explaining the fulfillment

8/13/2019 Explaining the Fulfillment

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Explaining the Fulfillment; CCF Basic Doctrines



1. Prophesy: Isaiah 7:14 -Born of a Virgin, Fulfillment Luke 1:34-35

Luke 1:34-3534

Then said Mary unto the angel, How shall this be, seeing I know not a man?35And the angel answered and said unto her, The Holy Ghost shall come upon thee, and the power of

the Highest shall overshadow thee: therefore also that holy thing which shall be born of thee shall be

called the Son of God.

Proof text: Fulfillment?

Hebrew Scripture:

Isaiah 7:14

14 Therefore the Lord Himself shall give you a sign: behold, the young woman ( ) shall conceive,

and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel.

KJV Version

Isaiah 7:1414 Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and

shall call his name Immanuel.

This is a case of mistranslation from Hebrew to English in KJV and furthermore, Jesus was never called

Immanuel.

2. Prophesy: Micah 5:2 – Born in Bethlehem, Fulfillment Matthew 2:1

In the opening verse of the second chapter in the Gospel of Matthew, the author declares that

Bethlehem was the birthplace of Jesus:

Matthew 2:1(KJV) – Now when Jesus was born in Bethlehem of Judaea in the days of Herod

the king, behold, there came wise men from the east to Jerusalem, …

The author then claims this event to be a "fulfillment" of a prophecy found in the Hebrew Bible,

which he states as follows:

Matthew 2:5-6(KJV) – (5) And they said unto him, In Bethlehem of Judaea: for thus it is written

by the prophet, (6) And thou Bethlehem, in the land of Juda, art not the least among the

princes of Juda: for out of thee shall come a Governor, that shall rule my people Israel.



According to Christian apologists and missionaries, Matthew 2:6 points to Micah 5:2 in their Old

Testament; in the Hebrew Bible this is Micah 5:1. Micah 5:1[2]1[2]

has thus become a popular

Christian "proof-text" in the apologist and missionary's portfolio.

A careful analysis of the Hebrew text in Micah 5:1 demonstrates that the false application by the

Greek rendition of this verse in the New Testament, and its subsequent mistranslation in the King

James Version (KJV) Old Testament (and in other Christian Bibles), are inconsistent with the

teachings of the Hebrew Bible. Moreover, the KJV Old Testament's rendition of a key phrase in the

verse is also inconsistent with other instances of the same phrase elsewhere in the King James

Version Bible.

II. COMPARISON OF JEWISH AND CHRISTIAN TRANSLATIONS, AND THE NEW TESTAMENT

APPLICATION

Table II-1 provides a side-by-side comparison between the verse from the KJV New Testament, the

KJV Old Testament rendition of the verse, and a Jewish translation of the original verse. For

reference, the corresponding verse from the Hebrew Bible is also displayed in the table. As was

already pointed out above, note that the KJV Old Testament verse number is different from the

verse number as it appears in the Hebrew Bible. The highlighted phrase in both the Jewish and KJV

translations corresponds to the highlighted phrase shown in the Hebrew text.

table II-1 – Comparing Matthew 2:6 with Micah 5:1[2]

Hebrew Text

King James Version

New Testament

King James Version

"Old Testament"

Jewish Translation from the Hebrew

Matthew 2:6 Micah 5

And thou Bethlehem, in the land

of Juda, art not the least among

v.2

But thou, Bethlehem Ephratah,

though thou be little among

v.1

And you, Bethlehem Ephratah -

you should have been the

1[2] The notation Micah 5:1[2] shows the verse number from the Hebrew Bible first, followed by the

corresponding verse number from the Christian Old Testament shown in brackets.



the princes of Juda: for out of

thee shall come a Governor, that

shall rule my people Israel.

the thousands of Judah, yet

out of thee shall he come forth

unto me that is to be ruler in

Israel; whose goings forth have

been from of old, from

everlasting.

lowest amongst the clans of

Judah – from you [he] shall

emerge for Me, to be a ruler

over Israel; and his origin is

from old, from ancient days.

Aside from the fact that Matthew 2:6 leaves out the last phrase of the source verse and is, at best, a

paraphrase of the quoted portion, there are a number of problems with the Micah 5:2 rendition in

the KJV. These problems, as well as the truncated rendition of the verse in the New Testament, will

be explained in the analysis.

I. III. ANALYSIS OF THE PASSAGE

To help facilitate the analysis, the correct translation of Micah 5:1 is separated into two segments:

Segment A

Micah 5:1A – And you, Bethlehem Ephratah - you should have been the lowest amongst

the clans of Judah – from you [he] shall emerge for Me, to be a ruler over Israel;

Segment B

Micah 5:1B – and his origin is from old, from ancient days.

Segment A and Segment B will now be separately analyzed.

A. Analysis of Segment A



Micah 5:1A – And you, Bethlehem Ephratah - you should have been the lowest amongst

the clans of Judah – from you [he] shall emerge for Me, to be a ruler over Israel;

The name Bethlehem, in the original Hebrew is (beit-lehem), which literally meansHouse of Lehem [ (lehem) means bread, or (generic) food]. Therefore, the title

(beit-lehem) may refer either to the town or to a clan with the name (lehem). In the case

of Micah 5:1, the reference is to a clan. How can one determine this?

The first clue is found in the opening phrase of the verse, where the Hebrew is

(v eatah beit-lehem ephratah). The term (v

eatah) has the

components (v e), the preposition and, and (atah), the pronoun you for the 2

nd-person,

singular, masculine gender. Thus, (v e

atah) translates as and you, using the 2nd

-person,singular, masculine gender pronoun (the KJV has but you in Micah 5:2; note, however, how the

KJV translators correctly render this phrase as And thou in Mt 2:6!). The rest of the phrase in

Segment A is also cast in a 2nd

-person, singular, masculine gender conjugation. Following this

term (v eatah) is the phrase (beit-lehem ephratah), where

(ephratah) or, alternatively, (ephrat ), is an alternate name for the town of Bethlehem in

Judah in the Hebrew Bible, as seen from the following example:

Genesis 35:19(KJV) - And Rachel died, and was buried in the way to Ephrat (ephrat ),which is Bethlehem (beit-lehem).

In the Hebrew Bible, singular pronouns, such as (atah), you, are often used

interchangeably in both the singular and plural context. In the case of Micah 5:1, (atah) is

a singular compound entity, a specific clan, so that the context is the [plural, masculine] you.

Though the singular usage is the most common one, the plural application occurs as well (e.g.,

Exod 33:3, Deut 9:6). Therefore, the one being addressed here in Micah 5:1 is (beit-

lehem), which is the name of a family, or clan, residing in the town of (ephratah),Ephratah, i.e., in the town of Bethlehem. According to this analysis, perhaps a more accurate

version of Segment A (and, thus, Micah 5:1) would be:



Micah 5:1A – And you, House of Lehem [from] Ephratah - you should have been the

lowest amongst the clans of Judah – from you [he] shall emerge for Me, to be a ruler over

Israel;

In the expression (bealphei y

ehudah), amongst the clans of Judah, contains a

plural possessive construct of the Hebrew term (eleph), (alphei ), which is used in the

context of clans of …. The most common application of (eleph) in the Hebrew Bible is a

thousand, which is its general meaning. However, there are instances in the Hebrew Bible

where (eleph) is used in reference to a portion of a tribe, i.e., a clan or family. Micah 5:1 is

one of these cases, and others are found at Numbers 31:5, Deuteronomy 33:17, Joshua 22:14,

Judges 6:15, and 1 Samuel 10:19, 23:23. It is interesting to note that most translators (both

Jewish and Christian) are consistent in their (mis)translation of this word in all but one of these

instances, the one at Judges 6:15, where the term (alpi ) [1st-person, singular conjugation

of the noun (eleph)] is correctly translated as my family. Although, in general, it is not a

serious contextual discrepancy when using a thousand in place of a clan in the above mentioned

places, the correct context in Micah 5:1 is that the reference is to a [particular] clan from the

town of Bethlehem. This case is further supported by the fact that members of a clan are

frequently referred to by the name of the clan, often derived from the name of its progenitor, as

is seen from the following example:

Numbers 3:27 - And of Kohath, the Amramite family, and the Izharite family, and the

Hebronite family, and the Uzzielite family; these are the Kohathite families.

Regarding someone from the Bethlehemite clan [ (beit-ha'lahmi )], the Hebrew Bible

has passages such as the following:

1 Samuel 16:1 - And the L-rd said to Samuel, "Until when will you mourn for Saul, that I

have rejected him from reigning over Israel? Fill your horn with oil, and go, I will send you

to Jesse the Bethlehemite [ (beit-ha'lahmi )], for I have found among his sons a

king for Me.

Another reference in the Hebrew Bible is even more explicit:



1 Samuel 17:12 - And David was the son of this man from Ephrat [ (ephrati )] of the

House of Lehem [ (mi'beit-lehem)] in Judah, whose name was Jesse, and he had

eight sons; and the man, who was elderly in Saul's time, was among the [respected] men.

In the Hebrew language, which has no neuter gender, i.e., a separate Hebrew word forit does

not exist, cities and towns are assigned the feminine gender. So, if it were the town of

Bethlehem being addressed in Micah 5:1, the opening term would have been (v eat ), such as

in Jeremiah 50:24 and elsewhere, the components of which are (v e), the preposition and, and

(at ), the Biblical form of the pronoun you for the 2nd-person, singular, feminine gender.

Consequently, (v eat ) translates as and you, with the 2

nd-person, singular, feminine gender

pronoun. Understanding this difference is essential for the correct reading of this verse!

The KJV translators, lacking the required level of proficiency of the Hebrew language, did not

recognize that a certain clan, the House of Lehem, is being addressed in Micah 5:1[2]. Rather,

from the sources they used, one of which was most likely the Christian LXX (that which

Christians mistakenly call the Septuagint), it appeared to them that the town of Bethlehem is

being addressed here. Consequently, they characterize Bethlehem as a small and insignificant

town from the territory of Judah, in an introductory phrase to the prophecy. Namely, that in

spite of its insignificance, the town will be the birthplace of the promised Messiah.

However, since it is the clan, the House of Lehem, and not the town, that is being addressedhere by Micah, it does not matter in which town the Messiah will be born; rather, it is the clan,

the family, that is significant! The phrase in Segment B, "and his origin is from old", simply

means the Messiah will come from a family with a long lineage.

How can one learn more about the particular clan to which this verse refers? The ancestry of

the known members of the clan is a good place from which to start the investigation, and it

leads to a woman named Ruth, a Moabitess, who is among the ancestors of King David. Ruth

was married to one of the two sons Elimelech and Naomi, a family that hailed from Bethlehem.

