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Test Paper : I Test Subject : GENERAL PAPER Test Subject Code : K-0014 Test booklet Code : W Test Booklet Serial No. : ______________________ OMR Sheet No. : _______________________________ Roll No. (Figures as per admission card) Name & Signature of Invigilator/s Signature: _________________________________ Signature : __________________________________ Name : __________________________________ Name : __________________________________ Paper : I Subject : GENERAL PAPER Time : 1 Hour 15 Minutes Maximum Marks : 100 Number of Pages in this Booklet : 24 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 60 A»Ü¦ìWÜÚWæ ÓÜãaÜ®æWÜÙÜá 1. D ±Üâo¨Ü ÊæáàÆᤩ¿áÈÉ J¨ÜXst ÓܧÙܨÜÈÉ ¯ÊÜá¾ ÃæãàÇ ®ÜíÃÜ®Üá° ÃæÀáÄ. 2. D ±Ü£ÅPæ¿áá (60) AÃÜáÊÜñÜᤠÖÜá BÁáR Ë«Ü¨Ü ±ÜÅÍæ °WÜÙÜ®æã°ÙÜWæãíw¨æ . CÊÜâWÜÙÜÈÉ®Ü ¿ÞÊÜâ¨Ý¨ÜÃÜã 50 (IÊÜñÜᤠ) ±ÜÅÍæ°WÜÙÜ®Üá° A»Ü¦ì¿áá EñܤÄÓܸæàPÝX¨æ . A»Ü¦ì¿áá 50 QRíñÜ ÖæaÜác ±ÜÅÍæ °WÜÙÜ®Üá° EñܤÄst ±ÜPÜÒ¨ÜÈÉ , A»Ü¦ì¿áá EñܤÄst Êæã¨ÜÆ IÊÜñÜᤠ±ÜÅÍæ°WÜÙÜ ÊÜåèÆÂÊÜÞ±Ü®Ü ÊÜÞvÜÇÝWÜáñܤ¨æ . 3. ±ÜÄàPæÒ ±ÝÅÃÜí»ÜÊݨÝWÜ, ±ÜÅÍæ° ±ÜâÔ¤Pæ¿á®Üá° ¯ÊÜáWæ ¯àvÜÇÝWÜáÊÜâ¨Üá. Êæã¨ÜÆ 5 ¯ËáÐÜWÜÙÜÈÉ ¯àÊÜâ ±ÜâÔ¤Pæ¿á®Üá° ñæÃæ¿áÆá ÊÜáñÜᤠPæÙÜX®Üíñæ PÜvÝx¿áÊÝX ±ÜÄàQÒÓÜÆá PæãàÃÜÇÝX¨æ . i) ±ÜÅÍæ ° ±ÜâÔ¤PæWæ ±ÜÅÊæàÍÝÊÜPÝÍÜ ±Üvæ¿áÆá, D Öæã©Pæ ±Üâo¨Ü Aíb®Ü ÊæáàÈÃÜáÊÜ ±æà±Üà ÔàÆ®Üá° ÖÜÄÀáÄ. ÔrPÜRà ÔàÇ CÆÉ¨Ü ±ÜÅÍæ ° ±ÜâÔ¤Pæ ÔÌàPÜÄÓܸæàw. ñæÃæ¨Ü ±ÜâÔ¤Pæ¿á®Üá° ÔÌàPÜÄÓܸæàw. ii) ±ÜâÔ¤Pæ¿áÈÉ®Ü ±ÜÅÍæ°WÜÙÜ ÓÜíTæ ÊÜáñÜᤠ±ÜâoWÜÙÜ ÓÜíTæ¿á®Üá° ÊÜááS±Üâo¨Ü ÊæáàÇæ ÊÜáá©Åst ÊÜÞ×£Áãí©Wæ ñÝÙæ ®æãàwÄ. ±ÜâoWÜÙÜá/±ÜÅÍæ°WÜÙÜá PÝOæ¿Þ¨Ü, A¥ÜÊÝ ©Ì±ÜÅ£ A¥ÜÊÝ A®ÜáPÜÅÊÜáÊÝXÆÉ¨Ü A¥ÜÊÝ CñÜÃÜ ¿ÞÊÜâ¨æà ÊÜÂñÝÂÓÜ¨Ü ¨æãàÐܱÜäÄñÜ ±ÜâÔ¤Pæ¿á®Üá° PÜãvÜÇæ 5¯ËáÐÜ¨Ü AÊÜ JÙÜWæ ÓÜíËàPÜÒPÜÄí¨Ü ÓÜÄ CÃÜáÊÜ ±ÜâÔ¤PæWæ ¨ÜÇÝÀáÔPæãÙÜÛ¸æàPÜá. B ÚPÜ ±Ü ÅÍæ ° ±Ü âÔ¤Pæ ¿á®Ü á° ¨Ü ÇÝÀáÓÜ ÇÝWÜ áÊÜ â©ÆÉ , ¿ÞÊÜ â¨æ à Öæ aÜ ác ÓÜ ÊÜ á¿áÊÜ ®Ü ã° PæãvÜÇÝWÜáÊÜâ©ÆÉ . 4. ±ÜÅ£Áãí¨Üá ±ÜÅÍæ°WÜã (A), (B), (C) ÊÜáñÜᤠ(D) Gí¨Üá WÜáÄ£Ô¨Ü ®ÝÆáR ±Ü¿Þì¿á EñܤÃÜWÜÚÊæ . ¯àÊÜâ, ±ÜÅÍæ°¿á G¨ÜáÃÜá ÓÜÄ¿Þ¨Ü EñܤÃÜ¨Ü ÊæáàÇæ, PæÙÜWæ PÝ~Ô¨Üíñæ, AívÝPÜꣿá®Üá° PܱݳXÓܸæàPÜá. E¨ÝÖÜÃÜOæ : A B C D (C) ÓÜÄ¿Þ¨Ü EñܤÃÜÊÝX¨ÝªWÜ . 5. ±ÜÅÍæ° ±Ü£ÅPæ I ÃÜÈÉ PæãqrÃÜáÊÜ OMR EñܤÃÜ ÖÝÙæ¿áÈÉ , ±ÜÅÍæ° ±Ü£ÅPæ I ÊÜáñÜᤠ±ÜÅÍæ° ±Ü£ÅPæ II ÃÜÈÉ CÃÜáÊÜ ±ÜÅÍæ°WÜÚWæ ¯ÊÜá¾ EñܤÃÜWÜÙÜ®Üá° ÓÜãbÓÜñÜPÜR¨Üáª. OMR EñܤÃÜ ÖÝÙæ¿áÈÉ AívÝPÜꣿáÆÉ¨æ ¸æàÃæ ¿ÞÊÜâ¨æà ÓܧÙܨÜÈÉ EñܤÃÜÊÜ®Üá° WÜáÃÜá£Ô¨ÜÃæ, A¨ÜÃÜ ÊÜåèÆÂÊÜÞ±Ü®Ü ÊÜÞvÜÇÝWÜáÊÜâ©ÆÉ. 6. OMR EñܤÃÜ ÖÝÙæ¿áÈÉ Pæãor ÓÜãaÜ®æWÜÙÜ®Üá° hÝWÜÃÜãPÜñæÀáí¨Ü K©Ä. ±ÜÅÍæ °±ÜâÔ¤Pæ Jí¨ÜÃÜÈÉ PæãqrÃÜáÊÜ ±ÜâÔ¤Pæ ÓÜíPæàñÜÊÜ®Üá° OMR ÖÝÙæ¿áÈÉ PÜvÝx¿áÊÝX ®ÜÊÜáã©ÓܸæàPÜá. 7. GÇÝÉ PÜÃÜvÜá PæÆÓÜÊÜ®Üá° ±ÜâÔ¤Pæ¿á Pæã®æ¿áÈÉ ÊÜÞvÜñÜPÜR¨Ü᪠. 8. ¯ÊÜá¾ WÜáÃÜáñÜ®Üá° ×ÃÜíWܱÜwÓÜÖÜá¨Ý¨Ü ¯ÊÜá¾ ÖæÓÜÃÜá A¥ÜÊÝ ¿ÞÊÜâ¨æà bÖæ°¿á®Üá° , ÓÜíWÜñÜÊÝ¨Ü ÓܧÙÜ ÖæãÃÜñÜá ±ÜwÔ, EñܤÃÜ ÖÝÙæ¿á ¿ÞÊÜâ¨æà »ÝWܨÜÈÉ Ãæ¨ÜÃæ, ¯àÊÜâ A®ÜÖÜìñæWæ ¸Ý«ÜÂÃÝWÜᣤàÄ. 