fms 2011 detailed solutions

PP-02 2B.1 www.TestFunda.com

Detailed Solutions:

1. principles would be the unanimous choice that would

emerge from the political conception of justice as

fairness, let us derive both 1 and 2.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

2. The passage is about justice not the structure of

society, or principles, or only the idea of justice. This

makes 1, 2 and 4 incorrect. 3 is the name of the work

from where the basic ideas of the passage have been

picked up by the author Justice as Fairness.


3. I have to express considerable scepticism...of one

particular set of principles for just institutions makes 4

incorrect.


4. 1 is correct from He arguessociety governed by these

principles would have good reason to affirm a sense of

justice based on in the first paragraph.


5. 1 is correct from He argues that since these principles

would be chosen by all


6. these principles would be the unanimous choice that

would emerge from the political conception of justice as

fairness, makes 4 incorrect.


7. The author is skeptical and critical of Rawls theory but

he doesnt reject it outright. From the last paragraph, we

can infer only that Rawls accepts there are some

incurable problems with the theory.


8. He does not abandon, at least explicitly, his theory of

justice as fairness, and yet he seems to accept that there

are incurable problems in getting a unanimous

agreement on one set of principles of justice in the

original position, which cannot but have devastating

implications for his theory of 'justice as fairness.


9. Refer to the explanation for the previous question.


10. From the second paragraph, The choice of basic

principles of justice is the first act in Rawlss multi-

staged unfolding of social justice.


11. 3 is correct from, I would argue, reflect the fact that

impartiality can take many different forms and


12. 2 is correct from, I have to express considerable

scepticism about Rawlss highly specific claim about the

unique choice, in the original position, of one particular

set of principles for just institutions


13. 2 is correct from, There are genuinely plural, and

sometimes conflicting, general concerns that bear on our

understanding of justice.


14. 3 is correct from, there is a general theory of how to

treat people in an unbiased and impartial way, focusing,

respectively, on effective use and utility, economic equity

and distributional fairness


15. 1 is correct from, Indeed, in his Justice as Fairness: A

Restatement, Rawls notes


16. Olivia now spent her mornings in the warmth of our

flat; it was too cold and misty to paint until the sun had

reached its zenith at midday, makes 1 correct.


17. Due to the deadly weather, people prefer to stay indoors.


18. 1, 3 and 4 contradict the passage. From the passage,

The only colours are the red and yellow silk flags

flying over the new Muslim graves in Nizamuddin.


19. The passage states, the goats fattening for slaughter

huddle together under sackcloth coats; some are given

old cardigans to wear

SOLUTIONS

FMS Dec 2010 2B

FMS Dec 2010



20. 4 is incorrect from, I had become fascinated with that

period of Delhis history known as the Twilight. 3

contradicts the passage. The author talks about his

association with Iris Portal and the Haxby sisters in the

passage thus making 2 incorrect, and 1 correct.


21. 3 is stated near the end of the second paragraph.


22. 2 contradicts the passage. 3 is incorrect because Nadir

Shah didnt help in the prosperity of Delhi but rather the

presence of his rule exacerbated the pace of decline of

Delhi. 4 is incorrect because by the end of the eighteenth

century, Delhi was in ruins.

Option 1 is correct from, Nadir Shahs massacre

exacerbated the decline of the Mughal Empire which had

been steadily contracting since the death of Aurangzeb.


23. The features and attributes of Emperor Shah Alam are

mentioned in the fifth paragraph.


24. 1 is correct from, the elaborate etiquette of Mughal

society was scrupulously maintained; poetry, music and

the arts flourished.


25. None of the statements can be concluded from the

passage to be correct. Hence, the question has been

marked as AMBIGUOUS.

26. The summers of Delhi have not been mentioned, making

2 and 3 incorrect. The passage describes the winter of

Delhi as bitter and unwelcome.


27. 1 and 2 are mentioned in paragraph 6. 4 is also

mentioned in the passage.


28. Google entered the market quite some time after Yahoo!,

making 3 and 4 incorrect. 1 is stated in paragraph 9. 2 is

the opposite of 1.


29. From the first paragraph, sex, God and jobs are most

frequently searched for.


30. 1, 3, and 4 are incorrect from, no single word or

subject accounts for more than 1 or 2 percent of all

Google searches at any given time.


31. 1 is stated in paragraph 7.


32. 4 is correct from, only a third of our searches are U.S.-

based, and less than half are in English.


33. 2 is correct from, only a third of our searches are U.S.-

based, and less than half are in English.


34. 4 is correct from, They presume that the information

theyre looking for is certainly available


35. 1 is correct from, Brin and Page, who met as Stanford

University students in computer science in 1995


36. 2 and 3 are contrary to the passage. 4 is incorrect

because of Central Asia.


