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NEET - 2019 MODEL GRAND TEST

General Instructions:

1. The Model NEET Grand test is of 3 hrs duration.

2. Maximum number of Marks 720.

3. The question paper for NEET consists of 180 questions comprising 90 questions in Biology, 45 in Physics and 45 in Chemistry.

4. All questions are of objective type (Multiple choices only)

5. Each question carries four marks.

6. Negative marking: one mark will be deducted for every wrongly answered question.

7. The candidates are prohibited from carrying any paper to the examination hall except Hall Ticket.

8. No Calculators, Mini-Cards, Watches with Calculators, Pager, Cell Phone, Slide rules or outer aids to calculation will be allowed in the examination hall.

9. Candidates once admitted will not be allowed to leave the hall till half an hour before the closing of the test.

10. A separate sheet is attached in the middle of this booklet for rough work, you can detach and use it.

11. A detachable answer sheet with 180 question blocks, with 4 circles corresponding to 4 multiple choice for each question will be provided. Answer should be marked only on the answer sheet, but not on the question paper booklet.

12. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only to darken the appropriate circle. Answers marked with pencil would not be evaluated.

13. Each item carries 4marks. For each correct response the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response 1mark will be deducted from the total score.

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BIOLOGY

1. Which one of the following statements is wrong?

(1) Active immunity is slow and takes time to give its full effective response.

(2) The use of anti-histamine, adrenalin and steroids quickly reduce the symptoms of allergy.

(3) The injection which is given to the snake bite patient, contains performed antibodies against the snake venom.

(4) Bone marrow and thymus provide the sites for interaction of lymphocytes with the antigens.

2. Identify the correct statement from the following in relation to human eye ball

(1) The space between the lens and the retina is filled with aqueous humor.

(2) The eye ball contains a lens which is held in place by ligaments attached to iris.

(3) The photopic vision and colour vision are functions of cones.

(4) The fovea is a thinned - out portion of the retina where only the rods are densely packed.

3. Van Niel’s experiments established the idea that

(1) Photophosphorylation occurs during light phase

(2) H2O is the oxidisable reactant in sulphur bacterial photosynthesis

(3) H2O is the oxidisable reactant in plant photosynthesis and thus O2 is evolved

(4) CO2 is oxidised in dark phase

4. Which of the following statements is

wrong for Mycoplasmas.

(1) They lack cell wall

(2) They are anaerobes

(3) They are the smallest living cells

(4) Majority of them are symbionts in

plants and animals

5. Under unfavourable conditions many

zooplankton species in lakes and ponds

enter in a stage called

(1) Diapause

(2) Hibernation

(3) Migration

(4) Aestivation

6. In the process of decomposition, which

steps operate first?

(1) Fragmentation and catabolism

(2) Leaching and humification

(3) Mineralisation and fragmentation

(4) Fragmentation, leaching and

catabolism operate simultaneously

7. Critical elements of the following are

(1) Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen

(2) Nitrogen, Phosphorus, Potassium

(3) Calcium, Magnesium, Sulphur

(4) Iron, Manganese, Molybdenum

8. Dictyosomes, Peroxysomes and

Lysosomes are all

a) Single membrane bound cell

organelles.

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b) Self duplicating and anabolic cell

organelles. Which one of the following options is

correct ? (1) Both a and b are correct (2) Both a and b are incorrect (3) a is true, but b is false (4) b is true but a is false

9. In a mitochondrion, highest number of ATP are found in

(1) Matrix (2) Intermembrane space (3) F0 of ATP synthase (4) Cristae

10. Which one of the following vertebrate has cartilaginous cranium and vertebral column?

(1) Pterophyllum (2) Psittacula (3) Petromyzon (4) Pteropus

11. In which of the following interactions both partners are adversely affected?

(1) Sea anemone and clown fish (2) Flamingoes and resident fishes in

South American lakes (3) Fig tree and pollinator wasp (4) Epiphytic orchid on a mango branch

12. Both the chromatids of mitotic metaphase chromosome are

(1) Genetically identical (2) Morphologically dissimilar (3) Non-telomeric (4) Separated at centromere also

13. The requirements for expression of Lac operon are

(1) Availability of lactose (2) Binding of repressor to operator

(3) Non-availability of glucose (4) 1 and 3

14. A colour blind man married a woman with normal vision, who has no history of colourblindness in her family. If we consider the grand sons only through their daughter, what is the probability of their grand sons being colour blind?

(1) Nil (2) 0.25

(3) 0.5 (4) 1

15. DNA with histone proteins is found in (1) Centriole (2) Well organised nucleus

(3) Chloroplast (4) Mitochondria

16. The first sign of growing foetus during human pregnancy may be noticed by

(1) observing the movements of the foetus

(2) listening to the labour pains of the mother

(3) observing the severe vomitings of the mother

(4) listening to the heart sound of the foetus

17. Which of the following is a membrane bound cell organelle ?

(1) Microsome (2) Nucleosome

(3) Plasmosome (4) Idiosome

18. µ -amylase enzyme induced seed germination is the bio-assay for

(1) ABA

(2) GA3

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(3) IAA (4) CK

19. The total number of incisors present in the buccal cavity of an adult human are

(1) 4 (2) 8 (3) 12 (4) 16

20. The adnated but not connated floral organs in Solanaceae flower are

(1) Sepals (2) Petals (3) Stamens (4) Carpels

21. The skeleton of cell wall of sclereids is made up of

(1) Chitin (2) Peptidoglycan (3) Cellulose (4) Hemicellulose

22. The separation of homologues of each bivalent start at

(1) Pachytene (2) Leptotene (3) Zygotene (4) Diplotene

23. In the figure given below, biodiversity is depicted showing species number of vertebrates major taxa. Identify the correct groups based on their number.

(1) E - Fishes, B - Birds (2) C - Reptiles, B - Fishes (3) D - Birds, A - Fishes

(4) E - Amphibians, A - Birds

24. In Morgan’s experiment on linkage, the percentage of white eyed, miniature winged recombinants in F2 generation is

(1) 37.2 (2) 1.3 (3) 62.8 (4) 98.7

25. Which of the following is not a feature of the ideal gene cloning vector ?

(1) Presence of ‘ori’ site (2) Presence of more than one target site

for each restriction enzyme (3) Ability of self replication (4) High copy number

26. Identify gregarious pest from the following.

(1) Locusta (2) Laccifer (3) Limulus (4) Latimeria

27. The enzyme that activates trypsinogen into trypsin is secreted by

(1) Brunner's glands (2) Pancreatic islets (3) Intestinal mucosa (4) Goblet cells of pylorus

28. Match the terms in Column-I with their description in Column-II and choose the correct option. Column-I Column-II

A) Homologous chromosomes I)

Dissimilar alternative forms of a gene

B) Homozygous alleles II)

Identical maternal and paternal chromosomes

C) Heterologous chromosomes III) Identical forms

of a gene

D) Heterozygous alleles IV)

Unidentical maternal and paternal chromosomes

A B C D (1) II I IV III

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(2) II III IV I (3) IV I II III (4) IV III I II

