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OMR

Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2019

Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so

Important Instructions /

Form Number :

DISTANCE LEARNING PROGRAMME(Academic Session : 2018 - 2019)

TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2019

LEADER TEST SERIES / JOINT PACKAGE COURSE

Test Type : Unit Test Test # 03 Test Pattern : NEET-UG

TEST DATE : 05- 08 - 2018

*0999DMD310318003*Paper Code

(0999DMD310318003)

Leader Test Series/Joint Package Course/NEET-UG/05-08-2018

0999DMD310318003 LTS-1/35

BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING

HAVE CONTROL HAVE PATIENCE HAVE CONFIDENCE 100% SUCCESS

1. Find the maximum force for which both the block

will move with same acceleration.

8kg

4kg

F=0.4

smooth

(1) 16 N (2) 32 N (3) 48 N (4) 8 N

2. Find the minimum value of m that should placed

on 20 kg, so that system remain at rest.

(1) 10 kg (2) 20 kg

(3) 30 kg (4) 40 kg

3. The tension in the string which connected the

blocks as shown in the following figure.

4 kg 6 kg 60º

40 N

(1) 8 N (2) 16 N

(3) 20 N (4) 12 N

4. Three blocks of masses 4kg, 6kg and 8kg are

hanging over a fixed pulley as shown. The tension

in the string connecting 8kg and 4kg block is

6kg

8kg

4kg

(1) 4 N (2) 6 N

(3) 160

3 N (4)

80

3 N

1.

8kg

4kg

F=0.4

smooth

(1) 16 N (2) 32 N (3) 48 N (4) 8 N

2. 20 kg m

(1) 10 kg (2) 20 kg

(3) 30 kg (4) 40 kg

3.

4 kg 6 kg 60º

40 N

(1) 8 N (2) 16 N

(3) 20 N (4) 12 N

4. 4kg, 6kg 8kg 8kg 4kg -

6kg

8kg

4kg

(1) 4 N (2) 6 N

(3) 160

3 N (4)

80

3 N

TOPIC : Laws of Motion and Friction, Capacitors.

Target : Pre-Medical 2019/NEET-UG/05-08-2018

0999DMD310318003LTS-2/35

5. Figure shows four blocks that are being pulled

along a smooth horizontal surface. The masses of

the blocks and tension in one string are given.

The pulling force F is :-

8 kg 6 kg 4 kg 2kg

F

60º 6N

(1) 12 N (2) 6 N

(3) 40 N (4) 20 N

6. A cricket ball of mass 500 g collides with a bat

with speed 15 m/s and returns with the same speed

within 0.01 second. The force acted on bat is :-

(1) 750 N (2) 1500 N

(3) 500 N (4) 1000 N

7. Ten one-rupee coins are put on top of each other

on a table. Each coin has a mass m. The reaction

of the 4th coin (counted from the bottom) on the

5th coin is :-

(1) 4 mg (2) 5 mg (3) 6 mg (4) 7 mg

8. A force-time graph for the motion of a body is

shown in the figure. The change in the momentum

of the body between zero to 10 sec is :-

t(s)

F(N)

1

0

2

810

(1) zero

(2) 4 kg-m/sec

(3) 6 kg-m/sec

(4) 10 kg-m/sec

9. A block of mass 8 kg is at rest on a rough inclined

plane as shown in figure. The magnitude of net

force exerted by the surface on the block will be:-

8kg

37º

(1) zero (2) 48N (3) 64N (4) 80N

5.

F

8 kg 6 kg 4 kg 2kg

F

60º 6N

(1) 12 N (2) 6 N

(3) 40 N (4) 20 N

6. 500 g 15 m/s

0.01

(1) 750 N (2) 1500 N

(3) 500 N (4) 1000 N

7.

m

-

(1) 4 mg (2) 5 mg (3) 6 mg (4) 7 mg

8.

10 -

t(s)

F(N)

1

0

2

810

(1) zero

(2) 4 kg-m/sec

(3) 6 kg-m/sec

(4) 10 kg-m/sec

9. 8 kg

8kg

37º

(1) (2) 48N (3) 64N (4) 80N


0999DMD310318003 LTS-3/35

10. A body of mass 1 kg lies on smooth inclined plane.

The body is given force F = 10N horizontally as

shown. The magnitude of net normal reaction on

the body is :-

45º

m=1kg

F=10N

(1) 10 2 N (2) 10

N2

(3) 10 N (4) None of these

11. In the figure shown 'P' is a plate on which a wedge

B is placed and on B a block A of mass m is

placed. The plate is suddenly removed and system

of B and A is allowed to fall under gravity.

Neglecting any force due to air on A and B, the

normal force on A due to B is :-

(1) mg

cos

(2) mg cos

(3) zero

(4) 2mg

cos

12. The pulleys and strings shown in the figure are

smooth and of negligible mass. For the system to

remain in equilibrium, the angle should be:-

m m

2m

(1) 0º (2) 30º

(3) 45º (4) 60º

10. 1 10N :-

45º

m=1kg

F=10N

(1) 10 2 N (2) 10

N2

(3) 10 N (4) 11. 'P'

(wedge) B B m A A BB A A B :-

(1) mg

cos

(2) mg cos

(3)

(4) 2mg

cos

12. :-

m m

2m

(1) 0º (2) 30º

(3) 45º (4) 60º


0999DMD310318003LTS-4/35

13. There are four forces acting at a point P produced

by strings as shown in figure, point P is at rest.

The forces F1 and F

2 are respectively :-

90º F1

F2

1N45º45º

2N

P

(1) 1 3

N, N2 2

(2) 3 1

N, N2 2

(3) 1 1

N, N2 2

(4) 3 3

N, N2 2

14. A ball is suspended on a thread from the ceiling

of a car. The brakes are applied and the speed of

car changes from 5 m/sec to 5/3 m/sec during the

time interval of 3 seconds. The angle that the

thread will deviate from vertical.

(1) 1 1tan

9

(2) 1 8tan

9

(3) 1 1sin

9

(4) 1 1

cos9

15. A block of mass M is pulled along a horizontal

frictionless surface by a rope of mass m. Force P

is applied at one end of rope. The force which the

rope exerts on the block is :-

(1) P

(M m) (2) P

M(m M)

(3) PM

(m M) (4) PM

(M m)

16. Three blocks are connected as shown in figure on

a horizontal frictionless table. If m1 = 1kg,

m2 = 8kg, m

3 = 27 kg and T

3 = 36N, T

2 will be :-

m1 m2 m3T3T2T1

(1) 18 N

(2) 9 N

(3) 3.375 N

(4) 1.75 N

13. P P F

1 F

2

:-

90º F1

F2

1N45º45º

2N

P

(1) 1 3

N, N2 2

(2) 3 1

N, N2 2

(3) 1 1

N, N2 2

(4) 3 3

N, N2 2

14. 3 5 5/3

(1) 1 1tan

9

(2) 1 8tan

9

(3) 1 1sin

9

(4) 1 1

cos9

15. M m P :-

(1) P

(M m)(2)

P

M(m M)

(3) PM

(m M) (4) PM

(M m)

16. m

1 = 1kg, m

2 = 8kg,

m3 = 27 kg T

3 = 36N T

2 :-

m1 m2 m3T3T2T1

(1) 18 N

(2) 9 N

(3) 3.375 N

(4) 1.75 N


0999DMD310318003 LTS-5/35

17. A block pressed against the vertical wall is in

equilibrium. The minimum coefficient of friction

is:-

mmg

mg2

(1) 0.4 (2) 0.2

(3) 0.5 (4) none of these

18. A box of mass m kg is placed on the rear side of

an open truck accelerating at 4 m/s2. The

coefficient of friction between the box and the

surface below it is 0.4. The net acceleration of

the box with respect to the truck is zero. The value

of m is :- [g = 10m/s2]