37. 1, 2 and 3 are contrary to the passage and thus can be

eliminated.


38. 2, 3 and 4 can be inferred to be correct from the passage.

However, there is no mention about growth being

regulated by the PI management style.


39. A proponent is a person who puts forward a proposition

or supports a particular cause. But from the passage we

can infer that Khandwalla is a critique of the PI style of

management. Thus, eliminate options 1, 3 and 4.


40. 1 is correct from, the humane rather than the

surgical turnaround strategy


41. The first line is Another style which is only partially

dependent on situational factors for its effectiveness is

the Pioneering-Innovative management.


42. 3 is correct from, the past Pl has an insignificant effect

on present norms, decisions and managerial functions.


43. 4 contradicts the passage the current levels of PI in

organizations are more strongly influenced by strategic

decisions taken in the past than the other way around.


44. 1 is correct from, Once PI management becomes

operative, it improves overall performance

FMS Dec 2010


Thus, eliminate options 2, 3 and 4.


45. 1 is correct from, PI management is an outcome rather

than a cause of managerial policies and practices.


46. 2 is correct from, past norms regarding excellence,

expertise, dedication and the lower levels of dependency

facilitated current PI levels


47. The characteristics of PI management are explicitly

mentioned in the first paragraph of the passage from

which we can eliminate options 1, 2 and 4.


48. 2 is correct from, administered a questionnaire to the

top level executives of 75 varied organisations.


49. 1 is correct from, the operative mode of the top

management sets the tone for the lower levels.


50. From the passage, Like Likert, Khandwalla preferred to

use the expression management rather than

leadership, though his theory could easily be taken for a

theory of leadership.

Thus, eliminate options 1, 2 and 3.


51. A talks about the men and is the opening sentence, since

the others have they. Statement D is the logical link

that follows because of the word they which talks about

the men from the opening sentence. Statement C is the

next link in the chain and this can be determined by the

pronoun it in the sentence which refers to water

mentioned in the previous sentence.

A-D-B-C is the best sequence, but is not available. A-D-C

is the most appropriate link. This eliminates options 1

and 3.

B as the opening sentence would be grammatically

wrong. It fits better at the end than at the start.


52. The opening sentence is B which refers to all managers.

D is the next link as it talks about the effectiveness of the

managers. C elaborates on the decision-making capacity

of the managers and should follow D. A is about the

outcome of the decision and follows D.


53. D is the best opening sentence as the author is

introducing the subject. C follows D as here the author

explains his reason for taking up the subject. A follows

next due to also in the statement and B follows A as the

explanation continues further.


54. B should follow A as the pronoun those refers to firms

in A. Likewise, A is the opening sentence. D should follow

B as it provides further information about the

investigation.


55. D talks about the new plant not being a threat and B talks

about the new concern supplying the metal. Thus, B

follows D. C talks about the shortage of metal and we can

infer that C follows B. The use of the word moreover in

A helps to deduce that it follows C.


56. C introduces the subject. A explains the causes of

success or failure and so should follow C. B explains

how motivation and opportunity can be supplied and

thus follows C.


57. B is the opening sentence as it introduces the night and

the track. The passage is on the track; hence, C follows.

Hard and firm describes the track and follows C. The

word also in A signifies that it should follow D.


58. The idiom in this sentence is backseat driving, which

means using criticism and interfering in the affairs of

others.


59. A wet blanket refers to a person who dampens others

enthusiasm or fun.


60. Weigh anchor means to raise, lift, or hoist something.


61. Chequered (US. checkered) means marked by various

shifts or changes.


62. Sauce for gander is sauce for the goose means what is

appropriate for one person is also appropriate for the

other (esp. used with reference to men and women).


63. At the drop of a hat means at the slightest provocation

or without delay.


64. Retract means to draw back or withdraw. Cover up is

something that is done in a hushed manner and not

FMS Dec 2010


ordered. Disseminate and publicize distort the

meaning of the sentence.


65. Time is always structured.


66. While writing a book, focus on the topic is essential.


67. Philosophical works require the most patience. One

who does not have patience cannot be enlightened or

absorb anything.


68. To strive, to seek, to find require the infinitive to yield

in order to maintain parallelism in the sentence. Options

1 and 4 can be eliminated.

These words describe means of reaching the goal. Yield

has an opposite meaning of giving up. Therefore, not to

yield fits in the logical context of the sentence.


69. Halts and ceases mean stop, and hence do not fit in

since 'stop' is already there in the sentence. This

eliminates 2 and 3. Accelerates is not be in sync with if

not stops, eliminating 1.


