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1. This question booklet contains 200 MCQs in the subjects of Physics (50), Chemistry (50) and Biology (100).

2. The question paper and OMR (Optical Mark Reader) Answer Sheet is issued separately at the start of the examination.

3. Choice and sequence for attempting questions will be as per the convenience of the candidate.

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taken to mark the entries correctly. Special care should be taken to fill accurately. The correctness of entries has to becross-checked by the invigilators. Paper code and Form No.

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FORM NUMBER

DISTANCE LEARNING PROGRAMME(ACADEMIC SESSION 2014-2015)

LEADER TEST SERIES COURSE

PAPER CODE 0 1 D M 3 1 4 0 1 0

TARGET : MH-CET 2015

TEST # 10 DATE : 26 - 04 - 2015

Test Type : MAJOR Test Pattern : MH-CET

Path to SuccessCAREER INSTITUTEKOTA (RAJASTHAN)

T M

TEST SYLLABUS : FULL SYLLABUSDuration : 3:00 hours Total Marks : 200INSTRUCTIONS

LTS-1/2701DM314010

Leader Test Series Course/MH-CET/26-04-2015

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

1. Hydrogen atoms in ground state are excited

by monochromatic radiation of wavelength

975 Å. The total number of lines in the resulting

spectrum will be

(1) 3 (2) 4

(3) 6 (4) 10

2. A particle moves such that its acceleration a is

given by a = –bx, where x is the displacement

from equilibrium position and b is a positive

constant. The period of oscillation is

(1) 2 b

(2) 2 / b

(3)2 / b

(4) 2 ( / ) b

3. A planet moves around the sun. At a point P, it

is closest from the sun at a distance d1 and has

a speed v1. At another point Q, when it is

farthest from the sun at a distance d2, its speed

will be

(1) d v d12

1 22/

(2) d v d2 1 1/

(3) d v d1 1 2/

(4) d v d22

1 12/

4. A 1 kW transmitter works at a frequency of

880 kHz. The number of photons emitted per

second is

(1) 1.7 × 1028 (2) 1.7 × 1030

(3) 1.7 × 1023 (4) 1.7 × 1025

BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING

HAVE CONTROL HAVE PATIENCE HAVE CONFIDENCE 100% SUCCESS

5. In Young's double slit experiment if two

slightly different wavelengths are present in the

light used then

(1) the sharpness of fringes will increase every

where (compared to the case when

monochromatic light is used )

(2) there will be no fringes at all

(3) the sharpness of fringes will decrease as

we move away from central fringe.

(4) the central fringe will be white.

6. Torque acting on a wheel of moment of inertia

200 kg–m2 is 1000 Nm. Its angular velocity

after 3 second will be-

(1) 10 rad/s (2) 5 rad/s

(3) 15 rad/s (4) 25 rad/s

7. The temperature of a black body is increased

by 50%. The rate of radiations emitted by the

body increase nearly by

(1) 50% (2) 100% (3) 225% (4) 400%

8. If two soap bubbles of different radii are in

communication with each other

(1) air flows from the larger bubble into the

smaller one until the two bubbles are of

equal size

(2) the sizes of the bubbles remain unchanged

(3) air flows from the smaller bubble into the

larger one and larger bubble grows at the

expense of the smaller one

(4) air flows from the larger into the smaller

bubble until the radius of the smaller one

becomes equal to that of the larger one and

of the large one equal to that of the smaller one.

01DM314010LTS-2/27

Major Test For Target : Pre-Medical 2015/MH-CET/26-04-2015


9. Two gases are at absolute temperatures 300K

and 350K respectively. The ratio of average

kinetic energy of their molecules is

(1) 7 : 6 (2) 6 : 7

(3) 36 : 49 (4) 49 : 36

10. The current in a coil changes from 0 to 2 A in

0.05 s. If the induced emf is 80 V, the

self-inductance of the coil is

(1) 1 H (2) 0.5 H

(3) 1.5 H (4) 2 H

11. The equivalent capacity

between the points A and B in the following

figure will be

(1) 9 µF (2) 1 µF

(3) 4.5 µF (4) 6 µF

12. Two simple pendulums have time period 2s

and 2.5 s. At what time they will be in same

phase if oscillated simultaneously

(1) 5s (2) 10s

(3) 15s (4) None of these

13. Two loudspeakers L1 and L

2 driven by a

common oscillator and amplifier are set up as

shown in the figure. As the frequency of the

oscillator increases from zero, the detector at

D recorded a series of maximum and minimum

signals. What is the frequency at which the first

maximum is observed ?

(Speed of sound = 330 m/s ).

(1) 165 Hz (2) 330 Hz

(3) 495 Hz (4) 660 Hz

14. A planet is revolving around a sun under the

effect of gravitation then which of the

following quantities will be conserved :-

(1) Total mechanical energy and linear

momentum

(2) Total mechanical energy and angular

momentum

(3) Total mechanical energy, linear momentum

and angular momentum

(4) Only total mechanical energy

15. Figure shows current in a part of electrical

circuit, then current i is

(1) 1.7 A (2) 3.7 A

(3) 1.3 A (4) 1 A

16. To get maximum current in a resistance of 3

ohms, one can use n rows of m cells ( connected

in series) connected in parallel. If the total

number of cells is 24 and the internal resistance

of a cell is 0.5 ohms then

(1) m = 12, n = 2 (2) m = 8, n = 3

(3) m = 2, n =12 (4) m = 6, n = 4

17. The electric potential V at any point x, y, z ( all

in metres ) in space is given by V = 4x2 volt.

The electric field at the point ( 1 m, 0, 2 m ) in

volt/metre is

(1) 8 along negative x-axis

(2) 8 along positive x-axis

(3) 16 along negative x-axis

(4) 16 along positive z-axis

LTS-3/2701DM314010



18. A bubble of radius R having surface tension

is made by a soap solution. What is the

pressure difference between its outer and inner

surface :-

(1)4

R(2)

2

R

(3)

4R(4)

2R

19. Electrial potential along a line varies as

V(x) = x. Where is a constant. What is the

electrical field along the line at x = 2m.