9. ±ÜÄàPæÒ¿áá ÊÜááX¨Ü®ÜíñÜÃÜ, PÜvÝx¿áÊÝX OMR EñܤÃÜ ÖÝÙæ¿á®Üá° ÓÜíËàPÜÒPÜÄWæ ¯àÊÜâ ×í£ÃÜáXÓܸæàPÜá ÊÜáñÜᤠ±ÜÄàPÝÒ PæãsÜw¿á ÖæãÃÜWæ OMR ®Üá° ¯Êæã¾í©Wæ Pæãívæã¿á PÜãvܨÜá. 10. ±ÜÄàPæÒ¿á ®ÜíñÜÃÜ, ±ÜÄàPÝÒ ±ÜÅÍæ ° ±Ü£ÅPæ¿á®Üá° ÊÜáñÜᤠ®ÜPÜÆá OMR EñܤÃÜ ÖÝÙæ¿á®Üá° ¯Êæã¾í©Wæ ñæWæ¨ÜáPæãívÜá ÖæãàWÜÖÜá¨Üá. 11. ¯àÈ/PܱÜâ³ ¸ÝDZÝÀáíp ±æ® ÊÜÞñÜÅÊæà E±ÜÁãàXÔÄ. 12. PÝÂÆáRÇæ àoà A¥Ü ÊÝ ÇÝW pæ àÇ CñÝ©¿á E±Ü ÁãàWÜ ÊÜ ®Ü á° ¯Ðæ àÓÜ ÇÝX¨æ . 13. ÓÜÄ AÆÉ¨Ü EñܤÃÜWÜÚWæ Má| AíPÜ CÃÜáÊÜâ©ÆÉ . Instructions for the Candidates 1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of this page. 2. This paper consists of sixty(60) multiple-choice type of questions, out of which the candidate would be required to answer any fifty (50) questions. In the event of the candidate attempting more than fifty questions, the first fifty questions attempted by the candidate would be evaluated. 3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below : (i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept a booklet without sticker-seal and do not accept an open booklet. (ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions in the booklet with the information printed on the cover page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missing or duplicate or not in serial order or any other discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a correct booklet from the invigilator within the period of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet will be replaced nor any extra time will be given. 4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to darken the oval as indicated below on the correct response against each item. Example : A B C D where (C) is the correct response. 5. Your responses to the questions are to be indicated in the OMR Sheet kept inside this Booklet, which is common for both Paper I and Paper II. If you mark at any place other than in the ovals, the OMR Answer Sheet will not be evaluated. 6. Read the instructions given in OMR carefully. Fill the Test Booklet Code of Paper – I in OMR Sheet Compulsorily. 7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet. 8. If you write your name or put any mark on any part of the OMR Answer Sheet, except for the space provided for the relevant entries, which may disclose your identity, you will render yourself liable to disqualification. 9. You have to return the test OMR Answer Sheet to the invigilators at the end of the examination compulsorily and must NOT carry it with you outside the Examination Hall. 10. You can take away question booklet and carbon copy of OMR Answer Sheet soon after the examination. 11. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen. 12. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited. 13. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers. W-0014 1 ±Üâ.£.®æãà./ P.T.O.

