neet model grand test 2017 - eenadupratibha.net · 2020-02-29 · page | 4. neet :: model test...

NEET Date: 00-00-2017Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 720

PHYSICS1. The dimensions of emf in MKS is (if charge

is fundamental unit)

(a) ML-1 T-2 Q-2 (b) ML2T-2Q-2

(c) MLT-2Q-1 (d) ML2T-2Q-1

2. A 150 m long train is moving with a

uniform velocity of 45 km/h. The time

taken by the train to cross a bridge of

length 850 meters is

(a) 56 sec (b) 68 sec

(c) 80 sec (d) 92 sec

3. Two particles of mass M and m are moving

in a circle of radii R and r. If their time

periods are the same, what will be the ratio

of their linear velocities ?

(a) MR : mr (b) M : m

(c) R : r (d) 1 : 1

4. A 30 gm bullet initially travelling at 120

m/s penetrates 12 cm into a wooden block.

The average resistance exerted by the

wooden block is

(a) 2850 N (b) 2200 N

(c) 2000 N (d) 1800 N

5. If a long spring is stretched by 0.02 m, its

potential energy is U. If the spring is

stretched by 0.1 m, then its potential

energy will be

(a)5

U(b) U

(c) 5 U (d) 25 U

6. A wheel having moment of inertia 2 kg – m2

about its vertical axis, rotates at the rate of

60 rpm about this axis. The torque which

can stop the wheel’s rotation in one minute

would be

(a)2

15N m

(b)

12N m

(c)15

N m

(d)18

N m

7. Two bodies have their moments of inertia I

and 2I respectively about their axis of

rotation. If their kinetic energies of rotation

are equal, their angular momenta will be in

the ratio

(a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 :1

(c) 2 : 1 (d) 1: 2

8. Two satellites of earth, S1 and S2, are

moving in the same orbit. The mass of S1 is

four times the mass of S2. Which one of the

following statements is true ?

(a) The time period of S1 is four times that

of S2

(b) The potential energies of earth and

satellite in the two cases are equal

(c) S1 and S2 are moving with the same

speed

(d) The kinetic energies of two satellites are

equal

9. A particle of mass m is thrown upwards

from the surface of the earth, with a

velocity u. The mass and the radius of the

earth are, respectively, M and R. G is

gravitational constant and g is acceleration

due to gravity on the surface of the earth.

The minimum value of u so that the

particle does not return back to earth is

(a)2GM

R(b)

2

2GM

R

(c) 22gR (d)2

4GM

R

10. The approximate depth of an ocean is 2700

m. The compressibility of water is 45.4×10-

11 Pa-1 and density of water is 103 kg/m3.

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Model Grand Test - 2017

Page | 2 NEET :: MODEL TEST 00-00-2017

What fractional compression of water will

be obtained at the bottom of the ocean ?

(a) 20.8 10 (b) 21.0 10

(c) 21.2 10 (d) 21.4 1011. Water rises to height ‘h’ in capillary tube. If

the length of capillary tube above the

surface of water is made less than ‘h’, then

(a) water does not rise at all

(b) water rises up to the tip of capillary tube

and then starts overflowing like a fountain

(c) water rises up to the top of capillary

tube and stays there without overflowing

(d) water rises up to a point a little below

the top and stays there

12. The temperature of the body is increased

from -73oC to 357oC, the ratio of energy

emitted per second is

(a) 1 : 3 (b) 1 : 81

(c) 1 : 27 (d) 1 : 91

13. If the temperate of the sun (black body) is

doubled, the rate of energy received on

earth will be increased by a factor of

(a) 2 (b) 4

(c) 8 (d) 16

14. An ideal refrigerator has a freezer at a

temperature of -13oC. The coefficient of

performance of the engine is 5. The

temperature of the air (to which heat is

rejected) will be

(a) 325oC (b) 325 K

(c) 39oC (d) 320oC

15. A mono atomic gas is supplied with the

heat Q very slowly keeping the pressure

constant. The work done by the gas will be

(a)2

3Q (b)

3

5Q

(c)2

5Q (d)

1

5Q

16. The kinetic energy and the potential energy

of a particle executing SHM are equal. The

ratio of its displacement and amplitude will

be

(a)1

2(b)

3

2

(c)1

2(d) 2

17. Which one of the following statements is

true for the speed v and the acceleration a

of a particle executing simple harmonic

motion ?

(a) When v is maximum, a is minimum

(b) Value of a is zero, whatever may be the

value of v

(c) When v is zero, a is zero

(d) When v is maximum, a is zero

18. An observer moves towards a stationary

source of sound with a speed 1/5th of the

speed of sound. The wavelength and

frequency of the source emitted are and f

respectively. The apparent frequency and

wavelength recorded by the observer are

respectively

(a) 1.2 f, (b) f, 1.2

(c) 0.8 f, 0.8 (d) 1.2 f, 1.2 19. Two points are located at a distance of 10

m and 15 m from the source of oscillation.

The period of oscillation is 0.05 s and the

velocity of the wave is 300 m/s. What is the

phase difference between the oscillation of

two points ?

(a)3

(b)

2

3

(c) (d)6

20. The electric intensity due to a dipole of

length 10 cm and having a charge of

500 C , at a point on the axis at a distance

20 cm from one of the charges in air, is

(a) 76.25 10 /N C (b) 79.28 10 /N C

(c) 1113.1 11 /N C (d) 720.5 10 /N C

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21. Two positive ions, each carrying a charge q,

are separated by a distance d. If F is the

force of repulsion between the ions, the

number of electrons mission from each ion

will be ( e being the charge on an electron)

(a)2

02

4 Fd

e

(b)

20

2

4 Fe

d

(c)2

02

4 Fd

e

(d)

20

2

4 Fd

q

22. Three capacitors each of capacity 4 F are

to be connected in such a way that the

effective capacitance is 6 F . This can be

done by

(a) Connecting them in parallel

(b) Connecting two in series and one in

parallel

(c) Connecting two in parallel and one in

series

(d) Connecting al of them in series

23. A parallel plate air capacitor is charged to a

potential difference of V volts. After

disconnecting the charging battery the

distance between the plates of the capacitor

is increased using an insulating handle. As

a result the potential difference between the

plates

(a) decreases (b) does not change

(c) becomes zero (d) increases

24. A steady current flows in a metallic

conductor of non-uniform cross-section.

The quantity / quantities constant along

the length of the conductor is / are

(a) Current, electric field and drift speed

(b) Drift speed only

(c) Current and drift speed

(d) Current only

25. The electric resistance of a certain wire of

iron is R. If its length and radius are both

doubled, then

(a) the resistance will be doubled and the

specific resistance will be halved

(b) the resistance will be halved and the

specific resistance will remain unchanged

(c) the resistance will be halved and the

specific resistance will be doubled

(d) the resistance and the specific

resistance, will both remain unchanged

26. A battery is charged at a potential of 15 V

for 8 H when the current flowing is 10 A.