A famine in Judah forced Elimelech to take his family to a place that had food, and they wound

up in the Land of Moab. Originally, Elimelech and Naomi’s plan was to go to Moab just to wait

out the famine, but they then decided to remain there, a decision that eventually led to tragic

consequences. Elimelech and Naomi's two sons, Killion and Mahlon (Ephrathites from House of

Lehem [Ruth 1:2]), married Gentile women, Orpah and Ruth, respectively. Elimelech and his



two sons died while the family was in Moab, leaving the three women, Naomi, Orpah, and Ruth,

as widows. Naomi made plans to return alone to her home in the Kingdom of Judah, and she

instructed her two daughters-in-law to go back to their people, the Moabites. Orpah

approached her mother-in-law, kissed her goodbye and left. Ruth came over to Naomi, held on

to her and did not let go. Ruth informed Naomi that she was coming with her; and even though

Naomi attempted to dissuade her from returning to the famine in Judah, Ruth insisted and said

to her:

Ruth 1:16-17 – (16) … Do not entreat me to leave you, or to desist from following you; for

wherever you go, I will go; and where you lodge, I will lodge; your people shall be my

people, and your G-d is my G-d; (17) Wherever you die, will I die, and there will I be

buried; the L-rd may do so to me, and so may He continue, for [only] death will separate

me from you.

From Ruth's declaration of her intentions to Naomi when she says, “…For where you go, I will

go; where you lodge, I will lodge; your people are my people, and your G-d is my G-d;…”, it is

understood that she converted to Judaism. But Ruth, a person of outstanding character, had a

problematic ancestry – she was a Moabite woman. This is what the Torah instructs the Israelites

about a Moabite:

Deuteronomy 23:4 - An Ammonite [ (ammoni )] and a Moabite [ (mo'avi )] shall

not enter into the congregation of the L-rd; even the tenth generation shall never enter

into the congregation of the L-rd.

In other words, Ammonites and Moabites were prohibited from ever converting to Judaism.

Note, however, that in the Hebrew text, the terms (ammoni ) and (mo'avi ) are

used, terms that translate as an Ammonite (male) and a Moabite (male), respectively. The

corresponding terms for a female, as used in the Hebrew Bible are, (ammonit ) and

(mo'avit ) [or (mo'avi'yah)].

The reason for the prohibition is stated immediately following it:



Deuteronomy 23:5-6 – (5) Because they did not greet you with bread and water on the

way, when you left Egypt, and because he [Moab] hired Balaam the son of Beor from

Pethor in Aram Naharaim against you, to curse you. (6) But the L-rd, your G-d, did not

want to listen to Balaam. So the L-rd, your G-d, transformed the curse into a blessing for

you, because the L-rd, your G-d, loves you.

And this is repeated at a much later time by Nehemiah:

Nehemiah 13:1-2 – (1) On that day the Book of Moses was read to be heard by the people;

and it was found written therein that an Ammonite [ (ammoni )] and a Moabite [

(mo'avi )] may not enter into the congregation of G-d forever; (2) Because they did

not come to meet the people of Israel with bread and with water, and [instead] hired

Balaam against them, to curse them; and our G-d turned the curse into a blessing.

Considering this prohibition, how was Ruth the Moabitess able to "… enter into the

congregation of the L-rd…"? How could she become the ancestor of the greatest king of the

Jewish people, King David? The Sages explain in the Babylonian Talmud (Tractate Yevamot, 76b;

Tractate Ketubot, 7b) that this prohibition applies only to Ammonite and Moabite men, and not

to women. This is because only a man was expected to leave his house and bring food and drink

to the traveler; a woman was not expected to do that for obvious reasons. Thus, the

interpretation of the law (Deut 23:4), which had to be rendered by ten elders, that the

prohibition on becoming one of the assembly of the L-rd, i.e., to be admitted into the

community of Israel, applied only to Ammonite and Moabite men and not to Ammonite and

Moabite women. This clarified the law, and enabled Boaz to marry Ruth the Moabitess. So, the

(beit-lehem) clan, with a history marred by Ruth's ancestry of a nation that was

excluded from Judaism, is characterized by the phrase, "you SHOULD HAVE BEEN the LOWEST

amongst the CLANS of Judah", in Segment A. This phrase reflects the uneasiness people may

have had even with King David, whose great-grandmother was a Moabitess. Yet, the fact is that

out of this clan rose the greatest king of Israel, and the promise is made that the Messiah will

also come from it.

This passage is all about King David's ancestry, with the Messiah being but a "by-product" of it.

This fact is even confirmed by the rendition in The New Jerusalem Bible (a Christian translation),

whose translators state the following in a footnote to this verse (Micah 5:2; only the relevant

portion of the footnote is being quoted here):



“Micah is thinking of the ancient origin of the dynasty of David, Rt 4:11,17,18-22; 1 S

17:12. The evangelists later interpreted this passage as a prophecy of Christ’s birthplace.”

In other words, while this passage does not rule out the town of Bethlehem as being the

Messiah's birthplace, as could be any other place, the notion that it is his birthplace was

introduced later, in the New Testament, as an interpretation by the Gospel writers.

B. B. Segment B

Micah 5:1B – and his origin is from old, from ancient days.

The fact that Segment A of Micah 5:1 voids the positive identification of Bethlehem as the

Messiah's birthplace, creates a serious problem for the Church. This problem is compounded by

the closing phrase in the Hebrew text in Segment B, (mi'y'mei olam), from ancient

days.

Micah, who was a contemporary of the prophets Amos, Hosea, and Isaiah, and of King Hezekiah

(around 730 B.C.E.), states something special here, namely, that the origin of the Messiah wouldbe from Bethlehem, from the long ago past, from ancient days. However, this statement

conflicts with Christian theology, since Jesus is considered as having been around since the

beginning of time, since before the Creation, and the expression from ancient days does not

satisfy this condition. To "rectify" this problem, many Christian translators simply replace

ancient days with days of eternity, or everlasting, or days of time indefinite (see, e.g., KJV, NAS,

NWT). How can one determine who is telling the truth?

The Hebrew expression (y emei olam), ancient days, is used in Micah 5:1 with the

preposition (mi-), from, as (mi'y'mei olam), from ancient days. Table III.B-1 shows

all six instances in the Hebrew Bible of the expression (y emei olam), ancient days,

including its combinations with various prepositions. Also shown in the table are the respective

renditions of these expressions in the KJV.



Table III.B-1 – KJV renditions of the expression (y emei olam) in the Hebrew Bible

Hebrew Pronunciation # Reference Correct Translation KJV Rendition

ye-ME-i o-LAM 2 Isaiah 63:9,11 the days of old the days of old

kiy-ME-i o-LAM 3

Amos 9:11;

Micah 7:14;

Malachi 3:4

as in days of old as in the days of old

miy-ME-i o-LAM 1 Micah 5:1[2] from ancient days from everlasting

Note that the expression is correctly translated in the KJV in five out of the six cases as days of

old, which is synonymous with ancient days, yet at Micah 5:2 it is rendered as from everlasting.

What could have motivated the KJV translators to render the same expression correctly in all

but one place, the one exception being at Micah 5:2, which speaks of the Messiah? Could it be

that replacing from ancient days with from everlasting in this passage would "harmonize" this

Old Testament prophecy with Christian theology? Did the KJV translators engage here in an act

of "pious fraud"?

For the sake of completeness and fairness, it should be noted that, in contrast to the KJV (andseveral other Christian Bibles), some Christian translators have correctly rendered this phrase,

e.g., NAB, NIV, NRSV, RSV, The New Jerusalem Bible, among others.

C. Matthew 2:6

As was demonstrated above, the phrase from ancient days brings the reader back to King David

and his ancestors, which created a serious theological problem for Christianity. It was also

shown how the KJV translators attempted to "solve" this problem in their rendition of Micah5:2. The author of the Gospel of Matthew apparently recognized this problem as he was

attempting to construct a cohesive scenario, and his creative way of dealing with the true

context of Micah 5:1[2] was to simply restates this verse:



Matthew 2:6(KJV) – And thou Bethlehem, in the land of Juda, art not the least among the

princes of Juda: for out of thee shall come a Governor, that shall rule my people Israel.

Upon comparing Matthew 2:6 with even the KJV rendition of Micah 5:1[2], the following

changes are evident in the part that corresponds to the passage in the KJV equivalent of

Segment A:

U The name of the place, Ephratah, is absent from the verse.

U A subtle change in context takes place, from "though thou be little among the

thousands of Judah", in the KJV Old Testament, to "thou … art not the least among the

princes of Juda", in the KJV New Testament.

U The generic title of ruler in the KJV Old Testament is replaced with the specific position

of Governor In the KJV New Testament.

As was already noted earlier, the author of the Gospel of Matthew uses a truncated version of

Micah 5:1[2] in Matthew 2:6. Thus, the obvious change is:

U Segment B of the original verse was deleted

Clearly, Segment A, being a rather straight forward passage that could refer to the Messiah

hailing from Bethlehem, required just a minor amount of editing to get it to "line up" with the

rest of his story.

Regarding Segment B, which is disastrous to Christian theology, the author of the Gospel of

Matthew does something interesting, as he also does in other places as well (e.g., Mt 2:13). He

deletes the problematic part (Segment B) of Micah 5:1[2] so that it is absent from Matthew 2:6;

he only applied an edited version of Segment A to what he wrote in Matthew 2:6. The

problematic part would have drawn the reader to the origin of the Messiah, some 200-300 years

behind Micah on the historical time scale, to King David himself.



The author of the Gospel of Matthew refused to accept the words of the Prophet Micah,

because they describe Bethlehem as the least significant of the clans and communities of Judah.

How can that be, if the Messiah is to be born there? The Messiah cannot be born in the

insignificant place that is the lowest on the totem pole. This action demonstrates that the

author of the Gospel of Matthew knew and understood very little of the Hebrew Bible, and that

he did not understand that the reference here was to Ruth. So, in order to tailor this passage to

fit his paradigm, he not only applied a portion of the verse out-of-context by dropping the

problematic part of it, but he also changed the context of that which is written in the Hebrew

Bible by reversing the you are to read you are not.

In contrast to the author of the Gospel of Matthew, the author of the Gospel of Luke was

somewhat more careful. While he insists that Jesus was born in Bethlehem, he makes the

correct connection, that it was the city of David (Lk 2:4,11). There are other instances where the

author of the Gospel of Matthew, allegedly a Jew, made a mistake, while the author of the

Gospel of Luke, allegedly a Gentile, used much more care in dealing with the same subject. One

notable example is the application of Zechariah 9:9-10 in the Gospels. As dealt with in Matthew

21:1-7, the passage has Jesus coming into Jerusalem on two animals, while in Luke 19:29-35,

Jesus is said to be coming on one animal.

II. IV. SUMMARY

Is Micah 5:1[2] a prophecy that the (Jewish) Messiah will be born in Bethlehem? The

Christian claim is that Jesus fulfilled this prophecy by being born in Bethlehem. As was

demonstrated in the analysis, the town of Bethlehem was the place from which King David's

family originated, and this prophecy speaks of Bethlehem as the Messiah's place of origin,though not necessarily his place of birth. The Hebrew text clearly states that the Messiah's

ancestors came from Bethlehem.

Since the KJV translation of the Hebrew Bible came many centuries after the Gospel of

Matthew was written, the only option available to Christian translators for "harmonizing"

Micah 5:2 with Christian theology and Matthew 2:6 was to suitably alter the context of the

source verse. Since Christians generally study the New Testament first, their theologicalideas are well established by the time they proceed to the Old Testament to look for the

"pointers". So that the discrepancies between Matthew 2:6 and Micah 5:2 are not likely to

even be noticed.