(1) – (2) + (3) –2 (4) +2

20. A circular loop of radius r is placed in a region

where magnetic field increases with time as

B(t) = at then what will be emf induced in coil

with direction and magnitude :-

(1) r2a, clockwise

(2) 3r2a, counter clockwise

(3) 2r2a, clockwise

(4) 2r2a, counter clockwise

21. The mutual inductance between a pair of coils

each of N turns is M. If a current i in the first

coil is brought to zero in a time t, then average

e.m.f. induced in the second coil is

(1) Mi / t (2) NMt / i

(3) Mt / iN (4) it / MN

22. When the radioactive isotope 88Ra

236 decays

in a series by emission of three alpha particles

and a beta particle, the isotope X which remains

is

(1) 22483X (2)

84 X218

(3)84 X

220 (4) 87 X

223

23. One way communication is called

(1) half duplex

(2) full duplex

(3) mono communication

(4) simplex

24. In common base mode transistor amplifier, the

current gain is

(1) 50 (2) 10

(3) 1 (4) less than one

25. The de Broglie wavelength of an electron in

the first Bohr orbit is

(1) equal to the circumference of the first orbit

(2) 1/2 the circumference of the first orbit

(3) 1/4 of the same

(4) 3/4 of same

26. Which circuit represents a NAND gate

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27. Two waves originating from source S1 and S

2

having zero phase difference and common

wavelength will show completely destructive

interference at a point P if (S1P - S

2P) is

(1) 5 (2) 3 / 4

(3) 2 (4) 11 / 2

01DM314010LTS-4/27



28. In series LR circuit XL = 3R. Now a capacitor

with XC = R is added in series. Ratio of new to

old power factor is

(1) 1 (2) 2

(3) 2

1(4) 2

29. Two waves are represented by the following

equations

)1.010(2sin51 xty

)2.020(2sin102 xty

Ratio of intensities 12 / II will be

(1) 1 (2) 2

(3) 4 (4) 16

30. The first diffraction minima due to a single slit

diffraction is at = 30° for a light of wavelength

5000 Å. The width of the slit is

(1) 5 × 10–4 cm

(2) 1.0 × 10–4 cm

(3) 2.5 × 10–4 cm

(4) 1.25 × 10–4 cm.

31. If an alternating current i = imsin t is flowing

through an inductor then voltage drop VL

across inductor L will be :-

(1) Lim sin t

(2) Lim cos t

(3) Lim sin t4

(4) Lim cos t4

32. Two particles each of same mass move along

a circular path about their common centre of

mass under the action of mutual gravitational

force. If the radius of their circular path is R,

then what is their linear speed ?

(1) RGM /

(2)

R

GM

2

1

(3)

R

GM

4

1

(4)

R

GM

16

1

33. Two stretched wires have frequencies in unison.

If the tension in one of the wires is increased

by 1 %, 3 beats are produced in 2s. The initial

frequency of each wire is nearly

(1) 150 Hz (2) 200 Hz

(3) 300 Hz (4) 450 Hz

34. A solid sphere rolls down without slipping an

inclined plane and its velocity at the bottom is

v1. The same sphere slides down another

similar inclined plane (without friction) and its

velocity at the bottom is v2 Which of the

following relations is correct?

(1) 21 vv (2) 217

5vv

(3) 215

7vv (4) none of these

LTS-5/2701DM314010



35. Two point charges +4q and +q are placed at a

distance L apart. A third charge Q is so placed

that all the three charges are in equilibrium.

Then location and magnitude of third charge

will be

(1) At a distance L

3 from +4q charge,

4q

9

(2) At a distance L

3 from +4q charge,

4q

9

(3) At a distance L

3from +q charge,

4q

9

(4) At a distance L

6 from +q charge, –

q

9

36. Two particles P and Q are in motion under

gravity. Then :

(1) their relative acceleration is constant but

not zero

(2) their relative velocity is always zero

(3) their centre of mass has constant velocity

(4) their centre of mass has constant

acceleration.

37. In a series L–R growth circuit, if maximum

current and maximum induced emf in an

inductor of inductance 3mH are 2A and 6V

respectively, then the time constant of the

circuit is :

(1) 1ms (2) 1/3 ms

(3) 1/6 ms (4) 1/2 ms

38. With a potentiometer null points were obtained

at 140 cm and 180 cm with cells of e.m.f.

1.1 V and one of unknown value respectively.

The unknown e.m.f. is

(1) 1.1 V (2) 1.8 V (3) 1.4 V (4) 1.41 V

39. Which of the following material has zero

magnetic moment of single atom :-

(1) Paramagnetic

(2) Ferromagnetic

(3) Diamagnetic

(4) All

40. A solid cube and a solid sphere made from

same material have equal surface area. Both

are at the same temperature of 120°C, Then

(1) both of them will cool down at the same rate

(2) the sphere will cool down faster then the cube

(3) the cube will cool down faster than the sphere

(4) whichever of the two is heavier will cool

down faster

41. The potential energy associated with a particle

is given by U = 20 + (x - 2)2, where x is position

of the particle. Then

(1) The corresponding force can produce an

oscillatory motion but not SHM.

(2) The corresponding force will produce an

SHM of frequency 2 Hz.


SHM about the mean position x = 2


SHM about the mean position x = 0

42. The rectangular surface of area cm4cm8 of

a black body at a temperature of 127°C emits

energy at the rate of E per second. If the length

and breadth of the surface area each are reduced

to half of the initial value and the temperature

is raised to 327°C, the rate of emission of

energy will become

(1) (3/8)E (2) (9/16)E

(3) (81/16)E (4) (81/64)E

01DM314010LTS-6/27



43. In order to increase the capacity of a parallel

plate condenser, one should introduce between

plates of the condenser, a sheet of

(1) mica (2) tin

(3) copper (4) stainless steel

44. A photon of 12.8 eV energy collides with a

hydrogen atom in ground state elastically. Then

what can be detected by a suitable detector.

(1) one photon of 10.2 eV and an electron of

energy 1.4 eV

(2) 2 photons of energy 10.2 eV

(3) 2 photons of energy 3.4 eV

(4) No photons will be emitted

45. A sonometer wire resonates with a given tuning

fork forming standing waves with five

antinodes between the two bridges when a mass

of 9 kg is suspended from the wire. When this

mass is replaced by a mass M, the wire

resonates with the same tuning fork forming

three antinodes for the same positions of the

bridges. The value of M is

(1) 25 kg (2) 5 kg

(3) 12.5 kg (4) 1/25 kg

46. Two resistors of 10 and 20 and an ideal

inductor of 10 H are connected to a 2 V battery

as shown. The switch S is put on at time t = 0.

