pmp - mock exam 2

1) If a stakeholder has any questions about project deliverables, as the PM, you should direct him to the:

a) WBS

b) Project plan

c) Preliminary Scope statement

d) None of the above

2) Your construction project was damaged by an earthquake. Your contractor says that he cannot fulfil the terms of the contract due to a specific clause you both had signed in the contract. He is referring to the:a) Force majeure clauseb) Fixed price clausec) Contract obligation termsd) None of the above

3) Your vendor has confirmed in writing that he will not be able to provide the products contracted to him, in the time mentioned in the contract. You can terminate the contract and sue for damages. This is a type of:a) Minor breachb) Anticipatory breachc) Material breachd) Fundamental breach

4) As a PM, you manage multiple projects. One of your projects is over budget while the other is under budget. You decide to transfer money from the latter to the former and report both projects as within budget. This is against the PMI code of ethics and is called:a) Unethical managementb) Budget tampering

c) Fraudulent reportingd) Cost leveling

5) Your brother can influence bids in the vendor company that has been contracted for your project. You should:

a) Disclose the bid price that is most likely to make him winb) Reject other vendors and award him the contractc) Refrain from the decision-making process and make a full disclosure to stakeholders and wait for their decision before you proceedd) Pretend during meetings that you don't know your brother

6) A project you are managing is about to be completed. But there is a minor defect in the work produced by the contractor. You should:a) Neglect the defect if it is trivialb) Ask the contractor to fix according to SOWc) Submit a change requestd) None of the above

7) As a PM, you have identified some low priority risks. You should:

a) Neglect them as they will mostly not occur

b) Add them to a watch list and add to the risk register

c) Plan detailed response plans


8) One of your team members' A's father was sick when you were in the planning stage of your project. A had informed you that he might have to leave to visit his father if the situation arose. You had planned for this and spoke to the functional manager of your group to provide a back-up resource, B to be used if necessary.

Now, A has left to see his father and B is filling in for him. But B is taking more than expected time to get up to speed and this impacts project cost and schedule.

This is an example of a:

a) Residual risk

b) Secondary risk

c) Contingency plan


9) To motivate your team, you decided to reward a team member who performed well. This hurt cohesion in the team. You should:

a) Reset award criteria

b) Modify reward strategy to be win-win for the team

c) Award only two people

d) Declare that there will be no rewards going forward

10) Your project uses a vendor who has completed 50% of the contracted work. You are unsure of how much to pay the vendor. You should refer to the:

a) Request for proposal

b) Contract

c) Response to bid

d) Statement of work

11) When estimating time for activities, a PM should:

a) Use random guessing and estimate for all activities as there will be changes anyways

b) Involve people who will be doing the work to get estimates

c) Estimate for what the cost will allow and not include buffers


12) When there are people from different countries and cultures in a team, the PM should:

a) Neglect the cultural differences

b) Deal with everyone with an iron hand

c) Recognize that there are cultural differences

d) Mentor each person

13) If your business sponsor has an important but minor change to the scope, and he requests that you make the change without having to process a change request:

a) Accomodate the change

b) Refuse to make the change

c) Sneak the change in when no one is looking

d) Request the client that the change management process has to be followed

14) If a stakeholder directly asks a team member to make changes and the team member accomodates it:

a) Admonish the team member during the team meeting so that other team members are also aware

b) Inform the stakeholder that he should not talk to your team member

c) Talk to the stakeholder and team member in private, and emphasise gently that the Integrated Change Control process should be followed

d) Pretend to not know about the change and let it happen

15) When your client is ready to accept the product your project has produced, you should:

a) Refer to the quality plan to see if the product meets specifications

b) Refer to project management plan

c) Obtain client sign off and follow administrative closure process

d) Let go off the project resources and assign them to other projects

16) Appreciating a team member's good work in front of the team results in:

a) Jealousy among other team members and should be avoided

b) Encouragement for the team member and motivation for other team members

c) Shouldn't be done as it shows preference


17) As the project manager of an important project, you learnt many helpful tools and tips. What should you do?

a) Keep them to yourself

b) Archive your learning in the project folder and share with other PMs

c) Sign a non-disclosure agreement


18) You just found out that the company that you were planning to use in your project is known for being late in delivering their products that can lead to losses to the project. You decide to go with a different company to ______ the risk.