29. Nitrates and phosphates are plant nutrients but they act as prime contaminants in

(1) Biomagnification

(2) Water logging and soil salinity (3) Cultural Eutrophication

(4) Desertification

30. Which one of the following is correct ? (1) Cyanobacteria exhibit great

metabolic diversity (2) Gonyaulax is an yellow

dinoflagellate (3) Fructifications of sac fungi produce

meiospores endogenously (4) Deuteromycetous fungi always show

sexual reproduction

31. Tight junctions are a type of cell junctions, they help to

(1) stop substances from leaking across a tissue

(2) cementing to keep neighbouring cells together

(3) connecting the cytoplasm of adjoining cells for rapid transfer of ions

(4) transfer impulses rapidly to the other cells

32. Germinated, 3-celled pollen grain represents

(1) Spermatogenous cell

(2) Matured female gametophyte (3) Matured male sporophyte

(4) Matured male gametophyte

33. Gynoecium without style is found in (1) Hibiscus (2) Datura (3) Allium (4) Papaver

34. Sal I is obtained from (1) Streptomyces albus (2) Serratia albus (3) Streptobacillus albus (4) Streptococcus albus

35. In male cockroach, the genital pouch is bounded by

(1) 7th and 8th sterna ventro-anteriorly and 9th sternum dorsally

(2) 9th and 10th sterna dorsally and 9th tergum ventrally

(3) 9th and 10th terga dorsally and 9th sternum ventrally

(4) 7th, 8th and 9th sterna ventrally and 10th tergum dorsally

36. The balance between production and degradation of ozone in the stratosphere has been disrupted due to enhancement of ozone degradation by

(1) Green house gases (2) Chloroflurocarbons (3) UV rays and N2O (4) Cl ions and Nitrogen oxides

37. Which cytoskeletal structures are involved in amoeboid movement of macrophages ?

(1) Microfilaments (2) Microtubules of axoneme (3) Streaming movements of protoplasm (4) Dynein arms

38. Which of the following plant disease is caused by animal pathogen ?

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(1) Late blight of potato (2) Red rot of sugarcane (3) Root knot of tobacco (4) Blight of rice

39. Body with diploblastic organisation, both extracellular and intracellular digestion and reproduction only by sexual means are the characters of phylum

(1) Coelenterata (2) Ctenophora

(3) Porifera (4) Platyhelminthes

40. Which one of the following conditions correctly describes the manner of determining the sex in the given example?

(1) XO type of sex chromosomes determine male sex in grasshopper

(2) Homozygous sex chromosomes (XX) produce male in Drosophila

(3) Homozygous sex chromosomes (ZZ) determine female sex in birds

(4) XO condition in humans as found in determines normal female

41. During urine formation, a fall in GFR can activate JG cells to release renin, which converts

(1) Angiotensin I to angiotensin II

(2) Angiotensin II to aldosterone

(3) Angiotensinogen to angiotensin I

(4) Angiotensin I to angio tensinogen

42. Select the correct statement? (1) Embryophytic plants are both

homogametic and heterogametic

(2) Peat moss, Club moss Irish moss are all bryophytes

(3) Salvinia is a rootless, heterophyllous pteridophyte

(4) Aquatic angiosperms do not possess tracheary elements of xylem

43. A wild flowering plant showing stunted growth has fleshy green aerial organs. It looks same even under prolonged drought conditions without the signs of wilting. In which of the following physiological groups would you assign this plant ?

(1) C3 (2) C4

(3) CAM (4) Nitrogen fixer

44. This induces rupture of Graafian follicle and thereby ovulation in human female

(1) Follicular phase (2) Large amounts of estrogen

(3) Large amounts of progesteron (4) LH surge

45. Which of the following is a stem modification ?

(1) Bladder of utricularia (2) Fleshy cylindrical structures of

Euphorbia (3) Hanging structures of Banyan tree (4) Spines in cactus

46. Government of India has passed the water (Prevention and control of pollution) Act in

(1) 1981

(2) 1986 (3) 1974

(4) 1987

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47. Which one of the following hormones is not involved in sugar metabolism?

(1) Insulin

(2) Glucagon (3) Cortisol

(4) Aldosterone

48. Which one of the following statements is wrong ?

(1) ATP is a ribonucleotide (2) Rubisco is an abundant protein in the

animal kingdom (3) Thymidine is a deoxy ribonucleoside (4) Co. enzymes are vitamin derivatives

49. In gymnosperms and angiosperms, the megasporangia proper are usually

(1) Non-nutritive (2) Non-enveloped (3) Integumented (4) Single celled

50. Which of the following diseases is caused by a protozoan?

(1) Influenza (2) Genital herpes (3) Gonorrhoea (4) Trichomoniasis

51. Filiform apparatus found in (1) Egg (2) Synergids (3) Antipodals (4) Central cell

52. Strategy of animal breeding, which helps to overcome inbreeding depression is

(1) Out-crossing (2) Cross-breeding (3) Inbreeding (4) Interspecific hybridisation

53. ZIFT is an assisted reproductive technique which can provide a child to a childless couple. In this technique

which of the following is/are transferred into the fallopian tube?

(1) Ovum or spermatozoa (2) Zygote or embryo upto 8 blastomeres (3) Late embryos or foetus (4) Gastrula or embryo with more than

8 blastomeres

54. Which of the following is not present in mature or processed m-RNA?

(1) Cap (2) Tail (3) Exons (4) Introns

55. Wrong match w.r.t taxonomic categorisation of mango.

(1) Order – Dicotyledonae (2) Family – Anacardiaceae (3) Division – Angiospermae (4) Genus – Mangifera

56. Which of the following represents the correct combination without any exception?

Characteristics Class

(1)

Mouth terminal ;

moist skin without

scales ;

two pairs of limbs ;

eyes with eye lids

Amphibia

(2)

Bony endoskeleton ;

gills with operculum ;

skin with cycloid

scales ; internal

fertilisation

Osteichthyes

(3)

Body covered with

cornified skin ;

external ear openings

Reptilia

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absent ; three –

chambered heart ;

internal fertilisation

(4)

Body covered with Feathers ; bony endoskeleton ; oviparous ; direct development

Aves

57. Plasma proteins help in osmotic balance are

(1) Albumins (2) Globulins (3) Gamma globulins (4) Fibrogen and heparin

58. Which of the following is not an ecosystem service ?

(1) Crop pollination (2) Maintainance of bio. diversity (3) Mitigation of drought and floods (4) Degeneration of fertile soils

59. In human sperm, which structure is filled with enzymes that help in fertilisation of the ovum ?

(1) Head (2) Middle piece (3) Neck (4) Acrosome

60. Cereal grains are morphologically (1) Seeds 2) Fruits (3) Starch granules (4) Latex granules

61. Liver worts, Mosses, Horsetails, Ferns, Cycads, Conifers together can be included in the group.

(1) Tracheophyta (2) Spermatophyta (3) Archegoniatae (4) Atracheophyta

62. In human females, the primary oocyte grows in size and completes its first meiotic division when it is within

(1) Tertiary follicle (2) Secondary follicle (3) Primordial follicle (4) Primary follicle

63. Primary and secondary phloem get gradually crushed due to continued formation and accumulation of

(1) Secondary corlex (2) Secondary xylem (3) Primary xylem (4) Cork

64. Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding the salient features of human genome?

(1) Less than 2 per cent codes for proteins.

(2) Repeated sequences make up very large portion.

(3) Over 50 per cent of the discovered genes functions are unknown.

(4) It contains 3164.7 billion nucleotide bases.

