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(1)

Choose the correct answer :

1. The dimensional formula of electrical conductance is

(1) [MLT–3A–1] (2) [M–1L–2T3A2]

(3) [ML3T–3A–2] (4) [M–1L–3T4A2]

2. The position-time (x-t) graph for a particle in straight-line motion is as shown. Average speed from timet = 0 to t = 6 s

10

20

30

O 1 2 3 4 5 6

x (m)

t (s)

(1) 5 m/s (2) 10 m/s

(3) 15 m/s (4) 20 m/s

3. The position of a particle along a straight line is

denoted by the equation 36 27x t t . Here x is

in metre and t is in second. The magnitude ofacceleration of the particle when it is at rest is

(1) 6 m/s2

(2) 12 m/s2

(3) 18 m/s2

(4) 24 m/s2

4. A train is moving towards east at 60 km/hr. Amonkey is running on the roof of the train at aspeed of 5 km/h towards west w.r.t. the train. To acyclist on the ground moving towards west at10 km/h, the velocity of monkey will appear to be

(1) 70 km/h towards west

(2) 75 km/h towards west

(3) 65 km/h towards east

(4) 45 km/h towards east

PHYSICS

Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph. 011-47623456

MM : 720 Mock Test for NEET - 2020 Time : 3 Hrs.

Home Assignment – 9

Instructions :

(i) Use ball point pen only to darken the appropriate circle.

(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.

(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.

(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.

(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material onAnswer sheet.

(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

12/07/2020

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Home Assignment-9 Mock Test for NEET - 2020

5. For a projectile, the velocity at the maximum height

is 3

2 times its initial velocity (u) of projection. The

maximum height attained by it with respect tohorizontal plane is

(1)2

2

u

g(2)

2

4

u

g

(3)2

3

8

u

g(4)

2

8

u

g

6. If the angle between A�

and B�

is 60° then value of

the product A B B � � �

is equal to

(1) 23

4AB (2)

2

2

AB

(3) AB2 (4) Zero

7. An object of mass 3 kg is at rest. If a force

2 ˆ ˆ36 9F t i j �

(N) acts on the object then velocity

of the object at t = 2 second (in m/s) is

(1) ˆ ˆ72 12i j (2) ˆ ˆ52 9i j

(3) ˆ ˆ32 6i j (4) ˆ12i

8. A person of mass 65 kg is inside a lift of mass835 kg. If the lift start moving downwards with anacceleration 1 m/s2 then tension in supporting cableis (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 8100 N (2) 7515 N

(3) 588 N (4) 9900 N

9. A rocket of mass 4500 kg is set for vertical firing.The exhaust speed is 900 m/s with respect to therocket. To give an initial upward acceleration of20 m/s2, the mass of gas ejected per second is(g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 50 kg/s (2) 100 kg/s

(3) 150 kg/s (4) 200 kg/s

10. A bullet of mass 10 gram leaves a rifle of mass20 kg with a speed of 1000 m/s and strikes a wallat same level with a speed of 500 m/s at a distanceof 50 m from rifle. The work done by bullet inovercoming the air resistance is

(1) Zero (2) 5000 J

(3) 1250 J (4) 3750 J

11. A large disc is rotating with angular speed . If achild jumps from outside and sits on it without anyjerk then which physical quantity is conserved?

(1) Linear momentum

(2) Angular momentum

(3) Moment of inertia

(4) Kinetic energy

12. On the surface of a planet of mass M and radius R,the acceleration due to gravity is g. If we go onanother planet of same density but double theradius then on the new planet, the acceleration dueto gravity

(1) Increases by 2g (2) Increases by g

(3) Decreases by 3g/4 (4) Decreases by g/4

13. Four equal masses M are kept at the corners of aregular pentagon as shown. Distance betweencentroid and any vertex of the pentagon is R. Ifanother point mass m

0 is kept at the centroid of the

pentagon then force acting on m0 due to four

masses is

m0

M

MM

M

R

(1) Zero (2) 04GMm

R

(3) 0

2

4GMm

R(4) 0

2

GMm

R

14. From a uniform circular disc of mass M and radiusR a small circular disc of diameter R/2 has beencutout as shown. The centre of mass of the originaldisc shifts by a distance.

R

R

2

(1)6

R(2)

10

R

(3)20

R(4)

15

R

(3)

Mock Test for NEET - 2020 Home Assignment-9

15. A thin rod of mass M and length L is bent at its midpoint at 120°. Moment of inertia of this bent rodabout an axis perpendicular to the plane and passingthrough mid-point as shown is

120°

(1)2

3

ML(2)

2

12

ML

(3)2

4

ML(4)

2

6

ML

16. Two ropes of diameter 4 mm and 2 mm respectivelyhave their breaking stress in the ratio 3 : 2. The ratioof their breaking strength will be

(1) 3 : 2

(2) 1 : 1

(3) 2 : 3

(4) 6 : 1

17. A solid cubical block of length 10 cm is put in liquidA of density 2.4 g/cm3 floating over another liquid Bof density 14.4 g/cm3. If the density of cubical blockis 7.2 g/cm3 then the ratio of length of blockimmersed in liquid A to liquid B is

(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2

(3) 3 : 2 (4) 1 : 4

18. Two isochoric lines for volume V1 and V

2 are shown

on pressure-temperature (P-T) diagram below. It canbe concluded that

V1

V2

T

P

(1) V1 < V

2

(2) V1 = V

2

(3) V1 > V

2

(4) Can’t be predicted

19. An ideal gas is taken through a cyclic processA B C A as shown on pressure-volume(P – V) diagram. Now choose the correct statement.

V

PB

CA

(1) Net work done in cyclic process is zero.

(2) During process B C, heat released by thesystem is equal to change in internal energy.

