imu-mock-2

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Passage 1: Organisations are institutions in which members compete for status and power. They compete for resource of the organisation, for example finance to expand their own departments, for career advancement and for power to control the activities of others. In pursuit of these aims, grouped are formed and sectional interests emerge. As a result, policy decisions may serve the ends of political and career systems rather than those of the concern. In this way, the goals of the organisation may be displaced in favour of sectional interests and individual ambition. These preoccupations sometimes prevent the emergence of organic systems. Many of the electronic firms in the study had recently created research and development departments employing highly qualified and well paid scientists and technicians. Their high pay and expert knowledge were sometimes seen as a threat to the established order of rank, power and privilege. Many senior managers had little knowledge of technicality and possibilities of new developments and electronics. Some felt that close cooperation with the experts in an organic system would reveal their ignorance and show their experience was now redundant. Q1. The theme of the passage is

(a) groupism in organizations

(b) individual ambitions in organizations

(c) frustration of senior managers (d) emergence of sectional

interests in organizations Answer: d Q2. "Organic system" as related to the organization implies its

(a) growth with the help of expert knowledge

(b) growth with input from science and technology

(c) steady all around development (d) natural and unimpeded growth

Answer: b Q3. Policy decision in organization would involve

(a) cooperation at all levels in the organization

(b) modernization of the organization

(c) attracting highly qualified personnel

(d) keeping in view the larger objectives of the organizations

Answer: c Q4. The author makes out a case for

(a) organic system (b) R&D in organizations (c) An understanding between

senior and middle level executives


(d) A refresher course for senior managers

Answer: a Q5. The author tends to the senior managers as

(a) ignorant and incompetent (b) a little out of step with their

work environment (c) jealous of their younger

colleagues (d) robbed of their rank, power

and privilege Answer: a Passage 2

Corduroy is fast establishing itself at this year's fabric, While the ribbed cotton itself provides utilitarian tenaciary, texture and warmth. it is the fabric's long held associations may provide a hint to its current revival as a fabric for all seasons.

It is Corduroy's link with the good breeding and country living that made it an essential ingredient in the gentleman's wardrobe along with Wellington boots and decent wooly. I combines the comfortable nonsense appeal of cotton with the perfectly correct luxury finish of velvet. Corduroy has the ability to appear either supremely sophisticated or rough and ready.

Q6. Which one of the following best describes the passage?

(a) It tells us about the usefulness of corduroy

(b) It talks us about the virtues of corduroy

(c) It persuades us to buy corduroy

(d) It makes us understand the everlasting appeal of corduroy to the young

Answer: b Q7. According to the author, the special quality of corduroy is that

(a) it needs no ironing (b) it combines the virtues of both

cotton and velvet (c) it contains the correct mixture

of cotton and velvet (d) both the rich and that not-so-

rich can afford to buy it Answer: d Q8. Corduroy is a fabric for all seasons because

(a) it can be worn not only in winter but also in summer

(b) of its peculiar texture and warmth

(c) it is made popular by catchy advertisements

(d) gentleman can wear it in both formal and informal occasions

Answer: a


Q9. According to the passage, corduroy is essential in a gentleman wardrobe because

(a) it goes with Wellington boots (b) its current revival gives a taste

of the latest fashion (c) it has its associations with

good upbringing and a conservative lifestyle

(d) it can be an idea alternative to the woolen clothes

Answer: c Q10. When the writer refers to corduroys utilitarian tenacity he means that

(a) though expensive, it is economic in the long run

(b) it is useful because it is durable (c) it has remained fashionable

over several years (d) it does not need frequent

washing Answer: b In each question below, there is a sentence of which some parts have been jumbled up. Rearrange these parts which are labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence. Q11. I enclose P: and the postage Q : a postal order R ; the price of books

S : which will cover The proper sequence should be

(a) RPSQ (b) QSPR (c) QSRP (d) QPSR

Answer: c Q12. We must read P: if we want to absorb the fruits of great literature Q: but with concentration R: them not as we do cricket stories S: undefined The proper sequence should be

(a) QPSR (b) PSQR (c) PRSQ (d) PRQS

Answer: a Q13. With her body P: dragging her unwilling feet Q: weak and infirm R: doubled with age S: she persisted in her mission The proper sequence should be

(a) PQRS (b) QPRS (c) RQPS (d) SRPQ


Answer: c Q14. The master P: who was very loyal to him Q: punished the servant R: without giving any valid reason S: when he left the work unfinished The proper sequence should be

(a) RQPS (b) RQSP (c) QPSR (d) QRPS

Answer: c Q15. All such students P: get success Q: who are honest and hard-working R: and recognition S: in every walk of life The proper sequence should be

(a) SPRQ (b) PRQS (c) QPRS (d) PSRQ

Answer: c Find the SYNONYM of the words in the following questions. Q16. UNCOUTH

(a) ungraceful

(b) rough (c) slovenly (d) dirty

Answer: b Q17. COMMENSURATE

(a) Measurable (b) Proportionate (c) Beginning (d) Appropriate

Answer; b Q18. DEBACLE

(a) Collapse (b) Decline (c) Defeat (d) Disgrace

Answer: a Q19. GERMANE

(a) Responsible (b) Logical (c) Possible (d) Relevant

Answer: d Q20. DISTINCTION

(a) Diffusion (b) Disagreement (c) Different (d) Degree

Answer: c


Find the ANTONYMS of the words in the following questions Q21. STRINGENT

(a) General (b) Vehement (c) Lenient (d) Magnanimous

Answer; c Q22. MINOR

(a) Big (b) Major (c) Tall (d) Heavy

Answer: b Q23. REVEALED

(a) Denied (b) Concealed (c) Ignored (d) Overlooked

Answer: b Q24. ESSENTIAL

(a) Extra (b) Noughts (c) Minors (d) Trivial

Answer: a Q25. HYPOCRITICAL

(a) Gentle (b) Sincere (c) Amiable (d) Dependable

Answer; b Q26. Who is the father of Geometry?

