he is going to be exposed to light be sure to cover at least one eye in order to stop total loss of night vision. Also the AIM recommends the use of supplemental oxygen at altitudes above 5000 feet in the night due to the fact that vision is one of the first things to go when experiencing hypoxia. Be sure to keep the cockpit lights dim as well.

104. Describe how the eyes adapt to dark when you are flying in the night?

Once you are exposed to the dark conditions of night your eyes begin to emit a chemical called rhodopsin which is commonly called visual purple. This actuates the rods in the peripheral portion of the eyes. The rods are extremely light sensitive and do not allow for the perception of detail. After about ½ hour of dark adaptation the eyes will become 10000 times more sensitive to light. The eyes will develop a blind spot in the center portion of the eye. This focal area is called the fovea and it is where there is a concentration of cones which are the detail oriented cells in the eyes used for day vision. During the day you will also have a blind spot in the center of your eyes which is the point where the optic nerve is attached to the retina. Any exposure to a bright light after dark adaptation will ruin your night vision. The cones will become activated by iodopsin and your dark adaptation will have to start all over again.

105. What are some visual illusions that can be expected when flying in the night?Autokinesis – Staring at a stationary light for prolonged periods of time in the night causes the light to appear to move. This is caused by involuntary muscle movements in the eye. Autokinesis can be prevented by using proper off centered viewing techniques and scanning the sky in a continuous sweeping motion. In the day the best technique is to momentarily scan the sky in 10* sectors allowing for the eyes to be able to focus while pausing between scans.

Runway Lighting Illusions – Bright runway lights give the illusion of being too close to a runway and therefore the pilot will fly a higher then normal approach in order to get the proper “visual picture” they are used to. If the runway lights are dimmer then normal then the pilot will feel he is lower then usual and fly a higher approach.

Runway Width Illusions – The wider the runway the lower the pilot thinks he is therefore the pilot will shoot a higher then usual approach to the runway.

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This is why some people flare so high on 35L at grand forks. With a much narrower runway a pilot is more likely to fly a lower then normal approach because a narrow runway gives the illusion that a pilot is too high.

Runway Slope Illusions – If a runway is up sloping then a pilot is more likely to fly a lower then normal approach due to the fact that they will have much more of the runway in sight then they would normally on a flat land area (IE El Forko Grande). With a down sloping runway the pilot will fly a higher then normal approach because less of the runway will be visible to the pilot and this will lead to a steeper approach to land.

Featureless Terrain – Can you say western North Dakota!!!! The terrain out there has so little lighting that in the night time on clear nights it is hard to tell where the sky ends and the land begins. There is therefore no visible horizon.

106. When can a pilot log night flight?A pilot can log night time from the end of civil evening twilight to the beginning of civil morning twilight.

107. When are navigation or position lights required to be on?Navigation lights are required to be on between sunset and sunrise.

108. When can landings be logged in order to meet the currency requirements of 61.57 (b)?Landings can be logged for night currency from one hour after sunrise to one hour before sunset.

109. How can we determine when the end of civil evening twilight is?You can contact the local flight service station and obtain this information from a flight service station or on flight watch on 122.00

110. What is hypoxia and what are the signs of hypoxia?Hypoxia is a lack of oxygen in the body. This lacking of oxygen can be brought about in many ways; through a physical lack of atmospheric pressure therefore a lack of oxygen at altitude, a blood transport problem, a cell usage of oxygen problem, or a problem causing the blood to not be able to acquire the oxygen for transport. Symptoms of hypoxia include cyanosis – blueness in the extremities, numbness or tingling in the extremities, feelings of euphoria, lightheadedness, blurry vision, belligerence, impairment of judgment, and many many more.

111. Name the four types of hypoxia and examples of times when each of these can occur?

Hypoxic – This type of hypoxia is caused by a physical lacking of oxygen due to high altitude and therefore a lower atmospheric pressure. The pressure of the atmosphere lessens as you climb in altitude. For example after crossing an altitude of 18000 feet the atmospheric pressure will be halved. Therefore

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there will now be a much lower partial pressure of oxygen considering the fact that the atmosphere is made up of only 21 percent oxygen.

Histotoxic – This type of hypoxia is caused by the cells inability to properly use the oxygen.

Hypemic – Think of the word anemic. This deals with a blood transport problem with oxygen. The red blood cells are unable to properly transport the oxygen. One major cause of this is CO or carbon monoxide poisoning. It is much easier for the cells to latch on to CO then O2 molecules and therefore the body will not allow for the CO to diffuse across the air sacs or alveolar membrane. Remember respiration works through the law of gaseous diffusion. When we take a breath in there are more O2 molecules in our lungs and less CO2 molecules in our lungs. The exact opposite is correct for what is in the blood at this time. There are more molecules of CO2 and less of O2. If there is a difference between pressures of the two gasses then the gasses will diffuse across the alveolar membrane or the “air sacs.” Before the alveolar membrane there are capillaries which coat the membranes with blood and transport the newly oxygen rich blood throughout the body.

Stagnant – This type of hypoxia deals with a blood transport problem. It is caused by pulling a high G load and therefore causing the heart to be unable to properly transport the red blood cells to the brain causing a lack of oxygen to the brain.

112. What are the differences between hypoxia and hyperventilation?

The symptoms for hypoxia and hyperventilation are quite similar. The main differences are seen in the coloration of the skin of the individual. For hypoxia you will experience cyanosis which means that the extremities will be turning blue. The skin turns blue due to the fact that the oxygen rich blood is being drawn from the extremities to protect the vital organs. When an individual is experiencing hyperventilation they will have cold clammy pale skin. Common symptoms include euphoria, dizziness, light headed sensations, poor vision, belligerence, and many others.