(3) During C A, internal energy change is zero.

(4) During A B, heat exchange is zero.

20. An ideal monatomic gas at 27°C is compressed

suddenly to 8

27 of its original volume. The rise in

temperature of the gas is

(1) 150 K (2) 375 K

(3) 435 K (4) 265 K

21. If the length of simple pendulum is increased by1.44% then its time period will

(1) Decrease by 2.88% (2) Increase by 2.88%

(3) Decrease by 0.72% (4) Increase by 0.72%

22. A standing wave having 3 nodes and 2 antinodes isformed in a string of length one metre. Thewavelength of standing wave is

(1) 0.25 m (2) 0.5 m

(3) 1 m (4) 2 m

23. The equation of a plane progressive wave is given by

5sin 210 18 4

t xy

, where x and y are in

cm and t is in second. Now which of the followingis true?

(1) Phase velocity is 1.8 cm/s

(2) Natural frequency is 0.1 cps

(3) Wavelength is 0.18 m

(4) All of these

24. Loudness of sound coming from a point source at adistance R is 50 dB. If the distance is doubled thenthe new loudness value will become approximately

(1) 25 dB (2) 12.5 dB

(3) 100 dB (4) 44 dB

(4)


25. Two concentric conducting spheres of radii R andr (R < r) have similar charges with equal surfacecharge density . The electric potential at theircommon centre is

(1) 2 2

0

R r

(2)

0

R r

(3) 0R r

(4) 2 2

0R r

26. Four equal resistors R each are connected to forma square ABCD, one in each side. If an electricpotential V is applied between points A and B thencurrent flowing out of B is

(1)3

4

V

R(2)

4

3

V

R

(3)4

V

R(4)

V

R

27. The ratio of the radii of the nuclei of

13Al27 and

52Te125 is

(1) 1 : 4 (2) 3 : 5

(3) 9 : 25 (4) 27 : 125

28. Earth’s magnetic field has no vertical component

(1) At the geographical south pole

(2) At the 60° latitude

(3) On magnetic equator

(4) On both the magnetic poles

29. The linear momentum of the electron revolving in thesecond Bohr’s orbit of radius r of hydrogen atom is

(1)2

h

r(2)

h

r

(3)4

h

r(4)

2h

r30. Ratio of the kinetic energy of an electron to the

kinetic energy of a proton subjected to samepotential difference is

(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 1837

(3) 1837 : 1 (4) 4 : 1

31. Consider the following statements regarding nuclearforce

A. Nuclear forces are always attractive.

B. Nuclear forces are charge independent.

Which of the above statements is / are true?

(1) A only (2) B only

(3) A as well as B (4) Neither A nor B

32. It is measured that mass defect of 3Li7 is 0.042 u.

Binding energy per nucleon of the nucleus is(1 u = 931 MeV)

(1) 39.102 MeV (2) 5.586 MeV

(3) 931 MeV (4) –39.102 MeV

33. Two radioactive nuclei X and Y have equal number ofnuclei initially. Their half lives are 15 minutes and20 minutes respectively. The ratio of their remainingnuclei just after one hour is

(1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 2

(3) 1 : 4 (4) 4 : 1

34. A person can’t see beyond 2 m. Which powercorrecting lens should be suggested to him?

(1) +2 D (2) –2 D

(3) +0.5 D (4) –0.5 D

35. An electric dipole of moment p makes angle withthe uniform electric field E. Ratio of magnitude oftorque acting on it to the potential energy of thesystem is

(1) sin (2) cos

(3) tan (4) cot

36. In the circuit shown if the power consumed in 6 resistor is 24 W then the power consumed in 4 resistor is

4 5

6 12

i

(1) 8 W (2) 16 W

(3) 32 W (4) 64 W

37. A point charge Q of mass M is rotating in a circleof radius R with angular speed . The magnetic fieldcreated at the centre is

(1) 0

24 R

(2) 0

4

Q

R

(3) 0

2

Q

R

(4) 0

24

Q

R

38. In the circuit shown the reading of ammeter longtime after the key is closed is

A L = 5 mHR2 = 5

10 volt

R1 = 10

(1) 2 A (2)2A

3

(3) 1 A (4) Zero

(5)


39. If the hot wire instrument reading across R, L and Cin the circuit shown are 120 V, 80 V and 30 Vrespectively then the supply voltage is

= t 0sin

R L C

(1) 120 V (2) 80 V

(3) 30 V (4) 130 V

40. If intensity of electromagnetic wave in vacuum is Ithen amplitude of its electric field is (c : speed ofEM wave)

(1)0

2I

C (2)0

2I

C

(3)0

4I

C (4)0

4I

C

41. The truth table given below belongs to

X Y Z

0 0 0

0 1 1

1 0 1

1 1 0

(1) NAND gate (2) NOR gate

(3) AND gate (4) XOR gate

42. The typical I-V characteristic graph for photo-diode is

(1)

I

V(2)

I

V

(3)

I

V(4)

I

V

43. For an equilateral prism of material refractive index

2 , the angle of minimum deviation is

(1) 15°

(2) 30°

(3) 45°

(4) 60°

44. Percentage of U235 present in natural uranium is

approximately

(1) 3% (2) 10%

(3) 50% (4) 0.7%

45. Energy of a photon of wavelength 5000 Å is

approximately

(1) 10 eV (2) 100 eV

(3) 24 eV (4) 2.46 eV

CHEMISTRY

46. Which of the following is correct for followingcompounds?

CH3

C

Cl

BrH

CH3

CCl Br

H

CH3

CCl

Br

H

(I) (II) (III)

(1) Structure I and II are diastereomers

(2) Structure II and III are enantiomers

(3) Structure I and III are identical

(4) Both (2) & (3)