(1) 4 kg

(2) 8 kg

(3) 9.78 kg

(4) It could be any value

19. A block of mass 15 kg is resting on a rough

inclined plane as shown in figure. The block

is tied up by a horizontal string which has

a tension of 50N. The coefficient of friction

between the surfaces of contact is

(g = 10m/s2)

M

T

450

(1) 1

2(2)

2

3

(3) 3

4(4)

1

4

20. A block of mass 4 kg rests on an inclined plane.

The inclination of the plane is gradually increased.

it is found that when the inclination is 3 in

5 3

sin5

, the block just begins to slide down

the plane. The coefficient of friction between the

block and the plane is :-

(1) 0.4 (2) 0.6 (3) 0.8 (4) 0.75

17. :-

mmg

mg2

(1) 0.4 (2) 0.2

(3) 0.5 (4) 18. 4 m/s2

m

0.4

m :-[g = 10m/s2]

(1) 4 kg

(2) 8 kg

(3) 9.78 kg

(4)

19. 15

50N

(g = 10 /2)

M

T

450

(1) 1

2(2)

2

3

(3) 3

4(4)

1

4

20. 4

3

sin5

:-

(1) 0.4 (2) 0.6 (3) 0.8 (4) 0.75


0999DMD310318003LTS-6/35

21. A uniform rope of mass 1.0 kg is connected with

a box of mass 2.0 kg, which is placed on a smooth

horizontal surface. The free end of the rope is

pulled horizontally by a force 6 N. Find the

tension at the midpoint of the rope.

F

(1) 4 N (2) 1 N (3) 5 N (4) 2 N

22. A force acts on a block as shown in figure. Find

time when block loses contact with surface.

=0.4

F=10t

10kg

37°

(1) t = 25/3 sec (2) t = 50/3 sec

(3) t = 100/3 sec (4) t = 50 sec

23. A block is dragged on a smooth plane with the

help of a rope which moves with a velocity v as

shown in figure. The horizontal velocity of the

block is :

(1) v (2) v

sin (3) v sin (4)

vcos

24. A weight can be hung in any of following four

ways by using same string. In which case is the

string more likely is break

w

(A)

w

(B)

w

(C)

w

(D)

(1) A (2) B

(3) C (4) D

21. 1.0 kg

2.0 kg

6 N

F

(1) 4 N (2) 1 N (3) 5 N (4) 2 N

22.

=0.4

F=10t

10kg

37°

(1) t = 25/3 sec (2) t = 50/3 sec

(3) t = 100/3 sec (4) t = 50 sec

23.

v

(1) v (2) v

sin (3) v sin (4)

vcos

24.

w

(A)

w

(B)

w

(C)

w

(D)

(1) A (2) B

(3) C (4) D


0999DMD310318003 LTS-7/35

25. A block is kept on a fixed smooth wedge whose

vertical section is a curve 2x

y3

as shown in

figure where x represents horizontal direction andy represents vertical direction. When released

from a point where 1

4 3y , what will be its

acceleration? (g = 10 m/s2)

x(m)

y(m)

fixed

(1) 2.5 m/s2 (2) 25 3 m / s

(3) 5 m/s2 (4) Can’t be determined

26. In the given circuit, ratio of charge stored in the

capacitors C, 2C, 3C, 4C, 5C is :-

4C5C

3C

2CC

(1) 3 : 4 : 9 : 8 : 25 (2) 3 : 4 : 8 : 9 : 25

(3) 3 : 9 : 4 : 8 : 15 (4) 4 : 3 : 9 : 8 : 25

27. Find the equivalent capacitance between A and B:-1µF 2µF

1µF 1µF 2µF

1µF2µF

1µFB

A

(1)3

7 F (2) 1 F (3)

4

5 F (4)

2

5 F

28. The charge on the capacitors of capacitance 10µF

and 24µF steady state will be :

10µF

24µF12V

4

(1) 0 µC, 0 µC (2) 12 µC, 24 µC

(3) 120 µC, 0 µC (4) 120 µC, 120 µC

25.

2x

y3

x

y

1

4 3y

(g = 10 m/s2)

x(m)

y(m)

fixed

(1) 2.5 m/s2 (2) 25 3 m / s

(3) 5 m/s2 (4) 26. C, 2C, 3C, 4C, 5C

:-

4C5C

3C

2CC

(1) 3 : 4 : 9 : 8 : 25 (2) 3 : 4 : 8 : 9 : 25

(3) 3 : 9 : 4 : 8 : 15 (4) 4 : 3 : 9 : 8 : 25

27. A B :-1µF 2µF

1µF 1µF 2µF

1µF2µF

1µFB

A

(1)3

7 F (2) 1 F (3)

4

5 F (4)

2

5 F

28. 10µF 24µF :-

10µF

24µF12V

4

(1) 0 µC, 0 µC (2) 12 µC, 24 µC

(3) 120 µC, 0 µC (4) 120 µC, 120 µC


0999DMD310318003LTS-8/35

29. In the circuit shown in figure, if the switch S is

closed at t = 0, then the capacitor charges with a

time constant.C R

2R

E S

(1) RC (2) 3RC

(3)2

RC3

(4) 2

RC ln3

30. Find I1 and I

2 at steady states :-

S

R2 R3

C2

I1

I2

R1

t=0

C1

(1)1 2

E,0

R R

(2) 1 2 1 3

E E,

R R R R

(3)1 2 2 3

E E,

R R R R

(4) 1 3

E0,

R R

31. The equivalent capacitance of the combinatio

shown in Figure is :-

(1) C (2) 2C (3) 3

2C (4)

C

232. During charging and discharging of a capacitor:-

(1) Current flows in the circuit, which is constant

during charging or discharging duration

(2) No current flows in the circuit

(3) Current flows in the circuit and is varying with

time

(4) During charging current is constant but while

discharging current is variable

29. t = 0

C R

2R

E S

(1) RC (2) 3RC

(3)2

RC3

(4) 2

RC ln3

30. I1 I

2 :-

S

R2 R3

C2

I1

I2

R1

t=0

C1

(1)1 2

E,0

R R

(2) 1 2 1 3

E E,

R R R R

(3)1 2 2 3

E E,

R R R R

(4) 1 3

E0,

R R

31. :-

(1) C (2) 2C (3) 3

2C (4)

C

2

32. :-(1)

(2) (3)

(4)


0999DMD310318003 LTS-9/35

33. Find capacitance across AB :-

AC C C B

(1)C

3(2) 3C

(3) C (4) None of these

34. Match the pairs :

A B C D

(1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (iii)

35. If the distance between parallel plates of a

capacitor is halved and dielectric constant is

doubled then the capacitance will become :-

(1) Half

(2) Two times

(3) Four times

(4) Remains the same

36. In the circuit shown, a potential difference of 60V

is applied across AB. The potential difference

between the point M and N is :-

(1) 10 V

(2) 15 V

(3) 20 V

(4) 30 V

37. The equivalent capacitance of the system of

capacitors between A and B as shown in the figure.