70. Surprise can only be associated with something that is

discreet or veiled. Allusion is a casual reference. Oblique

is indirect.


71. Perfunctorily means hastily which is opposite to what is

required. Explicitly means clearly and honestly means

truthfully but neither word brings out the meaning of

the sentence. Assiduously means thoroughly and fits

aptly in the sentence.


72. Plot structures are intricate. Trite means boring and

aesthetic means beautiful. Neither word is relevant in

the meaning of the sentence. Eclectic distorts the

meaning of the sentence. Delineation means description

and fits well with the sentence.


73. Suspicion is synonymous with distrust.


74. A negative word is required for the blank. Auspicious is

unrelated in the context. Accomplished and masterful

have positive connotations.


75. The sentence here talks about a mixture which

evaporates easily. Volatile suits the context.

Hence the correct answer is, option 1.

76. reported on experiments that were never carried

out refers to deceitful. The most appropriate pair of

words in the context of the sentence is fraudulent-

deceptive.


77. Ebb and brink are negative, which is not in line with

universal acclaim.

Zenith is better than extremity.


78. Invalidated, restrained and lessened refer to

reducing and are inappropriate in this context where

the requirement is for increasing.


79. 2 has a subject-verb agreement error. 3 incorrectly uses

the comma and has a missing preposition, of. 4 has

irregardless which is non-standard usage.


80. 1 has a subject-verb agreement error: the correct usage

is does. 3 has faulty construction: the use of the word

requiring in place of which requires is improper usage.

4 has an error in parallelism. 2 has no errors.


81. 2, 3 & 4 are inconsistent with the first part in tense. 1 has

no problem as such.


82. 1, 3 and 4 have tense inconsistency. Option 2 has no such

problem.


83. Alike both in 1 is improper usage, and risewhich are

on the increase is redundant. 3 is incorrect because

medical malpractice cases is replaced by medical

malpractices which changes the meaning. 2 is free from

errors.


84. Arbitrary in 2 is improper usage: it should be

arbitrarily. 3 uses was in place of seemed. Was

signifies something that has happened, whereas,

seemed means something that appears to be. 4 distorts

the meaning by transferring arbitrary to conductor. 1

does not have any errors.


85. 1 is incorrect because 'her' generosity is transferred to

contributions, changing the meaning. 2 and 3 express

FMS Dec 2010


ideas contradictory to the sentence. 4 is clear and

precise.


86. 1 is wrong due to tense inconsistency. 3 changes the

meaning. 4 lacks total and all, which render the

meaning incomplete. 2 is consistent with the sentence.


87. 1 lacks his before work. 2 is wrong because the

although suits more in the beginning of the sentence. 4

changes the meaning. 3 has no errors.


88. 2, 3 & 4 lack consistency of tense with the sentence. 1 has

no such issues.


89. Acceptance speech as a phrase does not require the

preposition of.


90. The preposition by in 4 should be of.


91. By in 2 is wrong. A struggle is not by something, it is

with something.


92. Or in place of and in 3 is inappropriate usage.


93. Past tense in 2 instead of present tense as in 1 is

incorrect.


94. Us in option 3 is incorrect.

Hence, option 3.

95. Pickpocketers is incorrect: the correct usage is

pickpockets.


96. His in 1 should come after both and not before it.


97. Fall in 2 should be continuous tense to match 1.


98. More than is redundant.


99. Present tense in 4 is inconsistent.


100. Owing is incorrect usage.


101. 4x3 8x2 63x 9 = 0

Hence, option 2.

102. Let the year of the mans birth be y.

Then, y + x = x2

y = x(x 1)

Now looking at the options we find that only 1806 can be

written in the form x(x 1), where x = 43.

Hence, option 1.

103. Let the train travel at s km/hr.

In 1 hour it travels s km.

Let the remaining distance be x km. Then,

Total distance = s + x = 10s

Using the second condition,

s = 60

Total distance = 60 10 = 600 km.

Hence, option 3.

104. At 7O clock the angle between the hour and minute hand

= 210 (in clockwise direction)

Relative speed of minute hand & hour hand = 5.5

degrees/minute.

The angle between the two hands is 84 in two cases

(i) The minute hand travels a distance of 210 84 = 126

(ii) The minute hand gains 84 over the hour hand i.e. it

travels 210 + 84 = 294

Hence, option 1.

FMS Dec 2010


105. Substituting the values of x given in the options, we find

that only x = 1 satisfies the equation.

Hence, option 1.

106. log x 5 log 3 = 2

x = 35 10 2 = 2.43

Hence, option 3.

107. Let there be x marbles originally.

Let y marbles remain after this

The last statement in the question is redundant.