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Page 1: I GENERAL PAPER W (Figures as per admission card)kset.uni-mysore.ac.in/question_papers_2014/General...Total Number of Pages : 24 W-0014 3 O3O O/P.T.O. GENERAL PAPER Paper – I Note

Test Paper : ITest Subject : GENERAL PAPER

Test Subject Code : K-0014

Test booklet Code : W

Test Booklet Serial No. : ______________________

OMR Sheet No. : _______________________________

Roll No.

(Figures as per admission card)

Name & Signature of Invigilator/s

Signature: _________________________________ Signature : __________________________________

Name : __________________________________ Name : __________________________________

Paper : ISubject : GENERAL PAPER

Time : 1 Hour 15 Minutes Maximum Marks : 100

Number of Pages in this Booklet : 24 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 60������������ ��������

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Instructions for the Candidates1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of this

page.2. This paper consists of sixty(60) multiple-choice type of

questions, out of which the candidate would be required toanswer any fifty (50) questions. In the event of the candidateattempting more than fifty questions, the first fifty questionsattempted by the candidate would be evaluated.

3. At the commencement of examination, the question bookletwill be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requestedto open the booklet and compulsorily examine it asbelow :(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the

paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do notaccept a booklet without sticker-seal and do not acceptan open booklet.

(ii) Tally the number of pages and number ofquestions in the booklet with the informationprinted on the cover page. Faulty booklets due topages/questions missing or duplicate or not inserial order or any other discrepancy should begot replaced immediately by a correct booklet fromthe invigilator within the period of 5 minutes.Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet will bereplaced nor any extra time will be given.

4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B),(C) and (D). You have to darken the oval as indicated belowon the correct response against each item.

Example : A B C D

where (C) is the correct response.

5. Your responses to the questions are to be indicated in theOMR Sheet kept inside this Booklet, which is commonfor both Paper I and Paper II. If you mark at any place otherthan in the ovals, the OMR Answer Sheet will not be evaluated.

6. Read the instructions given in OMR carefully. Fill the TestBooklet Code of Paper – I in OMR Sheet Compulsorily.

7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet.8. If you write your name or put any mark on any part of the

OMR Answer Sheet, except for the space provided for therelevant entries, which may disclose your identity, you willrender yourself liable to disqualification.

9. You have to return the test OMR Answer Sheet to theinvigilators at the end of the examination compulsorily andmust NOT carry it with you outside the Examination Hall.

10. You can take away question booklet and carbon copy ofOMR Answer Sheet soon after the examination.

11. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen.12. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited.13. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers.

W-0014 1 ���O3O� �O/P.T.O.

Page 2: I GENERAL PAPER W (Figures as per admission card)kset.uni-mysore.ac.in/question_papers_2014/General...Total Number of Pages : 24 W-0014 3 O3O O/P.T.O. GENERAL PAPER Paper – I Note

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Page 3: I GENERAL PAPER W (Figures as per admission card)kset.uni-mysore.ac.in/question_papers_2014/General...Total Number of Pages : 24 W-0014 3 O3O O/P.T.O. GENERAL PAPER Paper – I Note

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W-0014 3 ���O3O� �O/ P.T.O.

GENERAL PAPERPaper – I

Note : This paper contains Sixty (60) multiple choice questions. Each question carryingtwo (2) marks.Candidate is expected to answer any Fifty (50) questions.In case more than Fifty (50) questions are attempted, only the first Fifty (50)questions will be evaluated.

1. Identify independent and dependentvariables in this hypothesis :

Running will increase a person’s heartrate.

(A) Increase (IV), Person (DV)

(B) Increase (DV), Person (IV)

(C) Running (DV), Heart rate (IV)

(D) Running (IV), Heart rate (DV)

2. Cricket score is what kind of variable ?

(A) Continuous variable

(B) Discrete variable

(C) Both discrete and continuousvariable

(D) Intervening variable

3. One test that helps analyze observedfrequency and expected frequency

(A) MANOVA

(B) t-test

(C) ANOVA

(D) Chi-square

4. What type is snowball sampling ?

(A) Non-probability sampling

(B) Probability sampling

(C) Multi-stage sampling

(D) Random sampling

5. Which is the research methodpredominantly used to study culturalanthropology ?(A) Interview(B) Panel discussion(C) Participant observation(D) Focus group discussion

6. While researching on Dr. U. R.Ananthamurthy, what kind of data areyou collecting on the basis ofinterview with him ?(A) Secondary data(B) Primary data(C) Tertiary data

(D) Filtered data

7. ‘The post broadcast media’ refers to

(A) Folk media

(B) Social media

(C) Print media

(D) Electronic media

8. The technique that was used by theRoman Catholic Church in 1622 topropagate the faith came to beknown as

(A) Publicity

(B) Religious propagation

(C) Seminary discourse

(D) Propaganda

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9. The place where public opinions areformed as a result of communication(A) Public debate(B) Public sphere(C) Media byte(D) Media circle

10. ‘Big Boss’ is an example for(A) Virtual TV (B) Public TV(C) Reality TV (D) e-TV

11. ‘Mathematical model’ in communicationis credited to(A) Osgood and Schramm(B) Shannon and Weaver(C) Rogers and Daniel Learner(D) Everette Rogers

12. ‘Cat Walk’ is a fine example for(A) Verbal communication(B) Cybernetics(C) Interpersonal communication(D) Kinesics

13. Two statements I and II given below arefollowed by two conclusions (a) and (b).You have to consider the statements aretrue. Which of the given conclusionslogically follows from the givenstatements ?Statements :(I) All jungles are Elephants.(II) Some Elephants are horses.Conclusions :(a) All horses are jungles.(b) Some Elephants are jungles.(A) Only conclusion (a) follows(B) Only conclusion (b) follows(C) Neither conclusion (a) nor

conclusion (b) follows(D) Both conclusion (a) and (b) follow

14. In the following question a statementis followed by two assumptions (i)and (ii). An assumption is somethingsupposed or taken for granted.Consider the statement and thefollowing assumptions and decidewhich of the following assumptions isimplicit in the statement ?Statement : “Enroll with us before 15th

December to get the advantage of our20% discount offer ”, an advertisementby a coaching class.Assumptions :(i) Discount offer is bound to attract

good students as well.(ii) Even those students who cannot

afford to pay the fees of coachingclasses may join this class.