Using the logic of the Christian claim, and considering the many thousands of people having

come from Bethlehem during its history, how is it possible to identify which one of them wasthe Messiah? It is also worth noting that, relative to the important messianic attributes



spelled out by the Jewish prophets in the Hebrew Bible, which Jesus did not fulfill, being

born in Bethlehem is inconsequential, even if it were true.

3. Prophesy: Jeremiah 31:15 Babies massacred, Fulfillment Matthew 2:16-18

Matthew 2:16-18 16When Herod realized that he had been outwitted by the

Magi, he was furious, and he gave orders to kill all the boys in Bethlehem and its

vicinity who were two years old and under, in accordance with the time he had

learned from the Magi.17

Then what was said through the prophet Jeremiah was

fulfilled:18

“A voice is heard in Ramah, weeping and great mourning,Rachel weeping

for her children and refusing to be comforted, because they are no more.”[d]

Note:

There is no historical proof that this event, the killing of babies in Bethlehem ever occurred.

Jewish historian wrote 40 chapters about King Herod but this event of massacre was not even

noted by him.

Below is the verse Matthew quoted from the book of Jeremiah to prove the above mentioned

killing of the babies was actually predicted by Jeremiah;

Jeremiah 31:15-17 15

This is what the LORD says:

“A voice is heard in Ramah,

mourning and great weeping,

Rachel weeping for her children

and refusing to be comforted,

because they are no more.”

16This is what the LORD says:

“Restrain your voice from weeping

and your eyes from tears,

for your work will be rewarded,”

declares the LORD.“They will return from the land of the enemy.

17So there is hope for your descendants,”

declares the LORD.

“Your children will return to their own land.

http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=matthew%202&version=NIV#fen-NIV-23188d






Rachel was not weeping for the children who were supposedly killed but rather she was

weeping for the children who were taken into captivity/exile and God said to her to stop crying,

for the children shall comeback to their land.

4. Prophesy: Hosea 11:1 Flee to Egypt, Fulfillment: Matthew 2:13

Matthew 2:13

New King James Version (NKJV)

The Flight into Egypt

13 Now when they had departed, behold, an angel of the Lord appeared toJoseph in a dream, saying, “Arise, take the young Child and His mother, fleeto Egypt, and stay there until I bring you word; for Herod will seek the youngChild to destroy Him.”

God’s Continuing Love for Israel

11 “When Israel was a child, I loved him,

And out of Egypt I called My son.

1. Matthew 2:13-15

13When they had gone, an angel of the Lord appeared to Joseph in a

dream. “Get up,” he said, “take the child and his mother and escape to

Egypt. Stay there until I tell you, for Herod is going to search for the child tokill him.”

14So he got up, took the child and his mother during the night and left for

Egypt,15

where he stayed until the death of Herod. And so was fulfilled whatthe Lord had said through the prophet: “Out of Egypt I called my son.”

Hosea 11:1 is where Matthew was quoting to prove the said prophesy.However, when we read the verse in Hosea we find that the prophet wastalking about Israel.

New International Version (NIV)

God‟s Love for Israel

Hosea 11:1 “When Israel was a child, I loved him, and out of Egypt I called my so n .

Exodus 4:21 - 23



21 The LORD said to Moses, “When you return to Egypt, see that you perform beforePharaoh all the wonders I have given you the power to do. But I will harden his heart sothat he will not let the people go.

22Then say to Pharaoh, „This is what the LORD says:

Israel is my firstborn son, 23 and I told you, “Let my son go, so he may worshipme.” But you refused to let him go; so I will kill your firstborn son.’”

5. Prophesy: Judges 15:5- will be called a Nazarene, fulfillment: Matthew2:23

5. Matthew 2:21-23

21 So he got up, took the child and his mother and went to the land of Israel.22 But when he heard that Archelaus was reigning in Judea in place of hisfather Herod, he was afraid to go there. Having been warned in a dream, he

withdrew to the district of Galilee,23

and he went and lived in a town calledNazareth. So was ful f i l led w hat was said throug h the pro phets, that he

wou ld be cal led a Nazarene.

Where in Hebrew bible says this prophesy or where in the bible says that theMessiah would be a Nazarene? Judges 13:5 For, lo, thou shalt conceive,and bear a son; and no razor shall come upon his head; for the child shall bea Nazirite unto God from the womb; and he shall begin to save Israel out ofthe hand of the Philistines.' This is not a passage about a messiah but ratherit is telling us that Samson will be raised as a Nazirite.

DEFINITION OF NAZIRITE

In the Hebrew Bible, a Nazirite or Nazarite, (in Hebrew: נ ר, nazir ), refers toone who voluntarily took a vow described in Numbers 6:1 –21. The propernoun "Nazarite" comes from the Hebrew word nazir meaning "consecrated"or "separated".[1] This vow required the man or woman to:

Abstain from wine, wine vinegar, grapes, raisins, intoxicating liquors[2] and vinegar distilled from

such substances.[3]*Refrain from eating or drinking any substance that contains any trace of

grapes.[4]

Refrain from cutting the hair on one's head; but to allow the locks of the head's hair to grow.[5]

Not to become impure by corpses or graves, even those of family members

[6]

After following these requirements for a designated period of time (whichwould be specified in the individual's vow), the person would immerse in amikveh and make three offerings: a lamb as a burnt offering (olah), a ewe asa sin-offering (hatat ), and a ram as a peace offering (shelamim), in additionto a basket of unleavened bread, grain offerings and drink offerings, whichaccompanied the peace offering. They would also shave their head in the

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hebrew_Bible

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hebrew_language


http://bibref.hebtools.com/?book=%20Numbers&verse=6:1%E2%80%9321&src=HE



http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hebrew_%28language%29

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nazirite#cite_note-1



http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wine



http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Vinegar



http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Grapes



http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Raisins



http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Alcoholic_beverage
















http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mikveh

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Korban

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Burnt_offering

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sin-offering

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Peace_offering

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Peace_offering

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sin-offering

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Burnt_offering

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Korban

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mikveh












http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hebrew_%28language%29



http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hebrew_Bible



outer courtyard of the Temple (the Jerusalem Temple for Judaism) and thenplace the hair on the same fire as the peace offering. (Numbers 6:18)

: a Jew of biblical times consecrated to God by a vow to avoid drinking wine, cutting the hair,

and being defiled by the presence of a corpse

Nazarene: Noah Webster's New International Dictionary of the EnglishLanguage

1. (n.) A native or inhabitant of Nazareth; -- a term of contempt applied toChrist and the early Christians.

Nazarene is a title applied to Jesus (c. 4 BC- c. AD 30), who grew up inNazareth,

[1] a town in Galilee, now in northern Israel. The word is used to

translate two related terms that appear in the Greek New Testament: Nazarēne (Nazarene) and Nazōraios (Nazorean). The phrases traditionallyrendered as "Jesus of Nazareth" can also be translated as "Jesus theNazarene" or "Jesus the Nazorean."

[2] So the title "Nazarene" may have a

religious significance, in addition to denoting a place of origin. BothNazarene and Nazorean are irregular in Greek and the additional vowel inNazorean complicates any derivation from Nazareth.

[3]

The Gospel of Matthew explains that the title Nazarene is derived from theprophecy, “He will be called a Nazorean.” Unlike other prophecies thatMatthew quotes, this one has no obvious Old Testament source. Some

scholars argue that it refers to a passage in the Book of Isaiah,[5]

with "Nazarene"a Greek reading of the Hebrew ne·tser (branch), understood as a messianictitle.

[6] Others point to a passage in the Book of Judges which refers to Samson

as a Nazirite, a word that is just one letter off from Nazarene in Greek.

6. Prophesy: Psalm 41:9 – Betrayed by a friend, fulfillment, Luke22:48, Mark 14:17-18

A. Psalms 41

The reference list indicates that Psalms 41 contains one "messianic prophecy" that is "fulfilled"

according to the New Testament, as shown in Table below.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Jerusalem_Temple

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Judaism

http://bibref.hebtools.com/?book=%20Numbers&verse=6:18&src=HE

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Jesus

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nazareth

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nazarene_%28title%29#cite_note-Britannica-1



http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Galilee

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Israel

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/New_Testament

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nazorean

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nazarene_%28title%29#cite_note-2



http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nazarene_%28title%29#cite_note-Bromily-3



http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gospel_of_Matthew

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Old_Testament

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Book_of_Isaiah

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nazarene_%28title%29#cite_note-Isaiah111-5



http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Messiah

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nazarene_%28title%29#cite_note-Miller-6



http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Book_of_Judges

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Samson

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nazirite

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nazirite

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Samson

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Book_of_Judges


http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Messiah


http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Book_of_Isaiah

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Old_Testament

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gospel_of_Matthew



http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nazorean

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/New_Testament

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Israel

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Galilee


http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nazareth

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Jesus

http://bibref.hebtools.com/?book=%20Numbers&verse=6:18&src=HE

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Judaism

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Jerusalem_Temple



Statement

Citations

"Prophecy" "Fulfillment"

The Messiah's betrayer would be a friend whom he broke

bread withPsalms 41:10[9]

Mark 14:17-

18

1. 1. Overview

Following is a summary description of this psalm to help put its context into perspective.

A SUFFERER'S PRAYER: Another Psalm relating to a time when physical suffering was

aggravated by mental uneasiness over the machinations of enemies. In particular oneman whom he considered a close friend had proved traitorous. His main objective is

not to complain about his physical suffering, but to ensure that his enemies receive

their due for their treachery. It is not clear whether the Psalm was composed during

an illness and the opening verses were said in the hope of a happier future, or if it was

written later as a narrative of what had occurred in the past. This Psalm constitutes

the climax to the first book of PSALMS and it is for this reason that the final verse

takes the form of an appreciation to G-d for accepting the prayer of the Psalmist.2[11]

The superscription identifies King David as the author of this psalm. His overall message

here is that, even in circumstances that appear to be hopeless, a person can become aware

of God's love and mercy by contemplating the suffering of the sick, the poor, and the

persecuted.

The Messiah's betrayer would be a friend whom he broke bread with

The relevant texts from the King James Version (KJV) "Old Testament" and New

Testament, and the corresponding Jewish translation for reference purposes, are shown

in Table III.B.2.a-1.

Psalms 41:10[9] and Mark 14:17-18

2[11] Soncino Books of the Bible – The Psalms, Rev. Dr. A. Cohen, Editor, p. 127, The Soncino Press

(1992)



"Messianic Prophecy" "Fulfillment"

King James Version

Translation

King James Version Translation from

the Greek

Jewish Translation from

the Hebrew

Psalms 41:9 Mark 14:17-18 Psalms 41:10

Yea, mine own familiar

friend, in whom I trusted,

which did eat of my bread,

hath lifted up his heel

against me.

17. And in the evening he cometh

with the twelve.

18. And as they sat and did eat, Jesus

said, Verily I say unto you, One of you

which eateth with me shall betray

me.

Even my ally, in whom I

trusted, who eats my

bread, has lifted up his

heel against me.