47. Total number of enantiomeric pairs in the followingcompound will be

CH3

Cl

(1) Two (2) Three

(3) Four (4) Zero

48. Total number of positional isomers for C5H

12 is

(1) Zero (2) Two

(3) Four (4) Six

(6)


49. Which of the following explain adsorptionphenomenon?

(1) Millikan oil drop experiment

(2) Froth-flotation process

(3) Heterogeneous catalysis

(4) All of these

50. Which of the following will have largest atomic size?

(1) Na (2) K

(3) Ca (4) Ba

51. Boiling point of aqueous ideal solution is 240°Fshows that

(1) Vapour pressure of solution is less than pureH

2O

(2) It contains volatile solute

(3) It contains non-volatile solute

(4) Both (1) & (3)

52. Maximum magnitude of work done is obtained duringthe hydrolysis of 1 mol of

(1) Al4C

3(2) CaC

2

(3) Be2C (4) All of these

53. In the decomposition of phosgene gas

2(g) 2(g)(g)

COCl CO Cl��⇀↽�� ; I

2O

5 is added at constant

volume, then

(1) Equilibrium will shift to the forward side

(2) Equilibrium will shift to the backward side

(3) Value of kc changed

(4) Cannot effect the equilibrium

54. The temperature at which ferromagnetic substancesconverts to paramagnetic known as

(1) Curie temperature (2) Critical temperature

(3) Boyle’s temperature (4) Kraft temperature

55. Which type of crystals contain only one Bravaislattice?

(1) Hexagonal (2) Triclinic

(3) Rhombohedral (4) All are correct

56. Ratio of Boyle temperature and critical temperaturefor a gas is

(1)8

27(2)

27

8

(3)1

2(4)

2

1

57. Pressure cooker reduces cooking time because

(1) Equal heat distribution

(2) More heat required

(3) Boiling point of water is elevated

(4) Water converted into steam

58. Correct order of basic strength for the followingcompound in aqueous medium will be

(a) (b) (c)

N N N N

(d)

(1) c > d > b > a (2) d > c > a > b

(3) c > d > a > b (4) a > b > d > c

59. Which of the following is correct for ethylene glycol?

(1) Skew form is more stable than anti-conformation

(2) Van’t Hoff factor i = 1

(3) Decrease the vapour pressure of water

(4) All are correct

60. CuSO4 solution is treated with excess of NH

3.

Which of the following is correct for product?

(1) Product is paramagnetic

(2) NH3 will behave as strong field ligand

(3) Hybridization of copper in complex formed is dsp2

(4) All are correct

61. Most easily dehydration takes place in acidicmedium among the following is

(1)

O

OH

(2)

O

OH

(3)

CH3

OH

(4)

OH

OH

62. Which is the weakest base?

(1) KOH (2) NaOH

(3) Ca(OH)2

(4) Zn(OH)2

63. The metal which does not form ammonium nitrate byreaction with very dilute nitric acid is

(1) Zn (2) Fe

(3) Sn (4) Mg

64. Temperature inside refrigerator decreases due to

(1) Gas compressed

(2) Ice expansion

(3) Chemical reaction

(4) Adiabatic expansion of gas in the refrigerator

(7)


65. On monochlorination of isobutane, the number ofenantiomeric pairs formed is

(1) Two (2) Zero

(3) Six (4) Eight

66. Halogen which is oxidised by HNO3 in aqueous

medium is

(1) F2

(2) Cl2

(3) I2

(4) All of these

67. A gas has a vapour density 11.2. The volumeoccupied by 1 g of the gas at STP will be

(1) 11.2 L (2) 22.4 L

(3) 1 L (4) 10 L

68. The elevation in boiling point of solution of 10 g of abinary electrolyte (molar mass 100) in 100 g of wateris T

b. The value of k

b for water is

(1) bT

2

(2) 10

(3) 10Tb

(4)b

T

10

69. Which of the following can be easily oxidised by F2?

(1) Mg2+ (aq) (2) Li (aq)

(3) H2O (4) All of these

70. Which of the following is correct for first orderkinetics?

(1) Reaction gets slower as it approaches to complete

(2) Rate of reaction independent on initial concentration

(3) Half life of reaction depends upon concentration

(4) All are correct

71. For CO molecule, correct statement is

(1) Sigma bond is weaker than pi-bond

(2) Cause minimum splitting in d-orbital

(3) Antibonding 2s orbital will donate electron in theformation of CO

(4) All are correct

72. Reagent which does not give acid chloride astreating with a carboxylic acid is

(1) PCl5

(2) Cl2

(3) SOCl2

(4) PCl3

73. Bredig’s arc method cannot be used to preparecolloidal solution of

(1) Pt (2) Hg

(3) Ag (4) Au

74. Equivalent mass of Na2CO

3 when titrated with HCl

using phenolphthalein indicator will be

(1) 106 (2) 53

(3) 5.3 (4) 10.6

75. Iodine solution is prepared by dissolving iodine in

(1) NaOH (2) Na2CO

3

(3) H2O (4) KI

76. Phosphoric acid may have n-factor

(1) 1 (2) 2

(3) 3 (4) All of these

77. Most suitable reagent used for the separation ofacetaldehyde from acetophenone is

(1) NaHSO3

(2) C6H

5NHNH

2

(3) NH2OH (4) NaOH – I

2

78. Monomer of orlon is

(1) Vinyl cyanide (2) Acrolein

(3) Glycol (4) Isoprene

79. For the following conversion

H C–C C–(CH ) –CH3 2 2 3

(A)

C=CH

H C3 H

(CH ) –CH2 2 3

Most suitable reagent A will be

(1) H2/Pd/BaSO

4(2) H

2/Pt/O

2

(3) NaBH4

(4) Na–NH3 liq.

