mar 2002 exams module 1

7/28/2019 Mar 2002 Exams Module 1

1/23

Feedback From Mar 2002 Module 1

Instruments

1. If you have a Radio altimeter system failure on approach to an airfield,what happens when it fails?

(a) height indication disappears *(on many types)(b) flashing red light(c) gives an audio tone * (on the Airbus)(d) gives a tone and a red flashing light

(Challenged with the CAA)

2. If the static source becomes blocked but the ram air source remainsopen how will the ASI react?

(a) it will behave like an altimeter(b) it will behave in the opposite sense to an altimeter *(c) it will continuously over read(d) it will continuously under read

3. With reference to fly by wire control system which of the followingstatements is correct?

(a) a computer inputs deviation data which outputs to the control

surface(b) a computer inputs deviation data which outputs to the servo

actuator *(c) a computer outputs deviation data which inputs to the control

surface(d) a computer outputs deviation data which inputs to the servo

actuator

4. What are the advantages of an electric float type fuel gauging system?

(a) cheap construction*(b) it compensates for manoeuvres(c) it compensates for temperature changes(d) it compensates for volume changes

5. An aircraft turns left on the taxyway. What are the turn and slipindications?

(a) needle left, ball left(b) needle left, ball right*(c) needle right, ball left(d) needle right, ball right

Bristol Groundschool March 2002 Module 1


2/23

6. At 120kts what angle of bank would you use for a rate one turn?

(a) 12(b) 18*(c) 25

(d) 30

7. How is torque normally measured?

(a) using oil pressure in a cyclicoidal(?) shaft in an engine gearbox*(b) using pulse transmitters on the driveshaft(c) using light beam diffraction patterns on the driveshaft(d) ?

(This is being challenged with the CAA)

8. What height is measured by the radio altimeter?

(a) The height of the lowest wheel above the ground*(b) The height of the aircraft belly above the ground(c) The height of the aerial above the ground(d) ?

4 other radalt questions including the width of the cone of transmission &does it sense altitude or height.

9. What does a modern pitot sensor measure? (3 points)

(a) Pitot pressure(b) Total and static pressure*(c) Total pressure(d) Static pressure

10. An angle of attack sensor senses:

(a) electrical output of vane deflection*(b) INS flight path difference compared to aircraft flight path(c) ?

(d) ?

11. A GPWS is required to be fitted to aircraft with a maximum certificatedtake-off mass of more than 15,000kg or having a maximum approvedpassenger seating configuration of more than 30 after the first of

January 1999. This applies to which aircraft?

(a) turbine*(b) piston(c) propeller(d) ?

(Challenged with the CAA)



3/23

12. What speeds are represented by the two ends of the white arc on anASI?

(a) VFE & VS0 *(b) VFE & VS1

(c) VLE & VS0(d) VLE & VS1

13. Is VM0 a

(a) TAS(b) EAS(c) CAS*(d) IAS*

(Being challenged with the CAA)

14. Which of the following describes a Machmeter method of operation?

(a) (P + S) S(b) (P - S) S(c) (P S) S*(d) (P + S) S

15. An overspeed warning system that reacts to VMO and MMO contains abarometric aneroid capsule:

(a) which is subjected externally to dynamic pressure and an

airspeed capsule which is subject to a static pressure(b) and an airspeed capsule subjected internally to static pressure(c) and an airspeed capsule subjected externally to dynamic pressure(d) which is subjected externally to static pressure and an airspeed

capsule which is subject to a static pressure*

16. What will happen on a direct reading magnetic compass as youdecelerate on a Westerly heading in the Southern hemisphere?

(a) It will indicate a turn to the South

(b) It will indicate a turn to the North *(c) Heading indication will remain the same

(d) ?

17. Where do you find 15.04 of drift?

(a) 0N(b) 20N(c) 45N(d) 90N *



4/23

18. The flight director gives you an

(a) instantaneous intercept track for a VOR(b) optimum intercept for a VOR *(c) ?

(d) ?

19. How many degrees of freedom does a Rate of Turn Indicator have?

(a) 0(b) 1 *(c) 2(d) 3

(one degree, two planes)

20. What does a Bourdon tube measure?

(a) Pressure *(b) Temperature(c) ?(d) ?

21. If you have a leak in the manifold pressure system what will beindicated on the manifold air pressure gauge?

(a) ambient pressure *(b) lower than ambient pressure

(c) higher than ambient pressure(d) ?

22. If you turn through 90 onto North from West in the Northernhemisphere at what indicated heading would you roll out?

(a) 330 *(b) 350(c) 010(d) 030

23. A vibration meter senses what?

(a) frequency(b) amplitude(c) ?(d) ?