The given information is insufficient to answer the

question.

Hence, option 2.

108. (100h + 10t + u) (100u + 10t + h) = 99(h u)

As the units digit of the resultant is 4, we can say that

h u = 6

99 (h u) = 99 6 = 594

The required digits are 9 and 5 from right to left.

Hence, option 2.

109. Let there be x cows and y chickens.

4x + 2y = 14 + 2 (x + y)

x = 7

Hence, option 2.

= a2 a2 = a4

Hence, option 4.

Hence, option 1.

Hence, option 3.

113.

By the tangent secant theorem,

PA2 = PB PC

Let PB = x

x2 + 20x 300 = 0

(x + 30) (x 10) =0

x = 10

Hence, option 2.

114. Let the three numbers be a, b and c.

Also, a + b + c = 98

b = 30

Hence, option 3.

115. Let h be the original height of the candles. The first

candle burns by an amount equal to h/4 every hour and

the second candle burns by an amount equal to h/3

every hour.

FMS Dec 2010


Hence, option 4.

116.

(20)10 = (110)4

Hence, option 1.

117. As the two met in the centre of the pool, their speeds

must be equal and both of them cover a distance equal to

half the length of the pool in 1.5 minutes.

In the first 1.5 minutes, Hari travels from A to B and Ravi

from C to B.

In the second 1.5 minutes, Hari travels from B to C and

Ravi from B to A.

In the third 1.5 minutes Hari travels from C to B and Ravi

from A to B.

They passed each other the second time 4.5 minutes

after starting.

Hence, option 2.

118. x : y : z :: 2 : 3 : 5

x + y + z = 100

y = 30 and x = 20

But y = ax 10

30 = 20a 10

a = 2

Hence, option 1.

119. Let 10x + y be the number.

= (10x + y)2 (10y + x)2

= 99(x2 y2)

= 99(x + y) (x y)

The result is thus always divisible by 9, the sum of the

digits and the difference of the digits.

Hence, option 2.

Hence, option 1.

121. The sum of roots of the equation 4x2 + 5 8x = 0

Hence, option 4.

122. 2x2 + 6x + 5y + 1 = 0

2x(x + 3) + 5y + 1 = 0 (i)

Also, 2x + y + 3 = 0

2x = (y + 3) (ii)

Substituting (ii) & (iii) in (i),

(y + 3) (y + 3) + 10y + 2 = 0

(3 + y) (3 y) + 10y + 2 = 0

(9 y2) + 10y + 2 = 0

y2 + 10y 7 = 0

Hence, option 3.

123. Let t = 5, u = 3

Then we are looking for the number 531.

531 = 5 100 + 3 10 + 1

= 100t + 10u + 1

Hence, option 2.

FMS Dec 2010


124.

The largest triangle that can be inscribed in a semicircle

is an isosceles right triangle.

AC = BC and ACB = 90

Hence, option 1.

Hence, option 4.

126.

Before meeting A, B travels 60 + 12 = 72 km

And A travels 60 12 = 48 km

Let Vb be the speed of B and Va be speed of A.

Now Vb = Va + 4

2Va + 8 = 3V

Va = 8

Hence, option 2.

127. Let the second machine address 500 envelopes in x

minutes.

Now, both machines address 500 envelopes in 2 minutes.

Let, making of 500 envelopes count to completing one

unit of work.

Solving this equation will give the value of x.

Hence, option 2.

128. Let there be y girls after 15 girls leave and let x be the

number of boys.

2y = x

Now after 45 boys left, there were 5 girls for each boy.

y = 5(x 45)

y = 5x (5 45)

2y = 10x (2 5 45)

x = 10x (10 45)

x = 50

y = 25

Hence, numbers of girls at the beginning = 25 + 15 = 40

Hence, option 1.

129. Let n1 (i.e. 4) be the number of pairs of black socks and n2

be the number of pairs of blue socks.

Let x be cost price per pair of blue socks.

Cost price of each pair of black socks = 2xs

Now if number of blue socks and black socks get

interchanged then bill increases by 50%.

6n1x + 3n2x = 4n2x + 2n1x

4n1x = n2x

Hence, option 3.

130. Water carried by pipe cross sectional area.

Water carried by pipe with 6 inches = k (6/2)2 = 9k and

water carried by pipe with 1 inch diameter = k (1/2)2

= k/4

Hence, option 3

as S = S1 + S2 Now S1 = GP with first term = 1/7 and common ratio

= 1/72

FMS Dec 2010


Similarly, S2 = GP with first term as (2/72) and common

ratio as (1/72).

S = S1 + S2

Hence, option 4.

132.