80. The statement true for N3 is

(1) It has non-linear structure

(2) It is called pseudohalide ion

(3) Oxidation state of nitrogen is –1

(4) It is isoelectronic with NO2

81. The product A is

OH

CH OH2

(i) K CO2 3

(ii) CH I3

A(Major)

(1)

OH

CH CH2 3O

(2)

OCH3

CH OH2

(3)

CH3

CH OH2

(4)

OCH3

CH OCH2 3

82. Acetyl bromide reacts with excess of H3C – Mg – I

followed by treatment with saturated solution ofNH

4Cl gives

(1) Acetone (2) Acetyl iodide

(3) 2-Methyl-2-propanol (4) Acetamide

83. Barbituric acid is used as

(1) Antipyretic (2) Antiseptic

(3) Antibiotic (4) Tranquilizer

(8)


84. Cv for monatomic gas is

(1)7

R2

(2)3

R2

(3)1

R2

(4)5

R2

85. The reaction

R – C

O

x+ Nu R – C

O

Nu+ x

has maximum rate when x is

(1) Cl (2) NH2

(3) OC2H

5(4) OCOR

86. -Particles can be detected using

(1) Thin aluminium sheet(2) Barium sulphate

(3) Zinc sulphide screen (4) Gold foil

87. Which of the following is mixed anhydride?

(1) NO2

(2) N2O

3

(3) N2O (4) NO

BOTANY

88. IUPAC name of the given compound will be

H C – CH – CH2 2

CN CN CN

(1) Propane-1,2,3-tricarbonitrile

(2) Propane-1,2,3-tricyanide

(3) 3-cyano pentane-1, 5-dinitrile

(4) 1, 5-dicyano propane-2-nitrile

89. Which of the following give Beilstein test?

(1) Urea (2) Thiourea

(3) Halogen (4) All of these

90. Which of the following is intensive property?

(1) Ecell

(2) E°cell

(3) Normality

(4) All of these

91. How many taxons mentioned in the box belong tolowest category with the maximum number ofcommon characteristics?

Felis Petunia Mangifera indica, , Lion, , Brinjal, Dicots, Dog, Monocots, Mosses, Muscidae, Angiosperm, Grasses

(1) Nine (2) Seven

(3) Four (4) Six

92. The scientific name of a microorganism which issymbiotically associated with the root of most of thehigher plants like Pinus, has been standardised inaccordance to the rules of

(1) ICBN (2) ICNB

(3) ICNCP (4) ICZN

93. Organisms having cellular body organisation and withability to oxidise various inorganic substances anduse the released energy for their ATP production; are

A. Nitrifying bacteria of Kingdom Monera inLinnaeus system.

B. Sulphur bacteria belonging to Kingdom Protistain Haeckel system.

C. Holophytic protistans.

D. Non-pigmented iron bacteria of Kingdom Monerain Whittaker system.

(1) A, B & D are correct (2) A & B are correct

(3) C & D are correct (4) B & D are correct

94. Flagellated stage is absent in the life cycle of

(1) Diatoms, all slime moulds, Trypanosoma

(2) Sarcodines, Sporozoans, Sac fungi

(3) White rust fungus, Gonyaulax, Diatoms

(4) Blue green algae, Algal fungi, Slime moulds

95. Which of the following statements is correct forvirus?

(1) They form plasmodium stage after aggregation infavourable condition

(2) They are nucleo-proteins monerans

(3) Obligate intercellular parasites of infectiousnature

(4) They have only one type of nucleic acid whichis infectious

96. Criteria like DNA base sequencing for classifyingvarious organisms is considered in

(1) Karyotaxonomy

(2) Cytotaxonomy

(3) Chemotaxonomy

(4) More than one option is correct

97. Porphyra differs from Fucus in

(1) Having advanced type of sexual reproduction

(2) Absence of cellulose in cell wall

(3) Photosynthetic pigment of reaction centre inphotosystem

(4) Nature of male gametes and spores

(9)


98. Consider the following diagram w.r.t. concernedcharacteristics and select correct one.

(A) (B) (C)

(1) A - Dependent sporophyte, Diplontic life cycle

(2) B - Phanerogams without ovary, Heterosporous,Having symbiotic filamentous bacteria in root

(3) C - Independent sporophyte and gametophyte,Diplontic life cycle

(4) A - Independent gametophyte, Haplo-diplontic lifecycle, Zygotic meiosis

99. A lateral branch with short internodes and each nodebearing a rosette of leaves and a tuft of roots ismodified sub-aerial stem for

(1) Vegetative propagation in terrestrial plant

(2) Perennation in aquatic plant

(3) Vegetative propagation in aquatic plants

(4) Assimilatory function in Asparagus

100. Select correct match w.r.t. placentation.

a. Placenta forms a (i) Parietal

ridge on ventral

suture

b. Common type of (ii) Basalplacentation

c. Most advanced (iii) Axiletype placentation

d. Ovules on peripheral (iv) Marginalpart of the ovary

(1) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)

(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)

101. Features like actinomorphic flower, axile placentationand endospermous seeds are common in

(1) Solanaceae and Liliaceae

(2) Liliaceae and Fabaceae

(3) Brassicaceae and Fabaceae

(4) Graminae and Liliaceae

102. The meristems that occur in mature regions of rootsand shoots of many plants are

(1) Protoderm and procambium

(2) Ground meristems and intercalary meristems

(3) Dedifferentiated tissues

(4) Redifferentiated tissues

103. Select incorrectly matched pair.

(1) Collenchymatous – Dicot roothypodermis

(2) Conspicuous – Monocot rootparenchymatousground tissue

(3) Large and well – Dicot stemdeveloped pith

(4) Abundant starch – Dicot stemgrains in innermostlayer of cortex

104. Which of the following tissues is/are obliterated dueto the continued formation and accumulation ofsecondary xylem?

(1) Primary xylem and pith

(2) Phellem and phelloderm

(3) Primary and secondary phloem

(4) Primary phloem only

105. Select correct match.

a. Steroidal hormones (i) Chondriosome

b. Hydrolases (ii) SER

c. Oxidative (iii) Lysosomesphosphorylation

d. Storage of proteins (iv) Ribosomes

(v) Aleuroplast

(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(v) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)