The battery on discharge supplied a current

of 5 A for 15 H. The mean terminal voltage

during discharge is 14 V. The “watt-hour”

efficiency of the battery is :

(a) 82.5% (b) 80%

(c) 90% (d) 87.5%

27. The resistance of an ammeter is 13 and

its scale is graduated for a current up to

100 A. After an additional shunt has been

connected to this ammeter it becomes

possible to measure currents up to 750 A

by this meter. The value of shunt resistance

is

(a) 20 (b) 2

(c) 0.2 (d) 0.02

28. An electron moves in a circular orbit with a

uniform speed v. It produces a magnetic

field B at the centre of the circle. The

radius of the circle is proportional to

(a)B

v(b)

v

B

(c)v

B(d)

B

v

29. Under the influence of a uniform magnetic

field a charged particle is moving in a circle

of radius R with Constant speed v. The time

period of the motion

(a) depends on v and not on R

(b) depends on both R and v

(c) is independent of both R and v

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(d) depends on R and not on v

30. Two magnets are held together in a

vibration magnetometer and are allowed to

oscillate in the earth’s magnetic field with

like poles together, 12 oscillations per

minute are made but for unlike poles

together only 4 oscillations per minute are

executed. The ratio of their magnetic

moments is

(a) 3 : 1 (b) 1 : 3

(c) 3 : 5 (d) 5 : 4

31. Curie temperatures is the temperature

above which

(a) ferromagnetic material becomes

paramagnetic material

(b) paramagnetic material becomes

diamagnetic material

(c) paramagnetic material becomes

ferromagnetic material

(d) ferromagnetic materials becomes

diamagnetic material

32. A magnetic field of 22 10 T acts at right

angles to a coil of area 100 cm2 with 50

turns. The average emf induced in the coil

is 0.1 V, when it is removed from the field

in time t. The value of t is

(a) 0.1 sec (b) 0.01 sec

(c) 1 sec (d) 20 sec

33. A long solenoid has 500 turns. When a

current of 2 A is passed through it, the

resulting magnetic flux linked with each

the turn of the solenoid is 34 10 Wb . The

self-inductance of the solenoid is

(a) 2.5 H (b) 2.0 H

(c) 1.0 H (d) 4.0 H

34. A coil of 40 H inductance is connected in

series with a resistance of 8 ohm and the

combination is joined to the terminals of a

2V battery. The time constant of the circuit

is

(a) 5 s (b) 1/5 s

(c) 40 s (d) 20 s

35. What is the value of inductance L for which

the current is a maximum in a series LCR

circuit with 10C F and 11000s ?

(a) 100 mH

(b) 1 mH

(c) Cannot be calculated unless R is known

(d) 10 mH

36. Which of the following are not

electromagnetic waves ?

(a) Cosmic rays (b) Gamma rays

(c) rays (d) X-rays

37. The electric and the magnetic field,

associated with an electromagnetic wave,

propagating along the +z – axis, can be

represented by

(a) 0 0ˆ ˆ,E E k B B i

(b) 0 0ˆ ˆ,E E j B B i

(c) 0 0ˆ ˆ,E E j B B i

(d) 0 0ˆ ˆ,E E i B B i

38. An air bubble in sphere having 4 cm

diameter appears 1 cm from surface

nearest to eye when looked along diameter.

If 1.5a g , the distance of bubble from

refracting surface is

(a) 1.2 cm (b) 3.2 cm

(c) 2.8 cm (d) 1.6 cm

39. A person who can see things most clearly at

a distance of 10 cm requires spectacles to

enable to him to sec clearly things at a

distance of 30 cm. What should be the focal

length of the spectacles.

(a) 15 cm (Concave)

(b) 15 cm (Convex)

(c) 10 cm

(d) 0

40. Two slits are separated by a distance of 0.5

and illuminated with light of 6000 oA . If

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the screen is placed 2.5 m from the slits.

The distance of the third bright image from

the centre will be

(a) 1.5 mm (b) 9 mm

(c) 6 mm (d) 3 mm

41. A photosensitive metallic surface has work

function, hv0. If photons of energy 2hv0 fall

on this surface, the electrons come out with

a maximum velocity of 64 10 m/s. When

the photon energy is increased to 5hv0,

then maximum velocity of photoelectrons

will be

(a) 62 10 /m s (b) 72 10 /m s

(c) 58 10 /m s (d) 68 10 /m s42. In the phenomenon of electric discharge

through gases at low pressure, the coloured

glow in the tube appears as a result of

(a) excitation of electrons in the atoms

(b) collision between the atoms of the gas

(c) collisions between the charged particles

emitted from the cathode and the atoms of

the gas

(d) collision between different electrons of

the atoms of the gas

43. The total energy of an electron in the first

excited state of hydrogen is about -3.4 eV.

Its kinetic energy in this state is

(a) -3.4 eV (b) -6.8 eV

(c) 6.8 eV (d) 3.4 eV

44. Which of the following are suitable for the

fusion process ?

(a) Heavy nuclei (b) Light nuclei

(c) Atom bomb (d) Radioactive decay

45. Current in the circuit will be

(a)5

40A (b)

5

50A

(c)5

10A (d)

5

20A

CHEMISTRY46. Which has maximum number of

molecules?

(a) 7 gm N2 (b) 2 gm H2

(c) 16 gm NO2 (d) 16 gm O2

47. The following quantum numbers are

possible for how many orbital (s) n = 3, l =

2, m = +2 ?

(a) 1 (b) 3

(c) 2 (d) 4

48. Identify the incorrect statements among the

following :

(a) lanthanoids contraction is observed in

lanthanoid elements and their ions

(b) as a result of lanthanoids contraction,

the properties of 4d series of the transition

elements have no similarities with the 5d

series of transition elements

(c) shielding power of 4f electrons is quite

weak

(d) there is a decrease in the radii of the

atoms or ions as one proceeds from La to

Lu

49. H2O is dipolar, whereas BeF2 is not. It is

because

(a) The electro negativity of F is greater

than that of O

(b) H2O involves hydrogen bonding whereas

BeF2 is a discrete molecule

(c) H2O is linear an dBeF2 is angular

(d) H2O is angular and BeF2 is linear

50. If a gas expands at constant temperature, it

indicates that

(a) pressure of the gas increases

(b) number of the molecules of gas

increases

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(c) kinetic energy of molecules remains the

same

(d) kinetic energy of molecules decreases

51. Considering entropy (S) as a

thermodynamics parameter, the criterion

for the spontaneity of any process is

(a) system surroundingsS S be ve

(b) system surroundingsS S be ve

(c) systemS be zero

(d) surroundingsS be zero

52. Equilibrium constants K1 and K2 for the

following equilibria are related as

2 2 1

1;