King David spoke of someone, who remains unnamed, with whom he had a close

relationship, a trusted friend, who wound up trying to trip him up. He could have had in

mind Joab (Yo'av ), his military commander-in-chief, who betrayed him by supporting

David's oldest surviving son, Adonijah ( Adoniyah), when he declared himself the next

king of Israel (1 Kgs 1:5-8). He could also have thought of Ahitophel ( Ahitophel ), a chief

advisor, who betrayed him when he conspired with Absalom ( Avshalom), another one of

David's sons, in his rebellion (2 Sam 15:31, 16:21-17:3 ). He may even have been thinking

of either of these two sons. King David expressed his gratitude to God for foiling all

those plots.

The "fulfillment" text has the author of the Gospel of Mark putting King David's words

into the mouth of Jesus while at the Last Supper with his disciples, where he allegedly

foretold that Judas Iscariot would betray him. Once again, this scenario creates

problems for Christian theology. The stories about the betrayal of King David by a close

associate and the betrayal of Jesus by Judas differ significantly. According to King

David's account, the plot against him was unsuccessful, whereas, according to the

accounts in the New Testament, the betrayal by Judas succeeded, and it lead to the

crucifixion of Jesus.

There is also the question of how an act can be seen as a betrayal if it was preordained,

and, knowing that Judas was just an agent in the "master plan" of Christianity, why

would Jesus so angrily condemn him?

Moreover, as was also the case with several of the psalms previously investigated,

whoever created this "messianic prophecy"-"fulfillment" pair apparently ignored the



rest of the psalm. This is what King David said just before he began to describe the

malice of his enemies:

Psalms 41:5[4] - I said, "O L-rd, be gracious to me; heal my soul because I have

sinned against You."

King David confessed that he sinned against God and asked that his soul be healed by

the forgiveness of his sins. The consequence of attributing v. 10[9] to Jesus is that v.

5[4] must also be applicable to him, showing that he admitted to being a sinner.

Conclusion: Psalms 41:10[9] is not a valid "messianic prophecy".

7. Prophesy: Zechariah 11:12-13, sold for 30 pieces of silver -fulfillment,Matthew 26:15

THE MOTIVE OF THE BETRAYAL According to all four gospels Jesus was betrayed by Judas Iscariot one of his twelve disciples. The

account of the betrayal in Mark is given below:

Mark 14:10-11 (Matthew 26:14-16; Luke 22:1-6)

And Judas Iscariot, one of the twelve, went unto the chief priests, to betray him

unto them. And when they heard it, they were glad, and promised to give him

money. And he sought how he might conveniently betray him.

Mark 14:43-46 (Matthew 26:47-50; Luke 22:47-48,54)

[After Jesus prayers at Gethsemane]

And immediately, while he yet spake, cometh Judas, one of the twelve, and with

him a great multitude with swords and staves, from the chief priests and the

scribes and the elders. And he that betrayed him had given them a token, saying,

Whomsoever I shall kiss, that same is he; take him, and lead him away safely. And

as soon as he was come, he goeth straightway to him, and saith, Master, master;

and kissed him. And they laid their hands on him, and took him.

Anyone reading the story with an open mind will note that the whole story of Judas betrayal does not

sound natural or believable. For instance, what good does the Judas kiss do? Jesus must have been a

very well recognized face in Jerusalem for he had debated with the chief priests, teachers and the elders

just the day before and he had preached in front of large crowds in the Jerusalem Temple courts. So



obviously the kiss was not used for the arresting party to recognize Jesus. But then, what other use

could the kiss have?

The confusion underlying the betrayal of Judas is further compounded by thefact that we are not told why he wanted to betray his master. Some apologist

had made the obvious suggestion that it was greed. But this is most unlikelyfor it would have been more profitable for Judas to actually abscond thecommon fund (remember that Judas was the treasurer of the group) than tosell his master for the little amount the gospels made it out to be. Othersuggestions include that ambition and jealousy. But nothing in the gospelscan tell us what his ambitions were or who he was jealous of. Someapologists have even suggested that Judas fearing the imminent arrest ofJesus, due to his quarrels with the chief priests and teachers of the law,actually betrayed his master to rid himself of this very fear! All thesesuggestions remain unconvincing. As Guignebert commented:

We are confronted by nothing but...arbitrary suppositions unsupported by any trustworthypassage. The very number of them [i.e. the explanations of the apologists-PT] is sufficient to

discredit them, and they merely vie with another in flights of imagination. Even if we combine

all motives, ambition, jealousy, fear and failing confidence, and dress them out in high-

sounding epithets, we cannot deduce from them any well-founded and therefore acceptable

conclusions. The interminable discussions which we have touched on appear lamentable

futile. The betrayal remains purposeless, useless and unintelligible...

Prophecy

Zechariah 11:13b

"So I took the thirty shekels of silver and threw

them to the potter in the house of the Lord"

Fulfillment

Matthew 27:7

"And they counseled together and with the money

bought the Potter's Field as a burial place for

strangers."

While this seemingly detailed correspondence may look impressive at first sight, a

few preliminary considerations show that there is no prophecy and no fulfillment.

We have looked at the episode of Judas betrayal elsewhere. Here we need to notethe highlights of what we have found:

Firstly, we will note that the whole story of the betrayal by Judas is very probably

unhistorical for a few reasons:

o The betrayal makes no sense.

o There is evidence of a divergent early tradition that does not include a traitor

among the twelve apostles.

http://www.rejectionofpascalswager.net/judas.html

http://www.rejectionofpascalswager.net/judas.html#motif

http://www.rejectionofpascalswager.net/judas.html#alternate

http://www.rejectionofpascalswager.net/judas.html#alternate

http://www.rejectionofpascalswager.net/judas.html#motif

http://www.rejectionofpascalswager.net/judas.html



unto the will of mine

enemies: for false

witnesses are risen up

against me, and such as

breathe out cruelty.

and all the council, sought false

witness against Jesus, to put him to

death;

60. But found none: yea, though many

false witnesses came, yet found theynone. At the last came two false

witnesses,

61. And said, This fellow said, I am

able to destroy the temple of God,

and to build it in three days.

desires of my

adversaries, for false

witnesses and speakers

of evil have risen against

me.

David was the target and victim of slander campaigns, particularly in trying to incite

King Saul against him. Two examples of such cases are Doeg the Edomite (1 Samuel 22)and the people of Ziph (1 Samuel 23). He was always able to escape unharmed from

these situations.

The "fulfillment" text attempts to combine these historical accounts of King David with

the stated requirement on the testimony of two witnesses, to turn them into a

"prophecy" that is "fulfilled" while Jesus was standing in front of Caiphas, the High

Priest, soon after which he was crucified.

Conclusion: Psalms 27:12 is not a valid "messianic prophecy".

8. Isaiah 53:4- 5 suffer for others, Fulfillment - Matthew 27

Isaiah 53:4

Isaiah 53:4 says that the suffering servant was considered "stricken" by his enemies. Does this describe

Jesus in any way?

נָא, ֵנ הא ָי כן חל נחנ ַא ינ סבלם; ֵבֹ א מכ

,ה ֺ ָגעחשב מה אהיםנה. מע

4 Surely our diseases he did bear, and our pains he carried; whereas we did esteemhim stricken, smitten of God, andafflicted.



Answer: In verse 4 the Gentile nations exclaim, concerning the servant, "we considered him stricken [by

God]." The verb appears again in verse 8. This does not describe Jesus in any way whatsoever.

The verb, nagua, "stricken," is commonly used in the Jewish Scriptures for being stricken with leprosy

(for example, 2 Kings 5:27, 15:5; Job 19:21; Leviticus 13:3, 9, 20; Numbers 12:10). Jesus was not stricken

physically with leprosy!

Yet, even metaphorically, nagua cannot be applied to Jesus who was not generally shunned as a

loathsome pariah. The respectively supportive, indifferent, or hostile audiences he confronts in the

Gospels show a variety of responses to his message. Those who apparently despise Jesus are

numerically represented in insignificant numbers. They exist, but no more so than one may expect in

reaction to any extremely controversial figure. Consideration must also be given to the fact that the

great majority of contemporary Jews never heard of Jesus. The application to Jesus of nagua, that is,

stricken metaphorically in the manner of one who has leprosy and treated as such by fellow human

beings, is unwarranted

9. Isaiah 50:6- Smitten and spat on, Fulfillment, Matthew 26:67

This is not a valid prophesy

10. Isaiah 53:7 silent when accused, Fulfillment, Matthew 26:63

Isaiah 53:7

Does "humbled himself and opened not his mouth" describe Jesus?

Isaiah 53:7 says that the suffering servant "humbled himself and opened not his mouth" as a lamb about

to be slaughtered or a sheep dumb before its shearers. Does this describe Jesus' behavior at his trials?

Answer: Jesus' claim to be the Messiah was the accusation placed against him before the

Sanhedrin and Pilate. To the charge of his messianic claim, Jesus answered both the Jewish

authorities and Pilate in a forceful manner (John 18:19-23 )

The Chief Priest Questions Jesus

19 The chief priest questioned Jesus about his disciples and his teachings.



20 Jesus answered him, “I have spoken publicly for everyone to hear. I have always taught insynagogues or in the temple courtyard, where all the Jews gather. I haven’t said anything insecret. 21 Why do you question me? Question those who heard what I said to them. They knowwhat I’ve said.”

22 When Jesus said this, one of the guards standing near Jesus slapped his face and said, “Is

that how you answer the chief priest?”

23 Jesus replied to him, “If I’ve said anything wrong, tell me what it was. But if I’ve told the truth,why do you hit me?”

John 18:33-37

33 Pilate went back into the palace, called for Jesus, and asked him, “Are you theking of the Jews?”

34 Jesus replied, “Did you think of that yourself, or did others tell you about me?”

35 Pilate answered, “Am I a Jew? Your own people and the chief priests handed youover to me. What have you done?”

36 Jesus answered, “My kingdom doesn’t belong to this world. If my kingdombelonged to this world, my followers would fight to keep me from being handed overto the Jews. My kingdom doesn’t have its origin on earth.”

37 Pilate asked him, “So you are a king?”

Jesus replied, “You’re correct in saying that I’m a king. I have been born and havecome into the world for this reason: to testify to the truth. Everyone who belongs to

the truth listens to me.”

The statement: "Therefore Pilate entered the judgment hall again and called Jesus, and said to him: 'Are

you the King of the Jews?'" makes it clear that claiming to be the King Messiah was the Jewish

accusation against Jesus. Matthew and Mark comment that Jesus did not Answer the Jewish accusations

when Questioned by Pilate: "But he did not Answer him, not even to a single charge" (Matthew 27:14);

"But Jesus made no further Answer" (Mark 15:15).

However, the list of charges made by the Jews, which is found in Luke's Gospel: "misleading our nation

and forbidding to pay taxes to Caesar, and saying that he himself is Christ, a King" (Luke 23:2), is

Answered by Jesus.



Answered: in his defense before Pilate, as found in John's Gospel. There he claimed to head a peace-

loving, nonmilitary, otherworldly group, which would not countenance revolt against the Roman Empire.

John argues, with the help of alleged quotations from the trial, that Jesus claimed to be King of the Jews

but not one who sought power in this world, i.e., at the expense of the Roman Empire (John 18:36).