(challenged, it senses amplitude & frequency and displays relative amplitude)

24. How is a go-around actioned?

(a) automatically

(b) manually on the overhead panel(c) on the throttles by the pilot *(d) ?



5/23

25. When does the Mach trim system operate?

(a) above a pre-determined mach number *(b) when the autopilot is engaged(c) as the centre of pressure moves forward on the wings

(d) at a set indicated airspeed

26. What is the yaw damper indicator showing?

(a) rudder action(b) pedal deflection(c) yaw damper action *(d) ?

27. How does TCAS indicate non-threatening other traffic?

(a) Solid white or blue diamond

(b) Hollow white or blue diamond *(c) Red square(d) Yellow circle

28. At FL330 with an air temperature of 40 what is the speed of sound?

(a) 594 kts *(b) 601 kts(c) 574 kts(d) 582 kts

29. In a closed loop feedback system what mechanism provides a largeoutput for a small input?

(a) a servo mechanism *(b) ?(c) ?(d) ?

30. If an autopilot is engaged with no control functions selected it willprovide:

(i) pitch control *

(ii) wing levelling *(iii) IAS/Mach hold(iv) VOR radial hold(v) Altitude hold(vi) aircraft stabilisation *

(a) ?(b) ?(c) ?(d) ?

(challenged)



6/23

31. In an automatic landing what is disconnected at about 50ft?

(a) the localiser(b) the glideslope *(c) the localiser and glideslope

(d) ?

32. During a full autoland with autopilot and autothrottle engaged whendoes it (the autopilot?)cease to control the aircraft?

(a) At the end of the landing roll *(b) as the aircraft flares(c) at Decision Height(d) at 200ft

33. During passage through the VOR cone of confusion what does theautopilot do?

(a) switch to heading mode(b) hold present heading *(c) ?(d) ?



7/23

Flight Planning

61 questions, 78 points

No altimetry questions, 5 questions on chart ED6 2 questions on climbs with still air distance and headwind given to

find ground distance

No relative velocity questions

8 10 questions on ICAO flight plan

3 CAT questions on different maps of Europe asking what severity.

All approach plate questions gave page numbers for reference

1. An aircraft is travelling from N80 E170 to N75 E011 with a heading of177 Grid. What is the final grid heading?

(a) 177 *

(b) 357(c) ?(d) ?

2. Use VFR chart ED6 to answer this question.An aircraft is positioned at N4758 E01015 (MEMMINGHAM). What is

the correct FIS frequency?

(a) 129.6 MHz(b) 126.95 MHz *(c) 135.6 MHz

(d) 117.2 MHz

3. Use VFR chart ED6 to answer this question.What is the STUTTGART (N4841 E009 13) ATIS frequency?

(a) 115.45 MHz(b) 119.05 MHz(c) 126.12 MHz *(d) 128.95 MHz

4. Use VFR chart ED6 to answer this question.What is the operating frequency for TANGO VORTAC (N4837

E00916)?

(a) 384 KHz(b) 115.45 MHz(c) 112.5 MHz(d) 113.8 MHz

5. Use EHI4(CAA map) to answer this question.What is the navigation aid Chioggia (N4504 E01217)?

(a) A VOR(b) A VOR/DME & NDB *(c) An NDB

(d) A VOR/DME



8/23

6. After landing at an alternate on a VFR flight plan ATCC must becontacted within:

(a) 5 minutes(b) 10 minutes

(c) 30 minutes(d) 60 minutes

7. Use the NAP chart to answer this question.What is the distance from Shannon to Gander?

(a) 1715 nm *(b) 1820 nm(c) 3430 nm(d) 2420 nm

8. Where would you get health & customs information from?

(a) AIP*(b) ATCC(c) Notams(d) Rad and Nav charts

9. Where would you find the hours for temporary Danger Areas?

(a) NOTAMS & AIP *(b) AIP(c) Rad and Nav charts

(d) SIGMETS

10. The term FEW used in a METAR indicates:

(a) 1 4 oktas(b) 1 2 oktas *(c) NOSIG(d) ?



9/23

General Navigation

60 questions, 90 points

1. The ratio of the ellipticity is 1/297. With this information the semi-major axis is 6956km at the equator, what is the semi-minor axis(poles)

(a) 6979 km(b) 6932 km*(c) 6902 km(d) 6872 km

(challenged, terms not in the LOs)

2. When is the maximum difference between the apparent solar day and

the mean solar day?