Let ABC be the triangle with h as the altitude and BC as

base. Let PQRS be the rectangle inscribed in triangle ABC.

As height of rectangle = PS = x, and base of the rectangle

= SR = 2x = PQ

Now, height of APQ = height of triangle height of rectangle

= h x

Now, APQ and ABC are similar.

Hence, option 3.

133. Consider option 1:

x + y = 0

y = x

y = (1) x

x is directly proportional to y.

Consider option 2:

3xy =10

Hence, x is inversely proportional to y.

Consider option 3:

x = 5y

Hence, x is directly proportional to y.

Consider option 4:

3x + y = 10

y = 10 3x

As y cannot be expressed as (k x), where k is some

constant hence, x is neither directly nor inversely

proportional to y.

Hence, option 4.

134. log10 (a2 15a) = 2

a2 15a = 102

a2 15a 100 = 0

a2 20a + 5a 100 = 0

a (a 20) + 5 (a 20) = 0

(a 20) (a + 5) = 0

a = 20 or a = 5

Hence, option 2.

Hence, option 4.

136. Let n be the number of people present in the party.

Now, number of handshakess will be, (n 1)

FMS Dec 2010


n(n 1) = 56

n2 n 56 = 0

Solving this we get,

n = 8 or n = 7

Since n cannot be negative.

n = 8

Hence, option 4.

137. Since the required number leaves a remainders which is

one less than the divisor, we can say that the number is

one less than the LCM of 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8 and 9.

Now, LCM (2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10) = 2 3 2 5 7 2

3 = 2520

Desired number = 2520 1 = 2519

Hence, option 4.

138.

Let ABCD be square inscribed in a semicircle with radius

r.

Let a1 be the length of side of square ABCD

(a1/2)2 + a12 = r2

Now, length of a side of square inscribed

(where, r = radius of the circle)

Area of the square inscribed in full circle square = a2 =

2r2

Hence, option 3.

139. Equation of a line containing points (6, 12) and

(0, 6) is,

y + 6 = 3x Only option 1 satisfies the above equation.

Hence, option 1.

140. Let x be the list price of the goods.

Cost price of goods (for the merchant) = 0.8x

He wants to make a profit which is 20% of the selling

price.

Cost price = 0.8 selling price

Selling price = x

As he gives 20% discount on marked price, hence, selling

price = 0.8 marked price

Hence, option 4.

x2(m + 1) x[b(m + 1) + a(m 1)] + c(m 1) = 0 The roots are numerically equal but of opposite signs,

their sum is 0.

Hence, option 1.

142. Let a be the first term and d be the common difference of

the A. P.

2a + 9d = 4a + 8d

Hence, option 1.

143. Let the speed of the faster and slower cyclist be a and b

respectively.

By given conditions,

ar rb = at + tb

Hence, option 1.

FMS Dec 2010


Hence, option 4.

145. For a quadratic equation ax2 + bx + c = 0

As the first student makes a mistake only in the constant

term, his sum of roots is correct.

Sum of roots of the equation = 8 + 2 = 10

As the second student makes a mistake only in the

coefficient of x, his product of roots is correct.

Product of roots of the equation = (9) (1) = 9

the quadratic equation is,

x2 (sum of roots)x + (product of roots) = 0

x2 10x + 9 = 0

Hence, option 1.

146. Let length and breadth of rectangle be l and b

respectively.

By given conditions,

Hence, option 4.

147. x y3

x = ky3

Hence, option 3.

148. 2x 3 > 7 x

3x > 10

Hence, option 4.

3m = 4n (i)

14r = 9t (ii)

Multiplying (i) and (ii), we get

14 3mr = 9 4nt

7mr = 6nt

Hence, option 2.

150. Let A, B and C do the work in a, b and c days respectively.

Subtracting (ii) from (i),

Adding (iii) and (iv)

A can do the job alone in 3 days.

Hence, option 2.

FMS Dec 2010


151. We fill the following table by the data that is directly

given.

Flat Sport Occupation

Ambrish Cricket(N) Mechanical Engineer

Amit 3rd Chess Power Engineer

Rohit

Manu 3rd Cricket(R)

Tarun 5th Quality Inspector

As the football player is a design engineer he has to be

Rohit. So Rohit stays in the 2nd flat.

We can then see that Ambrish has to stay in the 4th flat

and Tarun has to play Tennis.

So we have the following:

Flat Sport Occupation

Ambrish 4th Cricket(N) Mechanical Engineer

Amit 3rd Chess Power Engineer

Rohit 2nd Football Design Engineer

Manu 3rd Cricket(R) Mechanical Engineer

Tarun 5th Tennis Quality Inspector

From the table, Ambrish stays in the 4th flat.