Far from showing the humility and silence with which Isaiah 53 describes the servant in verse 7, the

encounter between the high priest, the elders, and Jesus is highlighted by a vigorous verbal exchange.

In addition, Jesus did not show humility and silence during his confrontation with Pilate. At their

meeting, Jesus is depicted as skillfully defending himself. Jesus at no time humbled himself, but, on the

contrary, presented a clever verbal defense before Pilate (the one man who could condemn him to

death), pleading shrewdly that his messianic teaching was a nonviolent, "not of this world" movement,

one which the Romans need not fear. Pilate, Jesus assumed, would not be interested in a non-political,

non-military movement that was not of "this world." However, Jesus' movement must have appeared to

Pilate like any of the other seditious movements that confronted him. He reacted accordingly.

Jesus was obviously defending himself by presenting a shrewd verbal response when he tried to

convince Pilate that he was not the head of a seditious movement but that his intentions were peaceful.

Contrary to what Christian theologians claim, the Gospels' Jesus presented a strong defense before the

Jewish officials and Pilate. Jesus was not "dumb" but very outspoken before his accusers, Jewish or

Gentile. Therefore, it is simply not true to say of Jesus that "he humbled himself and did not open his

mouth."

11.Isaiah 53: Rejected by the Jews, Fulfillment- Matthew 27:22

Isaiah 53:2 For he shall grow up

before him as a tender plant,

and as a root out of a dry

ground: he hath no form nor

comeliness; and when we shall

see him, [there is] no beautythat we should desire him.

This translation does not make sense. Isaiah 52:15 makes it

perfectly clear that this chapter is being spoken from a past-tense

perspective from the End of Days. Thus, the translation of this

narrative should reflect that.

The King James Bible and other Christiantranslations do not render it in the pasttense, however, because the intent of theirtranslations is specifically to lead the readerto believe in Jesus. Translations like thisone from Artscroll’s Tanach is correct, andthus makes much more sense based on



context (not to mention the Hebrew textitself) because it is in the past tense:

“Formerly he grew like a sapling or like a

root from ar id grou nd; he had nei therform no r grandeur; we saw him , but

wi thou t such visage that we could

desire.”

Isaiah 53:3 He is despised and

rejected of men; a man of

sorrows, and acquainted with

grief: and we hid as it were [our]

faces from him; he was despised,

and we esteemed him not.

Again, here we have the same problem ofchanged tenses that we saw with ourprevious verse.

It is puzzling how this change would help anevangelical in slanting the passage towards

Jesus. "He IS despised?" According to theNew Testament, Jesus was quite popular,as a number of verses quoted below willshow.

Also, notice how the tense changed inKJV’s rendering from "he IS despised" to"we HID," in the past tense. The errors inthis translation plainly give themselvesaway.

Was Jesus really despised?

Luke 4:14 And Jesus returned in the power of the Spirit into Galilee: and there went out

a fame of him through all the region round about. [15] And he taught in their

synagogues, being glorified of all.

Luke 8:19 Then came to him [his] mother and his brethren, and could notcome at him for the press.

Luke 8:45 And Jesus said, Who touched me? When all denied, Peter andthey that were with him said, Master, the multitude throng thee andpress [thee], and sayest thou, Who touched me? (KJV)

This is but a small sampling of a long list. The servant is characterized as one who is despised. Jesus is

not one who fits that bill. However, when you take a look at the history of Jews, you’ll find that the

Jewish people fit into that description seamlessly.



12. Psalm 69:4 Hated without a cause, Fulfillment- Matthew 27:23

1. . Overview


PRAYER OF THE PERSECUTED: A deeply pathetic human document is presented by this

Psalm. A devout servant of G-d is undergoing cruel treatment and fells that his

sufferings are due to his religious loyalty. He pleads with G-d for relief and, in burning

indignation, begs that retribution come upon his persecutors. His faith remains firm

through the ordeal and he looks to the future with confidence. There are several

passages in the Psalm which point to the fact that it was written as a prophetic vision

that that foretold of the era when Israel would be in captivity. Indeed, the Midrash

understands the Psalm as relating to the Babylonian exile. In collective singular, the

downtrodden outcasts describe their woeful sufferings, while, at the same time,

begging for the mercy of G-d. In the closing verses they affirm their faith in Him by

triumphantly proclaiming His praises in a sincere song of devotion. The parallels

between this Psalm and the book of Jeremiah are frequent and striking.3[11]

The superscription identifies King David as the author of this psalm. The psalm, written

entirely in the first person, can be interpreted as being either about himself or,

prophetically, about Israel in exile, portraying their plight during those long and bitter times,

and pleads for their speedy deliverance.

a. The Messiah would be hated by many without cause

The relevant texts from the KJV "Old Testament" and New Testament, and the

corresponding Jewish translation for reference purposes, are shown in Table III.A.2.a-1.

Table III.A.2.a-1 – Psalms 69:5[4] and Luke 23:13-22



(1992)



King James Version

Translation

King James Version Translation from the

Greek

Jewish Translation

from the Hebrew

Psalms 69:4 Luke 23:13-22 Psalms 69:5

They that hate me

without a cause are

more than the hairs of

mine head: they that

would destroy me,

being mine enemies

wrongfully, are mighty:

then I restored that

which I took not away.

13. And Pilate, when he had called together

the chief priests and the rulers and the

people,

14. Said unto them, Ye have brought this

man unto me, as one that perverteth the

people: and, behold, I, having examined

him before you, have found no fault in this

man touching those things whereof ye

accuse him:

15. No, nor yet Herod: for I sent you tohim; and, lo, nothing worthy of death is

done unto him.

16. I will therefore chastise him, and

release him.

17. (For of necessity he must release one

unto them at the feast.)

18. And they cried out all at once, saying,

Away with this man, and release unto usBarabbas:

19. (Who for a certain sedition made in the

city, and for murder, was cast into prison.)

20. Pilate therefore, willing to release

Jesus, spake again to them.

21. But they cried, saying, Crucify him,

crucify him.

22. And he said unto them the third time,

Why, what evil hath he done? I have found

no cause of death in him: I will therefore

chastise him, and let him go.

Those who hate me for

nothing are more

numerous than the

hairs of my head;

mighty are those who

would cut me off, who

are my enemies

because of lies; what I

did not steal, should I

return?.



This verse can be seen either as pertaining to King David's own life, or as being prophetic

about events that would occur to the Jewish people during their various exiles. As it

relates to King David, and as was learned from similar scenarios in several of the psalms

previously investigated, he had many enemies and was the target and victim of many

slander campaigns. In this case, as in Psalms 35, King David wondered if he should

restore that which his false accusers charged he had taken. In the case of Israel's exile,

the historical record is witness to the many times that trumped up charges were leveled

against the Jews (e.g., blood libels, poisoning of wells, etc.) just as a ploy to dispossess

them of their wealth.

The "fulfillment" text is taken from a passage that describes Pontius Pilate discussing the

release of Jesus with the spiritual and political leaders of the Jews. They allegedly

demanded that he be crucified, and Pilate said that he found no reason to put him to

death, and that he wanted to punish him and then release him before the Passover.

The match-up of this "messianic prophecy"-"fulfillment" pair is not obvious. King David

is complaining about the exactions made upon him or, prophetically, upon Israel in exile,

by oppressors on the false pretext that they were executing justice. The author of the

Gospel of Luke provides an account of the Roman leader wanting to release Jesus while

the leaders of the Jews accuse Jesus of various offenses and demand that he be

executed. The problem is that the outcomes of the two situations were quite different,

as was noted in several previous instances. King David survived all these plots, while

Jesus wound up being crucified.

Another problem is created by ascribing King David's problems to Jesus. Namely, it

forces the next verse in the psalm to apply to Jesus as well:

Psalms 89:6[5] - O G-d, You know my folly, and my guilty deeds are not concealed

from You.

King David admitted that he sinned; in fact, he committed sins with intent [the noun

(asham), intentional sin, is used here]. His trials were, at least in part, punishment

for the sins he committed. Thus, by implication, this makes Jesus a sinner, one who

sinned with intent, which contradicts Christian doctrine.



A related problem is created by the following account when King David's words are put

into the mouth of Jesus:

Psalms 69:12[11] - And I made sackcloth my raiment, and I became a byword to

them.

King David lamented about how his enemies made him the subject of derision when he

donned sackcloth, the common garb during times of repentance (and mourning). The

Hebrew Bible describes an occasion when King David was in sackcloth following his

sinful act of conducting a census of Israel4[12] (1 Chron 21:16). Prophetically, this could

be his vision of the treatment of exiled Israel by the nations. Once again, this alludes to

King David's actions to obtain the atonement for his sins, or, prophetically, for collective

Israel doing this in exile. The New Testament contains no accounts of Jesus in sackcloth.

These last two issues apply to the remaining "messianic prophecies" in this psalm.

Conclusion: Psalms 69:5[4] is not a valid "messianic prophecy".

13. Psalm 22:15, Hands and Feet pierced, Fulfillment John 19:19

B. Psalms 22:17[16]

King James Version

Translation

Jewish Translation from the

Hebrew Hebrew Text

Psalms 22

16 For dogs have

compassed me: the

assembly of the

wicked have inclosed

me: they pierced my

17 For dogs have

surrounded me; a band

of evildoers

encompassed me; like a

lion [they are at] my



hands and my feet. hands and my feet.

This is, perhaps, one of the verses from the Christian "Old Testament" most frequently

referenced by Christian apologists and missionaries when claiming that the crucifixion of Jesus

was foretold. Yet, as was noted above, none of the authors of the New Testament ever point to

this verse, which is such an important component in the evangelical portfolio. A comparison of

the above two translations reveals a major discrepancy in the respective renditions of the term

(ka'ari ), like a lion. The typical Jewish rendition of this term is like a lion, while the KJV

(typical of most Christian translations) has they pierced. Which is the correct translation?

A simple word study on the Hebrew term (ka'ari ) helps answer this question. For

simplicity, the word study concerns only on cases where the same form of the termappears, i.e., excluding conjugations of the root noun (ar i ) in the singular and plural,

and combinations with various prepositions other than that which occurs here [the {or

} (ka- ) here is the Hebrew preposition equivalent to like/as]. In addition to the

application at Psalms 22:17[16], three other instances of (ka'ari ) are present in theHebrew Bible, and all are shown in Table IV.D-1 below, along with their respective KJV

translations. There is also a single instance of the term (v e cha'ari ), which is the

equivalent of (ka'ari ) with the preposition (v e - ), and, in front of it to make it, andlike a lion. This term is included in Table IV.D-1 for completeness since it contains the

original term (ka'ari ), though it is not critical for illustrating the point to be made

here.

Table IV.D-1 – Comparisons of KJV renditions of (ka'ari ) in the Hebrew Bible

Reference KJV Rendition Comment

Psalms 22:17[16] (ka'ari ), they pierced Incorrect

Numbers 24:9 (ka'ari ), like a lion Correct

Isaiah 38:13 (ka'ari ), like a lion Correct

Ezekiel 22:25 (ka'ari ), like a lion Correct

Numbers 23:24 (v echa'ari ), and … as a young lion Correct



It appears that the KJV translators had a special reason for rendering the term (ka'ari ) at

Psalms 22:17[16] differently. Why did the KJV translate the Hebrew term (ka'ari) as they

pierced only at Psalms 22:17[16]?