65. In cockroach, blood from sinuses enter into heart through

(1) Ostia (2) Spiracles (3) Anterior aorta (4) Alary muscles

66. Somatic hybridization involves. (1) Both karyogamy and plasmogamy (2) Karyogamy but not plasmogamy (3) Plasmogamy but not karyogamy (4) Both karyokinesis and cytokinesis

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67. Which of the following is wrongly matched in the given table. Microbe Type Product

(1) Aspergillus niger Fungus Citric acid

(2) Methanogens Bacteria Methane

(3) Saccharomyces

cerevisiae Fungus Ethanol

(4) Streptococcus Bacterium Statins

68. According to Darwin, fitness of the individual or population refers ultimately and only to

(1) Physical fitness (2) Psychological fitness (3) Reproductive fitness (4) Ecological adaptiveness

69. In an area, there is a decline in bird populations due to thinning of their egg shell and premature breaking. Probably the reason may be

(1) Eutrophication in a young lake (2) Biomagnification of DDT in an

aquatic food chain (3) Sharp decline in DO downstream

from the point of sewage discharge (4) Increased predation pressure in the

terrestrial food chain

70. The common genotype in the progeny of dihybrid back-cross (out cross) and dihybrid test cross.

(1) Double homozygous dominant (2) Double homozygous recessive (3) Double heterozygous dominant (4) Double homozygous recombinant

71. Which of the following is not involved in knee-jerk reflex?

(1) Muscle spindle (2) Brain

(3) Inter neuron (4) Motor neuron

72. ABO blood grouping is controlled by gene I which has three alleles. How many phenotypes and genotypes are possible?

(1) 4 phenotypes and 4 genotypes (2) 6 phenotypes and 4 genotypes (3) 5 phenotypes and 8 genotypes (4) 4 phenotypes and 6 genotypes

73. Which of the following is not a characteristic feature during meiosis I in spore mother cells ?

(1) Chromosomal segregation (2) Crossing over (3) Reduction of chromosome number (4) Chromatidal segregation

74. Which of the following statement is not correct ?

(1) Vascular cambium is all secondary in origin in dicot stem.

(2) Cork cambium is stelar origin in dicot root.

(3) Secondary phloem is the vital tissue of bark.

(4) Conjoint collateral, closed and fibro vascular bundles are found in grass stem.

75. This hormone plays a very important role in the regulation of a 24-hour rhythm of our body

(1) Melatonin (2) Thymosin (3) Thyroxine (4) Adrenaline

76. Which of the following are not of epidermal cells ?

(1) Guard cells (2) Bulliform cells (3) Complimentary cells

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(4) Subsidiary cells

77. The joint present between humerus and pectoral girdle is

(1) Ball and socket joint - allows limited movements

(2) Hinge joint - allows no movement (3) Ball and socket joint - allows free

movement (4) Gliding joint - do not allows any

movement

78. Study the pedigree chart given below

What does it show ? (1) The pedigree chart is wrong as this is

not possible (2) Inheritance of a recessive sex-linked

disease like haemophilia (3) Inheritance of a sex-linked inborn

error of metabolism like phenylketonuria

(4) Inheritance of a condition like phenylketonuria as an autosomal recessive trait

79. The fleshy storage leaves are found in (1) Pitcher plant (2) Cacti (3) Onion (4) Pea plant

80. In the diagramatic representation of a standard ECG, this represents the return of ventricles from excited to normal state

(1) T-wave (2) P-wave (3) QRS complex (4) PR-interval

81. In breathing movements, air volume can be estimated by

(1) Stethoscope (2) Spirometer (3) Hygrometer (4) Sphygmomanometer

82. Infectious RNA molecules of low molecular weight, lacking protein coat were discovered by

(1) Pruisiner (2) Diener (3) Iwanowsky (4) Leeuwenhoek

83. What is the recommended per cent of forest cover for plains by the National Forest Policy (1988) of India?

(1) 67% (2) 33% (3) 47% (4) 23%

84. Highest values of B.O.D can be recorded in

(1) Drinking water pond (2) Flowing river water (3) Well water in the plain regions (4) Sewage water drains

85. The technique of DNA finger printing was initially developed by

(1) Francois Jacob (2) Rosalind Franklin (3) T.H. Morgan (4) Alec Jeffreys

86. In the course of evolution of man, fossils discovered in Java in 1891 revealed this stage

(1) Homo erectus (2) Homo habilis (3) Australopithecines (4) Homo neanderthalensis

87. The following are the two statements regarding antibodies

(a) Each antibody molecule has two light peptide chains and two heavy

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peptide chains, hence it is represented as H2L2.

(b) The T-cells themselves do not secrete antibodies but help B cells produce them.

Of the above statements which one of the following options is correct ?

(1) Both (a) and (b) are false (2) (a) is correct but (b) is false (3) (b) is correct but (a) is false (4) Both (a) and (b) are correct

88. In an angiospermic plant body, free nuclear divisions take place during

(1) Development of female gametophyte (2) Development of male gametophyte (3) Embryogenesis (4) Sporogenesis

89. Who among the following lead to experimental verification of chromosomal theory of inheritance

(1) Sutton & Boveri (2) Muller (3) Morgan (4) Mendel

90. Which of the following is not an enzyme?

(1) Hind II (2) Ribozyme (3) Cytozyme (4) DNase

PHYSICS

91. A plane electromagnetic wave of frequency 25 MHz travels in free space along the positive X-direction. At a particular point in space and

time, 6.3E j= in V/m. Then B at this point will be (in tesla)

(1) 62.1 10 ( )−× −k (2) 62.1 10 ( )−× k (3) 62.1 10 ( )−× j (4) 62.1 10 ( )−× i

92. The power factor of a circuit in which a box having unknown electrical devices connected in series with a resistor of resistance 3Ω is 3/5. The reactance of the box is

(1) 5Ω (2) 5 / 3Ω (3) 4Ω (4) 4 / 3Ω

93. One mole of a diatomic gas undergoes a process TV = Constant. If the temperature of gas increases by ∆T , work done for this process is

(1) − ∆R T (2) 3− ∆R T (3) 5− ∆R T (4) 7− ∆R T

94. Consider the circuit in the given figure. In the steady state, potential difference between A and B is

(1) E (2) E/2 (3) E/3 (4) Zero

95. Which of the following numbers has maximum number of significant figures?

(1) 1001 (2) 100.1 (3) 100.10 (4) 0.001001

96. A silver sphere (work function 4.6 eV) is suspended in vaccum chamber by an insulating thread. Ultraviolet light of wavelength 0.2µm falls on the

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sphere. Then its maximum potential

will be 0

12400 A = hc ev

(1) 4.6V (2) 6.2 V (3) 1.6 V (4) 3.2 V

97. An organ pipe P1 closed at one end vibrating in its first harmonic and another pipe P2 open at both ends vibrating in its third harmonic are in resonance with a given tuning fork. The ratio of the length of P1 to that of P2 is

(1) 8/3 (2) 3/8 (3) 1/6 (4) 1/3

98. A radioactive element X converts into another stable element Y. Half life of X is 2 hrs. Initially only X is present. After time t, the ratio of atoms of X and Y is found to be 1 : 7. Then t in hours is

(1) 2

(2) 4

(3) Between 4 and 6

(4) 6

99. If the distance between the first maxima and fifth minima of a double slit pattern is 7 mm and the slits are separated by 0.15 mm with the screen 50 cm from the slits, then wavelength of the light used is

(1) 600 nm (2) 525 nm

(3) 420 nm (4) 540 nm

100. The logic operation performed by the given circuit will be

(1) NOT (2) AND

(3) NOR (4) OR

101. Consider a point P at contact point of a wheel on ground which rolls on ground without slipping. Then value of displacement of point P when wheel completes half of rotation (If radius of wheel is 1 m)

(1) 2 m

(2) 2 4+π m (3) π m

(4) 2 2+π m

102. A vessel contains two different liquids

of different densities 2d and d as

shown. There is a small hole at the

bottom of the vessel. Velocity of the

liquid coming out of the hole will be

(1) 6gh (2) 2 gh

(3) 2 2gh (4) gh

103. Two boys are standing at the ends A and B of a ground where AB=a. The boy at B starts running in a direction perpendicular to AB with velocity 1v .

The boy at A starts running simultaneously with velocity 2v and

catches the other in a time t, where t is

(1) 2 22 1+

av v

(2) 2 1+

av v

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(3) 2 1−

av v

(4) 2

22 1−a

v v

104. A 5000 kg rocket is set for vertical

firing. The exhaust speed is 800 ms-1.