a) Mitigate

b) Reject

c) Transfer

d) Avoid

19) You are the project manager of a project that involves sensitive information. You are inviting bids from vendors for some tasks on this project. Since the winning vendor will have access to the sensitive information, you should:

a) Decide to drop the vendor and instead do the tasks using an internal team

b) Swear the vendor to secrecy

c) Ask the vendor to sign a non-disclosure agreement

d) Threaten to take the vendor to court

20) A project is behind schedule. Two senior resources are added to help speeden work. The result is:

a) Project will be completed on time

b) Project cost will not increase

c) Project may not be completed on time due to increased number of communication channels


21) Project scope statement is the output of:

a) Scope planning

b) Scope definitionc) Both a and b


22) Requested changes to scope and recommended corrective action belong to which process:

a) Scope verification

b) Scope definition

c) Scope controld) All of the above

23) Scope planning takes place:

a) After requirements are gathered

b) Early in the projectc) After scope is finalized


24) Project charter is

a) An output of Scope planning

b) Input to scope planningc) Created after preliminary project scope statement

d) All of the above

25) An example of organizational process asset is:

a) Company policy documentb) Organizational culture

c) Organization structure

d) Organization type

26) Qualitative risk analysis is a process that belongs to which process group in Risk Management:

a) Planningb) Executing

c) Monitoring

d) Controlling

27) Quantitative risk analysis is a process that belongs to which process group in Risk Management:

a) Planningb) Executing

c) Monitoring

d) Controlling

28) Risk register is an output of:

a) Risk identificationb) Qualitative risk analysis

c) Quantitative risk analysis

d) Risk response planning

29) Risk register update is a primary output of:

a) Quantitative risk analysis

b) Qualiitative risk analysis

c) Risk monitoring and control

d) All of the above

30) Risk monitoring and control produces the following outputs:

a) Risk register updates

b) Recommended corrective actions

c) Recommended preventive actions

d) All of the above

31) Risk monitoring and control produces the following outputs:

a) Risk register updates

b) Risk management plan

c) Risk register

d) All of the above

32) A risk is a bad event that will adversely impact the project. This statement is:

a) Always true

b) Always false

c) Sometimes true


33) The triple constraints in project management are:

a) Scope, Time, cost

b) Time, scope, performance

c) Scope, Time, plan

d) Scope, Time, quality

34) Any changes to the project after the plan is prepared:

i) Have to be processed according to the Integrated Change Control process

ii) Have to be assessed for impact

iii) Can be done without impact analysis if the impact is zero or minimal

iv) Should not be done as they were not in the original plan

a) i, ii

b) i, ii, iii

c) i, ii, iv


35) Schedule development produces the following output:

a) Project schedule

b) WBS

c) Activity time

d) Project plan

36) Critical path is:

a) The time it takes to finish the project completing only the critical activities

b) Difference between end time and start time of project

c) The longest time it takes to complete all project activities

d) The shortest time it takes to complete all project activities

37) When there are multiple critical paths in a project:

a) The risk is less as it is divided between the paths

b) The risk is more as the risk of delay is more

c) Risk depends on how the critical path is calculated

d) There is no risk as the paths cancel it out

38) Dummy activities are used in:

a) Activity on arrow diagram

b) Activity decomposition

c) Activity list

d) Activity duration estimates

39) Software Project A took 5 months to complete. Project B, very similar to Project A will probably take about 5 months to complete. This expert judgement technique is:

a) Analogous estimating

b) Critical path

c) Expert estimation

d) Compression

40) Crashing:

a) Is a schedule compression technique

b) Increases cost

c) Is achieved by adding resources

d) All of the above

41) Fast tracking:

a) Is a schedule compression technique

b) Does sequential activities in parallel

c) Increases risk of rework

d) All of the above

42) Quality audit:

i) Is a tool in Perform quality assurance

ii) Checks the efficiency of the quality process

iii) Tries to improve product acceptance

iv) Reduce overall cost of quality

a) i, iii, iv

b) None of the above

c) All of the above

d) ii, iii

43) Ishikawa diagrams are also called:

a) Fishbone diagrams

b) Causal diagrams

c) Stick diagrams

d) Bone diagrams

44) Some managers believe that people do not work willingly and must be watched and managed continuosly. They are of type:

a) Theory X

b) Theory Y

c) Theory XY

d) Theory V

45) When an individual's lower level needs are met, the next level's needs are his motivation. This forms the basis of:

a) Theory Y

b) Maslow's hierarchy

c) Theory X


46) Locating all team members in the same location is called:

a) War room

b) Collocation

c) Teleconferencing

d) Telecommuting

47) Noise is:

a) Any interference in sending or comprehending a message

b) False information

c) Introduced in electronic signals


48) A project manager manages a team of 5. The number of communication channels is:

a) 15

b) 10

c) 5


49) Email communication is:

a) Formal style, written

b) Informal style, written

c) Both a and b

d) Neither a nor b

50) A technique used to identify root causes of issues is:

a) Fish bone diagram

b) Quality check

c) Issue list

d) Defect review

51) A bar graph that shows resource assignments over time is:

a) Resource leveling

b) Resource histogram

c) Resource chart

d) Gantt chart

52) Resource leveling:

i) Is the allocation of resources to resolve overallocation issues

ii) Helps resolve resource conflicts

iii) Can impact cost of project

iv) Can only be done with project management software

a) i, ii, iii

b) i, iv

c) ii, iii, iv

d) iii, iv

53) An activity on the critical path has:

a) Non-zero float

b) Negative free float

c) Zero free float


54) If CPI=1.3, SPI=.8, what's the status of the project?

a) Over budget and behind schedule

b) Under budget and behind schedule

c) Under budget and ahead of schedule

d) Over budget and ahead of schedule

55) Project Scope management plan is an output of:

a) Scope planning

b) Scope definition

c) Both a and b


56) Earned value=100, Planned value=110, the schedule performance index is:

a) 1.1

b) 0.91

c) -10

d) 10

57) Earned value=100, Actual cost=120, the cost performance index is:

a) 0.01

b) 20

c) 0.833

d) -20

58) The four stages in team development are:

a) Forming, storming, norming, performing

b) Forming, storming, norming, reforming

c) Forming, norming, reforming, performing

d) Planning, forming, storming, performing

59) Theory Y assumes employees:

a) Are self-motivated

b) Have to be micro-managed

c) Work only for money

d) Are not ambitious

60) Low-priority risks should be:

a) Added to a watch list and the risk register updated

b) Removed from the watch list

c) Removed from the risk register

d) Informed to the customer

61) A technique used in Expert Judgement to determine probability of risk is:

a) Interviews with experts

b) Risk ranking

c) Risk register updates

d) Risk response plan

62) Monte Carlo simulation is a technique used to perform:

a) Qualitative risk analysis

b) Quantitative risk analysis

c) Decision tree analysis

d) Risk response

63) Inputs to Perform Quantitative Risk analysis process are:

a) Risk register

b) Risk management plan

c) Cost management plan

d) All of the above

64) Inputs to Perform Quantitative Risk analysis process are:

a) Organizational process assets

b) Schedule management plan

c) Cost management plan

d) All of the above

65) Tools/techniques to perform quantitative risk analysis are:

a) Expert judgement

b) Decision tree analysis

c) Modeling

d) All of the above

66) 'Plan risk responses' process involves:

a) Planning to decrease threats to the project

b) Planning to benefit from possible opportunities

c) Both of the above

d) Only A

67) Examine the statement-"A detailed risk response plan should be prepared no matter how huge or trivial the risk is, irrespective of whether the effort is cost-effective or not, as this is the process." This statement is:

a) Always true

b) Always false

c) Sometimes true

d) Sometimes false

68) Positive risks are also called:

a) Good risks

b) Opportunities

c) Advantages

d) Project plusses

69) The four strategies used to deal with negative threats are:

a) Avoid, transfer, mitigate, accept

b) Avoid, transfer, mitigate, reject

c) Accept, transfer, mitigate, reject

d) Accept, analyze, avoid, mitigate

70) Scope verification and Scope control belong to:a) Planning process groupb) Initiating proces groupc) Executing process groupd) Monitoring and Control process group