(a) December & June(b) March & September(c) February and November(d) ?

3. When is the sun at its aphelion?

(a) Start of January(b) Start of July

(c) ?(d) ?

4. What causes magnetic field variations?

(a) increasing field strength(b) decreasing field strength(c) annual movement of the poles*(d) ?

(challenged)

5. What are isogrivs?

(a) lines of equal magnetic dip(b) lines of equal grivation*(c) lines of equal variation(d) ?

6. What is the magnetic dip at the South (magnetic?)Pole?

(a) 0(b) 90*(c) 180(d) 360



10/23

7. Which statement is correct?

(a) The Magnetic Blue Pole is in Northern Canada*(b) The inclination depends on whether the magnetic equator is North

or South of the real Equator

(c) ?(d) ?

6 plotting questions over North And South Ireland using double DME arcs,radials, radials and DME.

3 questions using applications of the 1:60 rule

8. If you have an error of 1 from a VOR 200nm away how far off trackmight you be?

(a) 1 nm

(b) 2 nm(c) 3.5 nm*(d) 6 nm

9. What does INS need for wind calculations?

(a) TAS*(b) EAS(c) Mach Number(d) ?

10. What can be used to enter positions on all INS systems?

(a) Waypoint names(b) geographical co-ordinates*(c) hexidecimals(d) ranges and bearings

11. What do you call a system of gyros and accelerometers that is fixed tothe aircraft?

(a) Laser(b) Strapdown*

(c) Fixed(d) ?

12. What are the first three screens on an FMS that require data input?

(a) POS, RTE, DEP(b) IDENT, POS, RTE(c) IDENT, POS, INIT REF(d) POS INIT, RTE, PERF INIT*

(challenged) The feedback did not include answer (d) which is correct. The

sense of the question changes if the phrase that require data input is omitted,then it would be IDENT, POS INIT, RTE.



11/23

13. What is the symbol for an FIR boundary?

(a)(b)(c)

(d) ?

14. With a 60 difference in runway and wind direction, if the minimumheadwind is 10kt and the maximum crosswind is 35kt what are theminimum and maximum wind speeds?

(a) ?(b) ?(c) ?(d) ?

15. If you are standing at the South Pole which direction will you be facing?

(a) North *(b) South(c) East(d) West



12/23

Meteorolgy

92 Questions, 110 points

1. There is a cold pool over land during the summer. What weather wouldyou get associated with this?

(a) thunderstorms(b) fair weather Cu(c) CAVOK(d) snow showers

(Challenged. A high or low level cold pool, stationary or slow moving?)

2. You are flying FL180 at a constant true altitude in the northernhemisphere. With a geostrophic wind you would have:

(a) a crosswind left to right(b) a crosswind right to left(c) no crosswind(d) not enough information to answer the question

(true altitude was definitely used in the question)

3. Two charts were given covering the same period, one was temperatureand wind at FL390, one was a sig wx chart from FL100 to FL450. Thequestion asked the temperature over London at FL330. The wind and

temperature chart showed 45 at FL390, the sig wx showed thetropopause at FL300.choices were:

(a) -33C(b) -57C(c) -66C(d) ?

(If the trop is at FL300 the temperature should be constant above it. If it is

45 at FL390 it should also be 45 at FL330. This was not included in thefeedback as an answer but it might have been in the exam question)

4. What type of cloud would the precipitation type GR be found in?

(a) Cu(b) Cb(c) Ci(d) St



13/23

5. What is the most dangerous/hazardous cloud on a low level cross-country trip?

(a) St(b) Cb

(c) Altocumulus(d) ?

6. What is the most common cloud associated with tornadoes?

(a) St(b) Cb(c) ?(d) ?

7. What winds would you find between 10N and 20N over the midAtlantic?

(a) NE(b) SE(c) SW(d) NW

8. How are low level clouds formed immediately ahead of a warm front?

(a) Rain falling through warm air and evaporating(b) Rain falling through cold air and evaporating(c) Reduced radiation because of upper cloud cover

(d) ?

9. What cloud would you find in a squall line?

(a) Cb(b) Cu(c) ?(d) ?

10. What unit is windshear measured in?

(a) m/sec

(b) kt(c) kt/100ft(d) ?

11. What is the height/width ratio of a jetstream?

(a) 1:1(b) 1:10(c) 1:100(d) 1:1000



14/23

12. When is Darwin affected by tropical revolving storms?

(a) July(b) October November(c) December April

(d) ?