(3) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(v) (4) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv)

106. Secondary constriction differs from primaryconstriction in being

(1) Present in all chromosomes near telomere

(2) Heterochromatin

(3) Euchromatin

(4) Attachment site for spindle fibres

107. Maximum cytoplasmic growth and duplication ofsemi-autonomous organelles occur in

(1) G1 and G

2 respectively

(2) G2 and M-phase respectively

(3) G1 only

(4) G2 only

108. What would be the number of bivalents (A) inmetaphase I and DNA amount in metaphase II (B) ina dividing cell if microspore has 30 chromosomeswith 10 picogram DNA?

(1) A = 30, B = 40 Pg (2) A = 60, B = 40 Pg

(3) A = 30, B = 60 Pg (4) A = 30, B = 20 Pg

(10)


109. Active transport differs from facilitated transport in

(1) Requirement of special membrane protein

(2) Direction of transport

(3) Highly selective nature

(4) Showing transport saturates

110. The reductive step of nitrogen cycle is carried out byhow many micro-organisms mentioned below in thebox?

Frankia Bacillus ramosus NitrobacterAzospirillum Nitrosomonas RhizobiumBacillus vulgaris Nitrococcus

, , ,

, , ,

,

(1) Six (2) Eight

(3) Three (4) Five

111. In photosynthetic pathway of sorghum plant C4-acids

are decarboxylated in ________ to start_________enzyme activity.

(1) Mesophyll; PEPcase

(2) Bundle sheath cell; RuBisCO

(3) Mesophyll; RuBisCO

(4) Bundle sheath cell, PEPcase

112. During aerobic respiration when substrate moleculeis 3-phospho glyceraldehyde [PGAL], total numberof protons transported in outer chamber/PMS and O

2

molecules used are respectively

(1) 17 H+; 6O2

(2) 17 pairs, 3O2

(3) 6 pairs; 3O2

(4) 30 H+; 6O2

113. Find correct match w.r.t. PGRs.

a. Promotes the (i) ABAabscission of older,mature leaves andfruits

b. Increases the length (ii) Cytokininof grape stalk

c. Adventitious shoot (iii) Gibberellinformation

d. Increases the (iv) Auxinstolerance of plantsto various kinds ofstresses

(1) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)

(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii)

114. A - Cell division is itself a mode of reproduction inprotists and monerans.

B - Neelakurinji is annual with distinct vegetative,reprodctive and senescent phase.

C - In majority of organisms, male gamete is motileand the female gamete is stationary.

(1) All are correct (2) A & B are correct

(3) Only B is incorrect (4) Only A is incorrect

115. Which of the following type of life cycle isassociated with the organisms where zygotedevelops a thick wall that is resistant to desiccationand damage?

(1) Diplontic

(2) Haplontic

(3) Haplo-diplontic


116. A typical angiosperm anther is

(1) Monothecous and tetrasporangiate

(2) Bilobed and bisporangiate

(3) Dithecous and trilobed

(4) Bilobed and tetrasporangiate

117. Select correct statement w.r.t. female gametophytedevelopment in flowering plants.

(1) Micropylar megaspore undergoes three freenuclear mitosis

(2) Six nuclei are surrounded by cell walls andorganised into cells

(3) The large central cell has two nuclei situatedabove egg apparatus

(4) Centrifugal cytokinesis starts after eight-nucleatestage

118. Which outbreeding device prevents both autogamyand geitonogamy in papaya?

(1) Self-incompatibility (2) Dichogamy

(3) Heterostyly (4) Dioecism

119. Select the incorrect match.

(1) Apospory - Diploid egg

(2) Apomictic embryo - Nucellar embryo

(3) False fruits - Unfertilized ovary

(4) Perispermic seed - Blackpepper

120. In Snapdragon, pure line tall plant with red flowerwas crossed with dwarf and white flowered plant; F

1

was test crossed to obtain F2. What is the probability

of getting progeny with dominant parental traits?

(1) 62% (2) 50%

(3) 25% (4) 0%

121. What is incorrect for Morgan’s dihybrid crossconsidering body colour and eye colour in fruit fly?

(1) Parental line had yellow body and white eyedfemale

(2) All F1 male progeny were wild type

(3) Parental type F2 progeny were 98.7%

(4) Male progeny with recombinant traits were0.65% in F

2 generation.