The initial (at t = 0) and final (at t = ) currents

through the battery are

(1)1

15

1

10A A; (2)

1

10

1

15A A;

(3)2

25

1

10A A; (4)

1

15

2

25A A;

47. According to Bohr Model for Hydrozen,

energy is proportional to :

(1) –Z2 /n (2) – n/Z

2

(3) –Z2/n

2(4) –n

2/Z

48. In the network shown in figure, each resistance

is 1 . The effective resistance between A and

B is

(1)4

3 (2)

3

2 (3) 7 W (4)

8

7

49. The rate of flow of a liquid through a capillary

tube of radius is r is V when the pressure

difference is P. If the radius is reduced to r/2

and the pressure increases to 2P, then the rate

of flow becomes

(1) V (2) V / 2

(3) V / 4 (4) V /8

50. A longitudinal wave can be

(1) plane polarized

(2) partially polarized

(3) never be polarized

(4) totally polarized

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01DM314010

51. 1 molal aqueous solution of an electrolyte

X3Y

2 is 25% ionised. The boiling point of

the solution :

(Given Kb for H

2O = 0.52 K kg mol–1)

(1) 375.5 K (2) 374.04 K

(3) 377.12 K (4) 373.25K52. XeF

6 + H

2O product is :-

(1) XeF2

(2) XeO3

(3) XeOF3

(4) XeF4

53. The rate constant for the reaction A Bis 2 × 10–4 lt mol–1 min–1. The concentrationof A at which rate of the reaction is

2 × 10–6 mol lt–1 sec–1 is

(1) 0.25 M (2) 1 5

M20 3

(3) 0.1 M (4) 0.2 M54. Consider the following statement :

(i) IUPAC name of K2[OsCl

5N] potassium

pentachloronitridoosmate (VI)

(ii) [C r(H2O )

6] [F e(C N )

6] co n t ai n fo u r

unpaired electrons

(iii) n u m b e r o f i s o m e r p o s s i b l e f o rK

2[PtCl(Br)

2(SCN)] is six

(iv) [Ni(H2O)

6]2+ has six electrons in t

2g and

2 electrons in eg orbital.

Give initial ‘T’ for true statement and ‘F’ for

false statement :(1) TTFT (2) FTFT

(3) TTFF (4) FFTT55. For the half cell

OH

OH

O

O

+2H + 2e_

+(E = 1.30 V)

At pH = 2, the electrode potential is

(1) 1.36 V (2) 1.30 V(3) 1.42 V (4) 1.20 V

56. In an exothermic reaction A B, the activation

energy is 100 KJ/mol. The enthalpy of the

reaction is –140 kJ/mol. The activation energy

of reverse reaction, (B A) is?

(1) 40 kJ / mol (2) 340 kJ/mol

(3) 240 kJ/mol (4) 100 kJ/mol

57. Which is incorrectly matched for refining of

elements?

(1) Si, Ge from impurities zone refining

method

(2) Sn refined from SnO2 Poling method

(3) Zn, Cd from impurities with higher boiling

point liquation

(4) Al from impurities Cu, Fe etc. hoop

method

58. If the boiling point of aqueous solution is

100.1ºC, what is its freezing point? Given latent

heat of fusion and vaporization of water

80 cal g-1 and 540 cal g–1 respectively.

(1) 0.362ºC (2) –0.362ºC

(3) –3.62ºC (4) 3.62ºC

59. Consider the structure of CsCl (8:8

coordination). How many Cs+ ions occupy the

second-nearest neighbour locations of a Cs+

ion?

(1) 8 (2) 24 (3) 6 (4)16

60. Micelles form only

(1) below the CMC and below the kraft

temperature (KT)

(2) above the CMC and below the KT

(3) above the CMC and above the KT

(4) below the CMC and above the KT

61. Which of the following compounds of 0.1N

concentration has smallest (equivalent

conductivity)?

(1) NaCl (2) NiSO4 (3) CaCl

2 (4) Na

2SO

4

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01DM314010

62. For a reaction I + OCl IO + Cl, in an

aqueous medium, the rate of the reaction is

given by d[IO ] [I ][OCl ]

kdt [OH ]

.The overall

order of the reaction is

(1) –1 (2) 1 (3) zero (4) 2

63. N2O

5 reacts with iodine to produce

(1) I2O

6(2) I

2O

3

(3) I2O

5(4) I

2O

5+N

2O

64. If 200 ml of 0.1 M urea solution is mixed with

300 ml of 0.2 M glucose solution at 300 K, the

osmotic pressure () of resulting solution will

be:

(1) 1.97 atm (2) 3.94 atm

(3) 7.88 atm (4) 2.97 atm

65. Which of the following complex is most stable

complex.

(1) [Co(NH3)

6]3+ (2) [Co(NH

3)

2 (en)

2]3+

(3) [Co(NH3)

4 (en)]3+ (4) [Co (en)

3]3+

66. Which of the following is correct relationship

for Ist order (where total time reaction)

n number of half lines

N remaining moles

No initial moles.

(1) T = n × t1/2

(2) N0 =

n1

N2

(3) 1/ 2

0.963K

t

(4)2.303 a n

t logK a

67. The thermal stability of the hydrides of group

15 follows the order :

(1) NH3 < PH

3 < AsH

3 < SbH

3 < BiH

3

(2) NH3 > PH

3 > AsH

3 > SbH

3 > BiH

3

(3) PH3 > NH

3 > AsH

3 > SbH

3 > BiH

3

(4) AsH3 < PH

3 > SbH

3 > BiH

3 > NH

3

68. Pair of compounds which is planar : -

(1) [Ni(CN)4]2-, [Pt(Cl)

4]2-

(2) [Ni(Cl)4]2-, [Ni(CN)

4]2-

(3) [Ni(CN)4]2-, [Rh(CO)

2(PPh

3)

2]+

(4) [Pt(Cl)4]2-, [Ni(CO)

4]

69. In a multistep reaction such as A + B Q

C. The potential energy diagram shown

below.

5

10

15

20

25

A + B

Q C

Energy(K cal/mol)

Which statement is true -

(1) Reaction A + B Q is faster

(2) Reaction Q C is faster

(3) Rate of reaction in (1) and (2) are equal

(4) Data insufficient

70. Which d-orbital of metal in [Fe(CO)5] is

involved in hybridisation ?

(1) dZ2 (2) d

xy (3) d

yz(4) d

zx

71. During extraction of iron, which of the

following acts as a flux.

(1) Silica (2) Calcium Sulphate

(3) lime stone (4) Coke

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01DM314010

72. Heptene decomposes according to following

reaction: C7H

14 2C

2H

4 + C

3H

6

rate constant was found to be 2 × 10-4 sec-1. In

what time, molar ratio of heptene to ethene in

the reaction mixture will attain the value 1.

[log2 = 0.3010 log3 = 0.4771]

(1) 68 min (2) 33.7 min

(3) 1736 min (4) 4055 min

73. Which of the following complexes is example

of strongest reducing reagent.