To give an initial upward acceleration

of 20 ms-2, the amount of gas ejected

per second to supply the needed thrust

will be (g = 10 ms-2) (1) 1180.5 −kg s

(2) 1187.5 −kg s

(3) 1127.5 −kg s

(4) 1137.5 −kg s

105. A thin rod of length L and mass M is

bent at its midpoint into two halves so

that the angle between them is 90º. The

moment of inertia of the bent rod

about an axis passing through the

bending point and perpendicular to the

plane defined by the two halves of the

rod is

(1) 2

6ML

(2) 22

24ML

(3) 2

24ML

(4) 2

12ML

106. A particle of mass ‘m’ is kept at rest at

a height 3R from the surface of earth,

where ‘R’ is radius of earth and ‘M’ is

mass of earth. The minimum speed

with which it should be projected, so

that it does not return back, is (g is

acceleration due to gravity on the

surface of earth)

(1) 1/ 2

2GM

Ræ ö÷ç ÷ç ÷çè ø

(2) 1/ 2

4gRæ ö÷ç ÷ç ÷çè ø

(3) 1/ 22g

Ræ ö÷ç ÷ç ÷çè ø

(4) 1/ 2GM

Ræ ö÷ç ÷ç ÷çè ø

107. Three liquids of densities 1 2,r r and 3r

(with 1 2 3> >r r r ), having the same

value of surface tension T, rise to the

same height in three identical capillaries. The angles of contact 1 2,q q

and 3q obey

(1) 1 2 3 02

> > > ³p q q q

(2) 1 2 302

£ < < < pq q q

(3) 1 2 32< < < <p q q q p

(4) 1 2 3 2> > > > pp q q q

108. Steam at 100ºC is passed into 20 g of

water at 10ºC. When water acquires a

temperature of 80ºC, the mass of water

present will be [Take specific heat of

water = 1 cal g-1 ºC-1 and latent heat of

steam = 540 cal g-1]

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(1) 24g

(2) 31.5 g

(3) 42.5 g

(4) 22.5 g

109. The coefficient of performance of a

refrigerator is 5. If the temperature

inside freezer is -20ºC, the temperature

of the surroundings to which it rejects

heat is

(1) 11ºC

(2) 21ºC

(3) 31ºC

(4) 41ºC

110. Two containers A and B are partly

filled with water and closed. The

volume of A is twice that of B and it

contains half the amount of water in B.

If both are at the same temperature,

the water vapour in the containers will

have pressure in the ratio of

(1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 1

(3) 2 : 1 (4) 4 : 1

111. The superposition of two simple

harmonic motions of equal periods at

right angle to each other and with a

phase difference of π results in the

displacement of the particle along

(1) circle (2) figure of eight

(3) straight line (4) ellipse

112. Two trains move towards each other

with the same speed. The speed of

sound is 340 m/s. If the height of the

tone of the whistle of one of them heard

on the other changes to 9/8 times, then

the speed of each train should be

(1) 20 m/s (2) 2 m/s

(3) 200 m/s (4) 2000 m/s

113. Point charges +4q, -q and +4q are kept

on the X-axis at point x = 0, x = a and

x = 2a respectively.

(1) only –q is in stable equilibrium

(2) all the charges are in stable

equilibrium except along a line

(3) all of the charges are in unstable

equilibrium except along a line

(4) none of the charges is in equilibrium

114. From the graph between current (I) and voltage (V) is shown below. Identify the portion corresponding to negative resistance

(1) CD (2) DE (3) AB (4) BC

115. A wire elongates by 1 mm when a load W is hanged from it. If the wire goes over a pulley and two weights W each are hung at the two ends, the elongation of the wire will be (in mm)

(1) 2l

(2) l

(3) 2l (4) zero

116. A conducting square frame of side ‘a’ and a long straight wire carrying

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current I are located in the same plane as shown in the figure. The frame moves to the right with a constant velocity ‘V’. The emf induced in the frame will be proportional to

(1) ( )2

12x a+

(2) ( )( )

12 2x a x a- +

(3) 2

1x

(4) ( )2

12x a-

117. A galvanometer having a resistance of 9 ohm is shunted by a wire of resistance 2 ohm. If the total current is 1 amp, the part of it passing through the shunt will be about

(1) 0.2 amp (2) 0.8 amp (3) 0.25 amp (4) 0.5 amp

118. A circular disc of radius 0.2 meter is placed in a uniform magnetic field of

induction 2

1 Wbm

æ ö÷ç ÷ç ÷çè øp in such a way that

its axis makes an angle of 60º with Bur

.

The magnetic flux linked with the disc is

(1) 0.08 Wb (2) 0.01 Wb

(3) 0.02 Wb (4) 0.06 Wb

119. A concave lens of glass, refractive

index 1.5 has both surfaces of same

radius of curvature R. On immersion

in a medium of refractive index 1.75, it

will behave as a

(1) convergent lens of focal length 3.5 R

(2) convergent lens of focal length 3.0 R

(3) divergent lens of focal length 3.5 R

(4) divergent lens of focal length 3.0 R

120. There is a prism with refractive index

equal to 2 and the refracting angle

equal to 30º. One of the refractive

surface of the prism is polished. A

beam of monochromatic light will

retrace its path if its angle of incidence

over the refracting surface of the prism

is

(1) 0º (2) 30º

(3) 45º (4) 60º

121. A beam of light of 600l = nm from a distant source falls on a single slit 1 mm wide and the resulting diffraction pattern is observed on a screen 2 m away. The distance between first dark fringes on either side of the central bright fringe is

(1) 1.2 cm (2) 1.2 mm (3) 2.4 cm (4) 2.4 mm

122. A beam of cathode rays is subjected to crossed electric (E) and magnetic fields (B) after accelerating through a potential difference V between cathode and anode. The fields are adjusted such that the beam is not deflected. The specific charge of the cathode rays is given by

(1) 2

22BVE

(2) 2

2

2VBE

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(3) 2

2

2VEB

(4) 2

22EVB

123. Ionization potential of hydrogen atom

is 13.6 eV. Hydrogen atoms in the

ground state are excited by

monochromatic radiation of photon

energy 12.1 eV. According to Bohr’s

theory, the spectral lines emitted by

hydrogen will be:

(1) Two

(2) Three

(3) One

(4) Six

124. Transfer characteristics [output voltage (V0) vs input voltage (Vi)] for a base biased transistor in CE configuration is as shown in the figure. For using transistor as a switch, it is used

(1) in region III (2) both in region (I) and (III) (3) in region II (4) in region I

125. Choose the only false statement from the following.

(1) In conductors the valence and conduction bands overlap.

(2) Substances with energy gap of the order of 10 eV are insulators.

(3) The resistivity of semiconductor increases with increase in temperature.

(4) The conductivity of a semiconductor increases with increase in temperature.

126. The diode used in the circuit shown in the figure has constant voltage drop at 0.5V at all currents and a maximum power rating of 100 milli watts across the diode. What should be the value of the resistor R, connected in series with diode for obtaining maximum current?