(11)


122. Select correct match.

a. Broad palm with (i) Philadelphia syndromecharacteristic palmcrease

b. Gynaecomastia (ii) Turner’s syndrome

c. Rudimentary ovaries (iii) Klinefelter’s syndrome

d. Chronic myelogenous (iv) Down’s syndromeleukemia

(1) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (2) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)

(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii) (4) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)

123. The given pedigree chart represents the inheritanceof how many genetic disorders mentioned in box?

a. Myotonic dystrophy b. Polydactyly

c. PKU d. Colour-blindness

e. Muscular dystrophy f. Morphan syndrome

g. Porcupine skin h. SCA

(1) a, b & f (2) c, d & e

(3) c & h (4) f & g

124. Consider the given figure and select correct option forlabel marked by A, B, C & D.

DNA RNA ProteinC

A

BD

(1) A - DNA dependent DNA polymeraseB - Replication

(2) C - DNA dependent RNA polymeraseA - RNA dependent DNA polymerase

(3) C - RNA dependent RNA polymeraseD - DNA dependent Ribozyme

(4) B - RNA dependent DNA polymeraseD - RNA dependent peptidyl transferase

125. Select correct statement.

(1) RNA is more labile due to methyl uracil

(2) DNA is preferred for the transmission of geneticinformation

(3) RNA acts as adapter and catalyst

(4) Presence of thymine confers stability to thehelical structure of DNA

126. In eukaryotes, a gene is literally not defined as

(1) Cistron

(2) Functional unit of inheritance

(3) A segment of DNA coding for a polypeptide

(4) DNA sequence which has continuous informationfor a polypeptide

127. The adapter molecules for tryptophan and methionineduring polypeptide synthesis are

(1)

3

A C C

3

A U G

(2)

3

A C C

3

U A C

(3)

3

U G G

3

U A C

(4)

3

U C U

3

C U G

128. Classical plant breeding involves

(1) Improved management practices

(2) Domestication

(3) Hybridisation and selection


129. Tissue culture technique applied for the recovery ofhealthy plants from diseased plants is

(1) Somatic hybridisation

(2) Embryo culture

(3) Androgenic culture

(4) Meristem culture

130. A bioactive molecule used as an immunosuppressiveagent in organ transplant patients is ________ byfermentive activity of ___________.

(1) Clot buster, Streptococcus

(2) TPA, Streptobacillus

(3) Cyclosporin A, Trichoderma polysporum

(4) Statins, Monascus purpureus

(12)


ZOOLOGY

131. The main source of biofertilisers in terrestrialenvironments are

(1) Bacteria only

(2) Bacteria and fungi

(3) Fungi and BGA

(4) Bacteria, cyanobacteria and fungi

132. Select correct features for tropical forest.

a. Stenothermal vegetations

b. Eurythermal vegetation

c. Latitudinal gradient 0° to 23.5° N & S

d. Latitudinal gradient 20° to 40°

e. Mean annual precipitation 2000 - 3500 mm

f. Mean annual temperature 20°C to 32°C

g. Maximum standing crop

h. Upper layer of soil enrich with base contents

(1) a, c, e & g (2) a, b, e & h

(3) b, c, d, e & g (4) All correct, except b & d

133. The ecological pyramid of number for predator foodchain on a tree is

(1) Straight

(2) Inverted

(3) Spindle-shaped

(4) Bell-shaped

134. Amongst vertebrates the diversity of amphibians (A),fishes (B), birds (C), reptiles (D), mammals (E) iscorrectly represented by

(1) B > C > A > D > E (2) B > C > D > A > E

(3) B > D > C > A > E (4) C > E > B > A > D

135. Most effective device to remove particulate matterpresent in the exhaust released from a thermalpower plant is

(1) Scrubber

(2) Catalytic converters

(3) ESP

(4) CPCB

136. X and Y are hormones. X stimulates the secretion ofY, which exerts negative feedback on the cells thatsecretes X. What happens when the blood level of Ydecreases?

(1) Less X is secreted

(2) More X is secreted

(3) Secretion of X stops

(4) Less Y is secreted

137. Iodothyronines

(1) Bind to cell membrane receptors

(2) Bind to mRNA

(3) Eventually forms hormone-receptor complexesthat bind to DNA

(4) Never enters the cells

138. If the sodium-potassium pump of a neuron failed,what effect would this likely have on the neuronsfunctions?

(1) The concentration of positive and negative ionswould cause the neuron be negative inside

(2) Voltage gated potassium channels and voltagegated sodium channels would no longer function

(3) The neuron could not conduct another actionpotential until the resting potential was fullyrestored

(4) The concentration of sodium ions would behigher outside the cell and potassium ions wouldbe higher inside

139. Which of the following is a non-specific defense?

(1) Antibody response

(2) The T-cell response

(3) The inflammatory response

(4) The B-cell response

140. If a person is infected with some deadly microbes towhich quick immune response is required as intetanus, what should be done?

(1) Immediately tetanus toxoid vaccine should begiven

(2) We need to directly inject antitoxin, as ATSinjection

(3) Antibiotic injection should be given to destroytetanus toxin

(4) Steroids would immediately reduce thesymptoms

141. Antigen binding site of antibody molecule is madeup of

(1) Variable region of light chain

(2) Variable region of heavy chain

(3) Variable regions of both light and heavy chains,present at N-terminal end

(4) Constant regions of light and heavy chainspresent at C-terminal end

142. What type of blood contains B antibodies (but not Aantibody), in the plasma and lacks Rh antigens?

(1) AB negative (2) A negative

(3) B negative (4) O positive

(13)


143. The HIV virus is particularly dangerous because itattacks

A. Cells with CD4

+ coreceptor

B. Helper T-cells

C. 60% to 80% circulating T-cells in the body

D. Depletes macrophages, called HIV factory

(1) A and B (2) B and C

(3) A, B and C (4) B and D

144. Which of the following statements is not true?

(1) ADH makes the collecting duct more permeableto water

(2) Guano deposits contain high concentrations ofphosphate rich uric acid

(3) Aldosterone is produced by the anterior lobe ofpituitary in response to high levels of sodiumions in blood plasma

(4) Uric acid is least soluble and least toxic of thenitrogenous products

145. Which is not involved in the knee jerk reflex?

(1) Stretching of the muscle

(2) Motor neuron

(3) Muscle spindle

(4) An interneuron

146. Which of the following cannot be used as a vector?

(1) Phage

(2) Plasmid

(3) Bacterium

(4) All can be used as vectors

147. A DNA library is

(1) A collection of all genes sequenced so far

(2) A collection of DNA fragments that make up theentire genome of a particular organism

(3) A DNA fragment inserted into the vector

(4) All DNA fragments identified with a probe

148. Each of the following statements concerning malariais correct, except

(1) The female Anopheles mosquito is the vector

(2) Early in infection, sporozoites reach the liverthrough blood

(3) Parasites reproduce asexually in the red bloodcells, bursting the RBCs and causing cycles offever and chills

(4) Sexual stages gametocytes develop in thehuman gastrointestinal tract

149. The finch species of the Galapagos Islands aregrouped according to their food sources. Which ofthe following is not a finch food source?