(1) [Co(CN)6]4- (2) [Co(CN)

6]3-

(3) [Ag (CN)2]-1 (4) [Cu(CN)

4]3-

74. During extraction of Aluminium from bauxite

ore, the impurities of Fe2O

3 are removed by

boiling the ore with:

(1) liquid NH3

(2) Aqueous NaOH

(3) conc H2SO

4(4) conc. HNO

3

75. For a reaction, Ea = 0 and k = 3.2 × 104 s–1 at

300 K. The value of k at 310 K would be

(1) 6.4 × 104 s–1 (2) 3.2 × 108 s–1

(3) 3.2 × 104 s–1 (4) 3.2 × 105 s–1

76. Silver chloride fuses with sodium carbonate to

produce

(1) Ag2CO

3(2) Ag

2O (3) AgOH (4) Ag

77. In an NaCl structure.

(1) 4 corners are shared

(2) 6 corners and 2 edges are shared

(3) 3 edges are shared

(4) 12 edges are shared

78. The number of S-S bonds in the cyclic trimer

of SO3 is

(1) 3 (2) 2 (3) 1 (4) 0

79. Which of the following hydrogen halides has

high delectric constant and low viscosity?

(1) HCl (2) HBr (3) HI (4) HF

80. ClO2 reacts with O

3 to give

(1) Cl2O

4(2) Cl

2O (3) Cl

2O

6(4) Cl

2O

7

81. Which of the following does not sublime on

heating?

(1) NH4Cl (2) As

2O

3 (3) HgCl

2 (4) Sb

2S

3

82. The final product of the given reaction

sequence is:

NO2

NO2

(NH )4 2 NaNO2

+HClH2O, Cu O2S

(0-5ºC)

(1)

OH

NO2

(2)

OH

NO2

(3)

OH

OH(4)

OH

NH2

83. Compound 'X' give following reactions?

C H O(X)6 8 2

Na Metal

2, 4 DNP

O3

H gas2

Yellow orange ppt

B (C H O )6 8 4

Its structure can be

(1) OH

CHO

(2) OH

O

(3)

OOH (4) OHH

O

O

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01DM314010

84. Periodic acid splits glucose and fructose into

formic acid and formaldehyde. Ratio of formic

acid to formaldehyde for glucose and fructose is

respectively.

(1) 5/1 and 4/2 (2) 5/1 and 3/2

(3) 4/2 and 4/2 (4) 3/2 and 4/2

85.

HO

O

Zn-Hg

HCl product:

(1)Cl

(2) HO

(3)Cl

OH

(4)

OH

HO

86. In the given reaction Br

O

CH MgBr3

H O+3

(i)

(ii)(X)

X will be

(1) BrOMgBr

(2) O

(3) O

(4) O

87. H+/H O2

O

Na C C - CH 3

+ _

X quinolineH , Pd - BaSO2 4

Y

Identify structure of Y.

(1) OH HC = C

CH3H

(2)

(3) (4) OH

HC = C

CH3

H

88.

Br

can be brought about using

(1) Zn / H+ (2) CuI

(3) Na (4) (CH3)

2 CuLi

89. Toluene 1. KMnO OH_

4/

2. H+ (X),SOCl2

NH3 OBr_

(X) is -

(1) C6H

5CONH

2(2) p-CH

3C

6H

4NO

2

(3) C6H

5CH

2NH

2(4) C

6H

5NH

2

90. Lactose is composed of :-

(1) -D-glucose + -D-glucose

(2) -D-glucose + -D-galactose



91.

O

(P) ; P will be

(1)

OH

(2)

O

(3)

OH

(4)

O

92.

Br

+ Mgether

(1) (2) Br

(3) F (4)

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01DM314010

93. Which pair of compounds give Tollen's test?

(1) Glucose and fructose

(2) Sucrose and glucose

(3) Hexanal and acetophenone

(4) Fructose and sucrose

94. The repeating units of PTFE are

(1) CH CH (2) CF3 – CF

3

(3) CH2 = CH – CN (4) CF

2 = CF

2

95. Anthracene can be purified by

(1) sublimation

(2) crystallization

(3) distillation

(4) filtration

96. Which of the following hydrolyses the fastest?

(1) CH3Cl (2) CH

3CH

2Cl

(3) CH3OCH

2Cl (4) (CH

3)

2CHCl

97. The enol form of acetone, after treatment with

D2O gives

(1) CH3 - C = CH2

OD

(2) CD3 - C - CD3

O

(3) CH2 = C - CH D2

OH

(4) CD2 = C - CD3

OD

98. Which of the following is not correctly

matched

(1)R

RC = O

Zn-Hg/HCl R

RCH2

(2) R

ClC = O

H /Pd/BaSO2 4R

HC = O

(3) R

RC = O

NH -NH /KOH2 2R

RCH - OH

(4) R - CN Sn/HCl

RCH2NH

2

99.KOH

(1 equivalent)

(i) CH - CH - CH3 2

(ii) H+

O

XCH3 - CH - COOH2

so X is :

(1) CH3 - CH - CH - OH2

O - C - CH - CH2 3

O

(2) CH3 - CH - CH - O - C - CH - CH2 2 3

OH

O

(3) CH3 - CH - CH - O - C - CH - CH2 2 3

OOH

(4) CH3 - CH - CH - O - C - CH - CH2 2 3

O

OK

100. An optically active compound X has

molecular formula C4H

8O

3. It evolves CO

2

with aq. NaHCO3. X reacts with LiAlH

4 to

give achiral compound. Structure of X is

(1) CH3 - CH - CH - COOH2

OH

(2) CH3 - CH - COOH

OH

(3) CH3 - CH - COOH

CH OH2

(4) CH3 - CH - CH COOH2

OH

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01DM314010

101. Mother is having blood group AB, father hasblood group B. Which of the following blood

group of the progeny will prove that father isheterozygous ?

(1) Blood group A(2) Blood group O

(3) Blood group B(4) Blood group AB

102. Cumulative effect of genes is observed in(1) crossing of red kernel variety of wheat with

white kernel variety.(2) blood group of human being.

(3) wing abnormality in Drosophila.(4) crossing of red cattle with white cattle.

103. A pink coloured flowering Snapdragon plantis crossed with red coloured flower-bearing

Snapdragon plant. Which of the followingcannot be obtained?

(1) All white colour flowered progeny.(2) Red & Pink coloured flowers in 1 : 1 ratio.

(3) All progeny plants contain at least onedominant allele.

(4) Homozygous : heterozygous in 50 : 50ratio.