(A) Only assumption (i) is implicit(B) Only assumption (ii) is implicit(C) Neither assumption (i) nor (ii) is

implicit(D) Both the assumptions are implicit

15. The question below is followed by twoarguments (i) and (ii). Decide which ofthe arguments is “strong” and which is“weak”. Choose the correct answer fromthe given below.Statement : Should public holidaysbe declared on demise of importantnational leaders ?Arguments :(i) No, such unscheduled holiday

hamper the national progress.(ii) Yes, people would like to pay their

homage to the departed soul.(A) Only the argument (i) is strong(B) Only the argument (ii) is strong(C) Neither argument (i) nor argument

(ii) is strong

(D) Both the arguments are strong

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16. ��'�������5 �-� (A – D)�����1������ A�� ���q��"5��R�(�����4��� ����1�����%�R(A) '� ������b�z(B) *�����(C) ��2'��4D������b�z(D) �������

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(D) *�\�s:�(Hertz)

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16. Among the four terms marked A – D, three

terms are similar and one is dissimilar.

Find the one that is not similar.

(A) Loamy soil

(B) Silt

(C) Clayey soil

(D) Sandy soil

17. Choose the pair of words which shows

the same relationship as given at the top.

Skein : Yarn

(A) Squeeze : Lemon

(B) Fire : Coal

(C) Ream : Paper

(D) Tree : Lumber

18. Which statement represents the inverse

of the statement “If it is snowing, then

skeeter wears a sweater” ?

(A) If skeeter wear a sweater, then it is

snowing.

(B) If skeeter does not wear a sweater,

then it is not snowing.

(C) If it is not snowing, then skeeter

does not wear a sweater.

(D) If it is not snowing, then skeeter

wears a sweater.

19. What is a unit of information ?

(A) Bit

(B) Bite

(C) Gram

(D) Hertz

20. Which of the following is not a validversion of MS-Office ?

(A) Office XP (B) Office Vista

(C) Office 2007 (D) Office 2010

21. ERP is an acronym for

(A) Enterprise Retirement Planning

(B) Enterprise Relationship Planning

(C) Enterprise Resource Planning

(D) Enterprise Re-order Planning

22. Trojan horse is

(A) A software programme whichprovides functions within MicrosoftWord

(B) A software programme designedto detect computer virus

(C) An application software designedto enhance the quality of aninformation system

(D) A software programme thatappears legitimate but containhidden function that causedamage

23. Binary system of numbers uses only

(A) 1 and 2 (B) 0 and 1

(C) 2 and 3 (D) 3 and 4

24. The ability of an operating system to runmore than one application at a time iscalled

(A) Multi-user computing

(B) Multi-tasking

(C) Time-sharing

(D) Object oriented programming

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25. NAAC �����&/5���'���$�I����](A) ����*��(B) >�"a`(C) '���-)5(D) < 1�������

26. ICHR ����������:�0�'������4����](A) ��R�0�G���(B) I ���&1�D�������0�:����5�(C) �5��>� ��&�1��*5(D) 0�~��(�

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29. j������5���'5��p��,��p��l��4����'-�� ! �����P��](A) )5 %&'��i'�@b(B) �5�4��8�i'�@b(C) �8=��+/5$)��i'�@b(D) �����-���i'�@b

30. 3 2�����3���G��8\��+o��(D5H��saW��G2����(IIAS)�I����](A) ����*��(B) < 1�������(C) *̀���5<5��(D) i�4�

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1945 ������;)��� 1�������P�� ���(��$'���(�'5�����0�=��'�2��41��%��R�+������(����3���"*������51����P�R���)����(����(�5��'5$R�<5�4������1����5*�:�.0�H7�,��)5M���5'5�4:>���N���)����(��'-���i?����������.�)�5��A�����'��*��QG�������&%=&,��� ����+�5)�; ���4D�������0�:��R���)����(������&�� >������()�8 )��.��$�)�5���_�( )����5wn���7�,��)5M������'5�4:>���N�4��R

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25. The Head quarters of NAAC is

situated in

(A) New Delhi

(B) Chennai

(C) Kolkata

(D) Bengaluru

26. The present Chairman of ICHR

(A) Sa. Shettar

(B) Ellapragada Sudershan Rao

(C) Ramachandra Guha

(D) Sheikh Ali

27. In Amarakantak, MP, a nationalUniversity is established. Name it.

(A) Indira Gandhi National LawUniversity

(B) Indira Gandhi National Women’sUniversity

(C) Indira Gandhi National TribalUniversity

(D) Indira Gandhi National OpenUniversity

28. The first known residential InternationalUniversity of the world is

(A) Magadh University

(B) Nalanda University

(C) Vikramashila University

(D) Takshashila University

29. ‘Community Colleges’ schemeconcentrates on

(A) Technical education

(B) General education

(C) Vocational education

(D) Adult education

30. Indian Institute of Advanced Studies is

located at

(A) New Delhi

(B) Bengaluru

(C) Hyderabad

(D) Shimla

Noam Chomsky has presented his views on

the functioning of democracy in USA in the

following passage. Read the passage and

answer questions 31-36 :

American power is diminishing, as it has

been in fact since its peak in 1945, but it’s

still incomparable. And it’s dangerous.