2NO g O g NO g K

2 2 22 2 ;NO g NO g O g K

(a) 2 21

1K

K (b) 2

1

1K

K

(c) 22 1K K (d) 1

2 2

KK

53. H2S gas when passed through a solution of

cations containing HCl precipitates the

cations of second group in qualitative

analysis but not those belonging to the

fourth group. It is because

(a) the presence of HCl decreases the

sulphide ion concentration

(b) the presence of HCl increases the

sulphide ion concentration

(c) the solubility product of group II

sulphides is more than that of group IV

sulpides

(d) the sulphides of group IV cations are

unstable in HCl

54. Zn gives H2 gas with H2SO4 and HCl but

not with HNO3 because

(a) Zn acts as an oxidizing agent when it

reacts with HNO3

(b) HNO3 is weaker acid than H2SO4 and

HCl

(c) In electrochemical series, Zn is above

hydrogen

(d) 3NO is reduced in preference to

hydronium ion

55. The O – O – H bond angle in H2O2 (gas) is

(a) 106o (b) 109o28

(c) 120o (d) 94.8o

56. The alkali metals form slat like hydrides by

the direct synthesis at elevated

temperature. The thermal stability of these

hydrides decreases in

Which of the following orders ?

(a) KH > NaH > LiH > CsH > RbH

(b) NaH > LiH > KH > RbH > CsH

(c) LiH > NaH > KH > RbH > CsH

(d) CsH > RbH > KH > NaH > LiH

57. Which oxidation states are the most

characteristic of lead and tin respectively ?

(a) +2, +2 (b) +4, +4

(c) +2, +4 (d) +4, +2

58. In Dumas method of estimation of nitrogen

0.35 g of an organic compound gave 55 mL

of nitrogen collected at 300 K temperature

and 715 mm pressure. The percentage

composition of nitrogen in the compound

would be : (Aqueous tension at 300 K = 15

mm)

(a) 14.45 (b) 15.45

(c) 16.45 (d) 17.45

59. Which one is a nucleophilic substitution

reaction among the following ?

(a) 3 3CH CHO HCN CH CH OH CN

(b) 3 2 2HCH CH CH H O

3 3

|

CH CH CH

OH

(c) RCHO RMgX |

R CH R

OH

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(d)3

3 2 2 3

|

CH

CH CH CH CH Br NH

3

3 2 2 2

|

CH

CH CH CH CH NH

60. A strong base can abstract an hydrogen

from

(a) amine (b) ketone

(c) alkane (d) alkene

61. The chirality of the compound is

(a) R (b) S

(c) Z (d) I

62. The order of stability of the following

tautomeric compounds is

(a) III > I > II (b) II > I > III

(c) III > II > I (d) II > III > I

63. Using HCl and anhydrous AlCl3 as catalyst,

which one of the following reactions

produces ethylbenzene (PhEt) ?

(a) 3 2 6 6H C CH OH C H

(b) 3 2 6 6CH CH CH C H

(c) 2 2 6 6H C CH C H

(d) 3 3 6 6H C CH C H

64. Liquid hydrocarbon can be converted to a

mixture of gaseous hydrocarbon by

(a) oxidation (b) cracking

(c) hydrolysis

(d) distillation under reduced pressure

65. Green chemistry remains such reactions

which

(a) produce colour during reactions

(b) reduce the use and production of

hazardous chemical

(c) are related to the depletion of ozone

layer

(d) study the reactions in plants

66. the radioisotope tritium 31 H has a half-

life of 12.3 years. If the initial amount of

tritium is 32 mg, how many milligrams of it

would remain after 49.2 years ?

(a) 1 mg (b) 2 mg

(c) 4 mg (d) 8 mg

67. AB crystallizes in a bcc lattice with edge

length ‘a’ equal to 387 pm. The distance

between two oppositely charged ions in the

lattice is

(a) 335 pm (b) 250 pm

(c) 200 pm (d) 300 pm

68. A solution of urea (molar mass 56) boils at

100.18oC at atmospheric pressure. If Kf and

Kb for water are 1.86 and 0.512 K molality

respectively, the above solution will freeze

at

(a) -6.54oC (b) 6.54oC

(c) -0.654oC (d) 0.654oC

69. The electrolytic conductance is a direct

measure of

(a) resistance (b) potential

(c) concentration (d) dissociation

70. Standard free energies of formation (in

kJ/mol) at 298 K are -237.2, -394.4 and -

8.2 for H2O(l), CO2 (g) and pentane (g)

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respectively. The value of 0cellE for the

pentane – oxygen fuel cell is

(a) 0.0968 V (b) 1.0968 V

(c) 0.0968 V (d) 1.968 V

71. The reaction A B follows fist order

kinetics. The time taken for 0.8 mole of A to

produce 0.6 mole of B is 1 hr. What is the

time taken for conversion of 0.9 mole of A

to produce 0.675 mole of B ?

(a) 1 hr (b) 0.5 hr

(c) 0.25 hr (d) 2 hr

72. The rate constants k1 and k2 for two

different reactions are 1016 e-2000/T and 1015

e-1000T, respectively. The temperature at

which k1 = k2 is

(a)2000

2.303K (b) 2000 K

(c)1000

2.303K (d) 1000 K

73. Which of the following forms cationic

micelles above certain concentrations ?

(a) Sodium dodecyl sulphate

(b) Urea

(c) Sodium acetate

(d) Cetyl trimethyl ammonium bromide

74. Roasting of sulphides gives the gas X as a

by product. This is a colourless gas with

chocking smell of burnt sulphur and

causes great damage to respiratory organs

as a result of acid rain. Its aqueous

solution is acidic, acts as a reducing agent

and its acid has never been isolated. The

gas X is

(a) CO2 (b) SO2

(c) SO3 (d) H2S

75. Nitrogen can be purified from the

impurities of oxides of nitrogen and

ammonia by passing through

(a) conc. HCl

(b) alkaline solution of pyrogallol

(c) a solution of K2Cr2O7 acidified with

H2SO4

(d) a solution of KOH (aq)

76. Bleaching action of SO2 is due to its

(a) Oxidising property

(b) Acidic property

(c) Basic property

(d) Reducing propery

77. Which has the highest molar heat of

vaporization ?

(a) HF (b) HCl

(c) HBr (d) HI

78. Which of the following is monoatomic ?

(a) Nitrogen (b) Fluorine

(c) Neon (d) Oxygen

79. When HNO3 is dropped onto the palm and

washed with water, it turns into yellow. It

shows the presence of

(a) NO2 (b) N2O

(c) NO (d) N2O5

80. Which of the following pairs is coloured in

aqueous solution ?