(1) 7

6C

(2) 1.6 C

(3) C

(4) None

33. A B :-

AC C C B

(1)C

3(2) 3C

(3) C (4) 34. :

A B C D

(1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (iii)

35. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

36. AB 60 V M N (1) 10 V

(2) 15 V

(3) 20 V

(4) 30 V

37. AB

(1) 7

6C

(2) 1.6 C

(3) C

(4)


0999DMD310318003LTS-10/35

38. In the given circuit, a charge of +80 C is given

to the upper plate of the 4F capacitor. Then in

the steady state, the charge on the upper plate of

the 3F capacitor is :

2 F 3 F

4 F+80 C

(1) + 32 C (2) + 40C

(3) +48C (4) + 80C

39. Find the equivalent capacitance across A & B

(1) 3

28f (2)

2

15F

(3) 15 F (4) none

40. Four identical capacitors are connected in serieswith a battery of emf 10V. The point X is earthed,

then the potential of point A is–

A B

C C C X C

+ -10V

(1) 10 V (2) 7.5 V

(3) –7.5 V (4) 0 V

41. If potential of A is 10V, then potential of B is-

1 FB

1 F

1 F

10VA

(1) 25

V3

(2) 50

V3

(3) 100

V3

(4) 50 V

38. 4 F

+ 80 C 3F

2 F 3 F

4 F+80 C

(1) + 32 C (2) + 40C

(3) +48C (4) + 80C

39. AB

(1) 3

28f (2)

2

15F

(3) 15 F (4)

40. 10V X A

A B

C C C X C

+ -10V

(1) 10 V (2) 7.5 V

(3) –7.5 V (4) 0 V

41. A10VB

1 FB

1 F

1 F

10VA

(1) 25

V3

(2) 50

V3

(3) 100

V3

(4) 50 V


0999DMD310318003 LTS-11/35

42. In the circuit shown, the energy stored in 1F

capacitor is

(1) 40 J (2) 64 J (3) 32 J (4) none

43. In the transient current circuit shown, the time

constant is :

(1) 3

5RC (2)

2

5RC (3) RC

4

7 (4) RC

3

7

44. In the circuit shown in figure.

5012V

10µF

100

(1) In steady state, there is no current in the

100 resistor

(2) In steady state, the current in 100 resistor is

0.08 A

(3) In steady state, there is no current in the 50

resistor

(4) In steady state, the current in 50 resistor is

0.04 A

45. If there are n capacitors in parallel connected to V

volt source, then the energy stored is equal to-

(1) CV (2) 12

nCV2 (3) CV2 (4) 12n

CV2

42. 1F

(1) 40 J (2) 64 J (3) 32 J (4)

43.

(1) 3

5RC (2)

2

5RC (3) RC

4

7 (4) RC

3

7

44.

5012V

10µF

100

(1) 100

(2) 100 0.08 A

(3) 50

(4) 50 0.04 A

45. n V

(1) CV (2) 12

nCV2 (3) CV2 (4) 12n

CV2


0999DMD310318003LTS-12/35

46. Correct order of solubility is

(1)LiHCO3 < NaHCO

3 < KHCO

3

(2)MgSO4 < CaSO4 < BaSO4

(3)NaCl < KCl < RbCl

(4)Be(OH)2 > Mg(OH)2 > Ca(OH)2

47. During change of O2 to O2– ion, the electron

adds on which one of the following orbitals ?

(1) * orbital (2) orbital


48. The correct stability order for N2 and its given

ions is :-

(1) 22 2 2 2N N N N (2) 2

2 2 2 2N N N N

(3) 22 2 2 2N N N N (4) 2

2 2 2 2N N N N

49. Select incorrect statement :-

(1) O3 and O22– both are diamagnetic

(2) Out of O2, O2+, O3 least O–O bond length

is in O2+

(3) Out of O2, O

2+, O

2–, only O

2 is paramagnetic

(4) Out of O2, O

2+, O

2–, maximum spin

magnetic moment is of O2

50. Which of the following is/are correct order :-

(A) Thermal stability = BeSO4 < MgSO

4 < CaSO

4

< SrSO4

(B) Melting point = NaCl > KCl > RbCl > CsCl

(C) Solubility = LiOH < NaOH

(D) Lattice energy = KF > KCl > KBr > KI

(1) A and B (2) B and D

(3) A, B and D (4) A, B, C and D

51. In which of the following hydration energy is

higher than lattice energy ?

(1) MgSO4 (2) RaSO4 (3) BaSO4 (4) SrSO4

52. Which of the following is not correctly matched :-

(1) Na2O

2 < K

2O

2 < Rb

2O

2 < Cs

2O

2

Thermal stability order

(2) LiHCO3 < NaHCO

3 < KHCO

3 < RbHCO

3

< CsHCO3 Thermal stability order

(3) NaF < NaCl < NaBr < NaI mpt order

(4) NaCl > MgCl2 > AlCl

3 mpt order

46. (1)LiHCO

3 < NaHCO

3 < KHCO

3

(2)MgSO4 < CaSO4 < BaSO4

(3)NaCl < KCl < RbCl

(4)Be(OH)2 > Mg(OH)2 > Ca(OH)2

47. O2 O2–

?(1) * orbital (2) orbital


48. N2 :-

(1) 22 2 2 2N N N N (2) 2

2 2 2 2N N N N

(3) 22 2 2 2N N N N (4) 2

2 2 2 2N N N N

49. :-(1) O3 O2

2– (2) O2, O2

+ O3 O–O O2+

(3) O

2, O

2+, O

2– O

2

(4) O2, O

2+ O

2–

O2

50. :-(A) = BeSO

4 < MgSO

4 < CaSO

4

< SrSO4

(B) = NaCl > KCl > RbCl > CsCl

(C) = LiOH < NaOH

(D) = KF > KCl > KBr > KI

(1) A and B (2) B and D

(3) A, B and D (4) A, B, C and D

51. ?(1) MgSO4 (2) RaSO4 (3) BaSO4 (4) SrSO4

52. (1) Na

2O

2 < K

2O

2 < Rb

2O

2 < Cs

2O

2

(2) LiHCO

3 < NaHCO

3 < KHCO

3 < RbHCO

3

< CsHCO3

(3) NaF < NaCl < NaBr < NaI (4) NaCl > MgCl

2 > AlCl

3

TOPIC : Electrochemistry : Redox reactions, conductance in electrolytic solutions, specific and molar conductivityvariation of conductivity with concentration, kohlrausch’s Law, electrolysis and Laws of electrolysis (elementaryidea), dry cell- electrolytic cells and Galvanic cells; lead accumulator, EMF of a cell, standard electrode potential,Relation between Gibbs energy change and EMF of a cell, fuel cells; corrosion. Chemical Bonding and MolecularStructure : Kossel Lewis Approach to Chemical Bonding, Valence electrons, ionic bond, covalent bond, bondparameters, Lewis structure, polar character of covalent bond, valence bond theory, resonance, geometry of molecules,VSEPR theory, concept of hybridization involving s, p and d orbitals and shapes of some simple molecules, molecularorbital theory of homonuclear diatomic molecules (qualitative idea only). Hydrogen bond,Dipole moment.


0999DMD310318003 LTS-13/35

53. Which of the following diagram show correct

change in the ionic character of given compounds

according to Fajans rule ?

(1)

RbCl

Increase

Increase

Decrease

Decrease

BaCl2 ZnCl2

CaCl2

(2)

RbClIncrease

Increase

Decrease

Decrease

BaCl2 ZnCl2

CaCl2

(3)

RbCl

Increase Increase

Decrease

Decrease

BaCl2 ZnCl2

CaCl2

(4)

RbCl

Increase

Decrease

Decrease

Decrease

BaCl2 ZnCl2

CaCl2

54. The phosphate of a metal has the formula

MHPO4. The formula of its chloride would be:-

(1) MCl (2) MCl2 (3) MCl3 (4) M2Cl2

55. Which compound of sulphur is formed in

second excited state :-

(1) SF2 (2) SF4 (3) SF5 (4) SF6

56. Which compound forms linear polymer due to

H–bond :-

(1) H2O (2) NH3 (3) HF (4) HCl

57. The vapour pressure of o-nitrophenol at any

given temperature is predicted to be–

(1) higher than that of p-nitrophenol

(2) lower than that of p-nitrophenol

(3) same as that of p-nitrophenol

(4) higher or lower depending upon the size of

the vessel

58. The correct order of Cl–O bond order is :

(1) ClO3– < ClO

4– < ClO

2– < ClO–

(2) ClO– < ClO4– < ClO3

– < ClO2–

(3) ClO– < ClO2

– < ClO3

– < ClO4

–

(4) ClO4– < ClO

3– < ClO

2– < ClO–

59. Which set contain molecules with = 0 :

(1) SF4,

Cl

Cl

, benzene

(2)Borazine,

OH

OH

, BF3

(3) ClF3, SiF4, SO3

(4) Borazine,

Cl

Cl Cl

, SO3

53. ?