Obama’s remarkable global terror campaign

and the limited, pathetic reaction to it in the

West is one shocking example. And it is a

campaign of international terrorism – by far

the most extreme in the world.

According to received doctrine, we live in

capitalist democracies, which are the best

possible system, despite some flaws. There’s

has been an interesting debate over the years

about the relation between capitalism and

democracy, for example, are they even

compatible ? I won’t be pursuing this because

I’d like to discuss a different system – what

we could call the “really existing capitalist

democracy”, RECD for short, pronounced

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W-0014 11 ���O3O� �O/ P.T.O.

“wrecked” by accident. To begin with, how

does RECD compare with democracy ?

Well that depends on what we mean by

“democracy”. There are several versions of

this. One, there is a kind of received version.

It’s soaring rhetoric of the Obama variety,

patriotic speeches, what children are taught

in school, and so on. In the U.S. version, it’s

government “of, by and for the people”. And

it’s quite easy to compare that with RECD.

In the United States, one of the main topics

of academic political science is the study of

attitudes and policy and their correlation. The

study of attitudes is reasonably easy in the

United States : heavily-polled society, pretty

serious and accurate polls, and policy you

can see, and you can compare them. And

the results are interesting. In the work that’s

essentially the gold standard in the field, it’s

concluded that for roughly 70% of the

population – the lower 70% on the wealth/

income scale – they have no influence on

policy whatsoever. They’re effectively

disenfranchised. As you move up the wealth/

income ladder, you get a little bit more

influence on policy. When you get to the top,

which is may be a tenth of one percent,

people essentially get what they want, i.e.

they determine the policy. So the proper term

for that is not democracy : it’s plutocracy.

These characteristics of RECD show up all

the time. So the major domestic issue in the

United States for the public is jobs. Polls show

that very clearly. For the very wealthy and the

financial institutions, the major issue is the

deficit. Well, what about policy ? There’s now

a sequester in the United States, a sharp

cutback in funds. Is that because of jobs or is

it because of the deficit ? Well, the deficit.

Europe, incidentally, is much worse – so

outlandish that even The Wall Street Journal

has been appalled by the disappearance of

democracy in Europe. “ ..... Economic

policies have changed little in response to

one electoral defeat after another. The left

has replaced the right; the right has ousted

the left. Even the center-right trounced

Communists (in Cyprus) – but the economic

policies have essentially remained the same :

Governments will continue to cut spending

and raise taxes.” It doesn’t matter what

people think and “national governments must

follow macro-economic directives set by the

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W-0014 12

(���( )����5wn����*�b'5������ ��1�J ���+�� MD��%�R

(������������)5����*5151�<�' ����+,�-

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�� ���'��� � �5p8'-�U %�������A���$��%�(E�G ���

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%J�� )����R�I��R����+���1�8��8����A�( )����5wn���

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+������(����(E�G ����(���������3 ��R

31. ! D�5��05U���&S5��&7��)�H���!1h

>5�B��-������(q�5&�������]

(A) < !�� �

(B) < !����)5��

(C) (q�5&��. �

(D) �!: �)��< !

32. (��$'5����51�$�'������"��'5D��%������.E����4������](A) +���1�8�5 � (B) �C'�$(C) '���) (D) ! D�5��05U

33. ������{�������+9:'���8������4�$�%������](A) (��$'5��k�w)��+9:'���� ��1������"

(� Z��(B) )�L%����p1�)�����"��(� Z��(C) S51�%'��*�b'5������ ��1������"��(� Z��(D) + )�$'��*�b'5������ ��1������"��(� Z��

34. (��$'5���+���1�8�5 �5�����c%���!1h>5�B��-������� ������](A) *�1���b��k$)�(B) i&��� )������15�(C) !D�������15�(D) ����V�:

35. (��$'5����� � '���)�����"� ������ ���4��� *�����"������� ���4���� *�����"��3����D��5���](A) ������{���+���1�8�5 ��)���*�(B) ;)������5�:p�'��+���1�8�5 �(C) ( )��5wn����+9:'���� ��1����< ! ��

+���1�8�5 �(D) +���1�8�5 ���4��$

36. 5����n�\��p��:��1��4��.E���+�5)�����" ����42��](A) ������{��������&S5��&7��)�H����5����(B) ������{������ID��� 9������)���

! �� 9������'�@1������� �(C) ������{������'����8���G��+JH'����5����(D) ������{��������&S5��&7��)�H���'�b��

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W-0014 13 ���O3O� �O/ P.T.O.

European Commission.” Elections are close

to meaningless, very much as in Third World

countries that are ruled by the international

financial institutions. That’s what Europe has

chosen to become. It doesn’t have to.

Returning to the United States, where the

situation is not quite that bad, there’s the

same disparity between public opinion and

policy on a very wide range of issues. Take

for example ..... national healthcare. The

U.S., as you may know has a health system

which is an international scandal, it has twice

the per capita costs of other OECD countries

and relatively poor outcomes. The only

privatized, pretty much unregulated system.

The public doesn’t like it. They’ve been

calling for national healthcare, public options,

for years, but the financial institutions think

it’s fine, so it stays : stasis. In fact, if the United

States had a healthcare system like

comparable countries there wouldn’t be any

deficit. The famous deficit would be erased,

which doesn’t matter that much anyway.

31. What is Chomsky’s opinion on capitalist

democracy ?