(1) 6.76Ω (2) 20Ω

(3) 5Ω (4) 5.6Ω

127. A particle moving along x-axis having

an acceleration f at instant t is given

by 0 1 tf fT

= −

, where f0 and T are

constants. The particle at t = 0 has zero

velocity. In the time interval between t

= 0 and the instant when f = 0, the particle’s velocity (vx) is

(1) 20

12

f T

(2) 20f T

(3) 012

f T

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(4) 0f T

128. A particle moves along a circle of

radius 20π

m with constant

tangential acceleration. If the velocity

of the particle is 80 m/s at the end of

the second revolution after motion has

begun, the tangential acceleration is

(1) 240 /m s

(2) 2640 /m sπ

(3) 2160 /m sπ

(4) 240 /m sπ

129. A body of mass 5 kg explodes at rest into three fragments with masses in the ratio 1 : 1 : 3. The fragments with equal masses fly in mutually perpendicular directions each with speed of 21 m/s. The velocity of heaviest fragment in m/s will be

(1) 7 2 (2) 5 2 (3) 3 2 (4) 2 130. The potential energy between two

atoms in a molecule is given by

( ) 12 6

a bU xx x

= − where a and b are

positive constants and x is the distance between the atoms. The atom is in stable equilibrium, when

(1) 1/ 62ax

b =

(2) 1/ 611

5axb

=

(3) x = 0 (4) 1/ 6

2axb

=

131. A smooth ring P of mass m can slide on a fixed horizontal rod. A string tied to

the ring passes over a fixed pulley and carries a block Q of mass (m/2) as shown in the figure. At an instant, the string between the ring and the pulley makes an angle 60º with the rod. The initial acceleration of the ring is

P

Q

(1) 2g/3 (2) 2g/6 (3) 2g/9 (4) g/3 132. Which of the following rods, (given

radius r and length l) each made of the same material and whose ends are maintained at the same temperature will conduct most heat ?

(1) 0 0,r r l l= = (2) 0 02 ,r r l l= =

(3) 0 0, 2r r l l= = (4) 0 02 , 2r r l l= =

133. A wire is fixed between two ends of a sonometer at x = 0 and x = 100 cm. What should be the positions of two bridges below the wire so that the three segments of the wire have their fundamental frequencies in the ratio 1 : 3 : 5.

(1) 1500 500,

23 23cm cm

(2) 1500 300,

23 23cm cm

(3) 300 1500,23 23

cm cm

(4) 1500 2000,

23 23cm cm

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134. A square surface of side L meter in the plane of the paper is placed in a uniform electric field E(volt/m) acting along the same plane at an angle θ with the horizontal side of the square as shown in figure.

The electric flux linked to the surface,

in units of volt m is (1) 2EL (2) 2 cosEL θ

(3) 2 sinEL θ (4) zero

135. A potentiometer wire has length 4m

and resistance 8Ω . The resistance that

must be connected in series with the

wire and an accumulator of emf 2V, so

as to get a potential gradient 1 mV per

cm on the wire is (1) 44Ω

(2) 48Ω

(3) 32Ω

(4) 40Ω

CHEMISTRY

136. Which of the following arrangements

does not truly represent the property

indicated against it?

(1) No. of pi-bonds : 4 3 2ClO ClO ClO ClO− − − −> > > (2) Cl – O bond energy:

2 3 4OCl ClO ClO ClO− − − −> > > (3) Cl – O bond distance:

2 3 4OCl ClO ClO ClO− − − −> > > (4) Oxidising power :

2 3 4OCl ClO ClO ClO− − − −> > > 137. Tolerable limits of lead and fluoride in

international standards are: (1) 10 ppm and 50 ppm

(2) 50 ppb and 1 ppm

(3) 50 ppb and 15 ppm

(4) 1 ppm and 50 ppm

138. In Lassaigne’s test, which of the

following organic compounds would

produce a blood red colour when its

sodium extract is treated with FeCl3

solution

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

139. Improper match of the following is

(1) OH ORa) NaHb) RX→

…. Williamson synthesis

(2) OH a)aqueous NaOHb)CO , 6 7atm2 −

→ OH

COOH

…. Kolbe’s reaction

(3) COCl CHOH2Lindlar's catalyst→

…. Wolf – Kishner reduction

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(4) CHOCO + HClCu Cl CH Cl2 2 2 2

→

…. Gattermann – Koch reaction

140. dil.H SO2 42 2Ph CH CH CH X− − = → .

Identify product ‘X’ is

(1) 2 2 2Ph CH CH CH OH− − = −

(2)

H H| |

3| |H OH

Ph C C CH− − −

(3)

H H| |

3| |

OH H

Ph C C CH− − −

(4) 2Ph CH OH− −

141. The number of radial nodes of 3s and 2p orbitals respectively are

(1) 0 and 2 (2) 2 and 0 (3) 1 and 2 (4) 2 and 1

142. With which of the following silica doesn’t reacts

(1) HNO3 (2) HF (3) NaOH (4) Na2CO3

143. Which among the following is incorrect?

(1) Order of C-C bond length : C2H6 > C6H6 > C2H4 (2) Order of bond angle : HgCl2 > BF3 > SiCl4

(3) Order of % p- character in hybrid orbitals of central atom :

BeCl2 > CCl4 (4) Order of polarizing power of cations:

Al+3 > Mg+2 > Na+1

144. Stability of the species 2 2, −Li Li and 2+Li

increases in the order of: (1) 2 2 2

+ −< <Li Li Li (2) 2 2 2

− +< <Li Li Li (3) 2 2 2

− +< <Li Li Li (4) 22 2

+ −< <Li Li Li

145. When the temperature is increased, surface tension of water:

(1) increases (2) remains constant (3) decreases (4) shows irregular trend

146. The major product obtained on mono bromination (Br2/FeBr3) of the following compound ‘A’

is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

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(4)

147. 2 5C H l and dry 2Ag O reacts to

produce (1) 2 6C H

(2) 2 5 2 5C H C H−

(3) 2 5 2 5C H O C H− −

(4) 2 5 3C H CH− 148. X

2RCH OH RCOOH→ ;

Y2RCH OH RCHO→

X, Y respectively are (1) 4 4,LiAlH NaBH

(2) 4,PCC NaBH

(3) 4,PCC KMnO H +

(4) Jone’s reagent, PCC

149.

B is

(1) Glutaric acid (2) Succinic acid (3) Adipic acid (4) Malonic acid

150.

What are x and y?

(1)

3SO H

2NOOH

,

(2)

OH

3SO H

3CH

2NO

,

(3) ,

(4)

3SO H

3SO H

3SO H ,2NO

2NO

OH

151. Statement-I:

For a reaction

( ) ( ) ( )3 2 22 3 ,NH g N g H g H E→ + ∆ > ∆ Statement – II:

Enthalpy change is always greater than

internal energy change

(1) Both statements are correct (2) Statement – 1 is correct, statement – II

is incorrect (3) Statement – 1 is incorrect, statement –

II is correct (4) Both statements are incorrect

152. For the reaction ( ) ( ) ( )2 2 2g g gN O NO+ ,

the value of Kc at 800 ºC is 0.1. What is the value of Kp at the same temperature

(1) 0.5 (2) 0.01 (3) 0.05 (4) 0.1

153. ( )3 3 24 10 4Mg HNO Mg NO+ →

4 3 23NH NO H O+ + .

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1 mole of HNO3 oxidizes how many grams of magnesium ?

(1) 96g (2) 9.6g (3) 960 g (4) 240g

154. What is the conc. of Cl- ion in HgCl2 saturated solution. If spK of

HgCl2 at 298k is 4 × 10-15 M3 (1) 1 × 510− M (2) 2 × 510− M (3) 4 × 510− M (4) 4 × 1510− M

155. The number of OH- ions in 1 mL of the solution having pH = 4 is:

(1) 410− (2) 1010−

(3) 106.02 10× (4) 136.02 10×

156. C H ClNaNH 2 523CH C CH A B− ≡ → → .

Positional isomer of B is

(1) 1 - butyne (2) 2 - butyne (3) 1 - pentyne (4) 3 - hexyne 157. KaP is highest for

(1) 3CH

OH

(2) 2NO

2NO

OH

(3)

OH

3CH

(4)

OH

158. In summer season which of the

following group 13 elements exist as liquid?

(1) Ga (2) B (3) Al (4) Tl

159.