(1)

RbCl

Increase

Increase

Decrease

Decrease

BaCl2 ZnCl2

CaCl2

(2)

RbClIncrease

Increase

Decrease

Decrease

BaCl2 ZnCl2

CaCl2

(3)

RbCl

Increase Increase

Decrease

Decrease

BaCl2 ZnCl2

CaCl2

(4)

RbCl

Increase

Decrease

Decrease

Decrease

BaCl2 ZnCl2

CaCl2

54. MHPO4 :-(1) MCl (2) MCl2

(3) MCl3

(4) M2Cl

2

55. :-(1) SF2 (2) SF4

(3) SF5 (4) SF6

56. H– :-(1) H

2O (2) NH

3(3) HF (4) HCl

57. – (1) (2) (3) (4)

58. Cl–O (1) ClO

3– < ClO

4– < ClO

2– < ClO–

(2) ClO– < ClO4

– < ClO3

– < ClO2

–

(3) ClO– < ClO2

– < ClO3

– < ClO4

–

(4) ClO4– < ClO3

– < ClO2– < ClO–

59. = 0 :

(1) SF4,

Cl

Cl

,

(2) ,

OH

OH

, BF3

(3) ClF3, SiF

4, SO

3

(4) ,

Cl

Cl Cl

, SO3


0999DMD310318003LTS-14/35

60. If compound MX4 has µ = 0 then most probable

geometry will be :-

(1) Trigonal bipyramidal (2) Square bipyramidal

(3) Pentagonal bipyramidal (4) distorted tetrahedral

61. Select systematic diagram which represent the

correct change in the Bond angle in the hybrid

orbital of beryllium :-

(1)

BeCl42–

BeCl3–Increase

BeCl2

Decrease Increase

(2)

BeCl42–

BeCl3–Increase

BeCl2

Decrease Decrease

(3)

BeCl42–

BeCl3–

BeCl2

Decrease Increase

Decrease

(4)

BeCl42–

BeCl3–

BeCl2

DecreaseIncrease

Decrease

62. NH2–, NH3 and NH4

+ do not show similarity in

the following :-

(1) Hybridisation state of nitrogen

(2) No. of lone pair of electrons

(3) Atomic no. of N

(4) Type of overlapping in N–H bond.

63.Sx

OF

FO

IyFF

FO

Compare x and y bond angles for the above

given molecules :-

(1) y > x (2) x > y

(3) x = y (4) None of these

64. In which of the following species the hybrid

state of the central atom is same?

(1) SO2, SO

3(2) SO

3, SO

42–

(3) SO2, SO

32– (4) CH

4, HCOOH

65. The stage of hybridization of central atom in dimer

of BH3 and BeH

2 is :-

(1) sp2, sp2 (2) sp3, sp2 (3) sp3, sp3 (4) sp2, sp3

60. MX4 µ = 0

:-(1) (2) (3) (4)

61. :-

(1)

BeCl42–

BeCl3–Increase

BeCl2

Decrease Increase

(2)

BeCl42–

BeCl3–Increase

BeCl2

Decrease Decrease

(3)

BeCl42–

BeCl3–

BeCl2

Decrease Increase

Decrease

(4)

BeCl42–

BeCl3–

BeCl2

DecreaseIncrease

Decrease

62. NH2

–, NH3 NH

4+

:-(1) (2) (3) N (4) N–H

63.Sx

OF

FO

IyFF

FO

x y (1) y > x (2) x > y

(3) x = y (4) 64.

(1) SO

2, SO

3(2) SO

3, SO

42–

(3) SO2, SO

32– (4) CH

4, HCOOH

65. BH3 BeH

2

:-(1) sp2, sp2 (2) sp3, sp2 (3) sp3, sp3 (4) sp2, sp3


0999DMD310318003 LTS-15/35

66. Nitrogen form N2, but phosphorous form P

2, but

it convert into P4, at a instant the reason is-

(1) Triple bond present between phosphorous atom

(2) p– p

bonding is weak

(3) p– p

bonding is strong

(4) Multiple bond form easily

67. Incorrect order of bond dissociation energy will be

(1) H – H > Cl – Cl > Br – Br

(2) Si – Si > C – C > H – H

(3) C - C > N – N > O – O

(4) H – Cl > H – Br > H – I

68. The shape of a molecule which has EB5L2

moleculer formula :-

{E = Central atom, B = Terminal atom, L = Lone pair}

(1) Square pyramidal (2) Pentagonal planar

(3) Octahedral (4) Pentagonal pyramidal

69. The specific conductance of a 0.1 N KCl solution

at 23oC is 0.012 ohm–1cm–1. The resistance of cell

containing the solution at the same temperature was

found to be 55 ohm. The cell constant will be:-

(1) 0.142 cm–1 (2) 0.66 cm–1

(3) 0.918 cm–1 (4) 1.12 cm–1

70. Saturated solution of KNO3 is used to make salt

bridge because :-

(1) velocity of K+ is greater than that of NO3

(2) velocity of NO3– is greater than that of K+

(3) velocity of both K+ & NO3– are nearly the same

(4) KNO3 is highly soluble in H

2O

71. Cu2+ + 2e– Cu. On increasing [Cu2+]

concentration, electrode potential :-

(1) Increases

(2) Decreases

(3) Will remain unchanged

(4) First increases, then decreases

72. In the electrochemical cell

H2(g) 1atm | H+(1M) || Cu2+ (1M) | Cu(s)

which of the following statements is true :-

(1) H2 is cathode, Cu is anode

(2) Oxidation occurs at Cu electrode

(3) Reduction occurs at H2 electrode

(4) H2 is anode, Cu is cathode

73. If hydrogen electrode is dipped in two solutions

of pH = 3 & pH = 6 & salt bridge is connected,

the emf of resulting cell is :-

(1) 0.177 V (2) 0.3 V

(3) 0.052 V (4) 0.104 V

66. N2P

2

P4

(1) (2) p

– p

(3) p– p

(4) 67. -

(1) H – H > Cl – Cl > Br – Br

(2) Si – Si > C – C > H – H

(3) C - C > N – N > O – O

(4) H – Cl > H – Br > H – I

68. EB5L2 ?{E = , B = , L = e– }

(1) (2) (3) (4)

69. 0.1 N KCl 23oC 0.012 –1 –1 55 :-

(1) 0.142 cm–1 (2) 0.66 cm–1

(3) 0.918 cm–1 (4) 1.12 cm–1

70. KNO3

:-(1) K+ NO3

– (2) NO

3– K+

(3) K+ NO3

– (4) KNO

3

71. Cu2+ + 2e– Cu. [Cu2+]:-(1) (2) (3) (4)

72. H

2(g) 1atm | H+(1M) || Cu2+ (1M) | Cu(s)

:-(1) H

2 Cu

(2) Cu (3) H2 (4) H2 Cu

73. pH = 3 pH = 6 :-(1) 0.177 V (2) 0.3 V

(3) 0.052 V (4) 0.104 V


0999DMD310318003LTS-16/35

74. The potential of the cell for the reaction

M(s) + 2H+(1M) H2(g) (1atm) + M2+ (0.1M)

is 1.5V. The standard reduction potential for

M2+/M(s) couple is :-

(1) 0.1470 V (2) 1.470 V

(3) –1.470 V (4) None of these

75. The emf of the cell reaction

Ag | Ag+(0.1M) || Ag+(1M) | Ag at 298 K is :-

(1) 0.0059 V (2) 0.059 V

(3) 5.9 V (4) 0.59 V

76. When lead storage battery is charged :-

(1) Lead dioxide dissolves

(2) Sulphuric acid is regenerated

(3) The lead electrode becomes coated with lead

sulphate

(4) The amount of sulphuric acid decreases

77. An electrolytic cell contains solution of Ag2SO4

& has Platinum electrodes. A current is passed

until 1.6g of O2 is liberated at anode. The

amount of silver deposited at cathode would be:-

(1) 107.88 g (2) 1.6 g (3) 0.8g (4) 21.6 gm

78. E° values of Mg2+/Mg, Zn2+/Zn and Fe2+/Fe are

–2.37V, –0.76V and –0.44V respectively.