Is there a connection between the Hebrew term (ka'ari ) and a Hebrew verb that describes

the act of piercing? The word (ari ), lion, is related to another word for lion, (aryeh);

both are used in the Hebrew Bible. Several verbs are used in the Hebrew Bible to describe an

act of piercing: (daqar ; e.g., Zech 12:10), (hadar ; e.g., Ezek 21:19), (naqav ; e.g.,

Hab 3:14), ( palah; e.g., Job 16:13), and (ratza; e.g., Exod 21:6). A knowledge of

Hebrew is not required to recognize that none of these root verbs resembles the terms

(ka'ari ), (ari ), or (aryeh).

Could there be another linguistic explanation? Two fragments containing Psalms 22:17[16]

were discovered among the Dead Sea Scrolls (DSS). In the first fragment, which was found at

Qumran (4QPs-f ; known as the Qumran MS, the word in question is not preserved. In the

second fragment, found at Nahal Hever (HHev/Se 4 (Ps); known as the Bar Kochba MS, the

word is preserved. The fragment HHev/Se 4 (Ps) shows the Hebrew letters (kaf ), (aleph),

(resh), and what appears to be a somewhat elongated letter (yod ), which some perceive to

be the letter (vav ).5[3] Thus, the reading of this word would be either (ka'ari ) or

(ka'aru), respectively. Although the latter of these two renditions of the term has been the

focus of much controversy and discussion, it is a fact that no root verb exists which contains the

letter (aleph) in it, conjugated in this fashion (3rd

-person, plural masculine gender, past

tense), with the meaning of they pierced, as rendered in most Christian translations. Without

the letter (aleph), and using, for the moment, the argument that the last letter [the elongated

(yod )] is a (vav ), the word would be (karu), for which the Hebrew root verb is

(karah), [to] dig [in dirt], such as digging a ditch (e.g., Ps 57:7). In other words, (karu) has

the meaning [they] dug [in dirt]. This verb is never used in the context of piercing, either

literally or metaphorically, in any of its 15 applications in the Hebrew Bible.

5[3] An image of this fragment, in which the line with the word in question has been "enhanced", is shown

in an article by a Christian apologist, Tim Hegg, Psalm 22:16 – "like a lion" or "they pierced"? -http://www.torahresource.com/Newsletter/Ps22.16.pdf. The reader should be cautioned that the Hebrewlinguistic analysis in the article is seriously flawed. The article contains other questionable items. Forexample, the fragment also shows the next word as being misspelled, having an extra letter " heh "attached at the end, which makes no grammatical sense. The author shows this incorrect spelling in thetext, but in a later segment in which he compares the Masoretic Text with the text from HHev/Se 4 (Ps),he drops the extra letter "heh ".



What could cause such a variation between the two terms (ka'ari ) and (ka'aru), i.e.,

with an elongated letter (yod ) that resembles the letter (vav )? Since the word

(ka'aru) does not exist in the Hebrew language, the most plausible explanation is that such

discrepancy is simply a case of scribal variation (or error).

Another possibility, one that has been alleged by Christian apologists and missionaries, is textual

revisionism by the Masorites, who added vowels and melodic trope marks to the Hebrew Bible

around the 10th century C.E., i.e., the claim is that the Masorites changed the original

(ka'aru) to the current (ka'ari ) in order to remove any resemblance to a crucifixion

scenario. Given the strict prohibitions in the Hebrew Bible concerning any tampering with its

text (e.g., Deut 4:2, Pr 30:6), and the fact that the term (ka'aru) does not exist in the

Hebrew language, this is a rather preposterous claim regarding an unlikely action by the trained

scribes.

Given the late dating of the Nahal Hever fragment6[4], the discrepancy could be the result of

exactly the reverse of the previous claim. Namely, this could be the result of an attempt by

second century C.E. (early) Christians to edit the original (ka'ari ) to be (ka'aru),

thereby making it appear like the term (karu), they dug. This would have accomplished the

effect of aligning the word with the events of the early first century C.E. It is also interesting to

note that in the LXX (the Christian translation into Greek of the Hebrew Bible), where this verse

is numbered as Psalms 21:17, the reading is ωρυξαν (oruksan), which stems from the root

ρω (orusso), to dig, as in [to] dig a trench. Liddell & Scott (Henry George Liddell, Robert

Scott, An Intermediate Greek-English Lexicon) do not list a meaning of pierce for this word, and

the identical usages occur only in early Christian renditions (Arndt and Gingrich, Lexicon of the

Greek Testament ). This LXX reading could possibly stem from a presumed, though non-existent,

Hebrew reading (which makes no sense in context) of (karu) [i.e., without the (aleph) -

not the reading (ka'aru)]. As noted above, the Hebrew word (karu) means [they] dug

[in dirt], and it is never used in the Hebrew Bible with the context ofpiercing.

A final clue is found within the New Testament itself. The New Testament authors are silent on

Psalms 22:17[16], a verse so central to Christianity in the description of the crucifixion itself.

Given its significance to the Church, the question is: "Why is the New Testament silent on this

verse? ".

6[4] The Nahal Hever papyri are dated as late as the second century C.E. according to DSS scholars and

researchers; e.g. G. Vermes, An Introduction to the Complete Dead Sea Scrolls, p. 29.



One possible answer is that none of the authors of the four Gospels, all of which provide a

narrative of the crucifixion, was aware of this verse. That answer is not likely, however, since all

of them referenced other parts of this psalm. Another possibility is that none of the authors

saw this verse as being significant, or even relevant, to their respective crucifixion narratives.

But this answer would be inconsistent with the important role this verse plays in the Christian

perspective.

Perhaps the most likely answer is that the common Christian rendition, they pierced in the "Old

Testament", came after the New Testament was written, i.e., the authors of the New Testament

were unaware of a future revision of Psalms 22:17[16], in which the Church attempted to create

a better fit with the crucifixion narrative. There was no need to mistranslate the term

(ka'ari ) in Numbers 23:24, 24:9, Isaiah 38:13, and Ezekiel 22:25, since these passages, unlike

Psalms 22:17[16], had no Christological value to the Church, and could not help improve the fit

into the Hebrew Bible of any component of Christian theology. This is a serious charge to make.However, given the hard evidence of tampering by the Church with other passages from the

Hebrew Bible, it certainly is a plausible scenario for the disparity between the two renditions of

this particular verse.

14. Psalm 22:18, gambled clothing, fulfillment-Matthew 27:35

King James Version

Translation


Hebrew Hebrew Text

Psalms 22

18 They part my garments

among them, and cast

lots upon my vesture.

19 They divide my garments

among themselves, and

cast lots for my raiment.

The author of the Gospel of John points to this verse as being a prophecy that became fulfilled

when Jesus was on the cross:

John 19:23-24 – (23) Then the soldiers, when they had crucified Jesus, took his garments,

and made four parts, to every soldier a part; and also [his] coat: now the coat was without



seam, woven from the top throughout. (24) They said therefore among themselves, Let us

not rend it, but cast lots for it, whose it shall be: that the scripture might be fulfilled,

which saith, They parted my raiment among them, and for my vesture they did cast lots.

These things therefore the soldiers did.

The previous verse, Psalms 22:18[17], is critical to a correct understanding of the true context of

this verse. Psalms 22:18[17] describes the person whose clothes are being divided as counting

his bones while those who are taking his garments look on gloating. This starving man is so

skinny that his bones are visible and can be counted. The "voice" here is still King David, as it is

throughout the psalm, and he uses the act of taking and dividing his garments as a metaphorical

reference to the desires of his enemies to take away his mantle of royalty and make it their

own.

15.Isaaih 53:12 Die with the wicked, fulfillment Matthew 27:38

Matthew 27: 38

38Then were there two thieves crucified with him, one on the right hand, and another on the left.

Isaiah 53:12

53:12 "Therefore, I will divide a portion to him with the great, and he shall divide the spoil with the

mighty." If Jesus is God, does the idea of reward have any meaning? Is it not rather the Jewish people -

who righteously bore the sins of the world and yet remained faithful to God (Ps. 44) - who will be

rewarded, and this in the manner described more fully in Isaiah chapters 52 and 54?

Isaiah 53:12 has nothing to do with Matthew 27, crucified with thieves.

16.Psalm 22:6-8 Mocked and insulted, fulfillment Matthew 27:39-44

KJV Hebrew

But I [am] a worm, and no man; a reproach of

men, and despised of the people.7

But I am a worm, and not a man; a reproach of

man and despised by the people.

All they that see me laugh me to scorn: they

shoot out the lip, they shake the head,

8 All those who see me will mock me; they will

open their lip, they will shake their head,



[saying], [saying],

He trusted on the LORD [that] he would

deliver him: let him deliver him, seeing he

delighted in him.

9

He should cast his trust upon the Lo rd so that

He will rescue him; He will save him because he

delights in Him.

Psalms 22:7[6] - But I am a worm, and not a man; a reproach of man and despised by the

people.

In the Christian scenario, it would be Jesus calling himself a worm. This reference to a worm as a

metaphor for people is not unique within the Hebrew Bible. Isaiah likens the Jewish people to a

worm:

Isaiah 41:14 - Fear not, O worm of Jacob, the number of Israel; "I have helped you," says

the Lord, and your redeemer, the Holy One of Israel.

Bildad the Shuhite, one of Job's friends, does the same:

Job 25:6 - How much less, man, who is a worm, and the son of man, who is a maggot!"

In Psalms 22:7[6], King David uses this metaphor as he writes about the plight of his own people.

Does the worm metaphor fit Jesus? Would anyone, other than pagans who worship worms,

use this metaphor to characterize a divine being?

17. Psalm 22:6-8, Mocked and insulted. Fulfillment- Matthew 27:39-44

Matthew 27: 39-4439

And they that passed by reviled him, wagging their heads,40 And saying, Thou that destroyest the temple, and buildest it in three days, save thyself. If thou be the

Son of God, come down from the cross.41 Likewise also the chief priests mocking him, with the scribes and elders, said,42 He saved others; himself he cannot save. If he be the King of Israel, let him now come down from the

cross, and we will believe him.43 He trusted in God; let him deliver him now, if he will have him: for he said, I am the Son of God.44 The thieves also, which were crucified with him, cast the same in his teeth.



by God, as in Isa. 53:4); Jer. 46:27-28; Ps. 136:22; Lk. 1:54. ALSO: Given the Christian view

that Jesus is God, is God His own servant?

52:15 - 53:1 "So shall he (the servant) startle many nations, the kings will stand speechless;

For that which had not been told them they shall see and that which they had not heard shall they

ponder. Who would believe what we have heard?" Quite clearly, the nations and their kings will be amazed at what happens to the "servant of the L-rd," and they will say "who would believewhat we have heard?". 52:15 tells us explicitly that it is the nations of the world, the gentiles,

who are doing the talking in Isaiah 53. See, also, Micah 7:12-17, which speaks of the nations'

astonishment when the Jewish people again blossom in the Messianic age.