‘C’ in the reaction is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

160. Which of the following does not contain P-O-P bond?

(1) P4O6 (2) (HPO3)3 (3) H4P2O6 (4) H4P2O7

161. The volume of atoms present in end centered cubic Unit Cell of a metal is (r = atomic radius)

(1) 316 r3π

(2) 34 r3π

(3) 38 r3π

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(4) 312 r3π

162. Synthetic fibres like nylon-6,6 is very strong because:

(1) They have high molecular weights and high melting points

(2) They have linear molecules consisting of very long chains

(3) They have a high degree of cross-linking by strong C-C bond

(4) They have linear molecules inter-linked with forces like hydrogen bonding

163. Compound 4 2PdCl .6H O is a hydrated complex. One molal aqueous solution of it has freezing point 269.28 K. Assuming 100% ionisation of the complex, which of the following is the formula of the complex

( )1fK for water 1.86 K Kg mol−= ?

(1) ( )2 46Pd H O Cl

(2) ( )2 2 2 24Pd H O Cl Cl .2H O

(3) ( )2 3 23Pd H O Cl Cl.3H O

(4) ( )2 4 22Pd H O Cl .4H O

164. What will be the emf of the given cell?

Pt/H2(10atm)/H+(1M)IIH+(1M)/H2

(1atm) / Pt (1) +0.09V (2) +0.03V (3) -0.12V (4) +0.12V 165. One Faraday of electricity is passed

separately, through one litre of one molar aqueous solution of AgNO3, SnCl4 and CuSO4. The number of moles of Ag, Sn and Cu deposited at cathode are respectively

(1) 1 1, ,14 2

(2) 1 1,1,2 4

(3) 1 11, ,2 4

(4) 1 11, ,4 2

166. Which of the following is correct structure of 2 2S Cl ?

(1)

(2) Cl S S Cl− − −

(3)

(4) Cl S S Cl= = =

167. Consider the following statements:

(i) ( )3La OH is the least basic among

hydroxides of lanthanides (ii) Eu+2 acts as a reducing agent

(iii) 4Ce + acts as an oxidising agent. Which of the above is/are true? (1) i and iii (2) ii and iii (3) ii only (4) i and ii 168. The temperature co efficient for

reaction in which food deteriorates is ‘2’. Then food deteriorates --- times as rapidly at 250C as it does at 50C.

(1) 8 (2) 2 (3) 1 (4) 4

169. The copper matte obtained in the metallurgy of copper has the approximate composition

(1) FeS + CuO (2) Cu + FeO (3) Cu2S+FeS (4) CuS+FeS2

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170. The following are some statements about micelle

I) These are formed as aggregated particles when soap is a applied at lower conc.

II) The tail part of it dissolves the grease deposit or dirt

III) Hydrocarbon chain of soap micelle is hydrophilic end and its anion part is hydrophobic end

The correct statement(s) is/are (1) All are correct (2) Only I and II (3) Only II and III (4) Only II

171. Which of the following is incorrect?

(1) Structure of uracil is

(2) During denaturation, primary structure of proteins is destroyed

(3) DNA has a double helical structure (4) Nucleoside is the combination of

sugar and base 172. Which of the following is not a function

of DNA finger printing? (1) In forensic laboratories for identifica-

tion of criminals (2) To determine paternity of an

individual (3) To identify the dead bodies in any

accident by comparing the DNA’s of parents

(4) In checking Biological activity in the human body

173. List – I List – II (use of polymer) (Polymer) A) Making paints 1) Bakelite B) Making tyre cords 2) Teflon C) Making oil seals 3) Nylon – 6

D) Making combs 4) Glyptal The correct match is (1) A - 4, B - 2, C - 1, D – 3 (2) A - 4, B -3, C - 2, D – 1 (3) A - 3, B - 4, C - 2, D – 1 (4) A - 3, B - 2, C - 1, D - 4

174. Which among the following inhibits the

synthesis of chemicals known as prostaglandins which stimulates inflammation in the tissue and cause pain is:

(1) zantac (2) Chlorodiazepoxide (3) Alitame (4) aspirin 175. Incorrect statement is (1) Natural gas is an important source of

helium (2) Most abundant inert gas in atmosphere

is Radon (3) First noble gas compound prepared is

6XePtF

(4) Electron gain enthalpy ( )EGH∆

values of noble gases are positive 176. Which among the following is incorrect

statement ?

(1) NH3 is an electron rich hydride (2) CaH2 is known as Hydrolith (3) Reaction involved in water gas shift

reaction: CO(g) + H2O(g) → CO2(g) + H2(g) (4) Melting point of Heavy water

(D2O) is less than that of normal Water.

177. Largest ion among the following is

(1) ( )2 xLi H O+

(2) ( )2 xCs H O+

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(3) ( )2 xRb H O+

(4) ( )2 xK H O+

178. The product obtained as a result of a reaction of nitrogen gas with hot CaC2 is:

(1) Super phosphate of lime (2) Nitrolim (3) Plaster of paris (4) Milk of lime 179. When acetic acid is heated with P2O5

then which compound will be formed?

(1) ( )3 2CH CO O (2) 3 3CH COCH

(3) 3CH CHO (4) 4CH

180. Which of the following elements has least number of electrons in its ‘M’ shell?

(1) K (2) Mn (3) Ni (4) Sc

MODEL NEET GRAND TEST KEY

BIOLOGY 1) 4 2) 3 3) 3 4) 4 5) 1 6) 4 7) 2 8) 3 9) 1 10) 3

11) 2 12) 1 13) 4 14) 3 15) 2 16) 4 17) 4 18) 2 19) 2 20) 3

21) 3 22) 4 23) 1 24) 1 25) 2 26) 1 27) 3 28) 2 29) 3 30) 3

31) 1 32) 4 33) 4 34) 1 35) 3 36) 2 37) 1 38) 3 39) 2 40) 1

41) 3 42) 3 43) 3 44) 4 45) 2 46) 3 47) 4 48) 2 49) 3 50) 4

51) 2 52) 1 53) 2 54) 4 55) 1 56) 4 57) 1 58) 4 59) 4 60) 2

61) 3 62) 1 63) 2 64) 4 65) 1 66) 1 67) 4 68) 3 69) 2 70) 3

71) 2 72) 4 73) 4 74) 1 75) 1 76) 3 77) 3 78) 4 79) 3 80) 1

81) 2 82) 2 83) 2 84) 4 85) 4 86) 1 87) 4 88) 1 89) 3 90) 3

PPHYSICS

91) 2 92) 3 93) 1 94) 4 95) 3 96) 3 97) 3 98) 4 99) 1 100) 1

101) 2 102) 2 103) 4 104) 2 105) 4 106) 1 107) 2 108) 4 109) 3 110) 2

111) 3 112) 1 113) 3 114) 1 115) 2 116) 2 117) 2 118) 3 119) 1 120) 3

121) 4 122) 4 123) 2 124) 2 125) 3 126) 3 127) 3 128) 1 129) 1 130) 1

131) 3 132) 2 133) 4 134) 4 135) 3

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CHEMISTRY

136) 2 137) 2 138) 4 139) 3 140) 3 141) 2 142) 1 143) 3 144) 2 145) 3

146) 2 147) 3 148) 4 149) 3 150) 3 151) 2 152) 4 153) 1 154) 2 155) 3

156) 3 157) 3 158) 1 159) 2 160) 3 161) 3 162) 4 163) 3 164) 2 165) 4

166) 3 167) 2 168) 4 169) 3 170) 4 171) 2 172) 4 173) 2 174) 4 175) 2

176) 4 177) 1 178) 2 179) 1 180) 1

MODEL NEET GRAND TEST SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS – SOLUTIONS

91. 62.1 10EB TC

−= = ×

Here E B× should be along X direction.

So, B must be along Z direction.

92. 2 2 29Z R x x= + = + and

3cos5

RZ

φ = = and 4X = Ω

93. 2TV K PV= ⇒ = constant

1V

RC C Q U Wx

= + ⇒ ∆ = ∆ + ∆−

94. In the steady state as capacitor blocks

DC, there will be no current in the

remaining circuit between A and B

95. Zero after decimal point is also

significant.