Which of the following statements is correct :-

(1) Zn will reduce Fe2+

(2) Zn will reduce Mg2+

(3) Mg oxidises Fe

(4) Zn oxidises Fe

79. If equivalent conductance of 1M benzoic acid is

12.8 ohm–1 cm2 eq–1 & if the equivalent

conductances of benzoate ion & H+ ion at infinite

dilution are 42 & 288.42 ohm–1 cm2 eq–1

respectively, then its degree of dissociation is:-

(1) 39% (2) 3.9% (3) 0.35% (4) 0.039%

80. Four alkali metals A, B, C & D have standard

electrode potentials –3.05, –1.66, –0.40 & 0.80 V

respectively. Which metal will be the most reactive:-

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

81. The oxidation potential of a hydrogen electrode

at pH = 10 & 2HP = 1 atm will be :-

(1) 0.059 V (2) 0.59 V (3) 0.00 V (4) 0.51 V

82. Consider the cell given below :

Ag(s) / Ag || Cu2+/Cu(s)Ag + e– Ag ; E° = xCu2+ + 2e– Cu ; E° = y

E°Cell is :-

(1) x + 2y (2) 2x + y (3) y – x (4) y – 2x

74. M(s) + 2H+(1M) H2(g) (1atm) + M2+ (0.1M)

1.5 VM2+/M(s) :-(1) 0.1470 V (2) 1.470 V

(3) –1.470 V (4) 75. Ag | Ag+(0.1M) || Ag+(1M) | Ag 298 K

:-(1) 0.0059 V (2) 0.059 V

(3) 5.9 V (4) 0.59 V

76. :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

77. Ag2SO

4

1.6O2 :-(1) 107.88 (2) 1.6 (3) 0.8 (4) 21.6

78. Mg2+/Mg, Zn2+/Zn Fe2+/Fe E0 –

–2.37V, –0.76V –0.44V :-(1) Zn, Fe2+ (2) Zn, Mg2+ (3) Mg, Fe (4) Zn, Fe

79. 1M 12.8 –1 2 –1 H+

42

288.42 –1 2 –1 :-(1) 39% (2) 3.9% (3) 0.35% (4) 0.039%

80. A, B, C D –3.05, –1.66, –0.40 0.80 V :-(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

81. pH = 10

2HP = 1 :-

(1) 0.059 V (2) 0.59 V (3) 0.00 V (4) 0.51 V

82. :-Ag(s) / Ag || Cu2+/Cu(s)Ag + e– Ag ; E° = xCu2+ + 2e– Cu ; E° = y

E°Cell

:-(1) x + 2y (2) 2x + y (3) y – x (4) y – 2x


0999DMD310318003 LTS-17/35

83. If the specific conductance of 1M H2SO

4 solution

is 26 × 10–2 S cm–1, then the equivalent conductivity

would be :-

(1) 1.3 × 102 S cm2 eq–1

(2) 1.6 × 102 S cm2 eq–1

(3) 13 S cm2 mol–1

(4) 1.3 × 103 S cm2 mol–1

84. Pt |H2(1 atm)|H+(0.001 M)|| H+ (0.1 M) |H

2(1 atm)|

Pt. What will be the value of Ecell for this cell?

(1) 0.1182 V (2) –0.1182 V

(3) 0.0591 V (4) –0.0591 V

85. How many atoms of calcium will be deposited

from molten CaCl2 by a current of 25 milli

amperes flowing for 60 seconds :-

(1) 4.68 × 1018 (2) 4.68 × 1015

(3) 4.68 × 1012 (4) 4.68 × 109

86. On passing a current through molten KCl, 19.5 g

of potassium is deposited. If the same quantity of

electricity is passed through molten aluminium

chloride then the amount of aluminium deposited

will be :-

(1) 4.5 g (2) 9.0 g (3) 13.5 g (4) 18 g

87. Which of the following will increase the

voltage of the cell represented by the equation

Cu(s) + 2Ag+(aq) Cu2+

(aq) + 2Ag(s)

(1) Increase in the concentration of Ag+ ion

(2) Increase in the concentration of Cu2+ ion

(3) Increase in the dimension of Ag electrode

(4) Increase in the dimension of Cu electrode

88. On electricity flow the concentration of anode

solution in galvanic cell–

(1) increases (2) decreases

(3) Remains constant (4) None of these

89. On electrolysis of aqueous solution of KI in

presence of platinum electrodes–

(a) Hydrogen gas is released at cathode.

(b) Oxygen gas is released at anode.

(c) pOH of solution decreases.

(d) There is deposition of potassium at cathode.

Choose the correct option from following

(1) a, b (2) only a (3) a, c (4) a, c, d

90. When an aqueous solution of sodium chloride

is electrolysed using platinum electrodes, the ions

discharged at electrodes are

(1) Na (2) Na Cl

(3) HCl (4) OH,Cl

83. 1M H2SO

4

26 × 10–2 S cm–1 :-

(1) 1.3 × 102 S cm2 –1

(2) 1.6 × 102 S cm2 –1

(3) 13 S cm2 –1

(4) 1.3 × 103 S cm2 –1

84. Pt |H2(1 atm)|H+(0.001 M)|| H+ (0.1 M) |H

2(1

atm)| Pt. Ecell (1) 0.1182 V (2) –0.1182 V

(3) 0.0591 V (4) –0.0591 V

85. 25 CaCl2 60

:-(1) 4.68 × 1018 (2) 4.68 × 1015

(3) 4.68 × 1012 (4) 4.68 × 109

86. KCl 19.5 :-(1) 4.5 g (2) 9.0 g

(3) 13.5 g (4) 18 g

87. Cu(s) + 2Ag+

(aq) Cu2+(aq) + 2Ag(s)

(1) Ag+ (2) Cu2+ (3) (4)

88. (1) (2) (3) (4)

89. KI (a) (b) (c) pOH (d) (1) a, b (2) a (3) a, c (4) a, c, d

90. (1) Na (2) Na Cl

(3) HCl (4) OH,Cl


0999DMD310318003LTS-18/35

91. The animals of which group are mostly

asymmetrical ?

(1) Coelenterata (2) Porifera

(3) Echinodermata (4) Ctenophora

92. Radial symmetry is shown by which set of

animals ?

(1) Porifera, Coelenterata, Ctenophora

(2) Coelenterata, Mollusca, Arthropoda

(3) Coelenterata, Ctenophora, Echinodermata

(4) Ctenophora, Porifera, Hemichordata

93. Identify the given diagram (a) and (b). Choose the

correct option, in which given animals represents

(a) and (b) :-

(a) (b)

(1) (a) Hydra; (b) Ctenoplana

(2) (a) Ctenoplana ; (b) Ascaris

(3) (a) Ascaris ; (b) Taenia

(4) (a) Fasciola ; (b) Obelia

94. The phylum Aschelminthes is :-

(1) Acoelomate (2) Pseudocoelomate

(3) Enterocoelomate (4) Schizocoelomate

95. In which animal, body is divided into segments

and serial repetit ion of at least few

organs/structures?