(a) Aristotle (b) Euclid (c) Pythagoras (d) Kepler

Answer: b Q27. What is common between Kutty, Shankar, Laxman and Sudhir Dar?

(a) Film direction (b) Drawing cartoons (c) Instrumental music (d) Classical dance

Answer: b Q28. Who was known as Iron man of India?

(a) Govind Ballabh Pant (b) Jawaharlal Nehru (c) Subhash Chandra Bose (d) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

Answer: d Q29. The Indian to beat the computers in mathematical wizardry is

(a) Ramanujam


(b) Rina Panigrahi (c) Raja Ramanna (d) Shakunthala Devi

Answer: d Q30. Jude Felix is a famous Indian player in which sport?

(a) Volleyball (b) Tennis (c) Football (d) Hockey

Answer: d Q31. The Homolographic projection has the correct representation of

(a) shape (b) area (c) bearing (d) distance

Answer: b Q32. The latitudinal differences in pressure delineate a number of major pressure zones which correspond with

(a) zones of climate (b) zones of oceans (c) zones of land (d) zones of cyclonic depressions

Answer: a Q33. The hazards of radiation belts include

(a) deterioration of electronic circuits

(b) damage of solar cells of spacecraft

(c) adverse effect on living organisms

(d) all of the above Answer: d Q34. The great Victoria Desert is located in

(a) Canada (b) West Africa (c) Australia (d) North America

Answer: c Q35. The intersecting lines drawn on maps and globes are

(a) latitudes (b) longituds (c) geographic grids (d) none of the above

Answer: c Q36. B.C. Roy Award is given in the field of

(a) music (b) journalism (c) medicine (d) environment

Answer: c


Q37. In which year was Pultizer Prize established?

(a) 1917 (b) 1918 (c) 1922 (d) 1928

Answer: a Q38. Gandhi Peace Prize for the year 2000 was awarded to the former President of South Africa along with

(a) Sathish Dhawan (b) C.Subramanian (c) Grameen Bank of Bangladesh (d) World Health Organisation

Answer; c Q39. Who has been awarded the first Lifetime Achievement Award for his/her contribution in the field of Cinema?

(a) Ashok Kumar (b) Hou Hsio-hsein (c) Akiro Burosova (d) Bernardo Burtolucci

Answer; a Q40. The prestigious Ramon Magsaysay Award was conferred upon Ms. Kiran Bedi for her execellent contribution to which of the following fields?

(a) Literature (b) Community Welfare

(c) Government Service (d) Journalism

Answer: c Q41. Who wrote the famous book We the people?

(a) T.N. Kaul (b) J.R.D. Tata (c) Khushwant Singh (d) Nani Palkhivala

Answer: d Q42. Who is the author of the book Nineteen Eighty Four?

(a) Thomas Hardy (b) Emile Zola (c) George Orwell (d) Walter Scott

Answer: c Q43. Which of the following is NOT written by Munshi Premchand?

(a) Gaban (b) Godan (c) Guide (d) Manasarovar

Answer: c Q44. Who is the author of the book Forbidden Verses?

(a) Salman Rushdie


(b) Abu Nuwas (c) Ms. Taslima Nasrin (d) D.H. Lawrence

Answer: b Q45. The lead character in the film The Bandit Queen has been played by

(a) Rupa Ganguly (b) Seema Biswas (c) Pratiba Sinha (d) Shabana Azmi

Answer: b Q46. The Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology is situated at

(a) Patna (b) Jaipur (c) Hyderabad (d) New Delhi

Answer: c Q47. Where is the Railway Staff College located?

(a) Pune (b) Allahabad (c) Vadodara (d) Delhi

Answer: c Q48. The Dilwara Temples are situated in

(a) Uttar Pradesh

(b) Rajasthan (c) Maharashtra (d) Madhya Pradesh

Answer: b Q49. Wadia Institute of Himalayan Geology is located at

(a) Delhi (b) Shimla (c) Dehradun (d) Kullu

Answer: c Q50. Bijapur is known for its

(a) severe drought condition (b) Gol Gumbaz (c) Heavy rainfall (d) Statue of Gomateshwara

Answer: b Q51. Find the odd term from the series 3, 5, 11, 14, 17, 21

(a) 21 (b) 17 (c) 14 (d) 3

Answer: c Q52. Two numbers are respectively 20% and 50% more than a third number. The ratio of the two numbers is:


(a) 2:5 (b) 3:5 (c) 4:5 (d) 6:7

Answer: c Q53. A sum of money is to be distributed among A, B, C, D in the proportion of 5 : 2 : 4 : 3. If C gets Rs. 1000 more than D, what is B's share?

(a) Rs. 500 (b) Rs. 1500 (c) Rs. 2000 (d) None of these

Answer: c Q54. Seats for Mathematics, Physics and Biology in a school are in the ratio 5 : 7 : 8. There is a proposal to increase these seats by 40%, 50% and 75% respectively. What will be the ratio of increased seats?

(a) 2:3:4 (b) 6:7:8 (c) 6:8:9 (d) None of these

Answer: a Q55. In a mixture 60 litres, the ratio of milk and water 2 : 1. If this ratio is to be 1 : 2, then the quanity of water to be further added is:

(a) 20 litres (b) 30 litres

(c) 40 litres (d) 60 litres

Answer: d Q56. Find the statement that must be true according to the given information. Vincent has a paper route. Each morning, he delivers 37 newspapers to customers in his neighborhood. It takes Vincent 50 minutes to deliver all the papers. If Vincent is sick or has other plans, his friend Thomas, who lives on the same street, will sometimes deliver the papers for him.