96. From Einstein’s equation.

maxE Kφ= +

where 4

12400 6.20.2 10

E eV= =×

max 1.6=K V

⇒Maximum potential = 1.6V

97. If 1L and 2L are length of 1P and 2P ,

1

1 2 2

3 14 2 6

LV VL L L

= ⇒ =

98. 0

0

1 87

= ⇒ =−

NNN N N

012

N N x = where

1/2

txT

=

21 1

8 2 =

t

t⇒ is 6

99. 1 5n = and 2 1n =

So, ( )2 12 17

2n n D mm

d dλ λ− ∆

− =

λ⇒ = 600 nm.

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100. It is NOT operation.

101.

In half rotation point P has moved

horizontally.

12d r m mπ

π π π= = × = . [ ]1radius m=

In the same time, it has moved vertically

a distance which is equal to its diameter

= 2m.

Therefore, Displacement of P = 2 22+π

2 4= +π m

102. ( ) 20 0

1 2 2 22

P d V P dgh dgh+ = + +

2 2V gh⇒ =

103.

2 22 1r

a atv v v

= =−

104. Thrust = ( )+ =dmM g a udt

( )+=

M g admdt u

( )5000 10 20187.5 /

800+

= = kg s

105. Total mss = M, total length = L

Moment of inertia of OA about

O=Moment of inertia of OB about O.

O A

B

2 21. . 2 .

2 2 3 12M L MLM I total ⇒ = × =

106. The minimum speed with which the

particle should be projected from the

surface of the earth so that it does not

return back is known as escape speed

and it is given by

( )2

eGM

R hυ =

+

Here, h = 3R

( )

2 23 4 2e

GM GM GMR R R R

υ∴ = = =+

107. Capillary rise, 2 cosThr g

θρ

=

For given value of T and r, cosh θρ

∝

Also, 1 2 3h h h= = or

31 2

1 2 3

coscos cos θθ θρ ρ ρ

= =

Since, 1 2 3ρ ρ ρ> > ,

so 1 2 3cos cos cosθ θ θ> >

For 1 2 30 ,2π

θ θ θ θ≤ < < <

Hence, 1 2 302π

θ θ θ≤ < < <

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108. Here, Specific heat of water, 1 11 lg ºws ca C− −=

Latent heat of steam, 1540 lgsL ca −=

Heat lost by m g of steam at 100ºC to

change into water at 80ºC is

1 = + ∆s w wQ mL ms T

( )540 1 100 80= × + × × −m m

=540m + 20 m = 560 m

Heat gained by 20 g of water to change

its temperature from 10ºC to 80ºC is

( )2 20 1 80 10 1400s w wQ m s T= ∆ = × × − =

According to principle of calorimetry,

1 2Q Q=

Therefore, 560 m = 1400 or m = 2.5 g

Total mass of water present

= (20+m) g = (20 + 2.5) g = 22.5g

109. The coefficient of performance of a

refrigerator is

2

1 2

TT T

β =−

where 1T and 2T are the temperatures of

hot and cold reservoirs (in Kelvin)

respectively.

Here, β = 5,

T2 = -20ºC=-20+273K=253K

T1 = ?

1

2535253

KT K

∴ =−

( )15 5 253 253T K K− =

( ) ( )15 253 5 253 6 253T K K K= + =

( )16 253 303.6 303.6 2735

T K K= = = −

30.6º 31ºC C= ≈

110. Vapour pressure does not depend on the

amount of substance. It depends on the

temperature alone.

111. sinx a tω= and

( )sin siny b t b tω π ω= + = − .

or x y bory xa b a= − = −

112. Here 9'8

υ υ= source and observer are

moving in opposite direction, apparent

frequency

( )( )

'v uv u

υ υ+

= ×−

( )( )

'v uv u

υ υ+

= ×−

9 340 9 8 340 8u u⇒ × − = × +

34017 340 1 20 /17

u u m s⇒ = × ⇒ = =

113. Net force on each of the charge due to

the other charges is zero. However,

disturbance in any direction other than

along the line on which the charges lie,

will not make the charges return.

114. For the negative resistance, when we

increase the voltage, the current will

decrease. Therefore from the graph, we

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Page No.28

find that the current in CD is decreased

when voltage is increased.

115. In both cases tension in string is T = W.

116. Here, PQ = RS = PR=QS=a

Emf induced in the frame

( ) ( )1 2B PQ V B RS Vε = −

( ) ( )

0 0

2 / 2 2 / 2I IaV aV

x a x aµ µ

π π= −

− +

( ) ( )

0 2 22 2 2

I aVx a x a

µπ

= − − +

( ) ( )

0 222 2 2

I aVx a x a

µπ

= × − +

( ) ( )

12 2x a x a

ε∴ ∝− +

117. The shunt and galvanometer are in

parallel. Therefore, 1 1 19 2eqR

= + , or

1811eqR = Ω .

Using Ohm’s law, V = IReq

= 18 18111 11

V× = .

∴Current through shunt s

VR

=

18 /11 9 0.82 11

amp= =

118. 2

1 WbBmπ

=

Area of the disc normal to B is 2 cos 60ºRπ .

Flux = B×Area normal

∴Flux = 1 0.04 0.022

Wb× =

119. g

l

1 2 1.5 2 21 1f R 1.75 R 7R

µµ

= − − = − − = +

So it behave as convergent lens of focal length 3.5 R

120.

The ray will retrace the path when the

refrated ray QR is incident normally on

the polished surface AC. Thus angle of

refraction r = 30º

sinsin

ir

µ =

sin sin 2 sin 30ºi rµ∴ = × = ×

11 1 1sin 2 sin 45º2 2 2

i ori −= × = = =

121. Here, 9600 600 10nm mλ −= = ×

31 10 , 2a mm m D m−= = =

Distance between the first dark fringes

on either side of the central bright fringe

is also the width of central maximum.

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Which of central maximum 2 Daλ

=

9

3

2 600 10 210

m mm

−

−

× × ×=

4 324 10 2.4 10 2.4m m mm− −= × = × =

122. Be eEυ = or EB

υ = ____ (i)

If V is the potential difference between

the anode and the cathode, then

212

m eVυ∴ =

2

2em V

υ=

Substituting the value of υ from

equation (i) in equation (ii), we get

2

22e Em VB=

Specific charge of the cathode rays 2

22e Em VB=

123. ( )13.6 12.1 1.5− =ev ev s in3 ⇒ electron i rd energylevel . ⇒ No of possible spectral

( )12−

=n n

linesN ( )3 3 13

2−

= =

124. In the given graph,

Region (I) –Cutoff region

Region (II) – Active region

Region (III) – Saturation region

Using transistor as a switch it is used in

cutoff region or saturation region.

125. Resistivity of a semiconductor decreases

with increase in the temperature.

126. Voltage drop across diode (VD)=0.5V;

Maximum power rating of diode (P) =

100 m W

And source voltage ( ) 1.5sV V= .

The resistance of diode ( )DR

( )22

3

0.52.5

100 10DV

P −= = = Ω×

.

And current in diode

( ) 0.5 0.22.5

DD

D

VIR

= = = Ω .

Therefore total resistance in circuit (R)

1.5 7.50.2

s

D

VI

= = = Ω .

And the value of the series resistor

= Total resistance of the circuit –

Resistance of diode

7.5 2.5 5= − = Ω .

127. Given : At time t = 0, velocity, v =0.

Acceleration 0 1 tf fT

= −

At 00,0 1 tf fT

= = −

Since 0f is a constant

1 0tT

∴ − = or t T= .

Also, acceleration dvfdt

=

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00 0 0

1xv t T T

t

tdv fdt f dtT

=

=

∴ = = − ∫ ∫ ∫

2 2

0 00 0 0

12 2 2xf t f Tv f t f T f TT T

∴ = − = − =

.