71) In a fixed price contract, the risk:

a) lies more with the vendor

b) lies more with the buyer

c) is the same for vendor and buyer

d) Can't say

72) In a time-materials contract, the risk:

a) lies more with the vendor

b) lies more with the buyer

c) is the same for vendor and buyer

d) Can't say

73) Purchasing insurance is a form of ______ risk:

a) Avoiding

b) Transferring

c) Mitigating

d) Working around

74) The only output of the Identify Risks process is:

a) Risk analysis

b) Risk register

c) Risk monitor

d) Risk response plan

75) The four strategies used to deal with positive threats are:

a) Exploit, share, enhance, accept

b) Exploit, share, enhance, adjust

c) Exploit, simulate, enhance, accept

d) Exploit, share, prototype, accept

76) How to define, monitor and control risks in a project is documented in:

a) Expert judgement interview results

b) Risk register

c) Risk management plan

d) Workshops

77) Tools/techniques used in Plan Procurements process are:

a) Make or buy analysis

b) Expert judgement

c) Contract types

d) All of the above

78) Unclear scope definition in a project using Fixed price contract can lead to losses for:

a) the buyer

b) the vendor

c) both buyer and vendor

d) Neither as these are sunk costs

79) Request for proposal, Request for Information, Invitation for bid are broadly called:

a) Procurement documents

b) Vendor documents

c) Bidding documents

d) Contract documents

80) Create WBS belongs to:a) Initiatingb) Executingc) Closingd) None of the above

81) Closing a Project involves:

a) Updating organization process assets

b) Closing contract

c) Creating documentation, archives, and lessons learned

d) All of the above

82) Administrative closure is an output of:

a) Project Administration process

b) Close Project process

c) Monitor project process

d) Risk management process

83) 'Gold plating' is

a) Beating customer expectations

b) Producing excellent deliverables

c) Setting higher than possible expectations that introduce risk to the project

d) All of the above

84) CPPC and fixed-price contracts are used in:

a) PO with standard item

b) PO with variable item

c) Request for proposal

d) Price-free contracts

85) WBS is created in:

a) Scope management process

b) Risk management process

c) Planning process

d) Monitor and control process

86) A tool/rechnique used in the Develop Human Resource plan process is:

a) Political factors

b) Organization chart

c) Personnel policies

d) Interpersonal factors

87) RBS stands for:

a) Resource breakdown structure

b) Risk breakdown structure

c) Both a and b

d) Neither a nor b

88) Which of the following is true?

a) RACI (Responsible-Accountable-Consult-Inform) is a type of RAM (Responsibility Assignment matrix)

b) RAM shows the resources' responsibilities on the project

c) RAM and RACI are matrix-based charts

d) All of the above

89) 'Scope' of project is:

a) Any work committed to orally with customer

b) Only work that has to be completed to successfully finish project

c) Any work that customer requires to be completed

d) Only work that can be completed within project duration

90) Tools for Plan Quality are:

a) Cost-benefit analysis

b) Control charts

c) Benchmarking

d) All of the above

91) Crosby's cost of quality theory of 'zero defects' is based on:

a) Prevention

b) Correction

c) Conformance

d) Fitness for use

92) Juran's fitness for use theory of cost of quality can be summarized as:

a) Continuous improvement

b) Making a product that meets or exceeds customer expectations

c) Making a product that is easy to use

d) Making a product with zero defects

93) 'Budget at Completion' is also called:

a) Actual cost

b) Budgeted cost of work performed

c) Earned value

d) Planned value for the project

94) Which of the following are examples of cost reimbursable contracts:

a) Cost plus incentive fee

b) Cost plus fixed fee

c) Cost plus fee

d) All of the above

95) A critical activity is something that:

a) Is crucial for the project to be completed successfully

b) Needs to be signed of by the stakeholder

c) An activity on the critical path in the project schedule

d) An activity that cannot be substituted by a different activity

96) A dummy activity has:

a) Infinite duration

b) Zero duration

c) No importance

d) All of the above

97) Residual risk is a risk:

a) Found in reserve analysis

b) That remains after all risk responses have been implemented

c) That will be eliminated after applying the appropriate risk response


98) Scope planning and Scope definition belong to:

a) Planning process group

b) Initiating proces group

c) Executing process group

d) Monitoring and Control process group

99) A room used for project planning, and where team members work on issue resolution is called:

a) Conference room

b) Resolution room

c) War room

d) Video conferencing room

100) 'Estimate to Completion' can be calculated as:

a) EAC-AC

b) BAC-EAC

c) Both a and b

d) Neither a nor b

101) An average PM spends 50% of her time on:

a) Meetings

b) Issue resolution

c) Managing stakeholders

d) Risk analysis

102) The cost of a contractor is $25 per hour. Two contractors working for 10 hours will cost $500. This is an example of:


b) Parametric estimating

c) Three-point estimating

d) Bottom-up estimating

103) Using PERT, calculate the time it takes for a task with the following information:

Pessimistic time=5 hours, Optimistic time=2 hours, Most likely time=5 hours. The answer is:

a) 4.5 hours

b) 3 hours

c) 5 hours

d) 1.5 hours

104) The cost management plan can establish:

a) Control thresholds

b) Organizational procedure links

c) Earned value rules

d) All of the above

105) The revenue earned from doing a project is $1000. The costs involved sum to $500. The benefit cost ratio is:

a) 2

b) 0.5

c) 500000


106) If the Benefit cost ratio is > 1, then:

a) Costs are greater than benefits

b) Benefits are greater than costs

c) Cannot be determined

d) Depends on other factors

107) Budgeted cost of work performed=$1000, Budgeted cost of work scheduled=$2000. The schedule performance index is:

a) 0.5

b) 2

c) 1000


108) Earned value=$2000. Planned value=$2500. The schedule performance index is:

a) 0.8

b) 1.25

c) 500


109) Budgeted cost of work performed=$1000, Actual cost of work performed=$2000. The cost performance index is:

a) 0.5

b) 2

c) 1000


110) Budgeted cost of work performed=$1000, Actual cost of work performed=$2000. The cost variance is:

a) -1000

b) 2

c) 1000


111) Actual cost=$1000, Budget at completion=$800, cost performance index=0.5, Earned value= $600, the variance can occur again. The estimate at completion is:

a) $1000

b) $1400

c) $800


112) Actual cost=$1000, Budget at completion=$800, cost performance index=0.5, Earned value= $600, the variance will not occur again. The estimate at completion is:

a) $1000

b) $1200

c) $800


113) Phase-end reviews are called:

a) Phase exits

b) Stage gates

c) Kill points

d) All of the above

114) The following is true about risk of failing:

a) It is higher inthe beginning as uncertainty is high and gets lesser as the project continues

b) It remains the same thoughout the project

c) It is lesser inthe beginning as uncertainty is high and gets better as the project continues


115) In a functional organization structure, the PM's authority is:

a) Little or none

b) Limited

c) Low

d) Moderate

116) In a strong matrix organization structure, the PM's authority is:

a) High to almost total

b) Limited

c) Low to moderate

d) Moderate to high

117) In a projectized organization structure, the PM's authority is:

a) High

b) Limited

c) High to almost total

d) Moderate to high

118) In a balanced matrix, the project budget is controlled by:

a) Functional manager

b) Project manager

c) Mixed


119) Deming's cycle is used for continuous improvement of processes. The four-step management method is:

a) Plan-Do-Check-Act

b) Plan-Act-Check-Do

c) Plan-Act-Do-Check


120) 'Perform quality control' belongs to:

a) Monitoring process group

b) Executing process group

c) Controlling process group

d) Monitoring and controlling process group

121) Administer procurements belongs to:

a) Initiating process group

b) Executing process group

c) Controlling process group

d) Monitoring and controlling process group

122) Which of these is a reason to start a project:

a) Problem

b) Market

c) Opportunity

d) All of the above

123) Which of the following is true about project charter:

a) Authorizes a project

b) Gives project manager authority

c) It is issued by the sponsor with the authority to fund

d) All of the above

124) The project charter contains:

a) Business needs

b) Risks

c) Quality plan


125) Scope baseline includes:

a) WBS

b) WBS dictionary

c) Project scope statement

d) All of the above

126) Which of the following is true about project closure:

a) Contract closure is for each contract

b) Contract closure includes product verification and administrative closure

c) Administrative closure happens to close the project or each phase

d) All of the above

127) Administrative closure:

a) Happens once to close the project or each project phase

b) Needed to confirm that all deliverables have been provided

c) Ensures that official acceptance document has been obtained

d) All of the above

128) Which of the below are project selection methods:

a) Cost-benefit analysis

b) Payback period

c) Net present value

d) All of the above

129) WBS:

a) Prevents work from slipping through the cracks

b) Is the basis for estimates

c) Provides the team with an understanding of where their pieces fit in the project plan

d) All of the above

130) Principal sources of project failure:

a) Poorly identified customer needs

b) Poor planning

c) Poor control

d) All of the above

131) Most change requests are because of:

a) An omission in defining product/project scope

b) A value-adding change

c) An external event

d) All of the above

132) Which of the following is an example of a group creativity technique:

a) Brainstorming

b) Risk identification

c) Stakeholder creative communication

d) Powerpoint presentations

133) WBS includes all project work. Which of the following is also true about WBS?