(a) Sc3+, Co2+ (b) Ni2+, Zn2+

(c) Ni2+, Ti3+ (d) Sc3+, Ti3+

81. Atomic numbers of Cr and Fe are

respectively 24 and 26. Which of the

following is paramagnetic with the spin of

the electron ?

(a) 3

3 6Cr NH

(b) 5Fe CO

(c) 4

6Fe CN

(d) 6Cr CO

82. Which of the following does not have a

metal carbon bond ?

(a) 2 4 3K Pt C H Cl

(b) 4Ni CO

(c) 2 5 3Al OC H

(d) 2 5C H MgBr

83. Chloroform, when kept open, is oxidized to

(a) O2 (b) COCl2

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(c) O2, C2 (d) none of these

84. Consider the following reaction: Phenol

3 4

3

( )

( )

CH Cl i Alkaline KMnOZn dustAnhydrous AlCl ii H

X Y Z , the product Z is

(a) benzoic acid (b) toluene

(c) benzaldehyde (d) benzene

85. Reduction of aldehydes and ketones into

hydrocarbons using Zn – Hg + HCl (conc.)

is called

(a) Cope reaction

(b) Dow reaction

(c) Wolf-Kishner reaction

(d) Clemmensen reduction

86. Method by which Aniline cannot be

prepared is

(a) reduction of nitrobenzene with H2/Pd in

ethanol

(b) potassium salt of phthalimide treated

with chlorobenzene followed by hydrolysis

with aqueous NaOH solution

(c) hydrolysis of phenylisocyanide with

acidic solution

(d) degradation of benzamide with bromine

in alkaline solution

87. Methyl - -D-glucoside and methyl- -D

glucoside are

(a) epimers

(b) anomers

(c) enatiomers

(d) conformational diastereomers

88. Which one of the following is an example of

thermosetting polymer ?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

89. The ligands in anti-cancer drug cisplatin

are

(a) NH3, Cl (b) NH3, H2O

(c) Cl, H2O (d) NO, Cl

90. When bismuth chloride is poured into a

large volume of water, the white precipitate

produced is

(a) Bi(OH)3 (b) Bi2O3

(c) BiOCl (d) Bi2OCl3

BIOLOGY91. Biosystematics aims at

(a) The classification of organisms based on

broad morphological characters

(b) Delimiting various taxa of organism and

establishing their relationships

(c) The classification of organisms based on

their evolutionary history and establishing

their phylogeny on the totality of various

parameters from all fields of studies

(d) Identification and arrangement of

organisms on the basis of cytological

characteristics

92. Tobacco mosaic virus is a tubular filament

of size

(a) 300 × 10 nm (b) 300 × 5 nm

(c) 300 × 20 nm (d) 700 × 30 nm

93. Which of the following statements is not

true for retroviruses ?

(a) Retroviruses carry gene for RNA –

dependent DNA polymerase

(b) The genetic material in mature

retroviruses is RNA

(c) Retroviruses are causative agents for

certain kinds of cancer in man

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(d) DNA is not present at any stage in the

life cycle of retroviruses

94. In the prothallus of a vascular cryptogam,

the antherozoids and eggs mature at

different times

As a result

(a) Self – fertilization is prevented

(b) There is no change in success rate of

fertilization

(c) There is high degree of strerility

(d) One can concude that the plant is

apomictic

95. Select one of the following pairs of

important features distinguishing Gneutum

form Cycas and Pinus and showing

affinities with angiosperms

(a) perianth and two integuments

(b) embryo development and apical

meristem

(c) absence of resin duct and leaf venation

(d) presence of vessel elements and absence

of Archegonia

96. In Hydra, waste material of food digestion

and nitrogenous waste material removed

from

(a) Mouth and mouth

(b) Body wall and body wall

(c) Mouth and body wall

(d) Mouth and tentacles

97. One of the following is a very unique

feature of the mammalian body

(a) Presence of diaphragm

(b) Four chambered heart

(c) Rib cage

(d) Homeothermy

98. Pentamerous, actinomorphic flowers,

bicarpelary ovary with oblique septa, and

frit a capsule or berry are characteristic

features of

(a) Asteraceae (b) Brassicaceae

(c) Solanaceae (d) Liliaceae

99. A common structural feature of vessel

elements and sieve tube elements is

(a) Thick secondary walls

(b) Pores on lateral wall

(c) Presence of p-protein

(d) Enucleate condition

100. If a live earthworm is pricked with a needle

on its outer surface without damaging its

gut, the fluid that comes out is

(a) Slimy mucus (b) Excretory fluid

(c) Coelomic fluid (d) Haemolymph

101. In fluid mosaic model of plasma membrane

(a) Upper layer is non-polar and hydrophilic

(b) Polar layer is hydrophobic

(c) Phospholipis form a biomolecular layer

in middle part

(d) Proteins form a middle layer

102. Vacuole in a plant cell

(a) Lacks membrane and contains air

(b) Lacks membrane and contains water

and excretory substances

(c) Is membrane – bound and contains

storage proteins and lipids

(d) Is membrane – bond and contains water

and excretory substances

103. Which of the following statements regarding

enzyme inhibition is correct ?

(a) Competitive inhibition is seen when a

substrate competes with an enzyme for

binding to an inhibitor protein

(b) Non-competitive inhibitors often bind to

the enzyme irreversibly

(c) Competitive inhibition is seen when the

substrate and the inhibitor compete for the

active site on the enzyme

(d) Non-competitive inhibition of an enzyme

can be overcome by adding large amount of

substrate

104. Which one of the following structural

formulae of two organic compounds is

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correctly identified along with its related

function ?

(a) A: Lecithin –a component of cell

membrane

(b) B: Adenine –a nucleotide that makes up

nucleic acids

(c) A: Triglyceride – major source of energy

(d) B: Uracil –a component of DNA

105. In ‘S’ phase of the cell cycle

(a) amount of DNA doubles in each cell

(b) amount of DNA remains same in each

cell

(c) chromosome number is increased

(d) amount of DNA is reduced to half in

each cell

106. The ability of the Venus Flytrap to capture

insects is due to

(a) Rapid turgor pressure changes

(b) A passive process requiring no special

ability on the part of the plant

(c) Specialized “muscle-like” cells

(d) Chemical stimulation by the prey

107. An element playing important role in

nitrogen fixation is

(a) Molybdenum (b) Copper

(c) Manganese (d) Zinc

108. Which fractions of the visible spectrum of

solar radiations are primarily absorbed by

carotenoids of the higher plants ?

(a) Blue and green (b) Green and red

(c) Red and violet (d) Violet and blue

109. In leaves of C4 plants malic acid synthesis

during CO2 fixation occurs in

(a) bundle sheath (b) guard cells

(c) epidermal cells (d) mesophyll cells

110. During anaerobic digestion of organic

waste, such as in producing biogas, which

one of the following is left under graded

(a) Lipids

(b) Lignin

(c) Hemi – cellulose

(d) Cellulose

111. Which one of the following pairs is not

correctly matched ?