53:1 "And to whom has the arm of the L-rd been revealed?" In Isaiah, and throughout our

Scriptures, God's "arm" refers to the physical redemption of the Jewish people from the

oppression of other nations (see, e.g., Isa. 52:8-12; Isa. 63:12; Deut. 4:34; Deut. 7:19; Ps. 44:3).

53:3 "Despised and rejected of men." While this is clearly applicable to Israel (see Isa. 60:15;

Ps. 44:13-14), it cannot be reconciled with the New Testament account of Jesus, a man who wassupposedly "praised by all" (Lk. 4:14-15) and followed by multitudes (Matt. 4:25), who would

later acclaim him as a prophet upon his triumphal entry into Jerusalem (Matt. 21:9-11). Even as

he was taken to be crucified, a multitude bemoaned his fate (Lk. 23:27). Jesus had to be taken by

stealth, as the rulers feared "a riot of the people" (Mk. 14:1-2).

53:3 "A man of pains and acquainted with disease." Israel's adversities are frequently likened

to sickness - see, e.g., Isa. 1:5-6; Jer. 10:19; Jer 30:12.

53:4 "Surely our diseases he carried and our pains he bore." In Matt. 8:17, this is correctly

translated, and said to be literally (not spiritually) fulfilled in Jesus' healing of the sick, a reading

inconsistent with the Christian mistranslation of 53:4 itself.

53:4 "Yet we ourselves esteemed him stricken, smitten of G- D and afflicted." See Jer. 30:17 -

of God's servant Israel (30:10), it is said by the nations, "It is Zion; no one cares for her."

53:5 "But he was wounded from (NOTE: not for) our transgressions, he was crushed from

(AGAIN: not for) our iniquities." Whereas the nations had thought the Servant (Israel) wasundergoing Divine retribution for its sins (53:4), they now realize that the Servant's sufferings

stemmed from their actions and sinfulness. This theme is further developed throughout our

Jewish Scriptures - see, e.g., Jer. 50:7; Jer. 10:25. ALSO: Note that the Messiah "shall not fail

nor be crushed till he has set the right in the earth" (Isa. 42:4).

53:7 "He was oppressed and he was afflicted, yet he did not open his mouth. Like a lamb that

is led to slaughter, and like a sheep that is silent before its shearers, so he did not open his

mouth." Note that in the prior chapter (Isa. 52), Israel is said to have been oppressed and takenaway without cause (52:4-5). A similar theme is developed in Psalm 44, wherein King David

speaks of Israel's faithfulness even in the face of gentile oppression (44:17- 18) and describes

Israel as "sheep to be slaughtered" in the midst of the unfaithful gentile nations (44:22,11).



44) - who will be rewarded, and this in the manner described more fully in Isaiah chapters 52 and

54?

Psalms 68:18, Go back to heaven, Fulfillment- Matthew

The reference list indicates that Psalms 68 contains two "messianic prophecies" that are

"fulfilled" according to the New Testament, as shown in Table III.B-1.

Table III.B-1 – Claimed "Messianic Prophecies" and their "Fulfillments"

Statement

Citations

"Prophecy" "Fulfillment"

The Messiah would ascend into heaven Psalms 68:19a[18a] Luke 24:51

The Messiah would give gifts to men Psalms 68:19b[18b]Matthew

10:1

2. 1. Overview


G-D'S VICTORIES: While this Psalm is one of the most magnificent of all (Ibn Ezra) in its

forceful sweep of thought and language, the commentators are in disagreement on

the events which occasioned it. The Targum and others connect it with the revelation

at Sinai or the exodus from Egypt. If we look for an occasion in the lifetime of David, it

might allude to the occasion when he triumphed in victories over Aram-Zobah and

Aram Damascus, Moab, Edom and Philistia (2 Samuel 8) (Malbim). It has also beensuggested (Kimchi) that it refers to the future downfall of Sennacherib's army in the

days of Hezekiah. Meiri contends that, most probably, it is a prophecy relating to the

battle of Gog and Magog which will lead to the coming of the Messiah. Whatever the



reason for its composition, it takes the form of a triumphant march proclaiming the

kingship of G-d over the earth.7[11]

The superscription identifies King David as the author of this psalm. He recounts the many

victories Israel achieved with G-d's help over mighty empires, and foretells that this

phenomenon of Israel's triumph will continue. King David then invites all nations to join in

praising G-d.

3. 2. Investigating claimed "Messianic Prophecies" [and "Fulfillments"]

a. a. The Messiah would ascend into heaven

The relevant texts from the KJV "Old Testament" and New Testament, and the

corresponding Jewish translation for reference purposes, are shown in Table III.B.2.a-1.

Table III.B.2.a-1 – Psalms 68:19a[18a] and Luke 24:51


King James Version Translation

King James Version

Translation from the

Greek


Hebrew

Psalms 68:18a Luke 24:51 Psalms 68:19a

Thou hast ascended on high, thou

hast led captivity captive: thou

hast received gifts for men; yea,

for the rebellious also, that the

LORD God might dwell amongthem.

And it came to pass, while

he blessed them, he was

parted from them, and

carried up into heaven.

You ascended on high, you

took captives; you took gifts

to be among men, and also

rebellious ones for Y-h G-d to

dwell.


(1992)



This is not a prophetic passage – it is historical. Several scenarios to explain it have been

proposed by the Jewish Sages, and two of these are presented here. Targum Yonathan

and RASHI say the subject is Moses, who ascended Mount Sinai on behalf of Israel to

receive ("capture") the Torah from the hands of the angels (Pr 30:4).

According to RADAQ (Rabbi David Qimhi), the subject is G-d who removed His "divine

presence", the Shechinah, from His "dwelling" in Jerusalem and remained aloof in His

heavenly abode. In doing so, He allowed foreign nations to invade Israel.

The "fulfillment" text depicts "The Ascension", the scene where Jesus departed from

those with whom he walked and spoke during one of his appearances following his

alleged "resurrection". What was accomplished by this action? He just disappeared,

apparently without a purpose, and he has not returned.

Conclusion: Psalms 68:19a[18a] is not a valid "messianic prophecy".

Psalm 16:10, He will rise again- Fulfillment, Matthew 28:6

6 He is not here; for he has been raised, as he said. Come, see the place where hea lay.

Psalms 16:8-10a and Matthew 28:6


King James Version

Translation

King James Version

Translation from the Greek


Hebrew

Psalms 16:8-10a Matthew 28:6 Psalms 16:8-10a

8. I have set the LORD

always before me: because

he is at my right hand, I

shall not be moved.

9. Therefore my heart is

He is not here: for he is risen,

as he said. Come, see the

place where the Lord lay.

8. I have placed the L-rd

before me constantly;

because [He is] at my right

hand, I will not falter.

9. Therefore, my heart

http://biblia.com/bible/nrsv/Mt28.6#footnote0





glad, and my glory rejoiceth:

my flesh also shall rest in

hope.

10a. For thou wilt not leave

my soul in hell; neither wiltthou suffer thine Holy One

to see corruption.

rejoiced, and my soul was

glad; even my flesh shall

dwell in safety.

10a. For You shall not forsake

my soul to the grave; Youshall not allow Your pious one

to see the pit.

Before addressing the problem with the "messianic prophecy", a significant

mistranslation in the KJV "Old Testament" rendition must be exposed. In v. 10a, the KJV

translates as hell the Hebrew term (sheol ), which means the grave, and it is

generally applied in this context in the Hebrew Bible.

The term (sheol ), which appears in the Hebrew Bible 65 times, was a familiar

concept among the ancient Israelites, and to the Jewish people throughout history. In

general, this poetic term describes the world of the dead – the place where the body

goes after a person dies. There are some exceptions where (sheol ) is applied to an

experience of great anxiety and despair, such as at Isaiah 5:15[16], where it is depicted

as a devouring monster, and at Jonah 2:3, where the prophet applied the term

metaphorically as his grave deep in the belly of the whale.

The KJV inconsistently renders this term in the "Old Testament", and this has created

awkward theological issues for Christians, as the following example demonstrates:

Psalms 139:8(KJV) - If I ascend up into heaven, thou art there: if I make my bed in

hell [ ], behold, thou art there.

According to the KJV, the Christian deity shares "hell" with the Archenemy, Satan! It is

worth noting that Biblical Hebrew has no term for the common Christian idea of eternal

damnation called hell.



Regarding the subject of v. 10a, this does not speak of the resurrection of the dead.

King David is confident that when the time comes for him to die, his soul would not go

to the grave with his body; that it would ascend to be with G-d. King Solomon spoke

about this process as well:

Ecclesiastes 12:7 - And the dust returns to the earth as it was; and the spirit

returns to G-d who gave it.

Clearly, the same idea as is described by his father, King David. There is nothing in the

context here that speaks of a resurrection, and certainly not about a Messiah who dies

and is resurrected.

Conclusion: Psalms 16:8-10a is not a valid "messianic prophecy".

Psalm 68:18 Go back to heaven, Luke 24:50-53

Psalms 68:19a[18a] and Luke 24:51


King James Version Translation

King James Version

Translation from the

Greek


Hebrew

Psalms 68:18a Luke 24:51 Psalms 68:19a

Thou hast ascended on high, thou

hast led captivity captive: thou

hast received gifts for men; yea,

for the rebellious also, that the

LORD God might dwell among

them.

And it came to pass, while

he blessed them, he was

parted from them, and

carried up into heaven.

You ascended on high, you

took captives; you took gifts

to be among men, and also

rebellious ones for Y-h G-d to

dwell.



Verily I say unto you, There be some standing here, which shall not taste ofdeath* , till they see the Son of man coming in his kingdom.Matthew 16: 27-28 The language is clear. Jesus told his disciples that some of them would nottaste of death – would not die – before he returned, until he came into his

kingdom.

If you’ve been mistakenly taught that the verses above refer to Christ’sTransfiguration, read Revelation 20:12 which coincides with Matthew 16:27in describing a Judgment Day scenario:

And I saw the dead, small and great, stand before God; and the books wereopened: and another book was opened, which is the book of life: and thedead were judged out of those things which were written in the books,according to their works.Revelation 20:12

Christ was, again, clearly referring to his second coming before that presentgeneration passed.

Again, Jesus tells his disciples:

And then shall appear the sign of the Son of man in heaven: and then shallall the tribes of the earth mourn, and they shall see the Son of man comingin the clouds of heaven with power and great glory.

And he shall send his angels with a great sound of a trumpet, and they shallgather together his elect from the four winds, from one end of heaven to the

other.

Now learn a parable of the fig tree; When his branch is yet tender, andputteth forth leaves, ye know that summer is nigh: So likewise ye, when yeshall see all these things, know that it is near, even at the doors.

Verily I say unto you, This generation shall not pass* , till all these things befulfilled.Matthew 24:30-34

Again, Christ describes certain events and warns those who are listening tohim that “This generation shall not pass* , till all these things be fulfilled”. He

is speaking abouttheir

present

generation

.