13. What is the validity of a TAF?

(a) 2 hours(b) 9 hours(c) It is stated on the TAF(d) 12 hours

14. Three aircraft report CAT on a flight to the ATCC. What is then sent outby the Met Office?

(a) SIGMET(b) SPECI(c) METAR(d) NOTAM

15. As a depression passes to the south of you in the Northern hemisphere

what will the wind do?

(a) back constantly(b) veer constantly(c) back then veer

(d) veer then back

16. Flying North to South above a jetstream in the southern hemispherewhat happens to the outside air temperature?

(a) It increases(b) It decreases(c) It stays the same(d) It increases then decreases

17. As a hurricane approaches the Caribbean it changes direction. Whichway will it go?

(a) It heads East(b) It heads West deep into the USA(c) It heads West then South East(d) It heads West then North East

18. Where would you find the worst aviation hazards in a tropical revolvingstorm?

(a) 600km away from the eye(b) in the centre of the eye

(c) in the walls of the eye(d) just around the eye?



15/23

19. The Bora is a cold airflow. Which sea does it blow onto?

(a) The Mediterranean(b) The Atlantic(c) The Adriatic

(d) The Agean

20. Where would you find the Chinook?

(a) The Rockies(b) ?(c) ?(d) ?

21. Where would you find the least precipitation with a Fohn wind over theAlps?

(a) South of the Alps with a Northerly wind(b) South of the Alps with a Southerly wind(c) ?(d) ?

22. Which is the worst aviation hazard?

(a) ,

(b)(c)(d) ?

(Challenged, if (c) is a mountain wave symbol it should not be cross hatched)

23. What is the most significant factor associated with an Equatorial Jet?

(a) Its direction(b) Its strength(c) Its width(d) Its height

(Challenged, could be (a) or (d))

24. What weather would you find over the Equator all year round?

(a) Continuous showers(b) Isolated thunderstorms and associated hazards(c) ?(d) ?

25. What is the effective way of making cloud disappear?

(a) Increase the temperature(b) Decrease the pressure

(c) Convection(d) Subsidence



16/23

26. You are flying over the sea at FL100 where the true altitude is 10,000ftand the QNH is 993HPa. Which of the following statements is true?

(a) The air mass below you is colder than ISA(b) The air mass below you is warmer than ISA

(c) ?(d) ?

27. The ICAO definition of light icing is:

(a) Conditions in which change of heading and/or altitude may beconsidered desirable

(b) Conditions in which change of heading and/or altitude isconsidered essential

(c) Conditions less severe than those in which change of headingand/or altitude may be considered desirable

(d) Conditions more severe than those in which change of heading

and/or altitude may be considered desirable

Options made up but (a) is moderate icing, (b) is severe icing and (c) is correct.(Appendix 1 to ICAO PANS-RAC)

28. What precipitation is associated with freezing fog?

(a) Supercooled fog(b) cold mist(c) ?(d) ?

29. What conditions are required to create hoar frost?

(a) small supercooled water droplets(b) large supercooled water droplets(c) water vapour(d) climbing after take-off through an inversion

30. What visibility would you find in an inversion?

(a) poor visibility because warm, moist air absorbs radiation(b) medium to poor visibility because of little vertical movement

(c) good visibility in showers(d) ?

31. When would you expect thunderstorms over central Europe in thesummer?

(a) Morning(b) Sunrise(c) Mid-afternoon(d) ?



17/23

32. Which thunderstorm moves the fastest?

(a) Thermal(b) Frontal(c) Circulating

(d) ?

33. Bombay in January is affected by the:

(a) North West Monsoon(b) South West Monsoon(c) South East Monsoon(d) North East Monsoon

34. What is the ratio of a warm front?

(a) 1:300

(b) 1:3000(c) 1:50(d) 1:150

35. How wide are microbursts and how long to they typically last for?

(a) 8km 5 15 minutes(b) 4km 2 5 minutes(c) 4km 5 10 minutes(d) 12km 10 15 minutes

36. When wind conditions are compared above and below the inversionlayer there is:

(a) a change of direction only(b) a change of direction and strength(c) a change of strength only(d) not enough information to be specific about changes

37. A METAR contains the following details:

....R26R/P1500N R26L/1500N.....NO SIG....

What are the weather conditions?

(a) visibility is improving(b) poor visibility due to water droplets(c) ?(d) ?



18/23

38. An air mass with a surface temperature of +15C and dew point +12Cpasses over water with a surface temperature of +5C. What type of fogwould be created?

(a) Advection fog

(b) Radiation fog(c) Sea fog(d) ?