(a) IAA – Cell wall elongation

(b) Absicisic acid – Stomatal closure

(c) Gibberellic acid – Leaf fall

(d) Cytokinin – Cell division

112. Which one of the following mammalian cells

is not capable of metabolizing glucose to

carbon dioxide aerobically ?

(a) Red blood cells

(b) White blood cells

(c) Unstraited muscle cell

(d) Liver cells

113. If due to some injury the chordate

tendineae of the tricuspid value of the

human heart is partially non-functional,

what will be the immediate effect

(a) the flow of blood into the arota will be

slowed down

(b) The pacemaker will stop working

(c) The blood will tend to flow back into the

left atrium

(d) The flow of blood into the pulmonary

artery will be reduced

114. Uric acid is the chief nitrogenous

component of the excretory products of

(a) Frog (b) man

(c) Earthworm (d) Cockroach

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115. A person entering an empty room suddenly

finds a snake right in front on opening the

door. Which one of the following is likely to

happen in his neurohormonal control

system ?

(a) Hypothalamus activates the

parasympathetic divison of brain

(b) Sympathetic nervous system is activated

releasing epinephrine and norepinephrine

from adrenal cortex

(c) Sympathetic nervous system is activated

releasing epinephrine and norepinephrine

from adrenal medulla

(d) Neurotransmitters diffuse rapidly across

the cleft and transmit a nerve impulse

116. Which one of the following statements is

correct ?

(a) Neurons regulate endocrine activity, but

not vice versa

(b) Endocrine glands regulate neural

activity, and nervous system regulates

endocrine glands

(c) Neither hormones control neural activity

nor the neurons control endocrine activity

(d) Endocrine glands regulate neural

activity, but not vice versa

117. Top – shaped multiciliate male gametes,

and the mature seed which bears only one

embryo with two cotyledons, are

characteristic features of

(a) Gamopetalous angiosperms

(b) Conifers

(c) Polypetalous angiosperms

(d) Cycads

118. The fleshy receptacle of syconus of fig

encloses a number of

(a) berries (b) mericarps

(c) achenes (d) smaras

119. If mammalian ovum fails to get fertilized,

which one of the following is unlikely

(a) Estrogen secretion further decreases

(b) Progesterone secretion rapidly declines

(c) Corpus luteum will disintegrate

(d) Primary follicle starts developing

120. The part of fallopian tube closest to the

ovary is

(a) Isthmus (b) Infundibulum

(c) Cervix (d) Ampulla

121. The Leydig cells as found in the human

body are the secretory source of

(a) Glucagon (b) Androgens

(c) Progesterone (d) Intestinal mucus

122. The main function of mammalian corpus

luteum is to produce

(a) estrogen only

(b) progesterone

(c) human chorionic gonadotropin

(d) relaxin only

123. Which of the following events is not

associated with ovulation in human

female?

(a) LH surge

(b) Decrease in estadiol

(c) Full development of Graafian follicle

(d) Release of secondary oocyte

124. Which of the following cannot be detected

in a developing foetus by amniocentesis ?

(a) Klinefelter syndrome

(b) Sex of the foetus

(c) Down syndrome

(d) Jaundice

125. Two nonallelic genes produce the new

phenotype when present together but fail to

do so independently then it is called

(a) Epistasis

(b) Polygene

(c) Non-complimentary gene

(d) Complimentary gene

126. A gene is said to be dominant if

(a) It expresses its effect only in

homozygous stage

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(b) It is expressed only in heterozygous

condition

(c) It is expressed both in homozygous and

in heterozygous condition

(d) It is never expressed in any condition

127. Two crosses between the same pair of

genotypes or phenotypes In which the

sources of the gametes are reversed in one

cross is known as

(a) Test cross (b) Reciprocal cross

(c) Dihybrid cross (d) Reverse cross

128. A male human is heterozygous for

autosomal genes A and B and is also

hemizgous for hemophilic gene h. What

proportion of his sperms will be abh ?

(a) 1/32 (b) 1/16

(c) ¼ (d) 1/8

129. G-6-P dehydrogenase deficiency is

associated with haemolysis of

(a) Leucocytes (b) Lymphocytes

(c) Platelets (d) RBCs

130. Sickle cell anemia has not been eliminated

from the African population because

(a) It is controlled by recessive genes

(b) It is not a fatal disease

(c) It provides immunity against malaria

(d) It is controlled by dominant genes

131. Two genes R and y are located very close on

the chromosomal linkage map of maize

plant. When RRYY and rryy genotypes are

hybridized, the F2 segregation will sow

(a) Higher number of the parental types

(b) Higher number of the recombinant types

(c) Segregation in the expected 9:3:3:1 ratio

(d) Segregation in 3:1 ratio

132. Infectious proteins are present in

(a) Gemini viruses (b) Prions

(c) Viroids (d) Satellite viruses

133. When two unrelated individuals or lines are

crossed, the per romance of F1 hybrid is

often superior to both parents. This

phenomenon is called

(a) Metamorphosis (b) Heterosis

(c) Transformation (d) Sphcing

134. If both parents are carriers for thalassemia,

which is an autosomal recessive disorder,

what are the chances of pregnancy

resulting in an affected child ?

(a) no chance (b) 50%

(c) 25% (d) 100%

135. Fruit colour in squash is an example of

(a) Recessive epistasis

(b) Dominant epistasis

(c) Complementary genes

(d) Inhibitory genes

136. In his classic experiments on pea plants,

Mendel did not use

(a) Flower position (b) Seed colour

(c) Pod length (d) Seed shape

137. In negative operon

(a) Inducer binds with repressor

(b) Corepressor binds with inducer

(c) Corepressor binds with inducer

(d) CAMP have negative effect on lac operon

138. Which one of the following triplet codes is

correctly matched with its specificity for an

amino acid in protein synthesis or as ‘start’

or ‘stop’ codon

(a) UCG – Start (b) UUU – Stop

(c) UGU – Leucine (d) UAC – Tyrosine

139. The telomeres of eukaryotic chromosomes

consist of short sequences of

(a) Cytosine rich repeats

(b) Adenine rich repeats

(c) Guanine rich repeats

(d) Thymine rich repeats

140. In which mode of inheritance do you expect

more maternal influence among the

offspring ?

(a) Autosomal (b) Cytoplasmic

(c) Y-linked (d) X-linked

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141. Which one of the following pairs of codons

is correctly matched with their function or

the signal for the particular amino acid ?

(a) AUG, ACG – Start / Methionine

(b) UUA, UCA – Leucine

(c) GUU, GCU – Alanine

(d) UAG, UGA – Stop

142. The one aspect which is not a salient

feature of genetic code is its being

(a) Degenerate (b) Ambiguous

(c) Universal (d) Specific

143. Which one of the following is not a part of a

transcription unit in DNA ?