Hence, option 1.

152. From the table in the solution to the first question of this

set, Tarun plays Tennis.

Hence, option 4.

153. From the table in the solution to the first question of this

set, Rohit plays Football.

Hence, option 3.

154. We have the following from the oldest to the youngest:

Chess Player > Cricket Player (Regional) > Football >

Tennis > Cricket Player (National)

Amit > Manu > Rohit > Tarun > Ambrish

Thus Rohit lies between Manu and Tarun agewise. Rohit

is the design engineer.

Hence, option 4.

155. From the table, Amit and Manu stay in the 3rd flat.

Hence, option 3.

156. From the table, the Chess player is a power engineer.

Hence option 1.

157. From the data given, we get the following table.

Gender Computer hardware Marketing

P Male

Q Female

R Female

S Male

T Female

X Male

From the table, we can conclude that the male partner

who knows marketing but does not know computer

hardware is S.

Hence, option 1.

158. From the table in the solution to the first question of the

set, the female partner who is well versed in computer

hardware but does not know marketing is R.

Hence, option 4.

159. From the table, the female partner who neither knows

hardware nor marketing is T.

Hence, option 3.

160. The Nepalese is in Track 3 and the Chinese is in the

Track 1.

From the given conditions, the Englishman has to be in

Track 5.

The Indian can be either in Track 2 or 4.

Hence, option 3.

161. It is given that the Nepalese is in Track 4 and the Indian

is in Track 3.

Since the Iraqi is not in one of the extreme tracks, he has

to be in Track 2.

From the given conditions i.e. statement (i) & (iii), we get

that both the Englishman and the Chinese cannot be in

Track 5.

But both of them cannot be on the same track i.e. Track

1.

Hence, option 4.

162.

1 Iraqi 2 Chinese 3 Indian 4

We know that the Iraqi is to the left of the Chinese and

the Chinese is to the left of the Indian.

The Nepalese and the Englishman can thus be in the four

places 1, 2, 3 and 4 - shown above. As the Iraqi cannot

be in an extreme track, one out of the Nepalese and

Englishman has to be to his immediate left in place 1.

Also as the Nepalese and the Englishman cannot be

adjacent to each other, one of them has to be in place 2, 3

or 4.

In any of these cases the Iraqi is in Track 2.

FMS Dec 2010


Hence, option 1.

163. EELILSUOBR can be rearranged to get the word

REBELLIOUS.

The antonym of REBELLIOUS is Submissive.

Hence, option 2.

164. NEMIUECPD can be rearranged to get the word

IMPUDENCE, which has one meaning as lack of

modesty.

Therefore, its antonym is modesty.

Hence, option 2.

165. CLVAIGNIALT can be rearranged to get the word

VACILLATING, which also means not resolute.

Therefore, its antonym is resolute.

Hence, option 3.

166. The hunter has just sparrows, pigeons, doves.

Let the number of sparrows, pigeons & doves be s, p & d

respectively.

From the 1st, 2nd, & 3rd statement, we get,

p + d = 6, s + d = 6, p + s = 6

Adding all three we get, 2p + 2s + 2d = 18

p + s + d = 9

Thus, the hunter had 9 birds.

Hence, option 2.

167. The family tree can be drawn as follows.

From the family tree, John is Kulwants grandson.

Hence, option 3.

168. From the family tree obtained in the solution to the first

question of the set above, Tinu is Johns cousin sister.

Hence, option 2.

169. From the family tree obtained in the solution to the first

question of the set, Ritu is Gagans niece. Mukesh is Ritus

husband and so he is Gagans Nephew in law.

Hence, option 4.

170. Consider each statement

1. Mohan may or may not be younger than Kulwant.

2. Mukesh & Gagan can have the same surname.

3. Since Madhav is Rakeshs son, Madhav is definitely

younger than Rakesh.

4. Pushpa may or may not be younger than Mohan.

Hence, option 3.

171. After making the required changes we get the new

sequence (1st sequence) as compared to the conventional

sequence (2nd sequence) as :

A Z Y X E W V T I S R Q P N O M L K J H U G F D C B

A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z

Since the new sequence represents the letter in the

original sequence, we get

Z B

Y C

X D

W F

and so on.

According to new sequence

PUNYT MUNCH

VTFHC GHWTY

PREHG MKETV

Hence, PUNYT is a valid word in the new sequence.

Hence, option 1.

172. ITXNA IHDNA

YTOHV CHOTG

YTINA CHINA

Hence, option 3.

173. FILLS WIQQJ

NIPKA NIMRA

AKIEQ ARIEL

Hence, option 3.