(1) Fasciola (2) Ascaris

(3) Hydra (4) Earthworm

96. The body of animals of phylum porifera shows :-

(1) Labour of division among cells

(2) Organs show great complexities

(3) Cells are arranged as loose cell aggregates

(4) Both (1) & (3)

91. ?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

92. ?(1) (2) (3) (4)

93. (a) (b) (a) (b) :-

(a) (b)

(1) (a) ; (b) (2) (a) ; (b) (3) (a) ; (b) (4) (a) ; (b)

94. :-

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

95. ?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

96. :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) (1) (3)

TOPIC : ANIMAL KINGDOM : Salient features and classification of animals-nonchordate up to phyla level

and chordate up to classes level (three to five salient features and at least two examples). Structural Organisation

in Animals : Animal tissues; Morphology, anatomy and functions of different systems (digestive, circulatory,

respiratory, nervous and reproductive) of an insect (cockroach). (Brief account only)


0999DMD310318003 LTS-19/35

97. Trypanosoma, which causes sleeping sickness

disease, is a :-

(1) A flagellated protozoan

(2) A ciliated protozoan

(3) A sporozoa protozoan

(4) An amoeboid protozoan

98. The oldest relatives of animals are :-

(1) Protista (2) Protozoans

(3) Slime moulds (4) Euglenoids

99. Longitudinal binary fission method is used for

reproduction by which animal ?

(1) Amoeba (2) Paramoecium

(3) Trypanosoma (4) Plasmodium

100. The path of water, in water canal system is :-

(1) Osculum Spongocoel Ostia

(2) Madreporite Ring canal Radial canal

(3) Ostia Spongocoel Osculum

(4) Ampulla Madreporite Radial canal

101. Fresh water sponge is :-

(1) Sycon (2) Euspongia

(3) Spongilla (4) Leucosolenia

102. Gastrovascular cavity is found in :-

(1) Sponges (2) Coelenterates

(3) Echinodermates (4) Arthropods

103. Choose the incorrect statement about ctenophores :-

(1) Radially symmetrical and diploblastic

(2) Body bears eight internal comb plates

(3) Light emission property

(4) External fertilisation and indirect development

104. Identify the given diagram and choose the option

which is not correct about it :-

(1) Body is dorsoventrally flat

(2) Triploblastic and Acoelomate

(3) Posses high regeneration power

(4) Flame cells help in osmoregulation and

excretion.

97. :-

(1) (2) (3) (4)

98. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

99. ?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

100. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

101. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

102. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

103. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

104. :-

(1) (2) (3) (4)


0999DMD310318003LTS-20/35

105. First time organ system level of organisation

occured in :-

(1) Platyhelminthes (2) Aschelminthes

(3) Annelida (4) Coelenterata

106. Lateral appendages parapodia are found in :-

(1) Pheretima (2) Hirudinaria

(3) King crab (4) Nereis

107. Few characters are given below :-

(a) Radula

(b) Pseudocoelomate

(c) Closed circulatory

(d) Nephridia for osmoregulation and excretion

(e) Dioecious

How many characters are correct for Nereis ?

(1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four

108. Metamerism is shown by which animal ?

(1) Tape worm (2) Wuchereria

(3) Hirudinaria (4) Ancylostoma

109. Economically important insect is :-

(1) Locusta (2) Culex

(3) Aedes (4) Bombyx

110. Gregarious pest is :-

(a) (b)

(c)

(d)

(1) (a) (2) (b) (3)(c) (4) (d)

111. Few points are given below :-

(a) Second largest phylum

(b) Chitinous exoskeleton

(c) Solid, double, ventral nerve cord

(d) Bilateral symmetrical

(e) Open circulatory system

How many points are incorrect for arthropoda

phylum ?

(1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four

105. :-

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

106. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

107. :-(a) (b) (c) (d) (e) ?

(1) (2) (3) (4) 108. ?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

109. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

110. :-

(a) (b)

(c)

(d)

(1) (a) (2) (b) (3) (c) (4) (d)

111. :-

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

?

(1) (2) (3) (4)


0999DMD310318003 LTS-21/35

112. "Aristotle's lantern" occurs in which class of

enchinodermata ?

(1) Echinoidea

(2) Asteroidea

(3) Holothuroidea

(4) Ophiuroidea

113. In mollusca gills perform the functions :-

(1) Respiration and circulation

(2) Circulation and excretion

(3) Excretion and respiration

(4) Excretion and reproduction

114. A file like rasping organ present in the mouth of

which animal ?

(1) Apis (2) Pila

(3) Ophiura (4) Echinus

115. The body of Balanoglossus is divided into :-

(1) Head, thorax, abdomen

(2) Head, collar, visceral mass

(3) Proboscis, collar, trunk

(4) Proboscis, head, visceral mass

116. Notochord occcurs through out the life and

through the length of body in :-

(1) Urochordata

(2) Hemichordata

(3) Cephalochordata

(4) Vertebrata

117. First complete chordate is :-

(1) Ascidia

(2) Herdmania

(3) Branchiostoma

(4) Petromyzon

118. Endostyle, which is homologous to thyroid gland,

is found in :-

(1) Urochordates

(2) Cyclostomates

(3) Cephalochordates

(4) Hemichordates

112. ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

113. :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

114. ?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

115. :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

116. :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

117.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

118. :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)


0999DMD310318003LTS-22/35

119. Identify the given diagram and choose the correct

option about it ?

(1) All members of the class are endoparasites.

(2) Their body bears 4-7 pair of gills

(3) They having sucking and circular mouth but

without jaws

(4) Body is devoid of scales and paired fins are

present

120. Read the option carefully and choose the correct

option for Scoliodon, Pristis and Trygon :-

(1) They have terminal mouth

(2) Notochord is persistent throughout life

(3) Skin is tough, without scales

(4) Air bladder is present

121. Which fish lives in marine but migrate for

spawing to fresh water ?

(1) Dog fish (2) Lamprey

(3) Saw fish (4) Sting ray

122. Which fish has bony endoskeleton ?

(1) Scoliodon

(2) Carcharodon

(3) Exocoetus

(4) Trygon

123. Few statements are given below for

osteichthyes fishes. Choose the incorrect

among given option :-

(1) It include both marine and fresh water fishes

(2) They have to swim constantly to avoid sinking

(3) They are mostly oviparous

(4) Four pairs of gills with operculum

124. In sea horse, how many pair of gills are found ?

(1) 6–15 pairs

(2) 4 pairs

(3) 5-7 pairs

(4) They don't have gills

125. The body of frog is divisible into :-

(1) Head and trunk

(2) Head, trunk and tail

(3) Head, neck, trunk and tail

(4) Proboscis, collar and trunk

119. ?

(1) (2) 4-7 (3)

(4)

120. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

121. ?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

122. ?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

123. :-(1)

(2) (3) (4)

124. ?