(a) A promoter (b) The structural gene

(c) the inducer (d) A terminator

144. An abnormal human baby with ‘XXX’ sex

chromosomes was born due to

(a) fusion of two sperms and on ovum

(b) formation of abnormal sperms in the

father

(c) formation of abnormal ova in the mother

(d) fusion of two ova and one sperm

145. Which of the following biomolecules does

have a phosphodiester bond ?

(a) Nucleic acids in a nucleotide

(b) Fatty acids in a diglyceride

(c) Monosaccharides in a polysaccharide

(d) Amino acids in a polypeptide

146. There is no life on moon due to the absence

of

(a) O2 (b) Water

(c) Light (d) Temperature

147. de Vries gave his mutation theory on

organic evolution while working on

(a) Oenothera lamarckiana

(b) Drosophila melanogaster

(c) Pisum sativum

(d) Althaea rosea

148. Animals have the innate ability to escape

from predation. Examples for the same are

given below. Select the incorrect example.

(a) Colour change in chameleon

(b) Poison fangs in snakes

(c) Melanism in moths

(d) Enlargement of body size by swallowing

air in puffer fish

149. Adaptive radiation refers to

(a) Power of adaptation in an individual to a

variety of environments

(b) Adaptations due to geographical

isolation

(c) Evolution of different species from a

common ancestor

(d) Migration of members of a species to

different geographical areas

150. Which one of the following statement is

correct ?

(a) Ontogeny repeats phylogeny

(b) Stem cells are specialized cells

(c) There is no evidence of the existence of

gills during embryogenesis of mammals

(d) All plant and animal cells are totipotent

151. Which one of the following in birds

indicates their reptilian ancestry ?

(a) Two special chambers crop and gizzard

in their digestive tract

(b) Eggs with a calcareous shell

(c) Homeothermy

(d) Four chambered heart

152. According to Darwin, the organic evolution

is due to

(a) Intraspecific competition

(b) Interspecific competition

(c) Competition within closely related

species

(d) Reduced feeding efficiency in one

species due to the presence of interfering

species

153. Industrial melanism is an example of

(a) Neo Lamarckism (b) Neo Darwinism

(c) Natural selection (d) Mutation

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154. Which one of the following conditions

though harmful in itself is also a potential

saviour from a mosquito borne infectious

disease ?

(a) Thalassemia

(b) Sickle cell anaemia

(c) Pernicius anaemia

(d) Leukemia

155. The ‘blue baby’ syndrome results from

(a) Excess of chloride

(b) Methemoglobin

(c) Excess of dissolved oxygen

(d) Excess of TDS (total dissolved solids)

156. To which type of barriers under innate

immunity, do the salvia in the mouth and

the tears from the eyes, belong ?

(a) Physiological barriers

(b) Physical barriers

(c) Cytokine barriers

(d) Cellular barriers

157. Select the correct statement from the ones

given below

(a) Barbiturates when given to criminals

make them tell the truth

(b) Morphine is often given to persons who

have undergone surgery as a pain killer

(c) Chewing tobacco lowers blood pressure

and heart rate

(d) Cocaine is given to patients after surgery

as it stimulates recovery

158. Motile zygote of Plasmodium occurs in

(a) Human RBCs

(b) Human liver

(c) Gut of female Anopheles

(d) Salivary glands of Anopheles

159. Which of the following viruses is not

transferred through semen of an infected

male ?

(a) Herpes simplex virus

(b) Hepatitis B virus

(c) Human immunodeficiency virus

(d) Chikungunya virus

160. The most likely reason for the development

of resistance against pesticides in insects

damaging a crop is

(a) Genetic recombination

(b) Directed mutations

(c) Acquired heritable changes

(d) Random mutations

161. Triticale, the first man-made cereal crop,

has been obtained by crossing wheat with

(a) Rye (b) Pearl millet

(c) Sugarcane (d) Barley

162. What is antisense technology ?

(a) When a piece of RNA that is

complementary in sequence is used to stop

expression

(b) RNA polymerase producing DNA

(c) A cell displaying a foreign antigen used

for the synthesis of antigens

(d) Production of somaclonal variants in

tissue cultures

163. “Jaya” and “Ratna” developed for green

revolution in India are the varieties of

(a) Bajra (b) Maize

(c) Rice (d) Wheat

164. Which one of the following pairs is wrongly

matched ?

(a) Coliforms – Vinegar

(b) Methanogens – Gobar gas

(c) Yeast – Ethanol

(d) Streptomycets – Antibiotic

165. What is true for monoclonal antibodies ?

(a) These antibodies obtained from one

parent and for one antigen

(b) These obtained from different parents

and for one antigen

(c) These obtained from one parent and for

many antigens

(d) These obtained from many parents and

for many antigen

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166. Transgenic plants are the ones

(a) Grown in artificial medium after

hybridization in the field

(b) Produced by a somatic embryo in

artificial medium

(c) Generated by introducing foreign DNA

into a cell and regenerating a plant from

that cell

(d) Produced after protoplast fusion in

artificial medium

167. Continuous addition of sugars in ‘fed batch’

fermentation is done to

(a) degrade sewage

(b) produce methane

(c) obtain antibiotics

(d) purify enzymes

168. Choose the correct sequence of stages of

growth curve for bacteria

(a) Lag, log, decline, stationary phase

(b) Lag, log, stationary phase

(c) Stationary, lag, log, decline phase

(d) Decline, lag, log phase

169. Which one of the following pairs is

mismatched ?

(a) Savanna – acacia trees

(b) Coniferous forest – evergreen trees

(c) Tundra – permafrost

(d) Prairie – epiphytes

170. Which one of the following is one of the

etheracteristics of a biological community ?

(a) Stratification (b) Natality

(c) Mortality (d) Sex-ratio

171. A biologist studied the population of rats in

a barn. He found that the average natality

was 250, average mortality 240,

immigration 20 and emigration 30. The net

increase in population is

(a) 10 (b) 15

(c) 05 (d) zero

172. A population will not exist in Hardy-

Weinberg equilibrium if

(a) the population is large

(b) individuals mate selectively

(c) there are no mutations

(d) thee is no migration

173. An ecosystem which can be easily damaged

but can recover after some time if damaging

effect stops will be having

(a) High stability and low resilience

(b) Low stability and low resilience

(c) High stability and high resilience

(d) Low stability and high resilience

174. The slow rate of decomposition of fallen

logs in nature is due to their

(a) anaerobic environment around them

(b) low cellulose content

(c) low moisture content

(d) poor nitrogen content

175. Given below is an imaginary pyramid of

numbers. What could be one of the

possibilities about certain organisms at

some of the different levels ?