39. When is RVR used to describe visibility?

(a) below 500m(b) below 1500m(c) below 2000m(d) below 3000m

40. The polar front occurs between which air masses?

(a) Arctic and Polar(b) Polar and Tropical(c) Arctic and Tropical(d) ?

41. Given the diagram below and with no other information when travellingfrom A to B which of the following statements is true?

B

Melbourne

A

(a) The wind is stronger at B than A(b) The wind strength is the same at both B and A

(c) The true altitude is higher at A(d) The true altitude is higher at B

42. At what latitude in the Northern hemisphere are predominantlywesterly winds found?

(a) 80N(b) 50N(c) 30N(d) 10N



19/23

43. In a warm occlusion which of the following occurs?

(a) The cold air undercuts the warm air(b) The warm air overrides the cold air(c) The cold air overrides the warm air

(d) The warm air undercuts the cold air

44. What is the maximum height of fog?

(a) 150ft(b) 1,500ft(c) 5,000ft(d) 10,000ft

45. What cloud type could you find at different levels in the atmosphere?

(a) Cumulus

(b) Stratus(c) Nimbostratus(d) Altostratus



20/23

Communications

28 questions each

1. When carrying out a missed approach procedure what is your radiocall?

(a) going around*(b) missed approach(c) overshooting(d) ?

2. What does the word CHECK mean?

(a) examine a system or procedure*(b) pass the following information

(c) ?(d) ?

3. What does NEGATIVE mean?

(a) No; or Permission not Granted; or That is not Correct*

(b) ?(c) ?(d) ?

4. What is the correct term for YES?

(a) YES(b) AFFIRM*(c) AFFIRMATIVE(d) YEP

5. What is the call sign suffix for an aerodrome approach control radardeparture?

(a) RADAR

(b) CONTROL(c) APPROACH

(d) DEPARTURE*

6. Which is the correct abbreviation of XY-ABC?

(a) XY-BC*(b) X-BC(c) X-ABC(d) XY-C



21/23

7. What should you do when asked Fastair 342 standby 118.9 for tower?

(a) Change frequencies(b) Wait and do nothing(c) Monitor Tower frequency*

(d) ?

8. When aborting the take-off what call should be made?

(a) aborting(b) stopping*(c) cancelling(d) ?

9. Readability 2 means

(a) Readable now and then *

(b) Readable but with difficulty(c) Readable(d) Perfectly readable

10. If the controller asks for flight conditions during a route what ispassed?

(a) Whether VFR or IFR(b) Whether VMC or IMC *(c) A description of the cloud and weather in sight of the aircraft(d) ?

11. What is QNH?

(a) The altimeter subscale setting that gives a reading of zero on theground

(b) The altimeter subscale setting that gives a reading of airfieldelevation on the ground *

(c) ?(d) ?



22/23

Human Factors

1. Glaucoma is a condition where the optic nerve is damaged. Which ofthe following is true?

(a) It is a family history condition(b) It is age related(c) It can be easily recognised at a medical and is easily remedied(d) ?

2. In relation to otic barotrauma which of the following is true?

(a) It occurs when increasing altitude(b) It is preceded by/causes pain in the ear(c) ?(d) ?

3. How many breath cycles does the average human take per minute?

(a) 4 per minute(b) 16 per minute(c) 32 per minute(d) 72 per minute

4 The anatomy of the ear consists of the which of the following?

(i) Malleus & stapes(ii) Two canals(iii) Eustachian tube(iv) Otolith(v) ?

(a) ?

(b) ?(c) ?(d) ?

(it might have been the whole ear, the middle or inner ear,)

5. The range of human hearing is:

(a) 20 150Hz(b) 20 150MHz(c) 20 150KHz(d) 20Hz to infinity

(we would have said 20Hz to 10KHz, this wasnt in the feedback, maybe itwas in the exam question)



23/23

6. Which part of the ear measures linear acceleration?

(a) Malleus(b) Otolith organ(c) Cornea

(d) Eustachian tube

7. What is the definition of stress?

(a) How a person deals with/feels about a situation(b) ?(c) ?(d) ?

8. Which of the following is found in the vestibular area?

(a) Two ventricles

(b) Ossicles *(c) Sicillies(d) 3 semi-circular canals *

(two correct?)

9. Which of the following best describes the situation of a pilot making anapproach to land in darkness with no reference lights?

(a) Will feel too high and overshoot (ducking up/out?)(b) Will feel too high and undershoot (ducking in?)

(c) Will feel too low and undershoot (ducking in?)(d) Will feel too low and overshoot (ducking up/out?)

(The ducking in/up/out bit confused the candidates)

mar 2002 exams module 1

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