104. Which one of the following diagramsCORRECTLY describes a nucleotide?

(1)

O

O P O

O

CH3O

H

5

4 H

OH

H

HH

1

23

N-Base

(2)

O

O P O

O

CH2O

H

5

4 H

OH

H

HH

1

23

N-Base

(3)

O

O P O

O

CH2O

H

5

4 H

OH

H

HH

1

23

N-Base

(4)

O

O P O

O

CH2O

H

5

4 H

OH

H

H

H

1

23 N-Base

105. _____ and solenoid fibres are the characteristic

of nucleus at interphase.

(1) Nucleosome

(2) NHC

(3) Core DNA

(4) Linker DNA

106. Ribosomes are composed of approximately

_______ % r-RNA & ______ % protein.

(1) 70 , 30 (2) 65, 35

(3) 35 , 65 (4) 30 , 70

107. Uridine, present only in RNA is a

(1) pyrimidine (2) nucleoside

(3) nucleotide (4) purine

108. Among the following, which step is observed

in the prophase of cell division?

a. Nucleus shows the presence of nucleosome

and solenoid fibres.

b. Formation of 200 nm chromatin fibres and

then a chromatid of 700 nm is observed.

c. Presence of a chromosome with single

chromatid.

(1) a & b (2) only b

(3) only c (4) a & c

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01DM314010

109. Study the following diagrams regarding

transcription and identify the CORRECT one.

(1)3’

5’

3’5’

5’Gppp

5’Gppp

5’Gppp

5’Gppp

3’

3’

3’

Polyadenylation

Capping

Cap

(2)3’

5’

3’5’

5’Gppp

5’Cppp

5’Gppp

5’Gppp

3’

3’

3’

Capping

Cap

(3)

3’

5’

3’5’

5’Gppp

3’

Capping Cap 5’Gppp

3’3’

5’Gppp

5’Gppp

(4)

3’

5’

3’5’

5’Gppp

5’Gppp

5’Gppp

5’Gppp

3’

3’

3’

Polyadenylation

Capping Cap

110. Fill in the blanks regarding post RNA synthesisprocesses -

a. _____ is the process for addition of anunusual nucleotide at 5' end of hnRNA.

b. _____ is the process of removal of intronsfrom RNA.

(1) Adenylation, Splicing(2) Capping, Adenylation

(3) Splicing, Capping(4) Capping, Splicing

111. Fill in the blanks & choose the CORRECT option -

B Cº

F C0

5

3 5

3

5

D ºC

A

C

E

3 5

3

(1) E - Extension, D - 91oC, B - 55oC

(2) A - Denaturation, D - 55oC, E - Annealing

(3) C - Annealing, A - Denaturation, F - 72oC

(4) C - Denaturation, B - 91oC, A - Annealing

112. Test tube 'A' contains viral DNA (ds) while test

tube 'B' contains bacterial plasmid. Restriction

endonuclease (Type II) was added to both the

test tubes and agarose gel electrophoresis was

performed. None of the samples showed

restriction fragment patterns.

What could be the possible explanation for this

observation ?

(1) Phosphodiester bonds are hydrolyzed.

(2) ATP was not added in the reaction mixture.

(3) Mg++ ions was not added in the reaction

mixture.

(4) Mn++ ions was not added in the reaction

mixture.

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01DM314010

113. Match the columns -

Column - I Column - II

a. Cry p. Provitamin A

b. Flavr Savr q. Bacillus

thuringiensis

c. Beta carotene r. Dicot plants

d. Crown gall tumors s. Polygalactouronase

(1) a - q, b - s, c - r, d - p

(2) a - q, b - s, c - p, d - r

(3) a - s, b - p, c - q, d - r

(4) a - s, b - r, c - p, d - q

114. Which of the following statement is true ?

(1) Palindrome in DNA is the sequence of base

pairs that reads the same on two strands

when orientation of reading is same.

(2) ECoRI was the first exonuclease to be

discovered.

(3) M13 is a commonly used phytophage which is

used as cloning vector.

(4) Virion assembly takes about 600 seconds

in lytic cycle.

115. Read the following statements & choose the

CORRECT option.

(a) More than 100 different type II endonuclease

with 350 different recognition sequences

are known.

(b) Cosmids cannot accomodate long DNA

fragment and therefore plasmids are

constructed.

(c) Genomic library is the collection of all

clones of DNA fragments that represent

complete genome of an organism.

(1) All are incorrect

(2) All are correct

(3) ‘b’ & ‘c” are correct

(4) Only ‘c’ is correct

116. Read the following statements and identify the

appropriate options related to these.

(a) Completely sex linked genes do not inherit

together.

(b) As per pea plant experiment, characters are

transmitted from one generation to next

through particles known as 'Factors'

(c) Trait is an interited character.

(d) Pea naturally cross pollinates to produce

fertile offsprings.

(1) a & b correct, c & d are incorrect

(2) c is correct, b & d are incorrect

(3) a, d are incorrect, b & c are correct

(4) a, b & d are incorrect

117. By the process of _____, resistant varieties of

Moong beans to ____, have been developed.

(1) plant breeding, hill bunt

(2) plant breeding, black rot

(3) biofortification, leaf curl disease

(4) mutation, powdery mildew

118.

In the above diagram, _____ hormone is

required for caulogenesis.

(1) auxin

(2) cytokinin

(3) gibberalin

(4) combination of auxin and cytokinin

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01DM314010

119. High yielding wheat and rice varieties are

_______ & _______ respectively.

(1) A - Padma, B - Kanti

(2) B - Lerma Rojo 64 - A, A - Safed Lerma

(3) A - Sharbati Sonora, B - Jayanti

(4) B - Vijaya, A - Padma

120. Maize variety with ____, low nitrogen and

sugar content is not affected by _____.

(1) low aspartic acid, Bollworms

(2) low aspartic acid, maize stem borer

(3) high aspartic acid, Bollworms

(4) high aspartic acid, maize stem borer

121. The DNA present in chloroplast is ______,

naked ring and is called _____.

(1) open, plastidome

(2) closed, plastidome

(3) linear, Plasmid

(4) closed, plasmid

122. - CH3 group in chlorophyll - a is replaced with

______ group in chlorophyll - b.

(1) – OH

(2) – CO

(3) – COOH

(4) – CHO

123. Identify the CORRECT statement regarding

PAR.

(1) PAR ranges from 390 mm to 780 nm.

(2) Green light is absorbed, hence colour of

leaves is green.

(3) Action spectrum shows the highest peak in

red region.

(4) In red and blue region of light, little

absorption occurs

124. Identify the CORRECT feature regarding the

path of Carbon experiment of Dr. Melvin.