(A) Does not supports it

(B) Supports it

(C) He has no opinion

(D) Supports it conditionally

32. What is bothering American public ?

(A) Healthcare (B) Jobs

(C) Deficit (D) Capitalism

33. What is the economic situation inEurope ?

(A) Depending on American basedfinancial institutions

(B) Depending on third world

(C) Depending on global financialinstitutions

(D) Depending on internal financialinstitutions

34. What is Chomsky’s take on AmericanHealthcare system ?

(A) Scandalous

(B) Serving wealthy

(C) Serving poor

(D) Efficient

35. What is the suggestion here to reducedeficit in America ?

(A) Healthcare as in Europe

(B) Better public health care

(C) Healthcare supported byinternational financial institutions

(D) Model healthcare

36. What did shock The Wall StreetJournal ?

(A) Establishment of democracy inEurope

(B) Defeat of left and right parties inEurope

(C) Establishment of Communists rulein Europe

(D) Vanishing of democracy in Europe

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W-0014 14

37. � ����' ������"��10�1� D�������15������������)���15�* 1�������12����1�������������! ����R�I�5�10�1� D���������)���� 15�* 1��������QG1� ' ���42���A�IE��G�����1�������'5��:���������)����]

(A) 6 (B) 316

(C) 326 (D) 3

27

38. ��'����������K������+������� ~8�����"'� D��U2#�$�O2, 4, 12, 48, 240, ? .

(A) 960 (B) 1440(C) 1080 (D) 1920

39. p���$�1A�2006��� ����75���5��5���P�Ap���$�1A�2010��� ����5������4����5�)����](A) 0��'�&5�� (B) 0��5��(C) 75���5�� (D) !�/�5��

40. �![��58�5$����)���"� �*�%���.�����1000�kg

��'�-����� ����751�����"� � 8%��57�'-� ���)���;J���751�����"��18%��57�'-���4$�����R�(������G���57��14%�+���A�(�����18%��575 0�'-�4$�����'�-������&�4bE��G��](A) 400 kg (B) 560 kg(C) 600 kg (D) 640 kg

41. � �������Gb���p���� ~8�I��D����E�:1����U �62A500�+�)���R���*5��1���1�J1�� �*��1������$ ��A���&%��E�:�p���� ~8����4%

��E��G� �'�2��41��%��R��������&����)�����Gb��p���� ~8�IE��G��](A) 56,700 (B) 57,600(C) 58,800 (D) 60,000

42. GZWRF ���"���� '�)��!����BURMA I ���!����A�LJWRFSD �� '�)��!����*�1!���!*������]

(A) HUNGARY

(B) AUSTRIA

(C) GERMANY

(D) IRELAND

��'��'� D���4U%���5"/�$����&0"� �� ~8� 43V48

�����"�;)��$�R

.�����o58Z&'�� '� ���������� ��A� ��������)����!bz� �*5'���A��������;)5M���5�*� )�1������ '��I��D���!\G1����<5&a8 D�1��5���jo58Z&'��Xl��)����jo58Z&'��Yl���"�;)5M����)���R�'� �������+������ ����� )�&1������"�A�*�)������,�h����� )�&1������"*51���6����!bz�*5'������ )�&1������"�*� ��R��&%��� )�&�k������ ��'-� 10�� \1����� ' ���4D��)���R� o58Z&'�� X ��� � ��������\����"��kb:1�J�� ����� ����� )�&������40��.�E�1���A��,�h����� )�&����� � 2�� \1���� *51���!bz*5'������ )�&����� � 30� �.�E�1����(1�)�8.���)���R*51,���o58Z&'��Y����� ��������\����"��kb:1�J�� ����� ����� )�&������60��.�E�1���A��,�h����� )�&����� � 30� �.�E�1����*51���!bz*5'������ )�&����� 60� �.�E�1����(1�)�8.���)���R�� ��������\��= 50�.�����1����!\G���

43. � ������������ A�*>? ����o58Z&'�� Y ���IE��G����\�1������"����kb:1�J��!*������]

(A) 20

(B) 30

(C) 40

(D) 50

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W-0014 15 ���O3O� �O/ P.T.O.

37. 10 men can complete a piece of workin 15 days and 15 women cancomplete the same work in 12 days. Ifall the 10 men and 15 women worktogether, in how many days will thework get completed ?

(A) 6 (B) 316

(C) 326 (D) 3

27

38. Find the sixth term in the followingseries :

2, 4, 12, 48, 240, ? .

(A) 960 (B) 1440

(C) 1080 (D) 1920

39. It was Sunday on January 1st, 2006.What was the day of the week onJanuary 1st, 2010 ?

(A) Friday (B) Saturday

(C) Sunday (D) Wednesday

40. A merchant has 1000 kg of Sugar, partof which he sells at 8% profit and therest at 18% profit. He gains 14% onthe whole. The quantity sold at 18%profit is

(A) 400 kg (B) 560 kg

(C) 600 kg (D) 640 kg

41. The population of a town 2 years agowas 62,500. Due to migration to bigcities, it decreases every year at therate of 4%. The present population ofthe town is

(A) 56,700 (B) 57,600

(C) 58,800 (D) 60,000

42. If GZWRF is coded as BURMA then

how LJWRFSD will be coded ?

(A) HUNGARY

(B) AUSTRIA

(C) GERMANY

(D) IRELAND

Answer questions 43-48 based on the

following information :

Vimal Fabric Company, manufactures two

brands of cloth Fabric X and Fabric Y through

three stages of manufacturing namely

spinning, weaving and dyeing. The company

has six spinning machines, ten weaving

machines and five dyeing machines. Each

machine works for 10 hours a day. One unit

of Fabric X needs 40 minutes on a spinning

machine, 2 hours on a weaving machine and

30 minutes on a dyeing machine in order to

be completed. Similarly, one unit of Fabric

Y needs 60 minutes on a spinning machine,

30 minutes on a weaving machine and

60 minutes on a dyeing machine in order to

be completed. (One unit = 50 metres cloth)

43. In a day, how many units of Fabric Y

can be completed at most ?