113. Name the organs in the inner ear that make up the vestibular sense and describe their function?

The inner ear has organs which sense motion. These organs are referred to as the semi-circular canals and the otoliths. The semicircular canals are filled with a fluid which is set in motion by the displacement of the body. Each ear has three of these semicircular canals which sense motion about the three axes. When the body is displaced the fluid is displaced and the cupola “tiny nerve like hairs” are set into motion. These hairs do not detect motion after it is sustained for over thirty seconds , and they will not detect a turn when it is performed at a rate of roll increasing at less then three

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degrees per second. The other organ which senses motion, the otoliths, sense acceleration forces. The otoliths are two pieces of tissue suspended in a gelatinous fluid with tiny nerves in-between. When the planes of tissue are displaced an acceleration is sensed.

114.Name and describe the vestibular illusions that can occur in flight.

The leans – this illusion occurs when a pilot corrects for a turning condition. The student now senses the correcting force opposite the direction of the turn and leans into the direction opposite the turn that he is currently making.

Elevator Illusion – This illusion occurs when a pilot encounters up drafts. The pilot feels as if he is in a nose up attitude and corrects nose down when the aircraft is forced aloft.

Inversion illusion – On a quick level off the pilot feels as if he is rolling backwards into a nose up attitude due to the displacement of fluid in the semicircular canals.

Coriolis Illusion – After a turn has been established and the semicircular canals are no longer detecting the turn, the pilot moves his head and now senses a motion that is most likely not occurring. By turning the head an improper semicircular canal may have fluid displaced and the pilot may quickly correct for a motion which is not occurring.

Grave Yard Spiral – This illusion involves a turn which is initiated gradually and is undetected by the pilot as the aircraft rolls and descends. The pilot does not sense the motion of the turn and looks down at the flight instruments and decides to correct. The pilot now detects the motion that he feels through his correction and puts the aircraft back into the turn actually tightening the turn as he pulls back. The once again undetected motion will lead to a spiral towards the ground.

Grave Yard Spin – The aircraft is placed into a spinning condition which becomes undetected by the pilot. As the pilot corrects for the spin he now feels a spin in the opposite direction and places the aircraft back into the spinning condition to satisfy his vestibular sense.

Somatogravic Illusion – This illusion deals with the occulogyric reflex. This reflex is caused by the eyes refocusing with an acceleration. As the otoliths are displaced in an acceleration the eyes are adju7sted to focus with an upward tilt. This causes the pilot to perceive a nose high attitude. Think of the view you have down the aisle of the northwest DC-9 as it screams down runway 35L in grand forks. Even though the airplane is on the runway and has not yet rotated it seems as if the aircraft aisle is at a great angle uphill. Where this truly became a problem was with aircraft carrier catapult launches of fighters. The pilots perceived the nose up attitude and pushed the nose forward plunging the aircraft into the water.

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115. Describe how decompression sickness can occur and what the AIM says to do in order to prevent this after SCUBA diving?

Decompression sickness is directly a result of Henry’s law. Henry’s law allows for a gas in a solution of a liquid to remain in that liquid unless the pressure around that liquid is reduced then the gas will come out of solution and effectively create bubbles. This is quite a basic English explanation of Henry’s law. Another way to visualize this is looking at what happens after you open a bottle of soda. The pressure around the liquid is dropped and the CO2 bubbles are now coming out of solution. This is where the carbonation comes from. The nitrogen gas un your body becomes quite like the CO2 inside of the pop bottle. The nitrogen comes out of solution when we experience nitrogen saturation. This occurs when a pilot goes SCUBA diving and then flying close to the time of the dive. If you descend to a depth of 33 feet under the water you will effectively have the nitrogen content of your blood double “if you are not breathing pure oxygen.” Some types of dives require a decompression stop to allow your body to equalize the nitrogen level before returning to the surface to prevent you from becoming a giant Pepsi bottle.

If decompression sickness does occur it can occur in four forms:

The bends – nitrogen bubbles gather in the large joints of the body and cause the individual great pain.

The chokes – nitrogen bubbles gather near the capillaries and the alveolar membranes and do not allow the diffusion of oxygen to occur into the blood stream. This prevents respiration from occurring. The individual has a terrible pain and a desire to cough due to a choking sensation. The individual will turn quite blue while experiencing the chokes.

CNS – Central nervous system problems. These problems occur when nitrogen bubbles gather in the brain. These bubbles can cause involuntary muscle spasms.

Skin Disorders – These problems occur when nitrogen bu8bbles gather under the skin and cause a painful itching sensation.

The AIM recommends that pilots who did not have a decompression stop and do not plan on flying at cabin altitudes above 8000 feet wait at least 12 hours before their flight. If the individual plans on making a flight above 8000 MSL or a decompression stop then they should wait for at least 24 hours before flying.

116. How long should an individual wait before flying after donating blood? Plasma?

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72 hours for blood 24 for plasma

117. What are the items in the IMSAFE checklist?Illness, medication, stress, alcohol, fatigue, eating.

118. What are the two types of fatigue and what counter measures can be taken to combat these types of fatigue?

Acute and chronic fatigue are the two types. Acute fatigue is fatigue that occurs on a one time basis and can be easily corrected by sleeping properly and catching up for the loss of sleep. Chronic fatigue is fatigue that is occurring on an ongoing basis and therefore will require a lifestyle change in order to remedy this situation.

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