(1) Feeding of 14CO2 to algae

Killing of algal cells by using hot methanol

Separation of intermediates by using paper

chromatography

Radioautography



chromatography

Killing of algalcells by using hot methanol

Radioautography

(3) Killing of algal cells by using hot methanol

Feeding of 14CO2 to algae


chromatography

Radioautography


Killing of algal cells by using hot methanol

Radioautography


chromatography

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01DM314010

125. Among the following reactions, which one

requires Mn++?

(1) Isocitrate + NADOxalo-succinate + NADH2

(2) Cis - aconitate + H2O Isocitrate

(3) OAA + Acetyl CO - A + H2O Citrate + Co- A

(4) - Ketoglutrate + NAD + Co-A

Succinyl Co -A + NADH2 + CO

2

126. Through terminal oxidation, ____ is produced.

(1) NADH2

(2) 1 FADH2

(3) 10 NADH2

(4) 3 FADH2

127. Which reaction among the following is

catalysed by Phosphoglyceraldehyde

dehydrogenase?

(1) PEPA + ADP + H2O Pyruvate + ATP

(2) PGAL + H3PO

4 + NAD 1, 3 - di - PGA + NADH

2

(3) 1,3 - di PGA + ADP 3 - PGA + ATP

(4) Fructose - 6 phosphate Fructose 1,

6 - diphosphate

128. Match the following -


a. Oxalis p. Development of

foliar buds

b. Shishav q. Tuberous roots

irregularly swollen,

tapering towards both

end

c. Begonia r. Creeps on the ground

and become rooted at

the nodes.

d. Dahlia s. Vegetative roots by

non fleshy roots

1. a -r, b - p, c - s, d - q

2. a - q, b - s, c - p, d - r

3. a - r, b - p, c - s , d - q

4. a - s , b -r, c - q, d - p

129. Study the following diagram :A

BC

D

E

Identify the region which involves the

following features :

(a) Cells are larger in size

(b) Containing dense cytoplasm

(c) Cells contain one or more diploid nuclei or

a polyploid nucleus

(d) Contributes in the formation of sporopollenin

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

130. Identify the CORRECT statement from the

following -

(1) Development of male gametophyte is

endosporic and involves only 2 mitotic division.

(2) Development of female gametophyte is

endosporic and involves only 2 mitotic division.

(3) The smaller cell is known as vegetative cell.

(4) Pollen grain consists of an outer layer

known as sporoderm.

131. Study the following diagram -

A

B

C

DE

F

GChoose the option with correct labelling-

(1) A - Chalaza, B - Synergid , C - Micropyle

(2) A - Chalaza, B - Nucellus , C - Integuments

(3) A - Integuments , B - Nucellus , C- Chalaza

(4) A - Nucellus , B - Integuments , C - Chalaza

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01DM314010

132. Identity the plant from the following features -

(a) Needle like pollen grain lacking exine(b) Pollen grains when in contact with stigma,

coil around it and germinate(1) Zea mays (2) Ceratophylum

(3) Cotton (4) Grass133. Which plant shows large and stout flowers and

emit rotten fruits like fermenting fruity odour?(1) Bougainvillea (2) Bauhinia

(3) Butea (4) Bombax134. If the dry weight (kgm-2) of primary producers

is 809, primary consumer-37, secondaryconsumer-11, tertiary consumer - 1.5, then

(1) it will form an upright pyramid.(2) producers are less in biomass than

herbivores, herbivores are more in biomassthan the carnivores.

(3) this is the pyramid of numbers.(4) this is the pyramid of energy.

135. Identify the CORRECT sequence for thedegradation of ozone layer by discharge ofCFC.(1) Discharge of CFC in upper part of

atmosphere Reach stratosphere UVrays act on CFCs Fluorine atoms released Fluorine acts as catalysts Degradeozone

(2) Discharge of CFC in lower part ofatmosphere Reach stratosphere UVrays act on CFCs Chlorine atoms released Chlorine acts as catalysts Degrade ozone

(3) Discharge of CFC in lower part ofatmosphere Reach stratosphere UVrays act on CFCs Degrade ozone

(4) Discharge of CFC in upper part ofatmosphere Reach stratosphere UVrays act on CFCs Chlorine and Fluorineatom released Fluorine acts as catalysts Degrade ozone

136. Find the CORRECT match -

(1) Micro-consumer - Actinomycetes

(2) Pyramid of energy - always inverted

(3) Carbon content in organism - 71% of dry weight

(4) Decomposition - Increase in low temperature.

137. CO2

Fossil fuelsAnimals

Sugars

Plants

(1) a = Industry (2) a = Decay

b = Respiration b = Consumption

c = Consumption c = Respiration

(3) a = Decay (4) a = Decay

b = Industry b = Respiration

c = Consumption c = Consumption

138. Find the INCORRECT statement -

(1) Female with one recessive gene is called

carrier.

(2) Night blindness is more common in females.

(3) Myopia is a X-linked disorder.

(4) Holandric genes are located on non-

homologous region of Y chromosome.

139. Identify the CORRECT combination -

(1) XCY × XCXC - Half of the sons will

have normal vision

(2) XCXC × XCY - All the offsprings will be

colour blind

(3) XhY × XHXH - All offsprings will have

normal clotting of blood

(4) XHXh × XhY - All sons will have normal

clotting of blood.

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01DM314010

140. Identify the CORRECT statement regarding

honey bee sex determination -

(1) Haplo-diploid sex determination system

(2) Unfertilized egg develops as female

(3) Drones have diploid numbers of chromosomes

(4) Queen have haploid number of chromosomes

141. Match the following -


a. Restriction p. Electrophoresis

endonuclease

b. Formation of q. RFLP

bands

c. Nitrocellulose r. Genetic markers

paper

d. VNTRs s. Southern blotting

(1) a - s, b - r, c - p, d - q

(2) a - q, b - p, c - r, d - s

(3) a - r, b - p, c - q, d - s

(4) a - q, b - p, c - s, d - r

142. In the given diagram, identify the region which

shows the presence of chromatids at one point.

A

B

C

D

(1) A (2) B

(3) C (4) D

143. Find the CORRECT statement -

(1) DNA fragmentation is achieved by enzyme

exonuclease cut at specific locations.

(2) DNA amplification is done in vivo by PCR

(3) In hybrid izat ion , remaining double

stranded DNA fragments are washed off.

(4) Single stranded DNA gets embedded into

nylon membrane in southern blotting.


(1) DNA fingerprinting is useful for study of

forensic and phylogeny only.

(2) In a population every person shows unusual

sequences of 20-100 base pairs.