(1) 6–15 (2) 4 (3) 5-7 (4)

125. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)


0999DMD310318003 LTS-23/35

126. Dicondylic skull is found in :-

(1) Shark (2) Rana

(3) Calotes (4) Columba

127. What is common between amphibians and reptiles?

(1) Body is divided into 4 parts

(2) Scales are present on body

(3) Both are homeothermous

(4) Tympanum represents the ear

128. Poikilothermic animal with 4 chambered heart is :-

(1) Psittacula

(2) Crocodilus

(3) Hemidactylus

(4) Balaenoptera

129. Calotes belongs to which class ?

(1) Chordata

(2) Vertebrata

(3) Amphibia

(4) Reptilia

130. In which animal air sacs are connected to lungs ?

(1) Chelone

(2) Chameleon

(3) Crocodilus

(4) Corvus

131. The characteristic feature of Aves is :-

(1) Pneumatic bones

(2) Laws are modified into beak

(3) Skin is dry, without glands

(4) Presence of feathers

132. The skin of mammals is unique because :-

(1) Possess hair

(2) Presence of scales

(3) Presence of nails on digits

(4) glands on skin

133. The name of common dolphin is :-

(1) Balaenoptera

(2) Equus

(3) Delphinus

(4) Pteropus

134. The character shared by both aves and mammals, is:-

(1) Dry skin without glands

(2) Digestive tract has crop and gizzard

(3) Homoiothermous body

(4) Oviparity

126. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

127. ?

(1) 4 (2) (3) (4)

128. 4 :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

129. ?(1) (2) (3) (4)

130. ?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

131. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

132. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

133. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

134. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)


0999DMD310318003LTS-24/35

135. Choose the correct option without any exception

in their class :-

(1) Aves – dry skin

(2) Mammalia – Hairs on the body

(3) Aves – Ability to fly

(4) Mammalia – Diaphragm improves respirations

136. Identify the epithelium given below and the

concerned location.

(1) Cuboidal epithelium : Ducts of glands

(2) Columnar epithelium : Inner wall of stomach

(3) Squamous epithelium: wall of blood vessel

(4) Squamous epithelium: outer wall of

bowman's capsule

137. Select the incorrect statement about squamous

epithelium :-

(1) It is also known as pavement epithelium

(2) It contain cells with irregular boundries

(3) This tissue have no role in diffusion of gases

(4) Both 1 and 2

138. Match the column :-

Column-I Column-II

A. Brush bordercuboidal epithelium

(i) Gall Bladder

B. Brush BorderColumnar epithelium

(ii) P.C.T. ofnephron

C. Ciliated columnarepithelium

(iii) Ependymalepithelium

D. Simple squamousepithelium

(iv) Inner wall ofblood vessels

(1) A(i), B(ii), C(iii), D(iv)

(2) A(ii), B(i), C(iii), D(iv)

(3) A(ii), B(i), C(iv), D(iii)

(4) A(i), B(ii), C(iv), D(iii)

135. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

136.

(1) :

(2)

(3)

(4)

137.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 1 2

138.

I II

A.

(i)

B.

(ii) P.C.T.

C.

(iii)

D.

(iv)

(1) A(i), B(ii), C(iii), D(iv)

(2) A(ii), B(i), C(iii), D(iv)

(3) A(ii), B(i), C(iv), D(iii)

(4) A(i), B(ii), C(iv), D(iii)


0999DMD310318003 LTS-25/35

139. Compound epithelium is made up of :-

(1) Loosely arranged cells

(2) Compactly packed single layer of cells

(3) Compactly packed multiple layer of cells

(4) Non cellular layer of hyaluronic acid.

140. Which of the following part contain ciliated

epithelium?

(1) Trachea and lungs

(2) PCT of nephron

(3) Neck of nephron

(4) Inner wall of small intestine

141. Which of the following is/are example of

unicellular gland ?

(1) Salivary gland

(2) Paneth cells

(3) Goblet cells

(4) Both 1 & 2

142. Which of the following structure have similar type

of tissue ?

(1) Inner wall of Buccal cavity and cornea of eye

(2) Inner wall of fallopian tube and conjuctiva of

eye

(3) Ependymal epithelium and PCT of Nephron

(4) Small intestine and alveoli of lungs

143. In which category of gland, secretory cell releases

its product by simple diffusion and in the process

of secretion their is no loss of cytoplasm?

Type Example

(1) Holocrine Oil gland

(2) Apocrine Mammary gland

(3) Merocrine Mucus Glands

(4) Apocrine Sweat glands of skin

144. Which of the following cell junction help to stop

substances from leaking across the tissue?

(1) Adhering junction

(2) Tight junction

(3) Gap junction

(4) Desmosomes

145. Which of the following gland do not have a duct

(1) Salivary gland (2) Mammary gland

(3) Tear gland (4) Adrenal gland

139.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

140.

(1)

(2) PCT

(3)

(4)

141.

(1)

(2)

(3) (goblet cells)

(4) 1 2

142. (1)(2) Conjunctiva

(3)Ependymal PCT (4)

143.

(1) (2) (3)

(4)

144. (1) (2) (3)

(4)

145.

(1) (1)

(1) (1)


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146. Epithelium in which cells are having irregular

boundries is :-

(1) Simple columnar epithelium

(2) Pavement epithelium

(3) Squamous epithelium

(4) Both 2 & 3

147. Epithelium which is present in vesicles of thyroid

gland and type-II pneumocytes is also found in .... :

(1) Acini of pancreas (2) Stomach

(3) Gall bladder (4) Small intestine

148. Recognize the figure given below and select the

correct statement :-

(1) These are the components of specialized

connective tissue

(2) The connective tissue of which they belong

do not contain fibers in matrix

(3) This connective tissue have important role in

transport of substances in the body

(4) All of the above are correct

149. Choose the odd one out from the following with

respect to the tissue they contain :-

(1) Hump of camel (2) Bludder of whale

(3) Epidermis of skin (4) Hypodermis

150. Select the correct statement about haversian

canals:-

(1) They are found in bones of all vertebrates

(2) It provide passage to blood vessels.

(3) They are also found in cartilage of mammals

(4) Both 1 and 2

151. The tissue that found in pinna, is also found

in.....

(1) Tip of nose (2) Vertebral column

(3) Nails (4) Ear ossicles

146. (1) (2) (3) (4) 2 3

147. Type-II

Pneumocytes (1) (2) (3) (4)

148.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)149.

(1) (2) Blubber

(3) (4)

150. (1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 1 2 151.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)


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152. Which of the following is not a part of connective

tissue ?

(1) Fibroblasts

(2) Adipocytes

(3) Elastin fibers

(4) Basement membrane

153. Select the correct statement about adipose

connective tissue :-

(1) It is a type of dense connective tissue

(2) Mostly found beneath the skin

(3) It forms a shock-absorbing cushion

(4) Both 2 and 3

154. Match the following and select correct option-

Column-I Column-II

A. Straited InvoluntaryMuscle

(i) SkeletalMuscle

B. MultinucleatedMuscle

(ii) CardiacMuscle

C. Unstriated Muscle (iii) SmoothMuscle

D. Spindle Shapemuscle

(iv) VoluntaryMuscle

(1) A-(i), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(ii)

(2) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(iv)

(3) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(iii)

(4) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iii)

155. Select the correct statement with respect to areolar

connective tissue :-

(1) Cells and fibers are not compactly packed.

(2) It contain small and regular shape fibroblast

cells

(3) Some amount of macrophages and mast cells

are also present.

(4) Both 1 & 3

156. Which muscle are involved in peristaltic

movements in gastrointestinal tract?

(1) Skeletal muscle (2) Cardiac muscle

(3) Smooth muscle (4) Striated muscle

152.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

153.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 2 3

154.

-I -II

A.

(i)

B.

(ii)

C. (iii)

D. (iv)

(1) A-(i), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(ii)

(2) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(iv)

(3) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(iii)

(4) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iii)

155.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

156.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)


0999DMD310318003LTS-28/35

157. Select the option with incorrect match:-

(1) Adipose tissue- Loose connective tissue

(2) Tendon- Yellow fibrous connective tissue

(3) Ligament- Provide attachment between bone

to bone

(4) Periosteum - White fibrous connective tissue

158. Which of the following muscle is striated and

involuntary ?