a) It doesn't include product work

b) It does not include PM work

c) Total of work at lowest levels need not always roll up to higher levels as some extra work may be completed


134) Critical chain method and critical path method are tools and techniques used in which process of the Project TIme management area?

a) Estimate activity resources

b) Control schedule

c) Develop schedule

d) Estimate activity durations

135) Resource leveling is a tool/technique used in which process in Project Time Management overview?

a) Develop schedule

b) Control schedule

c) Both a and b

d) Neither a nor b

136) Project Time Management is a process needed to:

a) Ensure timely completion of project

b) Track time taken for each activity

c) Bill the client for each hour of work done


137) The outputs of 'Activity Definition' and 'Create WBS' respectively are:

a) Activities and WBS

b) Components and Work pieces

c) Schedule activity and deliverable


138) Arrow diagramming method does not use:

a) Float

b) Finish to start relationship

c) Lag

d) Activities

139) Which of the following is a discretionary dependency for schedule:

a) Preferential logic

b) Soft logic

c) Preferred logic

d) All of the above

140) Lead allows _____ of successor activity:

a) Acceleration

b) Deceleration

c) Tracking

d) Regression

141) Lag results in _____ of successor activity:

a) Acceleration

b) Delay

c) Tracking

d) Regression

142) Contingency reserve is for:

a) Known unknowns

b) Remaining risk after risk response planning

c) Both a and b

d) Neither a nor b

143) Management reserve is for:

a) Unknown unknowns

b) Covered by cost budget

c) Both a and b

d) Neither a nor b

144) Outputs of Monitor and control project work are:

a) Recommended corrective actions

b) Recommended preventive actions

c) Requested changes

d) All of the above

145) Crashing and Fast tracking are techniques used for:

a) Project management

b) Cost reduction

c) Schedule compression

d) Schedule estimation

146) Cost baseline is:

a) Used to monitor cost performance on the project

b) A time-phased budget

c) Used to measure cost performance on the project

d) All of the above

147) The difference between maximum funding and the end of cost baseline is:

a) Management reserve

b) Cost baseline

c) Cost overrun


148) Identifying quality standards relevant to the porject and determing how to satisfy them is:

a) Quality planning

b) Quality assurance

c) Quality control

d) Quality management

149) Applying planned, systematic quality activities to ensure that proejct employs all processes needed to meet requirement is:

a) Quality planning


c) Quality control


150) Monitoring specific project results to determine whether they comply with relevant quality standards and identifying ways to eliminate causes of unsatisfactory performance is:

a) Quality planning


c) Quality control


151) Choosing a part of a population of interest for inspection is:

a) Scatter diagram

b) Statistical sampling

c) Inspection

d) Defect repair

152) Inspections are also called:

a) Product reviews

b) Audits

c) Walkthroughs

d) All of the above

153) Staff Management Plan contains:

a) Staff acquisition

b) Release criteria

c) Training needs

d) All of the above

154) Tannenbaum and Schmidt continuum proposes:

a) Five stages of team development

b) Model-telling

c) Offering more freedom as the team matures


155) Autocratic, consultative, Directing and Facilitating are examples of:

a) Leadership styles

b) Team building style

c) Planning style


156) Which of the following can result in conflicts:

a) Schedule

b) Project priorities

c) Resources

d) All of the above

157) Power that a PM has on the basis of the special skills he possesses is:

a) Referent

b) Expert

c) Reward

d) Penalty

158) A conflict management technique that involves incorporating viewpoints from everyone is?