(3) Genetic linkage maps determine markers on

the chromosomes.

(4) Physical maps specify distance between genes

or DNA with unknown functions.

145. Find the INCORRECTLY matched pair -

(1) Rosie - 2-4 gm protein/litre of milk

(2) -1, antitrypsin - Emphysema

(3) Toxoids - Highly toxic antigen

(4) Transgenic mice - Used for safety of polio


(1) Non-parental gene combination is known

as recombination

(2) Red green colour blindness is due to incomplete

sex linkage.

(3) Hypertrichosis is related to holandric genes

(4) Sex-linked traits appear more frequently in

males than in females.

147. Haemophilic male can be obtained with 25%

frequency when -

(1) cross between carrier female and normal

male is made.

(2) haemophilic male mates with normal female

(3) cross between normal female and carrier

male is made.

(4) cross between carrier female with normal

vision males.

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01DM314010

148. Find the appropriate combination of the

following -

(1) Drone's sperm - Meiosis

(2) Haemophilia - Clotting factor VIII/X

(3) Arched palate - (2n+1)

(4) Thalassemia - Increased synthesis of either

or chain

149. What is thalassemia?

(1) A genetic disease represented by 2n + 1

chromosome number.

(2) A quantitative abnormality of a type of

polypeptide chain synthesis.

(3) A qualitative abnormality of a type of

polypeptide chain synthesis.

(4) It is represented by 44 + XO

150. Identify the CORRECT step and action for

vaccine production.

(1) Growing organisms in a growth medium

Production of large amount of toxins

Toxins become antigen Immune system

recognises toxins Produces antibodies

against toxins


Production of large amount of toxoids

Toxoids become antigen Immune

system recognises toxoids Produces

antibodies against toxins


Releasing of antigen Immune system

recognises antigen Produces antibodies

against toxins


Production of large amount of toxins

Alteration to produce non toxic toxoids

Toxoids become antigen Immune

system recognises toxoid Produces

antibodies against toxins

151. Read the statement carefully -

a. Wine & beer produced with distillation and

whiskey is produced by fermentation andthen distillation.

b. Biogas production involves only acetogenesisor acidogenesis.

c. A biological method for controlling plant

disease and pests is called biocontrol.

d. Biofertilizers are mostly nitrogen-fixingmicrobes which enrich soil with nutrients.

Which one is the CORRECT options:

(1) a & d (2) b & c (3) a & b (4) c & d

152. a. Parasite inhabiting between the cells iscalled ____.

b. Parasite living within the cells in the hosts body

is called ____.

c. Parasites steal food gathered by the hostis called _____.

d. A parasite in which the host species isclosely related to the parasite, often being

a member of the same family or genusis called ____.

(1) a. intercellular parasitism

b. intracellular parasitism

c. kleptoparasitism

d. adelpho-parasitism

(2) a. intercellular parasitism

b. intracellular parasitism

c. adelpho-parasite

d. kleptoparasitism

(3) a. intracellular parasitism

b. intercellular parasitism

c. adelpho-parasite

d. klepto parasitism

(4) a. intracellular parasitism

b. intercellular parasitism

c. kleptoparasitism

d. adelpho-parasite

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01DM314010

153. Use of some microbes as biofertiliser to

enchance crop productivity is called

(1) organic farming

(2) marine farming

(3) micro farming

(4) compost farming

154. Which one is CORRECT combanation -


a. Long bushy tails, p. Hominoidea

flat snouts, and

large eyes facing

more in front

than lateral side

b. Nocturnal, eyes q. tarsiers

are large, directed

forward

c. Snout protruded, r. Lemurs

teeth large, a simian

gap present in upper

jaw

(1) a - q, b - r, c - p

(2) a - r, b - q, c - p

(3) a - r, b - p, c - q

(4) a - p, b - r, c - q

155. Which one is CORRECT for the Hominoidea?

(1) Diastema present in upper jaw and lower

jaw between incisor and canines.

(2) Foramen magnum directed backward in

apes while in human it is directed downward.

(3) Lumbar curve is present in apes and human

beings.

(4) These are insectivorus, arboreal and nocturnal

primates found over the islands of east indies.

156. Match the following

Column-I Column - II

a. Molecular p. Palaeocene

evolution

b. Extinction of great q. Archeozoic

mammals

c. Origin of egg-laying r. Pleistocene

mammals

d. Origin of life s. Triassic

e. Rise of first primates t. Pliocene

(1) a - q, b - r, c - s, d - q, e - p

(2) a - q, b - r, c- s, d - t, e - p

(3) a - q, b - p, c - r, d - s, e - t

(4) a - q, b - p, c - s, d - r, e - t

157. Which one is an INCORRECT statement?

(1) Actual remains, are the most common type

of fossils and generally formed in the deep

oceans.

(2) An impression of the body part left on the

soft mud of the oceanic floor is called moulds.

(3) When the cavities of the mould get filled

with minerals, it hardens into stones and

form cast.

(4) Seymouria was the connecting link between

amphibian and reptiles while Ichthyostegia

is connecting link between Salamander and turtle.

158. Smokers who smoke a pack of cigarettes daily

may have blood HbCO levels of

(1) 4% or more (2) 6% or more

(3)5% or more (4) 4 to 6% or more

159. Internal bleeding, muscular pain, blockage of

the intestinal passage and anemia are some of

the symptoms caused due to infection by

(1) Ascaris (2) Wuchereria

(3) Plasmodium (4) Trichophyton

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01DM314010

160. The sporozoites that cause infection when a

female Anopheles mosquito bites a human

being are found in

(1) hepatocytes of human.

(2) salivary glands of mosquito.

(3) erythrocytes of human.

(4) salivary glands of infected mosquito.

161. Which one of the following statement is false?

(1) Killer - T - cell bind to infected cell as well

as normal cells and secrete perforins.

(2) Helper T-cell responsible for the proliferation

of other T-cells, stimulate B-lymphocyte,

attraction of macrophage and eosinophils.

(3) Langerhans cells of epidermis of skin are

an antigen presenting cell.

(4) During inflamation, inflamatory chemicals

dilate and make the blood capillaries more

permeable in the region of tissue injury.

162. Common cold differ from pneumonia in that?

(1) Pneumonia is caused by a virus while

common cold is caused by the bacteria.

(2) Pneumonia is a communicable disease while

common cold is a non-communicable

disease.

(3) Pneumonia can be prevented by a live

attenuated vaccine whereas the common

cold has also an effective vaccine.

(4) Pneumonia pathogen infects alveoli whereas

the common cold affects nose and respiratory

passage but not the lungs.