(a) Vincent and Thomas live in the same neighbourhood

(b) It takes Thomas more than 50 minutes to deliver the papers

(c) It is dark outside when Vincent begins his deliveries

(d) Thomas would like to have his own paper route

Answer: a Q57. Find the statement that must be true according to the given information. The Pacific yew is an evergreen tree that grows in the Pacific Northwest. The Pacific yew has a fleshy, poisonous fruit. Recently, taxol, a substance found in the bark of the Pacific yew, was discovered to be a promising new anticancer drug.


(a) Taxol is poisonous when taken by healthy people

(b) Taxol has cured people from various diseases

(c) People should not eat the fruit of the Pacific yew

(d) The Pacific yew was considered worthless until Taxol was discovered

Answer: c In questionQ58 to Q60, below is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true and on the basis of the information given in the statement, decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.

Q58. Statement: A large number of people in ward X of the city are diagnosed to be suffering from a fatal malaria type.

Courses of Action:

I. The city municipal authority should take immediate steps to carry out extensive fumigation in ward X.

II. The people in the area should be advised to take steps to avoid mosquito bites.

(a) Only I follows (b) Only II follows (c) Either I or II follows

(d) Both I and II follows Answer: d

Q59. Statement: Severe drought is reported to have set in several parts of the country.

Courses of Action:

I. Government should immediately make arrangement for providing financial assistance to those affected.

II. Food, water and fodder should immediately be sent to all these areas to save the people and cattle.

(a) Only I follows (b) Only II follows (c) Either I or II follow (d) Neither I nor II follow

Answer: b

Q60. Statement: Since its launching in 1981, Vayudoot has so far accumulated losses amounting to Rs 153 crore.

Courses of Action:

I. Vayudoot should be directed to reduce wasteful expenditure and to increase passenger fare.


II. An amount of about Rs 300 crore should be provided to Vayudoot to make the airliner economically viable.

(a) Only I follows (b) Only II follows (c) Either I or II follow (d) Neither I nor II follow

Answer: a Q61. Odometer is to mileage as compass it to

(a) speed (b) hiking (c) needle (d) direction

Answer: d Q62. Marathon is to race as hibernation is to

(a) winter (b) bear (c) dream (d) sleep

Answer: d Q63. Window is to pane as book is to

(a) novel (b) glass (c) cover (d) page

Answer: d

Q64. Yard is to inch as quart is to

(a) gallon (b) ounce (c) milk (d) liquid

Answer: b Q65. Cup is to coffee as bowl is to

(a) dish (b) soup (c) spoon (d) food

Answer: b Q66. Fill in the blank SCD, TEF, UGH, __, WKL

(a) CMN (b) UJI (c) VIJ (d) IJT

Answer: c Q67. Fill in the blank FAG, GAF, HAI, IAH, ____.

(a) JAK (b) HAL (c) HAK (d) JAI

Answer: a


Q68. Read each definition and all four choices carefully, and find the answer that provides the best example of the given definition. Applying for Seasonal Employment occurs when a person requests to be considered for a job that is dependent on a particular season or time of year. Which situation below is the best example of Applying for Seasonal Employment?

(a) The ski instructors at Top of the Peak Ski School work from December through March

(b) Matthew prefers jobs that allow him to work outdoors

(c) Lucinda makes an appointment with the beach resort restaurant manager to interview for the summer waitressing positing that was advertised in the newspaper

(d) Dougs ice cream shop stays open until 11 PM during the summer months

Answer: c Q69. Read each definition and all four choices carefully, and find the answer that provides the best example of the given definition. Violating an Apartment Lease occurs when a tenant does something prohibited by the legally binding document that he or she has signed with a landlord. Which situation below

is the best example of Violating an Apartment Lease?

(a) Tim has decided to move to another city, so he calls his landlord to tell him that he is not interested in renewing his lease when it expires next month

(b) Valerie recently lost her job and, for the last three months, has neglected to pay her landlord the monthly rent they agreed upon in writing when she moved into her apartment eight months ago

(c) Mark writes a letter to his landlord that lists numerous complaints about the apartment he has agreed to rent for two years

(d) Leslie thinks that her landlord is neglecting the building in which she rents an apartment. She calls her attorney to ask for advice

Answer: b Each question from Q70 to Q75 has an underlined word followed by four answer choices. You will choose the word that is a necessary part of the underlined word. Q70. Harvest

(a) autumn (b) stockpile (c) tractor (d) crop


Answer: d Q71. Desert

(a) cactus (b) arid (c) oasis (d) flat

Answer: b Q72. Book

(a) fiction (b) pages (c) pictures (d) learning

Answer: b Q73. Language

(a) tongue (b) slang (c) writing (d) words

Answer: d Q74. School

(a) student (b) report card (c) test (d) learning

Answer: a Q75. Pain

(a) cut (b) burn (c) nuisance (d) hurt

Answer: d Q76. Consider a set A of all determinants of order 3 with entries 0 or 1 only. Let B be the subset of A consisting of all determinants with value 1. Let C be the subset of A consisting of all determinants with value -1 then

(a) C is empty (b) B has as many elements as C (c) A = B, belongs to C (d) B has twice as many elements

as C Answer: b Q77. The number of triangles that can be formed with 10 points as vertices, n of them being collinear, is 110. Then n is

(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6

Answer: c Q78. In a polygon no three diagonals are concurrent. If the total number of points of intersection of diagonals interior to the polygon by 70 more than the number of diagonals of the polygon is


(a) 20 (b) 28 (c) 8 (d) none of these

Answer: a Q79. In a polygon the number of diagonals is 54. The number of sides of the polygon is


Answer: b Q80. ABCD is a convex quadrilateral 3, 4, 5 and 6 points are marked on the sides AB, BC, CD and DA respectively. The number of triangles with vertices on different sides is


Answer: d Q81. An 80-N crate slides with constant speed a distance of 5.0m downward along a rough slope that

makes an angle of 30 with the horizontal. The work done by the force of gravity is:

(a) -400 J

(b) -200 J (c) -69 J (d) 200 J

Answer: d Q82. An ideal spring is hung vertically from the ceiling. When a 2.0-kg block hangs at rest from it the spring is extended 6.0 cm from its relaxed length. A upward external force is then applied to the block to move it upward a distance of 16cm. While the block is moving upward the work done by the spring is:

(a) -1 J (b) -0.52 J (c) -0.26 J (d) 0.53 J

Answer: a Q83. Two trailers, X with mass 500 kg and Y with mass 2000 kg, are being pulled at the same speed. The ratio of the kinetic energy of Y to that of X is:

(a) 1:1 (b) 2:1 (c) 4:1 (d) 9:1

Answer: c Q84. An object is constrained by a cord to move in a circular path of radius 0.5m on a horizontal frictionless surface. The cord will break if its tension exceeds 16N. The maximum kinetic energy the object can have is:


(a) 4J (b) 8J (c) 16J (d) 32 J

Answer: a Q85. The weight of an object on the moon is one-sixth of its weight on Earth. The ratio of the kinetic energy of a body on Earth moving with speed V to that of the same body moving with speed V on the moon is:

(a) 6:1 (b) 36:1 (c) 1:1 (d) 1:6

Answer: c Q86. A 5.0-kg cart is moving horizontally at 6.0 m/s. In order to change its speed to 10.0 m/s, the net work done on the cart must be:

(a) 40 J (b) 90 J (c) 160 J (d) 400 J

Answer: c Q87. No kinetic energy is possessed by:

(a) a shooting star (b) a rotating propeller on a

moving airplane (c) a pendulum at the bottom of

its swing

(d) an elevator standing at the fifth floor

Answer: d Q88. A golf ball is struck by a golf club and falls on a green three meters above the tee. The potential energy of the Earth-ball system is greatest:

(a) just before the ball is struck (b) just after the ball is struck (c) just after the ball lands on the

green (d) when the ball reaches the

highest point in its flight Answer: d Q89. A 2-kg block is thrown upward from a point 20 m above Earths surface. At what height above Earths surface will the gravitational potential energy of the Earth-block system have increased by 500 J?

(a) 5 m (b) 25 m (c) 46 m (d) 70 m

Answer: c Q90. A 2.2-kg block starts from rest on a rough inclined plane that makes an

angle of 25 with the horizontal. The coefficient of kinetic friction is 0.25. As the block goes 2.0 m down the plane, the mechanical energy of the Earth-block system changes by:


(a) 0 (b) -9.8 J (c) 9.8 J (d) -18 J

Answer: b Q91. A force of 10N holds an ideal spring with a 20-N/m spring constant in compression. The potential energy stored in the spring is:

(a) 0.5 J (b) 2.5 J (c) 5 J (d) 10 J

Answer: b Q92. A 5-kg projectile is fired over level ground with a velocity of 200 m/s

at an angle of 25 above the horizontal. Just before it hits the ground its speed is 150m/s. Over the entire trip the change in the internal energy of the projectile and air is:

(a) +19000 J (b) -19000 J (c) +44000 J (d) -44000 J

Answer: c Q93. Block A, with a mass of 4 kg, is moving with a speed of 2.0 m/s while block B, with a mass of 8 kg, is moving in the opposite direction with a speed of 3 m/s. The center of mass of the two block-system is moving with a

velocity of:

(a) 1.3 m/s in the same direction as A

(b) 1.3 m/s in the same direction as B

(c) 2.7 m/s in the same direction as A

(d) 1.0 m/s in the same direction as B

Answer: b Q94. A light rope passes over a light frictionless pulley attached to the ceiling. An object with a large mass is tied to one end and an object with a smaller mass is tied to the other end. Starting from rest the heavier object moves downward and the lighter object moves upward with the same magnitude acceleration. Which of the following statements is true for the system consisting of the two masses?

(a) the center of mass remains at rest

(b) the net external force is zero (c) the velocity of the center of

mass is a constant (d) none of the above

Answer: d Q95. A 4.0-N puck is traveling at 3.0m/s. It strikes a 8.0-N puck, which is stationary. The two pucks stick together. Their common final speed is

(a) 1.0 m/s (b) 1.5 m/s


(c) 2.0 m/s (d) 2.3 m/s

Answer: a

Q96. A 2-kg cart, traveling on a horizontal air track with a speed of 3 m/s, collides with a stationary 4-kg cart. The carts stick together. The impulse exerted by one cart on the other has a magnitude of

(a) 0 (b) 4 N-s (c) 6 N-s (d) 9 N-s

Answer: b

Q97. Block A, with a mass of 2.0 kg, moves along the x axis with a velocity of 5.0 m/s in the positive x direction. It suffers an elastic collision with block B, initially at rest, and the blocks leave the collision along the x axis. If B is much more massive than A, the speed of A after the collision is:

(a) 0 (b) +5 m/s (c) -5 m/s (d) +10 m/s

Answer: c

Q98. Blocks A and B are moving toward each other along the x axis. A has a mass of 2.0kg and a velocity of 50m/s, while B has a mass of 4.0kg and a velocity of 25m/s. They suffer an elastic collision and move off along the x axis. The kinetic energy

transferred from A to B during the collision is:

(a) 0 (b) 2500 J (c) 5000 J (d) 7500 J

Answer: a

Q99. A uniform solid cylinder made of lead has the same mass and the same length as a uniform solid cylinder made of wood. The rotational inertia of the lead cylinder compared to the wooden one is:

(a) greater (b) less (c) same (d) unknown unless the radii are

given

Answer: b

Q100. A disk is free to rotate on a fixed axis. A force of given magnitude F , in the plane of the disk, is to be applied. Of the following alternatives the greatest angular acceleration is obtained if the force is:

(a) applied tangentially halfway between the axis and the rim

(b) applied tangentially at the rim (c) applied radially halfway

between the axis and the rim (d) applied radially at the rim

Answer: b

Q101. A thin circular hoop of mass 1.0


kg and radius 2.0 m is rotating about an axis through its center and perpendicular to its plane. It is slowing

down at the rate of 7.0rad/s2. The net

torque acting on it is:

(a) 7.0 Nm (b) 14.0 Nm (c) 28.0 Nm (d) 44.0 Nm

Answer: c

Q102. A 0.70-kg disk with a rotational

inertia given by MR2/2 is free to rotate on a fixed horizontal axis suspended from the ceiling. A string is wrapped around the disk and a 2.0-kg mass hangs from the free end. If the string does not slip, then as the mass falls and the cylinder rotates, the suspension holding the cylinder pulls up on the cylinder with a force of:

(a) 6.9 N (b) 9.8 N (c) 16 N (d) 26 N

Answer: b

Q103. A block is attached to each end of a rope that passes over a pulley suspended from the ceiling. The blocks do not have the same mass. If the rope does not slip on the pulley, then at any instant after the blocks start moving, the rope

(a) pulls on both blocks, but exerts a greater force on the heavier

block (b) pulls on both blocks, but exerts

a greater force on the lighter block

(c) pulls on both blocks and exerts the same magnitude force on both

(d) does not pull on either block

Answer: a

Q104. A disk starts from rest and rotates around a fixed axis, subject to a constant net torque. The work done by the torque during the second 5 s is

as the work done during the first 5 s.

(a) the same

(b) twice as much

(c) half as much

(d) four times as much

Answer: d

Q105. A thin-walled hollow tube rolls without sliding along the floor. The ratio of its translational kinetic energy to its rotational kinetic energy (about an axis through its center of mass) is:

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d)

Answer: a


Q106. A hoop, a uniform disk, and a uniform sphere, all with the same mass and outer radius, start with the same speed and roll without sliding up identical inclines. Rank the objects according to how high they go, least to greatest.

(a) hoop, disk, sphere (b) disk, hoop, sphere (c) sphere, hoop, disk (d) sphere, disk, hoop

Answer: a

Q107. A single force acts on a particle situated on the positive x axis. The torque about the origin is in the negative z direction. The force might be:

(a) in the positive y direction (b) in the negative y direction (c) in the positive x direction (d) in the negative x direction

Answer: b

Q108. A 2.0-kg stone is tied to a 0.50-m long string and swung around a circle at a constant angular velocity of 12 rad/s. The net torque on the stone about the center of the circle is:

(a) 0 (b) 6.0 Nm (c) 12 Nm (d) 72 Nm

Answer: a

Q109. A man, holding a weight in each hand, stands at the center of a horizontal frictionless rotating turntable. The effect of the weights is to double the rotational inertia of the system. As he is rotating, the man opens his hands and drops the two weights. They fall outside the turntable. Then:

(a) his angular velocity doubles (b) his angular velocity remains

about the same (c) his angular velocity is halved (d) the direction of his angular

momentum vector changes

Answer: b

Q110. A uniform sphere of radius R rotates about a diameter with an angular momentum of magnitude L. Under the action of internal forces the sphere collapses to a uniform sphere of radius R/2. The magnitude of its new angular momentum is:

(a) L/4 (b) L/2 (c) L (d) 2L

Answer: c

Q111. A playground merry-go-round has a radius of 3.0 m and a rotational

inertia of 600 kg m2. It is initially spinning at 0.80 rad/s when a 20-kg child crawls from the center to the rim. When the child reaches the rim


the angular velocity of the merry-go-round is:

(a) 0.62 rad/s (b) 0.73 rad/s (c) 0.80 rad/s (d) 0.89 rad/s

Answer: a

Q112. A particle, held by a string whose other end is attached to a fixed point C, moves in a circle on a horizontal frictionless surface. If the string is cut, the angular momentum of the particle about the point C:

(a) increases (b) decreases (c) does not change (d) changes direction but not

magnitude

Answer: c

Q113. To determine if a rigid body is in equilibrium the vector sum of the gravitational forces acting on the particles of the body can be replaced by a single force acting at:

(a) the center of mass (b) the geometrical center (c) the center of gravity (d) a point on the boundary

Answer: c

Q114. The location of which of the following points within an object might depend on the orientation of

the object?

(a) its center of mass (b) its center of gravity (c) its geometrical center (d) its center of momentum

Answer: b

Q115. A cube balanced with one edge in contact with a table top and with its center of gravity directly above the edge is in equilibrium with respect to rotation about the edge and in equilibrium with respect to rotation about a horizontal axis that is perpendicular to the edge.

(a) stable, stable (b) stable, unstable (c) unstable, stable (d) unstable, unstable

Answer: c

Q116. A 160-N child sits on a light swing and is pulled back and held with a horizontal force of 100 N. The magnitude of the tension force of each of the two supporting ropes is:

(a) 60 N (b) 94 N (c) 120 N (d) 190 N

Answer: b

Q117. A uniform plank is 6.0 m long and weighs 80 N. It is balanced on a sawhorse at its center. An additional


160 N weight is now placed on the left end of the plank. To keep the plank balanced, it must be moved what distance to the left?

(a) 6.0 m (b) 2.0 m (c) 1.5 m (d) 1.0 m

Answer: b

Q118. A uniform 240-g meter stick can be balanced by a 240-g weight placed at the 100-cm mark if the fulcrum is placed at the point marked:

(a) 75 cm (b) 60 cm (c) 50 cm (d) 40 cm

Answer: a

Q119: A window washer attempts to lean a ladder against a frictionless wall. He finds that the ladder slips on the ground when it is placed at an

angle of less than 75 to the ground but remains in place when the angle is

greater than 75. The coefficient of static friction between the ladder and the ground:

(a) is about 0.13 (b) is about 0.27 (c) is about 1.0 (d) depends on the mass of the

ladder

Answer: a

Q120. Youngs modulus is a proportionality constant that relates the force per unit area applied perpendicularly at the surface of an object to:

(a) the shear (b) the fractional change in

volume (c) the fractional change in length (d) the pressure

Answer: c

Q121. A certain wire stretches 0.90 cm when outward forces with magnitude F are applied to each end. The same forces are applied to a wire of the same material but with three times the diameter and three times the length. The second wire stretches:

(a) 0.10 cm (b) 0.30 cm (c) 0.90 cm (d) 2.7 cm

Answer: b

Q122. A 4.0-m long steel beam with a

cross-sectional area of 1.0 102 m2

and a Youngs modulus of 2.0 1011

N/m2 is wedged horizontally between

two vertical walls. In order to wedge the beam, it is compressed by 0.020 mm. If the coefficient of static friction between the beam and the walls is


0.70 the maximum mass (including its own) it can bear without slipping is:

(a) 0 (b) 3.6 kg (c) 36 kg (d) 710 kg

Answer: d

Q123. Two supports, made of the same material and initially of equal length, are 2.0 m apart. A stiff board with a length of 4.0 m and a mass of 10 kg is placed on the supports, with one support at the left end and the other at the midpoint. A block is placed on the board a distance of 0.50 m from the left end. As a result the board is horizontal. The mass of the block is

(a) zero (b) 2.3 kg (c) 6.6 kg (d) 20 kg

Answer: d

Q124. To shear a cube-shaped object, forces of equal magnitude and opposite directions might be applied:

(a) to opposite faces, perpendicular to the faces

(b) to opposite faces, parallel to the faces

(c) to adjacent faces, perpendicular to the faces

(d) to adjacent faces, neither parallel or perpendicular to

the faces

Answer: b

Q125. A particle might be placed

1. inside a uniform spherical shell of mass M, but not at the center

2. inside a uniform spherical shell of mass M, at the center

3. outside a uniform spherical shell of mass M, a distance r from the center

4. outside a uniform solid sphere of mass M, a distance 2r from the center

Rank these situations according to the magnitude of the gravitational force on the particle, least to greatest.

(a) all tie (b) 1,2,3,4 (c) 1 and 2 tie, then 3 and 4 tie (d) 1 and 2 tie, then 3, then 4

Answer: d

Q126. To measure the mass of a planet with the same radius as Earth, an astronaut drops an object from rest (relative to the planet) from an altitude of one radius above the surface. When the object hits its speed is 4 times what it would be if the same experiment were carried out for Earth. In units of Earth masses, the mass of the planet is:

(a) 2 (b) 4


(c) 8 (d) 16

Answer: d

Q127. An object at the surface of Earth (at a distance R from the center of Earth) weighs 90N. Its weight at a distance 3R from the center of Earth is:

(a) 10 N (b) 30 N (c) 90 N (d) 270 N

Answer: a

Q128. A spring scale, calibrated in newtons, is used to weigh sugar. If it were possible to weigh sugar at the following locations, where will the buyer get the most sugar to a newton?

(a) at the north pole (b) at the equator (c) at the centre of the Earth (d) on the Moon

Answer: d

Q129. A bucket of water is pushed from left to right with increasing speed across a horizontal surface. Consider the pressure at two points at the same level in the water.

(a) it is the same (b) it is higher at the point on the

left (c) it is higher at the point on the

right (d) at first it is higher at the point

on the left but as bucket speeds up it is lower there

Answer: b

Q130. A block of ice at 0 C is floating on the surface of ice water in a beaker. The surface of the water just comes to the top of the beaker. When the ice melts the water level will:

(a) rise and overflow will occur (b) remain the same (c) fall (d) depend on the initial ratio of

water to ice

Answer: b

Q131. (I) 1,2 dihydroxy benzene (II) 1,3- dihydroxy benzene

(III) 1,4-dihydroxy benzene (IV) Hydroxy benzene

The increasing order of boiling points of the above mentioned alcohols is

(a) I


(d) Chloro phenyl ketone

Answer: c

Q133. The direct conversion of A to B is difficult, hence it is carried out by the following shown path:

where e.u. is entropy unit, then

is

(a) +100 e.u. (b) +60 e.u. (c) -100 e.u. (d) -60 e.u.

Answer: b

Q134. If the bond length of CO bond in carbon monoxide is 1.128 Ao , then what is the value of CO bond length in Fe(CO)5?

(a) 1.15 Ao (b) 1.128 Ao (c) 1.72 Ao (d) 1.118 Ao

Answer: a

Q135. Which of the following reactants on reaction with conc. NaOH followed by acidification gives the following lactone as the only product?

Answer: c

Q136. The given graph represents the variation of Z(compressibility factor

=PV/nRT

) versus P, for three real gases A, B and C. Identify the only incorrect statement.

(a) for the gas A, a=0 and its dependence on P is linear at all pressure

(b) for the gas B, b=0 and its dependence on P is linear at all pressure


(c) for the gas C, which is typical real gas for which neither a nor b=0. By knowing the minima and the of intersection with Z=1, a and b can be calculated

(d) at high pressure, the slope is positive for all real gases

Answer: b

Q137. The smallest ketone and its next homologue are reacted with NH2OH to form oxime.

(a) Two different oximes are formed

(b) Three different oximes are formed

(c) Two oximes are optically active (d) All oxime are optically active

Answer: b

Q138. MgSO4 on reaction with NH4OH and Na2HPO4 forms a white crystalline precipitate. What is its formula?

(a) Mg(NH4)PO4

(b) Mg3(PO4)2

(c) MgCl2.MgSO4

(d) MgSO4

Answer: a

Q139. The coordination number of

Ni2+ is 4.

NiCl2 + KCN (excess) A (cyano complex)

NiCl2 + Conc. HCl (excess) B (chloro complex)

The IUPAC name of A and B are

(a) Potassium tetracyanoickelate (II), potassium tetracholoonickelate (II)

(b) Tetracyanopotassiumnickelate (II), teterachlorpotassiumnickelate (II)

(c) Tetracyanornickel (II), tetrachloronickel (II)

(d) Potassium tetracyanonickel (II), potassium tetrachloronickel (II)

Answer: a

Q140. B(OH)3 + NaOH NaBO2 + Na[B(OH)4 ] + H2O

How can this reaction is made to proceed in forward direction?