(A) 20

(B) 30

(C) 40

(D) 50

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W-0014 16

44. � �������������o58Z&'��Y ��� 20�����\�1������";)5M�����A�o58Z&'��X ���IE��G������\�1������"(���������kb:1�J��!*������]

(A) 0 (B) 30

(C) 40 (D) 45

45. � �������������o58Z&'��Y ��� 30�����\�1������"�4)�&� �;)5M�����A� +����� IE��G� ��� )�&� \1������w���51��)����]

(A) 120 (B) 130

(C) 135 (D) 150

46. � ����*>��?�$�!bz�*5'������ )�&����"��$����A�o58Z&'��X ���IE��G��*>��?�$����\�1������"��;)5M���!*������]

(A) 0 (B) 5

(C) 8 (D) 10

47. '�� �o58Z&'��X ���"���4)�&��;)5M�������5���A;)5M���5��5��V�8:������1�$E�Y��*>�?��51� ��4���� )�&����"��v$����<�'���](A) ��� ����� )�&(B) ��,�h����� )�&(C) !bz��*5'������ )�&(D) �/�:$�� ���5/�8. �

48. '�� �o58Z&'��Y ���"���4)�&��;)5M�������5���A;)5M���5��5��V�8:������1�$E�Y��*>�?��51� �A�4���� )�&����"��v$����<�'���](A) ��� ����� )�&(B) ��,�h����� )�&(C) !bz�*5'������ )�&(D) �/�:$�� ���5/�8. �

49. �5�5 05/5$)���BC 8�4�����I ��������]

(A) ,��p����'5��:�����'-

���c1�J��������

(B) ��.��'5@��k�:�(/�8����

(C) ��&,��15)��'��(/�8����

(D) ��� )�����$N5���(/�8����

50. �BC 8�4�������(��)�4����=- )��q��"�R

*515����*�1�]

(A) ��$�4N5)��'���b:�������&=&,�

(B) ��$��kb:��b:�������&=&,�

(C) 1��N5)��'���b:�������&=&,�

(D) ( '��1�J'�+/5����������b:��

51. '�������1�������� ����'��'������ 7��)��( 0�

(A) (���2'

(B) 1�&U'

(C) �� S5���

(D) i'�@b��5/���

52. 3��1�����0̀ '�@K'��.E��������>�������� 7��)�

( 0�1����

(A) ;�P�0�A���X�8'�&��A������1����A�i'�@b

�5/���1����A���$�'@

(B) ;�P�0�A�.E���A��� ��7�:A�./5��1����A

�BC�8�'���b

(C) ��X�8'�&��A�i'�@b�./5��A��BC�8�'���bA

�BC 8�4����

(D) ��X�8'�&��A�i'�@b�./5��A�'��'��

��$N5��A��BC 8�4����

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44. If 20 units of Fabric Y are made in a day,how many units of Fabric X can becompleted the same day ?

(A) 0 (B) 30

(C) 40 (D) 45

45. If only 30 units of Fabric Y are made ina day, how many machine hours will beidle that day ?

(A) 120 (B) 130

(C) 135 (D) 150

46. If one more dyeing machine is added,at the most how many more units ofFabric X can be made in a day ?

(A) 0 (B) 5

(C) 8 (D) 10

47. If only Fabric X has to be made, whatmachine should be bought so that thereis a maximum increase in productioncapacity ?

(A) Spinning machine

(B) Weaving machine

(C) Dyeing machine

(D) Cannot be determined

48. If only Fabric Y has to be made, whatmachine should be bought so that thereis a maximum increase in productioncapacity ?

(A) Spinning machine

(B) Weaving machine

(C) Dyeing machine

(D) Cannot be determined

49. What is summative evaluation ?

(A) Fine tunes project implementation

(B) Pilot study

(C) Experimental study

(D) Basically an impact study

50. Evaluation is different from

measurement. If so how ?

(A) Process of Quantitative Judging

(B) Comprehensive Process of Judging

(C) Process of Qualitative Judging

(D) Judging on the basis of marks

secured

51. One of the following is related to

fundamentals of learning

(A) Adoption

(B) Perception

(C) Cognition

(D) Teaching Aids

52. These are fundamentals of course

design

(A) Goals, syllabus, guidelines,

teaching aids, examination

(B) Goals, content, context, methods,

assessment

(C) Curriculum, teaching method,

assessment, evaluation

(D) Syllabus, teaching method,

learning outcome, evaluation

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53. )���1�%�������4��$�%���05ZP'���� �*���

!�����51��)����]

(A) �BC�'�

(B) �BC�'����)����!��*�

(C) !��*�

(D) 0�$����75E

54. )���1�%���i'�@b��������48��Q'�s

I ������V�:�]

(A) (����i'�@b���;)�eE�G)1��� ! ���

(B) (������ �*���������������81�J1

�� ! ���

(C) (���� 05ZP'�� ��)���� (05ZP'�� �� '�)�1�J1

�� ! ���

(D) (����S5������&�5��'-��� ! ���

55. 5)5���b���������(� 1����'5��b� ��

7��.��Z��41���������"��^� ���

'�����)5���]

(A) 5�����4���8

(B) TS������������)���1����u.'

(C) *������������$N5��

(D) *������(� ���$N5��

56. ̀S5��'�5��TS�������"��1�����%�����./5��

(A) O

(B) O2

(C) O3

(D) O4

57. ����1����������:�5"����4D����'5��b

(A) ��*����05v����"��*F?�'����u�����

(B) >���:����"���b��'����u�����

(C) ��*����05v����"��'�2���42'���u �

(D) ��*����05v����"��'5�52'���u �

58. ���8�m�.�'5,�P����H����5wn���

;�58����5"��� ������&��0�����"���4���

x��w��!*������]

(A) ��k:>�?���58�4 ��

(B) ;>�?���58�4 ��

(C) �5p8���'5:��

(D) '� ��&���'5:��

59. j!�4�5m'����*5\��5M\�l�I ���

(A) S`.'�5��!*�������v8���&��0�

(B) ��$�����+)� '�'5$�*� )��)� �{�������&��0�

(C) !*����Z��4��������

(D) m���̀./�8������=@)��)5b

60. '��5:�'�����4���8���� )�&b��� D�J��

(/�8'�@�����4����]

(A) 5���5>5�4:

(B) ���R�+��R��5�

(C) �4/���152h���

(D) �R�I��R�+��R��5�

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W-0014 19 ���O3O� �O/ P.T.O.