a) Smoothing

b) Collaborating

c) Recognizing

d) Withdrawal

159) Which is the best technique to resolve conflicts in a team:

a) Confrontation

b) Accomodation

c) Compromise

d) Smoothing

160) The motivational theory that focuses onteam, lifetime employment and collective decision making is:

a) Theory X

b) Theory Y

c) Theory Z

d) Maslow's hierarchy of needs

161) Expectancy theory is based on motivation in terms of expectations people have about:

a) Their ability to perform effectively on the job

b) The rewards they expect if they perform well

c) Satisfaction they will obtain from rewards

d) All of the above

162) In a communication model, the method used to convey the message is:

a) Email

b) Medium

c) Language

d) Decoding

163) Notes and memos are examples of communication type:

a) Formal written

b) Informal written

c) Formal verbal

d) Informal verbal

164) Some barriers to communication channels are:

a) Lack of clear communication channels

b) Physical distance

c) Environmental factors

d) All of the above

165) The management style that cultivates team spirit, rewards good work, and encourages team to realize their potential is:

a) Facilitating

b) Promotional

c) Conciliatory

d) Authoritarian

166) A management skill that establishes direction, aligns people, motivates and inspires team is:

a) Communicating

b) Leading

c) Influencing the organization

d) Problem solving

167) Tools used in risk identification are:

a) Delphi technique

b) Brainstorming

c) Interviewing

d) All of the above

168) Risk register as an output of risk identification contains:

a) Identified risks and responses

b) Risk categories

c) Root causes of risks

d) All of the above

169) Most of the project manager's time is spent on:

a) Project Planning

b) Communication

c) Risk management

d) Tracking

170) Most of a project's resources are spent on:

a) Direct and manage Project execution process

b) Project planning

c) Quality control

d) Risk management

171) Output of Direct and manage project execution process is:

a) Project plan

b) Preliminary scope statement

c) Preliminary cost estimate

d) Deliverables

172) At what stage of your current project should you use the techniques you learnt on your previous projects as PM?

a) Executing phase

b) Planning phase

c) Throughout the project

d) Monitoring and controlling phase

173) Administrative closure:

a) Can be omitted sometimes

b) Should always be done

c) Is the same as contract closure


174) If you are implementing the risk response plan, you are in:

a) Planning phase

b) Initiating phase

c) Implementation phase

d) Closing phase

175) Interpersonal skills and Management skills are tools to:

a) Manage stakeholder expectations

b) Report performance

c) Distribute information

d) Plan communications

176) The tool that assigns a numeric weight, rates sellers based on total weight is:

a) Weighting system

b) Independent estimates

c) Screening system

d) Expert judgement

177) Bidder conferences are a tool to:

a) Meet with prospective sellers and ensure there is a clear understanding of procurement needs

b) Screen contractors

c) Award contracts to the winning bidder


178) You send a formal request to each vendor for a service. This is used as the basis upon which the vendor prepares a bid for the requested service. The formal request you sent is called:

a) Contract

b) Purchase Order

c) Procurement Document Package


179) Monitor and control project work is essential to

a) Ensure project is being executed to plan

b) Prepare project plan

c) Prepare scope statement

d) Prepare WBS

180) Correspondence, Payment Schedules and Requests, Seller performance evaluation documentation are examples of:

a) Organizational Process Assets

b) Request for proposal

c) Project management plan


81) Project charteri) Includes preliminary project budget at summary levelii) Is created during the Develop Project Charter processiii) Includes a milestone-level scheduleiv) Includes high level project requirements

a) None of the aboveb) All of the abovec) a, bd) a, b, c

182) A contract can end by:a) Successful performanceb) Mutual agreementc) Breach of contractd) All of the above

183) A procurement audit is:a) An evaluation of vendor's performance on contractb) Evaluation of procurement processc) Both a and b

d) Neither a nor b

184) A type of 'Breach of Contract' is:a) Materialb) Minor

c) Fundamentald) All of the above

185) Project charter is created based on: i) Business needii) Customer requestiii) Market forceiv) Project manager's requirements

a) All of the aboveb) i, ii, iiic) i, iid) ii only

186) With regard to Opportunity cost:a) The smaller the cost, the betterb) The larger the cost, the better'c) It depends on cost of materialsd) It depends on economic conditions

187) Preliminary project scope statement:i) Is final and needs a change request to be changedii) Contains high-level cost estimatesiii) Sets an initial direction for the projectiv) Contains high-level scope estimates

a) All of the aboveb) iii onlyc) iv onlyd) ii, iii, iv

188) The hygiene factors in Herzberg's motivation theory are:

a) Pay, Working conditions, Attitude of supervisor

b) Pay, Working conditions, Job satisfaction

c) Pay, Promotion, Job satisfaction

d) Pay, Promotion, Food

189) Variance analysis compares actual results to planned results. This can be done for:

a) Cost

b) Schedule

c) Quality

d) All of the above

190) Active listening is:

a) Being attentive when the speaker is talking

b) Asking questions when the speaker is not clear

c) Both a and b

d) Neither a nor b

191) The longest path through the network that shows the shortest duration in which the project can be completed is:

a) Critical path

b) Project schedule

c) Least possible time


192) Who is responsible for identifying and managing risk?