(a) addition of cis 1,2, diol (b) addition of borax (c) addition of trans 1,2 diol (d) addition of Na2HPO4

Answer: a

Q141. A solution when diluted with H2O and boiled, it gives a white


precipitate. On addition of excess NH4Cl/NH4OH. the volume of precipitate decreases leaving behind a white gelatinous precipitate. Identify the precipitate which dissolves in NH4OH/NH4Cl.

(a) Zn (OH)2 (b) Al (OH)3 (c) Mg (OH)2 (d) Ca(OH)2

Answer: a

Q142. In a crystal, the atoms are located at the position of _______.

(a) maximum potential energy (b) minimum potential energy (c) zero potential energy (d) infinite potential energy

Answer: b

Q143. Which of the following statement is NOT CORRECT?

(a) the number of carbon atoms in a unit cell of diamond is 4

(b) the number of Bravais lattices in which a crystal can be catgeorised is 14

(c) the fraction of the total volume occupied by the atoms in a primitive cell is 0.48

(d) molecular solids are generally volatile

Answer: b

Q144. A semiconductor of Ge can be

made p-type by adding _______ impurity.

(a) trivalent (b) tetravalent (c) pentavalent (d) divalent

Answer: b

Q145. To get a n-type semiconductor, the impurity to be added to silicon should have which of the following number of valence electrons?

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 5

Answer: b

Q146. In the Braggs equation for diffraction of X-rays, n represents _______.

(a) quantum number (b) an integer (c) Avogadros number (d) Moles

Answer: b

Q147. If a non-metal is added to the interstitial sites of a metal then the metal becomes _______.

(a) softer (b) less tensile (c) less malleable (d) more ductile


Answer: c

Q148. Which of the following shows electrical

conduction?

(a) Sodium (b) Potassium (c) Diamond (d) Graphite

Answer: d

Q149. The ratio of close-packed atoms to tetrahedral holes in cubic close packing is _______.

(a) 1:1 (b) 1:2 (c) 1:3 (d) 2:1

Answer: b

Q150. In the crystals, which of the following ionic compounds would you expect maximum distance between centres of cations and anions?

(a) LiF (b) CsF (c) CsI (d) LiI

Answer: c

Q151. Area of the greatest rectangle that can be inscribed in an ellipse (x2/a2)+(y2 /b2)=1 is

(a) 2ba (b) ab

(c) ab (d) a/b

Answer: a

Q152. If a vertex of a triangle is ( 1, 1 ) and the midpoint of two sides through this vertex are (-1, 2) and (3, -2), then the centroid of the triangle is

(a) (-1, 7/3) (b) (-1/3, 7/3) (c) (1, 7/3) (d) (1/3, 7/3)

Answer: c

Q153. The line parallel to the X-axis and passing through the intersection of the lines ax+2by+3b=0 and bx-2ay-3a=0, where (a,b) is not equal to (0,0) is

(a) below the X-axis at a distance 3/2 from it

(b) below the X-axis at a distance 2/3 from it

(c) above the X-axis at a distance 3/2 from it

(d) above the X-axis at a distance 2/3 from it

Answer: a

Q154. A circle touches the X-axis and also touches the circle with centre at (0,3) and radius 2. The locus of the center of the circle is

(a) an ellipse (b) a circle (c) a hyperbola


(d) a parabola

Answer: d

Q155. An ellipse has OB as semi minor axis, F and F its foci and the angle FBF is a right angle. Then the eccentricity of the ellipse is

(a) 1/2 (b) (c) (d) 1/3

Answer: a

Q156. Let A(2, -3) and B(-2, 1) be the vertices of a triangle ABC. If the centroid of this triangle moves on the line 2x+3y=1, then the locus of the vertex C is the line

(a) 2x+3y=9 (b) 2x-3y=7 (c) 3x+2y=5 (d) 3x-2y=3

Answer: a

Q157. If the system of linear equations x+2ay+az=0, x+3by+bz=0 and x+4cy+cz=0 has a non-zero solution, then a,b,c

(a) are in AP (b) are in GP (c) are in HP (d) satisfy a+2b+3c=0

Answer: c

Q158. The area of the region bounded by the curves y=|x-1| and y=3-|x| is

(a) 2 sq. units (b) 3 sq. units (c) 4 sq. units (d) 6 sq. units

Answer: c

Q159. The equation of the straight line joining the origin to the point of intersection of y-x+7=0 and y+2x-2=0

(a) 3x+4y=0 (b) 3x-4y=0 (c) 4x-3y=0 (d) 4x+3y=0

Answer: d

Q160. The equation of straight line passing through the intersection of the lines x-2y=1 and x+3y=2 and parallel to 3x+4y=0 is

(a) 3x+4y+5=0 (b) 3x+4y-10=0 (c) 3x+4y-5=0 (d) 3x+4y+6=0

Answer: c

Q161. If a,b,c and u,v,w are complex numbers representing the vertices of two triangles such that c=(1-r)a+b and w=(1-r)u+rv, where r is a complex number, then the two triangles

(a) have the same area (b) are similar (c) are congruent (d) none of these

Answer: b


Q162. Let a , b , c be distinct non-zero real numbers such that a2 , b2 , c2 are in harmonic progression and a , b , c are in arithmetic progression , then : (a) 2b2 + ac = 0 (b) 4b2 + ac = 0 (c) 2b2 ac = 0 (d) 4b2 ac = 0

Answer: a

Q163. Let aR+ and equation 3x2 +ax+3=0 is having one of the root as square of the another root, then 'a' is equal to :

(a) 2/3 (b) -3 (c) 3 (d) 1/3

Answer: c

Q164. Let A={y:4 y


(a) 2093 (b) 2009 (c) 2092 (d) 2091

Answer: c

Q169. If Mr. and Mrs. Rustamji arrange a dinner party of 10 guests and they are having fixed seats opposite one another on the circular dinning table , then total number of arrangements on the table , if Mr. and Mrs. Batliwala among the guests don't wish to sit together , are given by :

(a) 148(8!) (b) 888(8!) (c) 74(8!) (d) 164(8!)