53. What is the type of verbal

communication do you find in

classroom ?

(A) Spoken

(B) Spoken and written

(C) Written

(D) Body language

54. What is meant by semantics in

classroom teaching ?

(A) It concerns excellence in teaching

(B) It concerns the problems in

communication

(C) It concerns verbal and non-verbal

codes

(D) It concerns transmission of

knowledge

55. The warming of earth due to

atmospheric gases is known as

(A) Air pollution

(B) Ozone depletion

(C) Green house effect

(D) Green gas effect

56. Ozone is scientifically represented as

(A) O

(B) O2

(C) O3

(D) O4

57. Crocodiles prefer sun bath

(A) to elevate body temperature

(B) to dry their skin

(C) to decrease body temperature

(D) to maintain body temperature

58. Who can declare an area to be

constituted as a national park

according to Wild Life Act ?

(A) Supreme Court

(B) High Court

(C) State Government

(D) Central Government

59. ‘Biological Hot Spot’ refers to

(A) Important spot from Biological point

of view

(B) Spot where environment has

reached dangerous level

(C) Place where temperature is

very high

(D) Place where biodiversity is

very safe

60. Who is the Chairman of Pollution

Control Board of Karnataka ?

(A) Vamanacharya

(B) U. R. Rao

(C) Madhav Gadgil

(D) C. N. R. Rao

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W-0014 20

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(A) I �$1�����&���v��� �

(B) �4�������4p����"��!���5#���! ����

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(D) )� )�&S5���'-��� ! ����P �

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W-0014 21 ���O3O� �O/ P.T.O.

(For Blind Candidates Only)

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions 55 to 60 :

We live in a world in which science, technology and development play important roles in

changing human destiny. However, over-exploitation of natural resources for the purpose of

development leads to serious environmental hazards. In fact, the idea of development is itself

controversial in the present situation as in the name of development, we are unethically

plundering natural resources. It is true that a science that does not respect nature’s needs and

a development which does not respect people’s needs threatens human survival. The green

thoughts of Gandhi give us a new vision to harmonise nature with the needs of people.

Gandhi was not an environmentalist in the modern sense. Although he did not create a green

philosophy or write nature poems, he is often described as an “apostle of applied human

ecology.” It is a fact that environmental concerns were minimal in Gandhi’s time; but eminent

environmental writers like Ramachandra Guha consider him an early Environmentalist. His

views on nature are scattered throughout his writings. His ideas relating to Satyagraha based

on truth and non-violence, simple life style, and development reveal how sustainable

development is possible without doing any harm to nature and our fellow beings. His idea that

“nature has enough to satisfy every one’s needs, but not to satisfy anybody’s greed” became

one line ethic to modern environmentalism.

55. The author argues that development

(A) has no importance at all

(B) can change human society

(C) is acceptable in itself

(D) is unrelated to technology

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W-0014 22

56. (q�L�c,� !������4'�32�4����BC 8� ��]

(A) (�����5i?�4)�8�'� M�

(B) (�����̀ %'��(���5/�

(C) I ���$�%���(q�L�c����'�G���P

(D) (����.�>��5��U)�5���5&'�L%'���� ������ 1������"�����!:��'��4D��)���

57. �4������!���'��.'�+)� '������,� ������v'�����*�����������4' ���

(A) �5&'�L%'���� ������ 1�����^������;J� �

(B) .S5������$��������"��'�D1�K���%��

(C) �4�������(�̀ %'��5��5P�

(D) ���4p1�����+/���'�)���U ��Z�P

58. 15 ��m������

(A) )���<�%�*� ������$����5��4���P���

(B) ��$��������C ����:�'��$)���.��� 5��!�����5���P���

(C) ��&'�L%,� ���"��1�����������G��,��F�����5���P���

(D) ��&'�L%���)�����4����(1�)�81����D����'��$)����%��*�J���(��M��F )�'��5���P���

59. 15 ��m����!������(q�L�c

(A) ��������"���5i?�4)�8$1����4���5���4D��� )�*���5�)���

(B) (������$��������"����=@���%�)���

(C) +/���'��!���=���$�%�������4��!���5�N�����"��!�������

(D) ! D�5��05U�����"��+����51�&5��=)����*5'�������

60. ��1���8751������&'5���15 ��m��������$����5�� ���

(A) '�G��+/���'��.����

(B) �`p� ����P

(C) +/���'�����4p'-�(��&����)�

(D) +/���'����$����5��'-��5$)��������5��V�8:����u���P

______________

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W-0014 23 ���O3O� �O/ P.T.O.

56. Why is development not an absolute value ?

(A) It is a Western concept

(B) It is morally wrong

(C) All forms of development are bad

(D) It exploits natural resources indiscriminately

57. The author says that human survival is in danger because

(A) nature’s resources are no longer there

(B) science is ignoring nature

(C) men are now immoral

(D) societies are hankering after modernity

58. Gandhi was

(A) a well-trained environmentalist

(B) a writer who wrote prolifically on one beauties of nature

(C) a thinker who focussed only on nature

(D) an original thinker who emphasized both nature and human needs

59. Gandhi wanted a development

(A) Which would make us the equals of the West

(B) Which would also protect nature

(C) Which would not need any change in the modern life style

(D) Which would destroy capitalism altogether

60. According to this passage Gandhi’s environmentalism was

(A) hopelessly nonmodern

(B) unrealistic

(C) irrelevant to modern society

(D) capable of guiding modern environmentalism

______________

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W-0014 24

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