174. PUJYQE MUSCLE

WQOOX FLOOD

JHINH STINT

All of the above are valid words.

Hence, option 4.

175. Statement I:

Consider the Net worth to borrowing ratio for each year.

In 200506 and 2006-07 it is greater than 2.

In 200708 and 2009-10 it is greater than 1.5.

Only in 2008-09 it is less than 1.5

Statement I is correct.

Statement II:

Consider the Net worth to profit ratio for each year. The

year with the lowest value of this ratio will be the year

with the highest ratio of profit to Net worth. In each of

the years from 2005-06 to 2008-09, the ratio of Net

worth to profit is greater than 15. In 2009-10 alone it

falls below 15.

FMS Dec 2010


The profit to net worth ratio has been the highest in

the year 2009-10

Statement II is incorrect.

Hence, option 1.

176. Statement I:

We can observe that the percentage growth in profit will

be lowest in either 2007-08 or in 2008-09.

In 2007-08, the growth is 80/924 and in 2008-09 it is

71/1004

In the latter, the numerator is smaller than the former

and the denominator is bigger. So the latter is smaller

than the former.

The percentage growth in profit over the previous year

is the lowest in the year 2008-09.


Statement II:

Consider the net sales to profit ratios for all years. In all

the years except in 2006-07 it is greater than 2. Hence

this ratio is the least in 2006-07. So the ratio of profit to

net sales is highest in 2006-07.

Statement II is correct.

Hence, option 3.

177. Statement I:

The value added in 2009-10 is more than 1.5 times that

in 2008-09. In no other year is this ratio so high. So

clearly, the percentage value added growth over the

previous year has been the highest in the year 2009-10.


Statement II:

In the year 2005-06 the ratio of Net worth to profit is

greater than 20. In no other year is it so high. So the ratio

of profit to Net worth has been the lowest in the year

2005 06.


Hence, option 1.

178. Statement I:

From the solution to the third question of this set, we can

see that percentage value added growth over the

previous year has been the highest in the year 2009 10.

Statement I is incorrect.

Statement II:

The value added is greater than 1.1 times the previous

year in all years except in 2006-07. Hence, the

percentage value added growth over the previous year

has been the lowest in the year 2006-07.


Hence option 2.

179. Statement I:

From the solution to question 176, we can see that there

is an inconsistency in the trend of the ratio of Net Sales

to Profit in the year 2006-07.

Statement I is incorrect.

Statement II:

We can see that the ratio of Networth to profit is the

highest in 2005-06 (>20) and lowest in 2009-10 (< 15)

We only need to see if this ratio decreases over the years

2006-07, 2007-08 and 2008-09.

The values of the ratio of Networth to Profit in 2006-07,

2007-08 and 2008-09 are approximately 18, 17.2 and

16.72 respectively.

Thus the ratio of profit to Networth has been

consistently improving over the period under review.


Hence, option 4.

180. Statement I:

Consider 2005-06

Estimating similarly we can see that the ratio less than

15 in 2006-07 and 2007-08, and is very close to 15 in

2008-09 and 2009-10.

In 2008-09,

17978 15 = 269670 > 267100

The ratio is less than 15.

In 2009-10,

23273 15 = 349095 < 421800

The ratio is greater than 15.


Statement II:

From the solution to the third question of this set, the

ratio of Networth to profit is greater than 20 only for 1

year.


Hence, option 3.

181. From the solution to the second question, we can see

that statement I is correct.

Also, we can see that profit to Net sales ratio was the

highest in the year 2006 07.


Hence, option 1.

FMS Dec 2010


182. From the solution to the third question, we can see that

both statements I and II are correct.

Hence, option 3.

183. Since CARTOON is written as BBQUNPM, we can observe

that the code changes the given word by changing the

letters of the word by changing the first letter to the

letter that comes before it and the second letter to the

letter that comes after it and the patterns continues in a

similar fashion.

Hence, OSHNZSX will stand for PRIMARY.

Hence, option 4.

184. Given that A < B < D, C < D and B > E.

Hence, D is the heaviest.

Hence, option 2.

185. There are 5 experts and 4 languages. Each expert knows

more than one language. Therefore make a grid with the

experts in the rows and the languages in the columns.

Mark a tick for every language that an expert knows.

J, H, E and F stand for Japanese, Hindi, English and

French respectively.

The grid is as shown below.

Expert J H E F

R1

R2

R3

R4

R5

R4 knows Japanese & French. Since R5 knows French, he

can talk to R4 without an interpreter.

Only R1and R2 know Japanese, apart from R4. Therefore,

both R1 and R2 can talk to R4 without an interpreter.

Hence, option 4.