128. Given ;

20 , 80 / , 2 4r m v m s rev radθ ππ

= = = = .

Form equation ( )2 20 02 0ω ω αθ ω= + =

2 2 v and a rr

ω αθ ω α = = =

2

240 /2va m srθ

= = .

129. Apply conservation of linear momentum.

130. ( ) 12 6 13 7

12 6 0a b a bU x orx x x x

−= − − − =

or 6 2axb

= . Therefore 1/62ax

b =

.

131. ; cos 60º2 2 cos 60º

mg m maT a T− = =

on solving 29ga = (for the ring)

132. Heat conducted

( ) ( )21 2 1 2KA T T t K r T T tl l

π− −= =

The rod with the maximum ratio of All will conduct most. Here the rod with r = 2r0 and l = l0 will conduct most.

133. 1 2 3: : 15 : 5 : 3L L L =

and 1 2 3 100L L L cm+ + =

134. .E S zero=

135. Required potential gradient = 1 mV cm-1

1110

Vm−=

Length of potentiometer wire, l= 4m

So potential difference across

potentiometer wire

1 4 0.410

V= × = ____ (i)

In the circuit, potential difference across

8Ω

28 88

IR

= × = ×+

_____(ii)

Using equation (i) and (ii), we get,

20.4 88 R

= ×+

4 16 8 408 8

RR

= = + =+

32R∴ = Ω

CHEMISTRY SOLUTIONS

136.

Ion ClO− 2ClO− 3ClO− 4ClO−

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Bond order 1 3/2 5/3 7/4

As bond order increases then Bond energy increases

Since bond order is proportional to bond energy.

137. Below 50 parts per billion – Lead

Below 5 parts per million – Fluoxide

138. Blood red colour is formed, if the organic compound contains C, H, N, S, and O

139. COCl CHOH2Lindlar's catalyst→

It is Rosenmund’s reaction

140.

H H| |

3+ |

H

Ph C C CH− − − is Benzyllic carbocation which is more stable

141. Number of of radial nodes = (n - l - 1) For 3s orbital n = 3 and l = 0 For 2p orbital n = 2 and l = 1 142. Silicon dioxide has no reactivity towards nitric acid. 143. BeCl2 is sp hybridization, 50% p-character and

CCl4 is sp3 hybridisation, 75% p-character

144. Bond order in Li2, 2Li+ and 2Li− are 1, 0.5 and 0.5 respectively

But 2Li+ , 2Li− are same B.O.

Since 2Li− the electron is present in antibonding orbital. Hence it becomes destabilized

145. Surface tension is inversely proportional to temperature

146.

3CH 3CH

Br(major product)

Br FeBr2 3→

3OCH 3OCH

147. Preparation of ether 2 5 2 2 5 2 52C H I Ag O C H O C H 2AgI− + → − − +

148. Jones reagent2RCH OH R COOH→ − ; PCC, CrO3

2 Controlled oxidationRCH OH RCHO→

149.

OH

HKMnO OH4

+H

−→

COOHCOOH

Cyclohexanol Cyclohexene Adipic acid

conc.H SO2 4, dehydration∆

→

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150.

OH

conc.H SO2 4→

OH

3SO H

3SO H

conc.HNO3Nitration→

OH

2NO2NO

2NO

151.

( ) ( ) ( )3 g 2 g 2 g2NH N 3H , P Rn n n→ + ∆ = −

2 moles 4 moles

= 4 - 22, i.e., 0,n n H E∆ = ∆ > ∆ > ∆

,H E∆ ∆ depends on gaseous moles

152. For ( ) ( ) ( )2 2 gg gN +O 2NO , n = 2 2 0∆ − =

∴KP = KC = 0.1

153. ( )2

3 3 4 3 22Mg HNO Mg NO NH NO 3H O++ → + +

8 1e− ×

0 +5 -3 +5

2 4e− ×

i.e. 4 moles of Mg →1 mole of HNO3 = (4 x 24 = 96 g) 154. +2

22SS

HgCl Hg 2Cl−+

KSP = 4S3 15 34 10 4S−× = 5S 10−= ∴Conc. of 5Cl 2S 2 10 M− −= = × 155. pH = 4, pOH = 10

10OH 10− − ∴ = N

No. of OH− ions = 10 23110 6 101000

− × × × = 106 10×

156. C H ClNaNH + 2 523 3 3 2 5CH C CH CH C C Na CH C C C H− ≡ → − ≡ − → − ≡ − (2 - pentyne)

Positional isomer of 2 - Pentyne is 1 - Pentyne

157. Highest Pka is least acidic. i.e., where CH3 is E.D.G (+ I)

158. Gallium melts, jut above room temperature

159.

3CH

2NH

( )CH CO O3 2Acetylation→

3CH

3NHCOCH

Br2CH COOH3

→

3CH

3NHCOCH

Br

+HH O2

→

3CH

Br

2NH

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160. H4P2O6 is

OH OH| |

HO P P OH|| ||O O

− −− −

161. Number of atoms per unit cell in end centred =

1 18 28 2

× + × = 2

Therefore, the volume of atoms present in end centred cubic unit cell

= 3 34 82 πr πr3 3

× =

162. Intermolecular attraction forces 163. f fT K molality i∆ = × × (273 – 269.28) = 1.86 x 1 x i ∴ i = 2 for ionization, i = 1 + (n - 1) ∝

2 = 1 + (n - 1) 100100

n = 2 Therefore, the complex is [Pd(H2O)3Cl3] Cl. 3H2O

164. + +2 2

(1M) (1M)(10 atm) (1atm)H 2H 2H H+ → +

2 2

0 0 0cell H HE E E 0 0 0volt= − = − =

[ ][ ]

0cell cell

product0.059E E log2 reactants

∴ = −

( ) ( )( )

2

cell 2

1 10.059 0.059 0.06E 0 log2 2 210 1

= − = =

Ecell = 0.03 volt 165. a) +Ag e Ag−+ → 1F 1mole of Ag→

b) +4Sn 4e Sn−+ → 4F 1mole of Sn→

1F ?→ = 14

mole of Sn

c) +2Cu 2e Cu−+ → 2F 1 mole of Cu→

11F ? mole of Cu2

→ =

166. S2Cl2 is similar to H2O2, i.e., open book structure

167. 0 025 C 15 C,→ halved

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0 015 C 5 C,→ again halved Therefore, rate decrease of 4 times

168. 22 20 0 05 C 15 C 25 C→ → i.e., 4 times

169. Matter has chemical composition 2 2Cu FeS 170. Tail part is hydrophobic in nature. Grease and dirt are dissolved in tail 171. Denaturation does not destroy the primary structure of a protein. 172. DNA finger printing has no relation to biological activity 173. Examples of synthetic polymers 174. Drug action of aspirin 175. Argon is most abundant noble gas in air 176. Heavy water freezes and boils at temperatures more than those of water 177. Lithium cation is most hydrated. Hence, Li+ has longer size and high hydration energy. 178. 2 2 2 GraphiteCalcium cyanamide

CaC N CaCN C+ → +

This mixture of cyanamide and graphite is called Nitrolium

179. Dehydrated is given as,

3CH C OH− −

O

O

O

O

3CH C−3CH C−

O 2+ H O

Acetic acid Acetic anhydride

3CH C O H− − P O2 5→

180.

Element Number of electrons in ‘M’ Shell

K 8, 3s23p6

Mn 13, 3s2 3p6 3d5

Ni 16, 3s2 3p6 3d8

Sc 9, 3s2 3p6 3d1

This model Grand test is prepared and verified by

Varsity Education Management Ltd., Hyderabad, Mumbai, Vijayawada & Delhi.

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