a) Project manager

b) Team members

c) Project sponsor

d) Functional manager

193) Pareto principle is also known as:a) 80-20 ruleb) Law of vital fewc) principle of factor sparsityd) All of the above

194) Pareto efficiency states that:a) 80% of effects come from 20% of causesb) 20% of effects come from 80% of causesc) 80% of causes come from 20% of effectsd) 20% of causes come from 20% of effects

195) Regarding control limits, which of the following is true:a) If a point lies outside of the control limits, or seven consecutive points are on one side of the mean but within control limits, the process is out of controlb) If a point lies outside of the control limits, or seven consecutive points are on either side of the mean but within control limits, the process is out of controlc) If all but seven points lie within the control limits, and seven consecutive points are on one side of the mean but within control limits, the process is in controld) None of the above

196) Projects can end due to:a) Addition, Starvation, Integration, Extinctionb) Deletion, Starvation, Integration, Extinctionc) Addition, Starvation, Disassociation, Extinctiond) Addition, Starvation, Integration, Promotion

197) The tools used in Develop Project Plan are:i) Project Management methodologyii) Project Management Information Systemiii) Expert Judgementiv) Project Plan

a) All of the aboveb) None of the abovec) i, ii, iiid) ii, iii, iv

198) Risk mitigation is:a) Preventing the risk from occuringb) Sharing the risk with another person/organizationc) Making someone else responsible for the risk

d) Reducing the impact or probability of occurrence of the risk

199) Using which of the below can you predict future performance of team:a) Trend analysisb) EMVc) Control limitsd) Risk analysis

200) Salary of full-time employees and cost of hardware bought specially for your project count as:a) Direct costsb) Indirect costsc) Project costsd) None of the above

201) A Request for Proposal:

a) May invite suppliers to submit a proposal for a product

b) Indicates what product/service is required

c) Both a and b

d) Neither a nor b

202) Top-down estimating is another name for:


b) Parametric estimating

c) Three-point estimating

d) PERT estimating

203) Payback period is the time it takes to get back money invested in a project. Hence:

a) The longer the payback period, the better it is for the project

b) The shorter the payback period, the better it is for the project

c) Not enough information to decide

d) Depends on the present value of money invested

204) Change control board is:

a) Board of directors

b) Group of stakeholders, team leads, executives who decide on which changes to accept/reject

c) Team of project managers


205) Variance/trend analysis is done during:

a) Risk monitoring and control

b) Risk response

c) Risk analysis

d) Risk mitigation plan

206) Budget at completion=$1000, Earned value=500, Cost performance index=0.5. Estimate to Completion is:

a) 1000

b) 500

c) 2000


Answer Key

1a2a3b4b5c6b7b8b9b10b11b12c13d14c15c16b17b18d19c20d21b22c23b24b25a26a27a28a29d30d31a32c33a34a35a36c37b38a39a40d

41d42a43a44a45b46b47a48a49b50a51b52a53c54b55a56b57c58a59a60a61a62b63d64d65d66c67b68b69a70d71a72b73b74b75a76c77d78c79a80d81d82b

83c84a85a86b87c88d89b90d91a92b93d94d95c96b97b98a99c100a101a102b103a104d105a106b107a108a109a110a111b112b113d114a115a116d117c118c119a120d121d122d123d124a

125d126d127d128d129d130d131d132a133d134c135c136a137c138c139d140a141b142c143c144d145c146d147a148a149b150c151b152d153d154c155a156d157b158b159a160c161d162b163b164d165b166b

167d168d169b170a171d172c173b174c175a176a177a178c179a180a181b182d183c184d185b186a187d188a189d190c191a192a193d194a195a196a197c198d199a200a201c202a203b204b205a206a

Reference:http://206-free-pmp-exam-questions.blogspot.com/p/answer-key.html

pmp - mock exam 2

Documents

project deliverables

construction project

contracted work

team members

vendor company

teamc award

minor defect

expected time