Although the above scriptures clearly convey that Christ was talking abouthis present generation, there are many other references in the NewTestament indicating that the writers of the Gospels and Epistles as well asthe followers of Christ firmly believed that Jesus was speaking of theirpresent generation and not some future time hundreds or thousands ofyears down the road.

http://bible.gospelcom.net/bible?Matthew+16:27-28


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Jesus spoke to his followers again about his coming according to the book ofMatthew:

And ye shall be hated of all men for my name’s sake: but he that endureth tothe end shall be saved.

But when they persecute you in this city, flee ye into another: for verily I sayunto you, Ye shall not have gone over the cities of Israel, till the Son of manbe come.Matthew 10:22-23 The cities of Israel were not so numerous that it would have taken a fleeingman 2000 years to go over or through them. No man could live that long.Christ said before a fleeing man could go through all the cities, he wouldcome. Again, Christ was speaking of his return in that generation. He left nodoubt as to his meaning in this passage.

What I mean, brothers, is that the time is short* . From now on those whohave wives should live as if they had none; those who mourn, as if they didnot; those who are happy, as if they were not; those who buy something, asif it were not theirs to keep; those who use the things of the world, as if notengrossed in them. For this world in its present form is passing away.(1 Corinthians 7:29-31 – NIV)Paul tells the Corinthians that time is short and that the world in its presentform is passing away . His words have a strong sense of urgency, rather thanbeing a mere suggestion. Paul believes the world is presently passing away.He is not speaking of some event which could take place 2000 years in thefuture.

Now this I say, brethren, that flesh and blood cannot inherit the kingdom ofGod; neither doth corruption inherit incorruption. Behold, I shew you amystery; We shall not all sleep* , but we shall all be changed, In a moment, inthe twinkling of an eye, at the last trump: for the trumpet shall sound, and thedead shall be raised incorruptible, and we shall be changed. For thiscorruptible must put on incorruption, and this mortal must put on immortality1 Corinthians 15:50-53 In this passage, Paul tells the Corinthians We shall not all sleep. Again, Paulis convinced and is convincing the Corinthians that the second coming ofChrist is imminent in that generation and not all who hear his words will“sleep” or die prior to Christ’s coming.

We Which Are Alive And Shall Remain

In the following portion of the letter which Paul writes to the Thessalonianshe discusses those who remain alive in the present tense.



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For this we say unto you by the word of the Lord, that we which are alive andremain* unto the coming of the Lord shall not prevent them which areasleep.

For the Lord himself shall descend from heaven with a shout, with the voice

of the archangel, and with the trump of God: and the dead in Christ shall risefirst: Then we which are alive and remain* shall be caught up together withthem in the clouds, to meet the Lord in the air: and so shall we ever be withthe Lord. Wherefore comfort one another with these words.1 Thessalonians 4:15-18

More Scripture Indicating Immediate Urgency

The New Testament is abundantly filled with references to the immediacy ofChrist’s return.

But the end of all things is at hand:* be ye therefore sober, and watch untoprayer.1 Peter 4:7

God, who at sundry times and in divers manners spake in time past unto thefathers by the prophets, Hath in these last days* spoken unto us by his Son,whom he hath appointed heir of all things… Hebrews 1:1-2 In 1 John, the false prophets foretold by Jesus who existed in that timeperiod to give notice of the end times are discussed.

Beloved, believe not every spirit, but try the spirits whether they are of God:because many false prophets are gone out into the world. Hereby know yethe Spirit of God: Every spirit that confesseth that Jesus Christ is come in theflesh is of God: And every spirit that confesseth not that Jesus Christ iscome in the flesh is not of God… 1 John 4:1-3 *(italics mine)

According to the Bible, Jesus Christ said he would return in the generation inwhich he lived. He said the sign of the Son of Man would appear in heaven.He said all the tribes of Israel would mourn. He said the tribes would see the

Son of Man coming in the clouds of heaven with power and great glory. Hesaid he would send his angels with a great sound of a trumpet. The angelswere to gather the “elect” from the four winds, from one end of heaven to theother. All of these things were to have happened in his generation. Theydidn’t happen.

Jesus did not return as he said he would. He did not return as his disciplesbelieved and preached that he would. Jesus didn’t come in the disciples

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generation. He didn’t come in any generation. The disciples all died. Jesus’promise was broken. The disciples believed and lived a false hope.

Jesus didn’t come then and he isn’t coming in the future. Those who cling tothe broken promise and false hope of his return will be just as disappointed

as the disciples who died looking in vain for the second coming of theirChrist.

He isn‟t coming again.

Nonexistent prophecies

4) Fourth, some of the prophecies claimed to be fulfilled in the New Testament don't even exist

in the Old Testament!

For example, in Luke 24:46, Jesus said:

"Thus it is written and thus it was necessary for the Christ to suffer and to rise from the dead thethird day."

However, nowhere in the Old Testament does it predict or say that! Also, in John 7:38 Jesus

said,

"He who believes in Me, as the Scripture has said, out of his heart will flow rivers of living water."

If Jesus was right in saying that scripture prophesied this, where is it then? No such statementin the Old Testament scriptures has ever been located, yet "the scripture" Jesus referred to

would certainly have been in the Old Testament. How could there be a fulfillment of a prophecy that was never even made?

In another example, Jesus claimed another fulfillment of nonprophecy in Luke 24:46.

"Thus it is written and thus it was necessary for the Christ to suffer and to rise from the dead thethird day."

Paul also claimed that Christ's resurrection on the third day was also predicted by scriptures.

He said in 1 Corinthians 15:3-4

"For I delivered to you first of all that which I also received: that Christ died for our sins accordingto the Scriptures, and that He was buried, and that He rose again the third day according to thescriptures."

However, Christian apologists cannot produce a single Old Testament passage that made this

alleged third day prediction! It simply doesn't exist! Likewise in John 20:9



"For as yet they knew not the scripture, that he must rise again from the dead."

How could they not know the scripture, since the scripture prophesying that doesn't even

exist? No such scripture has ever been found. Jesus also said in Mark 1:2

"It is written in Isaiah the prophet: 'I will send my messenger ahead of you, who will prepare your

way'"

Yet no statement like that appears in the book of Isaiah! That is a clear error there, without adoubt. In Acts 20:35 it says

"In everything I did, I showed you that by this kind of hard work we must help the weak,remembering the words the Lord Jesus himself said: `It is more blessed to give than to receive.'"

Yet no such words of Jesus are found in the Bible! Later on, James said in James 4:5

"Or do you think Scripture says without reason that the spirit he caused to live in us enviesintensely?"

Again, no such words are found in scripture!

In another indisputable example, Matthew said that Judas' purchase of the potter's field

with the thirty pieces of silver cast back to the chief priests and elders fulfilled a prophecy

made by Jeremiah:

"Then was fulfilled that which was spoken through Jeremiah the prophet, saying, And they tookthe thirty pieces of silver, the price of him that was priced, whom certain of the children of Israeldid price; and they gave them for the potter's field as the Lord appointed me." (Matthew 27:9-10)

The only problem here is that Jeremiah NEVER wrote anything remotely similar to this! Sohow could this be a fulfillment of "that which was spoken through Jeremiah the prophet"?

There is a passage in Zechariah that this might refer to though, however, if the Bible is theinerrant word of God, then how could it make mistakes like this?!

When Joseph took his family to Nazareth after they went to Egypt, Matthew said he did thisso

"...that it might be fulfilled which was spoken through the prophets, that he should be called aNazarene." (Matthew 2:23)

Again, Bible scholars have never been unable to find any statement from any prophet that

this could be referring to! As a matter of fact, neither the word Nazareth or Nazarene was

ever mentioned in the Old Testament. If this is so, how could the period of Jesus' residency

in Nazareth have been prophesied by the prophets?

How can an inerrant Bible contain huge mistakes like this? Is it any wonder why Christians

never refer to these verses as fulfillment of prophecy? These critical errors clearly render thefulfillment of prophecy argument inept.



Failed, expired, and unfulfilled prophecies

5) Fifth, and perhaps most damaging, there are many prophecies in the Bible which never came

true or went unfulfilled, expiring beyond their predicted time.

For instance, here are 16 obvious failed prophecies in regard to the Second Coming of Christand the end of the world, which was supposed to take place in the First Century Apostles’

lifetime!

Below Jesus clearly predicts that his Second Coming will be during the lifetimes of the First

Century Christians who lived in their time.

"Verily I say unto you, There be some standing here, which shall not taste of death, till they seethe Son of man coming in his kingdom." (Matthew 16:28)

"But I tell you of a truth, there be some standing here, which shall not taste of death, till they see

the kingdom of God." (Luke 9:27)

Jesus clearly predicted in those two verses above that the apostles standing with him would

see his second coming in their lifetimes. It's clear and simple, nothing allegorical orsymbolical.

These following verses also indicate that Paul expected that he and the Christians of his timewould see the Second Coming of Christ.

"But this I say, brethren, the time is short: it remaineth, that both they that have wives be asthough they had none;" (1 Corinthians 7:29)

"For this we say unto you by the word of the Lord, that we which are alive and remain unto thecoming of the Lord shall not prevent them which are asleep. For the Lord himself shall descendfrom heaven... Then we which are alive and remain shall be caught up together with them in theclouds..." (1 Thessalonians 4:15-17)

"God...Hath in these last days spoken unto us by his Son..." (Hebrews 1:1-2)

2000 years ago it was the "last days"!? More similar verses below.

"For yet a little while, and he that shall come will come, and will not tarry."

(Hebrews 10:37)

"But the end of all things is at hand: be ye therefore sober, and watch unto prayer."

(1 Peter 4:7)

"Christ...was manifest in these last times for you,..." (1 Peter 1:19-20)

"Be patient therefore, brethren, unto the coming of the Lord...establish your hearts: for the comingof the Lord draweth nigh...behold, the judge standeth before the door." (James 5:7-9)

"The Revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave unto him, to shew unto his servants thingswhich must shortly come to pass;..." (Revelation 1:1)



"Behold, I come quickly." (Revelation 3:11)

"And he said unto me, Seal not the sayings of the prophecy of this book: for the time is at hand...He which testifieth these things saith, Surely I come quickly. Amen. Even so, come, Lord Jesus."(Revelation 22:10, 20)

"But when they persecute you in this city, flee ye into another: for verily I say unto you, Ye shallnot have gone over the cities of Israel, till the Son of man be come." (Matthew 10:22-23)

Jesus said there that his second coming would occur WHILE his apostles were preaching in

the cities of Israel!

In the following three verses, Jesus says that the generation living at the time wouldexperience his second coming.

"So ye in like manner, when ye shall see these things come to pass, know that it is nigh, even at

the doors. Verily I say unto you, that this generation shall not pass, till all these things be done."(Mark 13:29-30)

"So likewise ye, when ye see these things come to pass, know ye that the kingdom of God is nighat hand. Verily I say unto you, This generation shall not pass away, till all be fulfilled." (Luke21:31-32)

"So likewise ye, when ye shall see all these things, know that it is near, even at the doors. VerilyI say unto you, this generation shall not pass, till all these things be fulfilled." (Matthew 24:33-34)

Obviously, that generation that Jesus was speaking to has long since passed! What animpressive assortment of failed prophecies! Is this convincing to you of the divine infallible

inspiration of the Bible?

explaining the fulfillment

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