(1) Seeds (2) Carrion

(3) Insects (4) Tree buds

150. New strains of bird flu viruses are most likely to arisein far east because of

(1) Over population in these areas

(2) Adequate sanitation is lacking

(3) Common hosts (ducks, chicken, pigs) live inclose proximity to humans

(4) Environmental mutagens that cause changes inviral RNA

151. False statement w.r.t. hCG is

(1) High levels of circulating hCG, stimulate estrogenand progesterone synthesis

(2) If fertilisation occurs, the corpus luteum isrescued from regression by hCG, produced bythe placenta

(3) Action of hCG is identical to LH

(4) High levels of hCG in uterus stimulatesendometrial thickening

152. What is the role of Ca2+ ions in muscle contraction?

(1) It binds to tropomyosin, enabling the troponin tomove and reveal the binding sites for crossbridges

(2) It binds to troponin, enabling the tropomyosin tomove, thereby unmasking the active sites formyosin

(3) It binds to tropomyosin, enabling troponin torelease ATP

(4) It binds to troponin, enabling tropomyosin torelease ATP

153. Which of the following is incorrect match of joints,their description and one example?

Joint Description Example

(1) Cartilaginous Permits limited Joint betweenmovements. adjacentBones joined vertebrae oftogether by vertebral

cartilage column

(2) Fibrous joint Bones are Shown by flatfused end bones of skullto end by

white fibres

(3) Synovial Presence of Knee jointfluid in synovialcavity. Allowsconsiderable

movement

(4) Pivot Allows limited Between atlas

movement. and axis

Absence of

synovial cavity

(14)


154. Which of the following is autoimmune disorderaffecting neuromuscular junction leading to fatigue,weakening and paralysis of skeletal muscles?

(1) Muscular dystrophy (2) Osteoporosis

(3) Tetany (4) Myasthenia gravis

155. Which of the following is not a correct differencebetween rods and cones?

Function Rods Cones

(1) Sensitivity to Twilight, Daylight,light scotopic photopic

vision vision

(2) Photo pigments Rhodopsin or Iodopsin orvisual purple visual violet

(3) Acuity Lower visual Greatestacuity. Not visual acuitypresent in present infovea fovea

(4) Dark adaptation Rods adapt Cones adaptfirst later

156. Which of the following epithelial tissue is notcorrectly matched w.r.t. location and function?

EPITHELIUM LOCATION FUNCTION

(1) Squamous Walls of blood Diffusion andvessels filtration

(2) Cuboidal Ducts of the Secretion andglands and absorptiontubular partsof nephrons

(3) Ciliated Bronchioles To move thecolumnar and fallopian particles and

tubes mucus ina specificdirection

(4) Ciliated DCT Absorptioncuboidal

157. Which of the following is false about probe?

A. It is ssDNA or ssRNA

B. Used to detect ‘gene of interest’

C. Used to detect mutations in genes in suspectedcancer patients

D. Used to detect HIV in suspected AIDS patients

(1) A only (2) A and B

(3) A, B and C (4) A, B, C and D

158. Which hormone is secreted when a person isrunning up the stairs, he experiences increased rateof heart beat, respiration and cardiac output?

(1) Aldosterone and cortisol

(2) Adrenaline and nor-adrenaline

(3) Thyroxine and thymosin

(4) Insulin and glucagon

159. Otolith organ consists of

(1) Semicircular canals and cristae

(2) Utricle and saccule

(3) Crista ampullaris and macula

(4) Organ of Corti

160. Tick the incorrect match

(1) PCT - 70 to 80 percent of electrolytesand water are reabsorbed bythis segment

(2) Henle’s Loop - Reabsorption in this segment isminimum

(3) DCT - Conditional reabsorption of Na+

and water takes place in thissegment

(4) ADH - It decreases blood pressure,decreases glomerular blood flowand thereby the GFR

161. Which of the following correctly explains a phase/event in cardiac cycle in a standard electrocardiogram?

(1) P-wave - Marks the beginning of ventricularsystole

(2) Q-wave - Represents depolarisation of atria

(3) T-wave - Represents ventricular repolarisation

(4) QRS - By counting the number of QRScomplexes that occur in a giventime, one cannot determine heartrate

162. Which of the following is correct match w.r.t.leucocytes its diagram illustrated and itsdescription?

Leucocyte Description

(1)

Basophil

2 – 3 percent resistinfections and are alsoassociated with allergicreactions

(2)

Eosinophil

Secrete histamine,serotonin, heparin and areinvolved in inflammatoryreactions

(3)

Neutrophil

They are the mostabundant of total WBCsand are phagocytic innature

(4)

Monocyte

Also called PMNL and

help in phagocytosis

(15)


163. What is the maximum amount of air a person canbreathe out after a forced inspiration?

(1) ERV + TV + IRV

(2) ERV + RV

(3) RV + ERV + TV + IRV

(4) TV + IRV

164. Tick the incorrect match with respect to drug, itssource and action.

Drug Source Action

(1) Cocaine Erythroxylum Interferes with thecoca transport of

dopamine

(2) Morphine Latex of Sedative andPapaver painkillersomniferum

(3) LSD Fruiting bodies Hallucinogenicof Claviceps substancepurpurea

(4) Vincristine Leaves of rosy Prevent theand Vinblastin periwinkle disassembly of

and tubulin ofmicrotubules

165. False statement is

(1) Inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by malonatecan be reversed by increasing the concentrationof succinate