186. Consider the grid obtained in the solution to the first

question of the set. Two people need an interpreter if

they have no language in common.

R3 knows Hindi and English and R4 knows Japanese and

French. Since they have no language in common, R3 and

R4 need an interpreter.

Hence, option 4.


question of the set. Two people know French. Three

people know each of English, Hindi and Japanese.

Thus, French is the least commonly used language.

Hence, option 2.


question of the set. R3 talks in Hindi or English and R4

talks in Japanese or French.

Therefore, an interpreter should know at least one

language from Hindi and English and at least one from

Japanese and French.

Consider each expert in the option.

R1 Japanese and Hindi

R1 is a valid interpreter.

R2 Japanese and English


R5 Hindi, English and French


Thus, any of these can be a valid interpreter.

Hence, option 4.


question of the set. R6 has to know two languages such

that maximum experts understand him.

Consider English & French 4 people i.e. R2, R3, R4 & R5

can understand R6.

Consider Japanese & Hindi All 5 people can understand

R6.

Consider English & Hindi 4 people i.e. R1, R2, R3 & R5

can understand R6.

Hence, R6 should know Japanese & Hindi.

Hence, option 2.

190. The numeric value of each letter is:

A 1 N 13

B 2 O 12

C 3 P 11

D 4 Q 10

E 5 R 9

F 6 S 8

G 7 T 7

H 8 U 6

I 9 V 5

J 10 W 4

K 11 X 3

L 12 Y 2

M 13 Z 1

The numeric value of each option is:

Since, the numerator is positive and denominator is

negative, the equation cannot be a whole number.

Since the numerator is negative and denominator is

positive, the equation cannot be a whole number.

FMS Dec 2010


The numerator has no multiple of 27 but the

denominator has. So the equation cannot be a whole

number.

None of the equations is a whole number.

Hence, option 4.

191. Find the salary of each person using the table obtained in

the given solution:

PREM = (11) (9) (5) (13) = 99 65 = 6435

SHAN = (8) (8) (1) (13) = 64 13 = 832

RAMU = (9) (1) (13) (6) = 9 78 = 702

Note There can be other four letter names possible (for

example MMMM) that can draw more salary than PREM

Hence, option 4.

192. Consider each option using the table obtained in the

solution to the first question.

GS TSZ

[(7) (8)] [(7) (8) (1)]

= (56) (56) = 0

GS TSZ = 0

PRO = (11) (9) (12) = 1188

DLW = (4) (12) (4) = 192

PRO DLW

ROD = (9) (12) (4) = 432

YET = (2) (5) (7) = 70

ROD YET

Hence, option 1.

193. Rectangle Economy Class Passengers

Circles Working Executives

Triangles Indians

Only segments 5 and 6 represent the passengers which

are executives as well as travel in economy class. But

since the hotels service does not include Indians, only

segment 6 will be the required segment that the hotel

should concentrate upon.

Hence, option 2.

194. As shown in the figure only segment 5 and 6 represent

the passengers who are Executives and who travel by

Economy Class.

Hence, option 1.

195. The Indian executives are represented by the segments 4

and 5 but the Indian executives who do not travel by

economy class is represented by segment 4 only, as

segment 5 passengers travel by economy class.

Hence, option 4.

196. Segments 1, 2, 5 and 6 represent passengers travelling

by economy class. Out of these segments, segments 5 and

6 represent the passengers who are executives.

Hence, the required areas, which the airline company

must focus on are 1 and 2.

Hence, option 3.

197. Dibleen is Simrans and Sagars mother. Since Chitra and

Simran are sisters, Dibleen is also the mother of Chitra

and Chitra, Simran and Sagar are siblings.

Hence, option 4.

198. A + B A is the boss of B

A B A is the subordinate of B

A * B A is the colleague of B

From the above information

Devesh Shirish + Kartik Devesh is the subordinate of

Shirish and Shirish is the boss of Kartik.

Hence, Shirish is the boss.

Hence, option 1.

199. Since, the student is at the tenth from all ends he must be

the student who is common in the rows.

Since, he is the tenth from all the ends; there must be 9

students (including the student at the end) in between

all the four ends and the given student.

Hence, the number of students in the group = 9 4 + 1

= 37

Hence, option 3.

200. After selling half of the balance eggs and another half an

egg to Shivani the grocer is left with 7 eggs.

Let, the number of eggs that he had before he sold eggs

to Shivani x.

x = 15

Similarly we get the number of eggs that the author had

before he sold eggs to Deepak to be 31 and the number

of eggs that he had before he sold eggs to Anurag as 63.

Hence, he started with 63 eggs.

Hence, option 2.

fms 2011 detailed solutions

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