Answer: c

Q170. Total number of ways in which a group of 10 boys and 2 girls can be arranged in a row such that exactly 3 boys sit in between 2 girls , is equal to :

(a) 1440(8!) (b) 720(8!) (c) 10(9!) (d) 180(8!)

Answer: a

Q171. Consider the letters of the word 'MATHEMATICS' , some of them are identical and some are distinct. Letters are classified as repeating and non-repeating , such as {M , A , T} is repeating set of letters and {H , E , I , C

, S} is non-repeating set of letters , answer the following question based on given information.

Total numbers of words , taking all letters at a time , such that at least one repeating letter is at odd position in each word is given by

(a) 9!/8 (b) 11!/8 (c) 9!/4 (d) 11!/8 9!/4

Answer: b

Q172. If three identical dice are rolled, then probability that the same number appears on each of them is :

(a) 1/6 (b) 1/36 (c) 3/28 (d) 1/18

Answer: c

Q173. Three numbers are chosen at random without replacement from {1 , 2 , 3 , ... , 10}. Probability that the minimum of the chosen number is 3 or their maximum is 7 , is given by :

(a) 3/10 (b) 11/40 (c) 11/50 (d) 27/40

Answer: b


Q174. Consider a bag containing six different balls of three different colours. If it is known that the colour of the balls can be white , green or red , then answer the following question.

The probability that the bag contains 2 balls of each colour is :

(a) 1/10 (b) 1/7 (c) 1/9 (d) 1/8

Answer: a

Q175. For a biased coin , let the probability of getting head be 2/3 and that of tail be 1/3. If An denotes the 33 event of tossing the coin till the difference of the number of heads and tails become 'n , then answer the following question.

If n = 2 , then the probability that the experiment ends with more number of heads than tails , is equal to :

(a) 3/5 (b) 4/5 (c) 5/9 (d) 4/9

Answer: b

Q176. Let 'S' be the set of all 33 symmetric matrices for which all the entries are either 1 or 2 , if five of these entries are 2 and four of them are 1 , then n(S) is equal to : ( n(S) represents the cardinal number of S )

(a) 10 (b) 12 (c) 20 (d) 18

Answer: b

Q177. Let 'S' be the set of all 3X3 symmetric matrices all of whose entries are either 0 or 1. If five of these entries are 1 and four of them are 0 , then answer the following question.

The number of matrices in 'S' is :

(a) 12 (b) 6 (c) 9 (d) 3

Answer: a

Q178. In the value od 100! the number of zeroes at the end are

(a) 11 (b) 22 (c) 23 (d) 24

Answer: d Q179. The sum of all the proper divisors of 9900 is


Answer: c


Q180. The sum of all odd proper divisors of 360 is


Answer: a Q181. In the sequence 1, 2, 2, 3, 3, 3, 4, 4, 4, 4, where n consecutive terms have the value n, the 150th term is


Answer: a Q182. The number of terms common between the series 1+2+4+8+ to 100 terms and 1+4+7+10+ to 100 terms is


Answer: d Q183. The 10th common term between the series 3+7+11+ and 1+6+11+.. is

(a) 191 (b) 193 (c) 211

(d) none of these Answer: a Q184. If three numbers are in GP then the numbers obtained by adding the middle number to each of the three numbers are in

(a) AP (b) GP (c) HP (d) None of these

Answer: c Q185. If a, b, c, d are four numbers such that the first three are in AP while the last three are in HP then

(a) bc=ad (b) ac=bd (c) ab=cd (d) none of these

Answer: a Q186. If the first two terms of an HP be 2/5 and 12/23 then the largest positive term of the progression is the

(a) 6th term (b) 7th term (c) 5th term (d) 8th term

Answer: c Q187. If x, 2y, 3z are in AP, where the distinct number x, y, z are in GP, then the common ratio of the GP is


(a) 3 (b) 1/3 (c) 2 (d)

Answer: b Q188. From a group of persons the number of ways of selecting 5 persons is equal to that of 8 persons. The number of persons in the group is

(a) 13 (b) 40 (c) 18 (d) 21

Answer: a Q189. The total number of 9-digit numbers of different digits is

(a) 10(9!) (b) 8(9!) (c) 9(9!) (d) none of these

Answer: c

Q190. Seven different lecturers are to deliver lectures in seven periods of a class on a particular day. A, B and C are three of the lecturers. The number of ways in which a routine for the day can be made such that A delivers his lecture before B, and B before C, is

(a) 420 (b) 120

(c) 210 (d) none of these

Answer: d Q191. A 5-digit number divisible by 3 is to be formed using the digits 0, 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 without repetition. The total number of ways in which this can be done is

(a) 216 (b) 600 (c) 240 (d) 3125

Answer: a Q192. Let A={x|x is a prime number and x


Q194. The number of numbers of four different digits that can be formed from the digits of the number 12356 such that the numbers are divisible by 4, is

(a) 36 (b) 48 (c) 12 (d) 24

Answer: a Q195. The number of numbers divisible by 3 that can be formed by four different digits is


Answer: b Q196. The number of 5-digit even numbers that can be made with the digits 0, 1, 2 and 3 is


Answer: a Q197. The number of words that can be made by rearranging the letters of the word APRUBA so that the vowels and consonants alternate is


Answer: c Q198. In the decimal system of numeration the number of 6-digit numbers in which the digit in any place is greater than the digit to the left of it is


Answer: b Q199. In the decimal system of numeration the number of 6-digit numbers in which the sum of the digits is divisible by 5 is


Answer: a Q200. The sum of all the numbers of four different digits that can be made by using the digits 0, 1, 2 and 3 is



Answer: c

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