(a) Smooth muscle

(b) Skeletal muscle

(c) Cardiac Muscle

(1) Only (a) (2) Both (a) and (c)

(3) Only (c) (4) Both (b) and (c)

159. Identify the tissue shown in the diagram and

match with its characteristics and its location:-

(1) Smooth muscle - Found in the wall of

intestine

(2) Skeletal muscle- attached with bones of

limbs.

(3) Smooth muscle- found in arms

(4) Striated muscle- found in wall of heart.

160. Which of the following is most abundant cartilage

in body ?

(1) Hyline cartilage

(2) Fibrous cartilage

(3) Calcified cartilage

(4) Elastic Cartilage

161. Which of the following contain the largest

quantity of extracellular material ?

(1) Striated Muscle

(2) Areolar tissue

(3) Stratified epithelium

(4) Myelinated nerve fiber.

157.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

158.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(1) (a) (2) (a) (c)

(3) (c) (4) (b) (c)

159.

(1)

(2) limbs

(3)

(4)

160.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

161.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)


0999DMD310318003 LTS-29/35

162. Match the column :-

Column-I Column-II

(A) HyalineCartilage

(i) Ear Pinna

(B) ElasticCartilage

(ii) Articularcartilage

(C) Calcifiedcartilage

(iii) Head offemur

(D) Whitefibrouscartilage

(iv) PubicSymphysis

(1) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)

(2) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(iv)

(3) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(iv)

(4) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(iii)

163. The Nissl's granules of nerve cell are made up

of :-

(1) DNA

(2) RNA

(3) Ribosome

(4) Fat

164. Recognize the figure and find out the correct

matching:-

a b

c d

(1) a- Dorsal vessel, b- ventral vessel, c-lateral

heart, d-anterior loop

(2) a- Dorsal vessel, c- ventral vessel, b-lateral


(3) c- Dorsal vessel, a- ventral vessel, b-lateral


(4) c- Dorsal vessel, a- ventral vessel, d-lateral

heart, b-anterior loop

162.

-I -II

(A) (i)

(B) (ii)

(C)

(iii)

(D)

(iv)

(1) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)

(2) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(iv)

(3) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(iv)

(4) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(iii)

163. Nissl's granules (1) DNA

(2) RNA

(3)

(4)

164.

a b

c d

(1) a- b- , c- d-

(2) a- c- , b-

d-

(3) c- a- , b-

d-

(4) c- a- , d- b-


0999DMD310318003LTS-30/35


matching.

a

bc

d

(1) a-ovary, b-Testis with testis sac, c-prostate

gland, d-vasa deferentia

(2) b-ovary, a-Testis with testis sac, c-prostate

gland, d-vasa deferentia

(3) a-ovary, b-Testis with testis sac, d-prostate

gland, c-vasa deferentia

(4) b-ovary, a-Testis with testis sac, d-prostate

gland, c-vasa deferentia

166. Which of the following does not occur in

earthworm?

(1) Cross-fertilisation (2) Self fertilisation

(3) Copulation (4) Cocoon formation


match:-

a

b

c

d

(1)(a)- Pharynx, (b)- gizzard, (c)-Crop, (d)-colon

(2) (c)- Pharynx, (b)- gizzard, (a)-Crop, (d)-colon

(3) (a)- Pharynx, (c)- gizzard, (b)-Crop, (d)-colon

(4) (a)- Pharynx, (c)- gizzard, (d)-Crop, (b)-colon

165.

a

bc

d

(1) a-, b-, c-,

d-

(2) b-, a-, c-,

d-

(3) a-, b-, d-,

c-

(4) b-, a-, d-,

c-

166.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

167.

a

b

c

d

(1) (a)- , (b)- , (c)- (Crop) (d)-

(2) (c)- , (b)- , (a)- (Crop) (d)-

(3) (a)- , (c)- , (b)- (Crop) (d)-

(4) (a)- , (c)- , (d)- (Crop) (b)-


0999DMD310318003 LTS-31/35

168. Dorsal sclerite in cockroach is known as :-

(1) Sternum

(2) Pleurite

(3) Tergum

(4) Both 1 and 3

169. Alary muscles play an important role in:-

(1) Circulation of blood

(2) Respiration

(3) Body movement

(4) Peristalsis


match-

ac

d

b

(1) a-Mandible, b-Labrum, c-Labium, d- Maxilla

(2) a-Mandible, b-Labrum, d-Labium, c- Maxilla

(3) b-Mandible, c-Labrum, a-Labium, d- Maxilla

(4) a-Mandible, c-Labrum, d-Labium, b- Maxilla

171. Which of the following is the correct statement

of the structure labelled 'A' in the diagram?

AAAA

(1) A pair of anal styles absent in females

(2) A pair of anal cerci, arise from 10th segment

present in both the sexes

(3) Phallomere, external genitalia of male

(4) Ovipositor in female

168. (Sclerite) (1) (2)

(3) (4) 13

169.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

170.

ac

d

b

(1) a-, b-c-, d-

(2) a-, b-d-, c-

(3) b-, c-a-, d-

(4) a-, c-d-, b-

171. 'A'

AAAA

(1)

(2) 10

(3)

(4)


0999DMD310318003LTS-32/35

172. In cockroach middle and outer layer of

spermatophore are secreted by:-

(1) Ejaculatory duct and conglobate gland

respectively

(2) Conglobate gland and ejaculatory duct

respectively

(3) Utriculi majores and ejaculatory duct

respectively.

(4) Utriculi majores and conglobate duct

respectively.

173. Fore wing of cockroach arises from :-

(1) Prothorax

(2) Mesothorax

(3) Metathorax

(4) Hypopharynx

174. Which of the following is an incorrect match with

respect to structure and its location in male and

female cockroach ?

(1) Spermathecae – 8th abdominal segments

(2) Mushroom gland – 6th-7th abdominal segments

(3) Testes – 4th-6th abdominal segments

(4) Ovaries – 2nd-6th abdominal segments

175. All of the following is exhibited by frog

except:-

(1) Camouflage

(2) Echolocation

(3) Sexual dimorphism

(4) External fertilization

176. Which of the following is an unpaired structure

in Rana tigrina ?

(1) Optic lobes in midbrain

(2) Lungs

(3) Diencephalon in forebrain

(4) Kidneys

172.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

173.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

174.

(1) – 8th

(2) – 6th-7th

(3) – 4th -6th

(4) – 2nd-6th

175.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

176.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)


0999DMD310318003 LTS-33/35

177. Following is the diagram of male reproductive

system of frog select the correct set of names

labelled A, B, C and D:-

D

A

C

B

A B C D

(1) Kidney Adrenalgland

Fat Body Testis

(2) Adrenalgland

Kidney Fat Body Testis

(3) Fat Body Kidney Adrenalgland

Testis

(4) Fat Body Testis Adrenalgland

Kidney

178. Ureters act as urinogenital ducts in :-

(1) Both male & female frog

(2) Male frogs

(3) Man

(4) Woman

179. Tissue organise to form ___A___ Which in turn

associate to form ___B___ in ___C___

organisms :-

Find the correct match for A, B and C.

A B C

(1) Organ system Organ Unicellular

(2) Organ Organ System Multicellular

(3) Organ Organ System Unicellular

(4) Organ System Body Multicellular

177. A, B,

C D

D

A

C

B

A B C D

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

178. (1) (2) (3) (4)

179. ___C___ ___A___ ___B___ A, B C

A B C

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)


0999DMD310318003LTS-34/35

180. In an animals word anatomy conventionally is

used for study of....:-

(1) Morphology of internal organs

(2) Morphology of external organs

(3) Histology of external organs

(4) Both 2 & 3

180. (Anatomy)

(1) (2) (3) (4) 2 3

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