(2) Non-competitive inhibition occurs when theinhibitor and substrate bind at different sites onthe enzyme

(3) Non-competitive inhibitors do not interfere withthe binding of substrate to enzyme. It can beovercome by increasing the concentration ofsubstrate

(4) A competitive inhibitor of an enzyme increasesK

m without affecting V

max

166. Whales, bats, cheetah and human share similaritiesin the pattern of bones of forelimbs. This is anexample of

(1) Adaptive radiation (2) Divergent evolution

(3) Convergent evolution (4) Parallel evolution

167. Homo sapiens arose in Africa and moved acrosscontinents and developed into distinct races. This isproved as/by

A. Study ing the pa t te rn o f va r ia t i ons i nY-chromosomes, as it shows uniparentalinheritance

B. Maximum variations are found in themitochondrial DNA of Africans

C. Maximum variations are found in themitochondrial DNA of Asians

D. Mitochondrial DNA of Africans shows minimumgenetic variability

(1) C and D (2) A and B

(3) A and C (4) B and C

168. The highest failure rate in birth control is associatedwith

A. Condoms

B. Abstinence

C. Foam

D. The rhythm method

E. IUDs

F. Injectable contraceptives

(1) A and B (2) B and D

(3) F and B (4) A, B and D

169. Tick the incorrect match.

(1) GIFT - Transfer of an ovum collected from adonor into the fallopian tube of anotherfemale, who cannot produce one butcan provide suitable environment forfertilisation

(2) ZIFT - Embryos with more than eightblastomeres are transferred into thefallopian tube

(3) IUI - Intrauterine insemination

(4) ICSI - Sperms are directly injected into ovum

170. What is the term used for inserting a healthy copyof a gene into a person who has a defective gene?

(1) Cloning vector

(2) Gene therapy

(3) Recombinant DNA

(4) Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

171. False statement about sharks is

(1) Sexes are separate, fertilisation is internal andthey are viviparous

(2) In males pelvic fins bear claspers to transfersperms while mating

(3) Gill slits on lateral sides, absence of air bladder

(4) Sharks use claspers to hold the prey whilefeeding

172. All the following statements are correct aboutembryonic development, except

(1) During cleavage there is no increase in amountof cytoplasm but increase in DNA content

(2) Cleavage is influenced by the quantity and thepattern of distribution of the yolk in the cell

(3) The trophoblast layer gets attached to theendometrium and the inner cell mass getsdifferentiated into embryo

(4) The first movements of the foetus and theappearance of hair on the head are usuallyobserved during the first trimester

(16)


��

173. Telomerase activity is high in

A. Differentiated cell

B. Actively dividing mitotic cell

C. Cancerous cells

D. Cells showing senescence

(1) A and D (2) B and C

(3) D only (4) A, B, C and D

174. Which of the following reaction is not catalysed bythe secretions of the brush border cells of mucosa?

(1) Maltose Maltase Glucose + Glucose

(2) Lactose Lactase Glucose + Galactose

(3) Starch Amylase Disaccharides

(4) Sucrose Sucrase Glucose + Fructose

175. All the following statements are correct about thereproductive system of cockroach, but one is wrong,which one is wrong?

(1) Male reproductive system consists of a pair oftestes lying one on reach lateral side in the 4th

to 6th abdominal segments

(2) Mushroom gland is present in 6th-7th abdominalsegments in male

(3) The development of P. americana ispaurometabolous, nymph grows by moultingabout 13 times to reach the adult form

(4) In female a pair of spermathecae are present inthe 8th abdominal segment which opens intogenital chamber

176. Which of the following is correct matching set aboutthe group, its example and its characteristics?

Group Example Characteristics

(1) Aves Columba O v i p a r o u s ,dicondyli skull and12 pairs of cranialnerves

(2) Reptilia Calotes Body is coveredwith epidermalscales, post analtail present

(3) Mammalia Ornithorhynchus V i v i p a r o u sdicondylic skull

(4) Chandrich- Torpedo The skin is toughthyes containing minute

epidermal scales

177. Which of the following is the best breeding methodfor animals that are below average in productivity inmilk production and growth rate in beef cattle?

(1) Inbreeding

(2) Outbreeding

(3) Cross-breeding

(4) MOET

178. Which of the following is not correctly matched withone characteristic and the taxon?

Animal Characteristic Taxon

(1) Scorpion (i) Four pairs of Arachnidwalking legs

(ii) Book lungs

(2) Silverfish (i) Ventral Insectanerve cord

(ii) Externalfertilisation

(3) Octopus (i) Skull is absent Mollusca(ii) Radula present

(4) Prawn (i) Gills present Crustacean(ii) Excretion through

green glands

179. How is the digestion of fats different from that ofproteins and carbohydrates?

(1) Fats are absorbed in the large intestine, andproteins and carbohydrates are absorbed in thesmall intestine

(2) Fats enter the hepatic portal circulation butproteins and carbohydrates enter the lymphaticsystem

(3) Fats are absorbed into the cells as fatty acidsand monoglycerides but are then modified for theabsorption into lymph while aminoacids andglucose are not modified further

(4) Fat digestion occurs in the small intestine, andthe digestion of protein and carbohydrates occursin the stomach

180. Hisardale, a new breed of sheep developed in Punjabis an example of

(1) Inbreeding

(2) Outcrossing

(3) Cross-breeding

(4) Interspecific hybridisation

Edition: 2020-21

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