(a) Level one PP is “papal trees” and the

level SC is “sheep”

(b) Level PC is “rats” and level SC “cats”

(c) Level PC is “insects” and level SC is

“small insectivorous birds”

(d) Level PP is “phytoplanktons” in sea and

“Whale” on top level TC

176. In an ecosystem the rate of production of

organic matter during photosynthesis is

termed as

(a) Net productivity

(b) Net primary productivity

(c) Gross primary productivity

(d) Secondary productivity

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177. Which of the following pairs of an animal

and a plant represents endangered

organism in India

(a) Bentinckia nicobarica and red panda

(b) Tamarind and rhesus monkey

(c) Cinchona and leopard

(d) Banyan and blackbuck

178. Which one of the following is an example of

exsitu conservation ?

(a) Wild life sanctuary

(b) Seed bank

(c) Sacred groves

(d) National park

179. Step taken by the Government of India to

control air pollution include

(a) Use of non-polluting compressed

Natural Gas (CNG) only as fuel by all buses

and trucks

(b) Compulsory mixing of 20% ethyl alcohol

with petrol and 20% biodiesel with diesel

(c) Compulsory PUC (Pollution Under

Control) certification of petrol driven

vehicles which tests for carbon monoxide

and hydrocarbons

(d) Permission to use only pure diesel with

a maximum of 500 ppm sulphur as fuel for

vehicles

180. Measuring biochemical oxygen demand

(BOD) is a method used for

(a) Measuring the activity of Saccharomyces

cereviscae in producing card on a

commercial scale

(b) Working out the efficiency of RBCs

about their capacity to carry oxygen

(c) Estimating the amount organic matter in

sewage water

(d) Working out the efficiency of oil driven

automobile engines

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NEET Date: 00-00-2017Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 720

PHYSICS1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (d)6. (c) 7. (d) 8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (c)11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (d) 14. (c) 15. (c)16. (a) 17. (a) 18. (a) 19. (b) 20. (a)21. (c) 22. (b) 23. (d) 24. (d) 25. (b)26. (d) 27. (b) 28. (c) 29. (c) 30. (d)31. (a) 32. (a) 33. (c) 34. (a) 35. (a)36. (c) 37. (d) 38. (a) 39. (a) 40. (b)41. (d) 42. (c) 43. (d) 44. (b) 45. (b)

CHEMISTRY46. (b) 47. (a) 48. (b) 49. (d) 50. (c)51. (a) 52. (a) 53. (a) 54. (d) 55. (d)56. (c) 57. (c) 58. (c) 59. (d) 60. (b)61. (a) 62. (c) 63. (c) 64. (b) 65. (b)66. (b) 67. (a) 68. (c) 69. (d) 70. (b)71. (a) 72. (c) 73. (d) 74. (b) 75. (c)76. (d) 77. (d) 78. (c) 79. (a) 80. (c)81. (a) 82. (c) 83. (b) 84. (a) 85. (d)86. (b) 87. (b) 88. (d) 89. (a) 90. (c)

BIOLOGY91. (c) 92. (c) 93. (d) 94. (a) 95. (d)96. (c) 97. (a) 98. (c) 99. (d) 100. (c)101. (c) 102. (d) 103. (c) 104. (a) 105. (a)106. (a) 107. (a) 108. (d) 109. (d) 110. (b)111. (c) 112. (a) 113. (d) 114. (d) 115. (c)116. (b) 117. (d) 118. (c) 119. (a) 120. (b)121. (b) 122. (b) 123. (b) 124. (d) 125. (a)126. (c) 127. (b) 128. (d) 129. (d) 130. (c)131. (a) 132. (b) 133. (b) 134. (c) 135. (b)136. (c) 137. (c,b) 138. (d) 139. (b) 140. (b)141. (d) 142. (b) 143. (c) 144. (c) 145. (a)146. (b) 147. (a) 148. (b) 149. (c) 150. (a)151. (b) 152. (a) 153. (c) 154. (b) 155. (b)156. (a) 157. (b) 158. (c) 159. (d) 160. (d)161. (a) 162. (a) 163. (c) 164. (a) 165. (a)166. (c) 167. (d) 168. (a) 169. (d) 170. (a)171. (d) 172. (b) 173. (d) 174. (b) 175. (d)176. (c) 177. (a) 178. (b) 179. (c) 180. (c)

PHYSICS

PHYSICS

PHYSICS

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pbonline

Typewritten Text

Model Grand Test

pbonline

Typewritten Text

KEY


HINTS & SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1.

2. Total distance to be covered for crossing

the bridge

= length of train + length of bridge

= 150 m + 850 m = 1000 m

3. Linear velocity v r

1 1 2 2,v r v r

[ is the same in both cases because

time period is the same]

1 1

2 2

v r R

v r r

4.

5.

6. Given I = 2 kg – m2, 0

602 /

60rad s

0, 60t s

The torque required to stop the wheel’s

rotation is

7. AS said, (KE)rot remains same

8. In the same orbit, orbital sped of satellites

remain same. When two satellites of earth

are moving in the same orbit, then time

periods of both are equal

From Kepler’s third law2 3T r

Time period is independent of mass, hence

their time periods will be equal.

The potential energy and kinetic energy are

mass dependent, hence the PE and KE of

satellites are not equal

But, if they are orbiting in the same orbit,

then they have equal orbital speed

9. Escape velocity

10. Bulk modulus

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11. Condition of insufficient length of capillary

tube1

hr

12. Energy per second 4QP T

t

13. Amount of energy radiated

(Temperature)4

14. Coefficient of performance

15.

16.

17. In simple harmonic motion, the

displacement equation is, y = A sin tWhere A is amplitude of the motion.

Hence, it is clear that when v is maximum,

then a is minimum (i.e., zero) or vice versa

18.

and since the source is stationary, so wave

length remains unchanged for observer

19.

20.

21. Two positive ions each carrying a charge q

are kept at a distance d, then it is found

that force of repulsion between them is

22. The given circuit can be drawn as follows

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23. Charge remains constant after charging. If

the battery is removed after charging, then

the charge stored in the capacitor remains

constant.

q = constant

As capacitance decreases, so potential

difference increases

24. If E is the electric field, then current

density j E

Also we know that current densityi

jA

Hence j is different for different area of

cross section. When j is different, then E is

also different. Thus E is not constant. The

drift velocity vd is given by

d

jv

ne =different for different j value.

Hence only current i will be constant

25. The formula for resistance of the wire is

lR

A

Where =specific resistance of the wire

lR

A

2

lR

r 2A r

21 1 2

22 2 1

R l r

R l r (i)

26.

27. The potential difference across ammeter

and shunt is the same

Let ia is the current. Flowing through

ammeter and i the total current. So, a

current i - ia will flow through shunt

resistance

28. The time period of electron moving in a

circular orbit

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Electric current corresponds to the

revolution of electron is

Magnet field at centre of circle

Hence

29. To move on circular path in a magnetic

field, a centripetal force is provide by the

magnetic force. When magnetic field is

perpendicular to motion of charged particle,

then

Centripetal force = magnetic force

That is

Further, time period of the motion

It is independent of both R and v.

30. In the sum and difference method of

vibration magnetometer

2 21 2 1

2 22 2 1

M T T

M T T

Here

31. Ferromagnetism decreases with rise in

temperature. If we heat a ferromagnetic

substance, then at a definite temperature

the ferromagnetic property of the substance

suddenly disappears and the substance

becomes paramagnetic. The temperature

above which a ferromagnetic substance

becomes paramagnetic is called the Curie

temperature of the substance

32.

33. Inductance of a coil is numerically equal to

the emf induce din the coil when the

current in the coil changes at the rate of 1

As-1.

If I is the current flowing in the circuit,

then flux linked with the circuit is observed

to be proportional to I, i.e.,

I

or LI (i)

Where L is called the self – inductance or

coefficient of self-inductance or simply

inductance of the coil.

Net flux through solenoid,

34.

35. In resonance condition, maximum current

flows in the circuit

Current in LCR series circuit

Where V is rms value of current, R is

resistance, XL is inductive reactance and XC

is capacitive reactance

For current to be maximum, denominator

should be minimum which can be done, if

XL = XC

This happens in resonance state of the

circuit, i.e.,

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1L

C

Or2

1L

C ….. (i)

Given, 1 61000 , 10 10 10s C F F

Hence,

2 6

10.1 100

1000 10 10L H mH

36. -rays are beams of fat electrons

37. E B

0 0 0 0ˆˆ ˆE i B j E B k

E B points in the direction of wave

propagation

38. v=1 cm, R = 2 cm

By using 2 1 2 1

v u R

39. for lens u = wants to sec = -30cm

and v = can see = -10 cm

40. Distance of the nth bright fringe from the

centre

41. Einsein’s photoelectric equation can be

written as

42. The discharge of electricity through rarefied

gases is an interesting phenomenon which

can be systematically studied with the help

of a discharge tube. In discharge tube

collisions between the charge particles

emitted from the cathode and the atoms of

the gas results to the coloured glow in the

tube.

43. Kinetic energy of electron

2

08

ZeK

r

Potential energy of electron2

0

1

4

ZeU

r

Total energy

2 2

0 08 4

Ze ZeE K U

r r

or2

08

ZeE

r

or E = - K

or 3.4 3.4K E eV

44. For nuclear fusion process the nuclei with

low mass are suitable

45. The diode in lower branch is forward biased

and diode in upper branch is reverse biased

5 5

20 30 50i A

CHEMISTRY

46. 2 g of H2 means one mole of H2, hence

contains 6.023 × 1023 molecules. Others

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have less than one mole, so have less no. of

molecules.

47. Quantum numbers n = 3, l = 2, m = +2

represent an orbital with 2 23 3xy x yd or d

48. In each vertical column of transition

element, the elements of second and third

transition series resemble each other more

closely than the elements of first and

second transition series on account of

lanthanoids contraction. Hence the

properties of elements of 4d series of the

transition elements resemble with the

properties of the elements of 5d series of

the transition elements

50. KE = 3/2 RT. (At any constant temperature

the KE of gaseous molecules remains the

same).

51. For a spontaneous process

52.

53. In qualitative analysis of cations of second

group, H2S gas is passed in the presence of

HCl. Therefore, due to common ion effect,

lower concentration of sulphide ions is

obtained which is sufficient for the

precipitation of second group cations in the

form of their sulphides due to lower value

of their solubility product (Ksp). Here fourth

group cations are not precipitated because

they require more sulpide ions for

exceeding their ionic product to their

solubility products which is not obtained

here due to common ion effect

54.

55. O – O – H bond angel in H2O2 is 94.8o

56. The tendency to form their hydrides, basic

character and stability decreases from Li to

Cs since the electropositive character

decreases from Cs to Li

57. the tendency to form +2 ionic state

increases on moving down the group due to

inert pair effect. Most characteristic

oxidation states for lead and tin are +2 and

+4 respectively.

58.

59. Nucleophile (-NH3) replaces other

nucleophile (-Br) in the reaction

60. Removal of H from ketone gives resonance

stabilized carbanion

61. Highest to lowest priority (Br > CH3) is clock

wise, i.e., R.

It’s Fisher projection

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63.

36 6 2 2 6 5 2 3

HCl AlClC H CH CH C H CH CH

64. Cracking converts liquid hydrocarbons to

gaseous hydrocarbons by cleavage of C – C

and C – H bonds

65. Green chemistry may be defined as the

programme of developing new chemical

products and chemical processes or making

improvements in the already existing

compounds and processes so as to make

less harmful to human health and

environment. This means the same as to

reduce the use and production of

hazardous chemicals.

66.

67. For body – centered cubic (bcc) lattice,

distance between two oppositely charged

ions,

68.

69. Because conductance is increased when

the dissociation is more

70.

71. For the reaction

2 3A B C D Rate constant of first – order reaction

(because 0.6 mole of B is formed)

Suppose t1 hour is required for changing

the concentration of A from 0.9 mole to

0.675 mole of B. Remaining mole of A = 0.9

– 0.675 – 0.225

72.

74.

76. SO2 act as bleaching agent due to its

reducing property

2 2 2 42 2SO H O H SO H

Coloured matter H Colourless matter

77. In case of HI due to large size of iodine

strong vander Waal forces are present.

Hence, it has highest molar heat of

vaporization

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78. Neon Ne is monoatomic and others (N2,

F2 and O2) are diatomic

79. 3 3 4 3 224 10 4 3Zn HNO Zn NO NH NO H O

80.

Hence, Ni2+ and Ti3+ are coloured in

aqueous solution due to the presence of

unpaired electrons in d-subshell

82. Al(OC2H5)3 contains bonding through O and

thus it does not have metal – carbon bond

83. Chloroform is oxidized to a poisonous gas,

phosgene (COCl2) by atmospheric gas

3 2CHCl O COCl HCl

84.

85. It is called Clemmensen reduction

86.

due to resonance C – Cl bond acquires

double bond character.

87. Methyl- -D-glucoside and methyl- -D-

glucoside differs at C-1, hence are called

anomers.

88. Thermosetting polymers undergo chemical

changes when heated and set to hard mass

when cooled, Exaple. Bakelite

89. Cis-diamminedichloroplatinum (II) (cis-

platin) is a widely used anticancer drug.

Ligands in cis-platin are NH3 and Cl

90.

S R I G A Y A T R I E D U C A T I O N A L I N S T I T U T I O N S - I N D I A

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