163. Myasthenia gravis is -

(1) progressive degeneration of skeletal muscle

mostly due to genetic disorder.

(2) rapid spasms in muscle due to low Ca++ in

body fluid.

(3) auto- immune d i sorder affect ing

neuromuscular junction leading to fatigue,

weakening and paralysis of skeletal muscle.

(4) age-related disorder characterized by

decreased bone mass and increased chances

of fracture.

164. Mark the incorrect statement with reference to

allergy?

(1) In it the antibodies produced are IgG type.

(2) It is due to the release of chemicals like

histamine from basophils and mast cells

(3) Use of drugs like adrenaline and steroids

quickly reduce the symptoms of allergy.

(4) Eosinophils increases during allergic

condition.

165. The most common warning signs of drug and

alcohol abuse among youth include -

(a) drop in academic performance.

(b) unexplained absence from school/college.

(c) lack of interest in personal hygiene.

(d) social stigma.

Which one is CORRECT option?

(1) a, b & d (2) b, c & d

(3) a, b & c (4) a,b,c & d

166. Fertilization and development of Plasmodium

take place in

(1) stomach / intestine of female mosquito.

(2) stomach of man.

(3) liver of man.

(4) blood corpuscles of human.

167. Interferons is included in which type of innate

immunity barrier?

(1) Physical barrier

(2) Physiological barrier

(3) Cellular barrier

(4) Inflammatory barrier

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01DM314010

168. Milk production in the mammary glands-

(1) is initiated during the birth process.

(2) occurs by the process of mitosis.

(3) starts at end of pregnancy

(4) is stimulated by a combination of hormones

including prolactin, hCG and hpL.

169. In animal husbandry, if two closely related

animals of same species are mated for a few

generations it results in loss of fertility and

vigour. This is due to -

(1) increased homozygosity.

(2) increased heterozygosity.

(3) increased inbreeding depression.

(4) out-crossing.

170. The most popularly known blood grouping is

the ABO grouping. It is named ABO and not

ABC because "O" in it refers to having -

(1) no antigens A and B on RBCs.

(2) other antigens besides A and B on RBCs.

(3) overdominance of this type on the genes

for A and B type.

(4) one antibody only-either anti-A or Anti-B

on the RBCs.

171. If due to some injury the chordae tendinae of

the tricuspid valve of the human heart. Heart

is partially nonfunctional, what will be the

immediate effect?

(1) The flow of blood into the pulmonary artery

will be reduced.

(2) The flow of blood into the aorta will be

slowed down.

(3) The flow of blood into pulmonary vein will

be reduced.

(4) The blood will tend to flow back into the

left atrium.

172. Read the following statements (a-d) regarding

human blood circulatory system

a. Arteries are thick walled and have narrow

lumen as compared to veins.

b. Angina is acute chest pain when the blood

circulation to the brain is reduced.

c. Persons with blood group AB can donate

blood to any person with any blood group

under ABO system.

d. Calcium ion plays an very important role

in blood clotting.

Which statements are correct?

(1) a & d (2) a & b

(3) b & c (4) c & d

173. Which of the following is INCORRECT w.r.t.

human heart?

(1) It is mesodermally derived organ, situated

in the midedeastinal cavity, in between the

two lungs, slightly tilted towards the left.

(2) The opening between the right atrium and

left atrium is guarded by fossaovalis.

(3) Coronary sulcus is a transverse groove

present between atria and ventricles.

(4) The wall of heart consist of three layers, the

innermost endocardium,middle myocardium

and outermost epicardium.

174. An infectious disease in which alveoli get filled

with fluid leading to severe problems in

respiration is caused by

(1) Salmonella typhi

(2) Plasmodium malaria

(3) Haemophilus influenzae

(4) Wuchereria malayi

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175. Figure shows human urinary system with

structure labelled P to S.

P

Q

R

S

Select option which CORRECTLY identifies

them and gives their characteristics.(1) Q - Pelvis - Broad funnel shaped space inner

to hilum directly connected to loops of Henle.(2) R - Medulla - inner zone of kidney and

contains complete nephrons.(3) S - Cortex - outer part of kidney and do not

contain any part of nephrons.(4) P - Adrenal glands located at the anterior

part of kidney secrete catecholamines whichstimulates glycogen breakdown.

176. Selective secretion is absent in -(1) PCT

(2) DCT(3) Descending limb of loop of Henle

(4) Collecting tubules177. The CORRECT match is -

a. DCT - Secretion of H+

and K+ ionsb. Henle's loop - Reabsorption of

glucose waterand Na+ ions.

c. Podocytes - Attached to parietallayer of Bowman'scapsule

d. JGA - Rise in glomerularblood pressureactivates it torelease rennin

(1) c (2) b (3) a (4) d

178. Which area of cerebral cortex is called sensory

speech area ?

(1) Broca's area

(2) Wernicke's area

(3) Premotor area

(4) Association area of sensory cortex

179. Which of the following statements are true for

"motor cortex"?

(a) It is located in the frontal lobe of cerebral

cortex.

(b) It contains pyramidal cells & basal nuclei.

(c) It is responsible for all visual functions.

(d) It is essential for our thought processes.

(e) It stimulates waking conditions.

(f) It regulates voluntary muscular movements.

(1) (a), (b), (c) & (d)

(2) (b), (c), (d) & (e)

(3) (b), (d), (e) & (f)

(4) (a), (b), (d) & (f)

180. Mary is sitting in examination hall. But during

first five minutes before the examination, she

experiences sweating, increased rate of heart

beat, respiration etc.

Which hormone is responsible of her restlessness?

(1) Prostaglandins and Vasopressin

(2) Epinephrine and Cortisol

(3) Epinephrine and Norepinephrine

(4) Insulin and Thyroxine

181. Intensely lactating mothers do not generally

conceive due to -

(1) suppression of GTH.

(2) suppression of LTH.

(3) hypersecretion of GTH.

(4) suppression of gametic transport.

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182. Which of the following is not likely to happen

in his neurohormonal control system, in

response to stress of any kind?

a. Hypothalamus activates the parasympathetic

division of brain.

b. Sympathetic nervous system is activated

releasing epinephrine and norepinephrine

from adrenal cortex.

c. Craniosacral outflow is stimulated.

d. Sympathetic nervous system is activated

releasing epinephrine and norepinephrine

from adrenal medulla.

(1) a & b only (2) a & c only

(3) a, b & c only (4) a, b, c & d

183. Which one of these statement is CORRECT?

(1) Motor fibres leave spinal cord via dorsal root.

(2) Arbor vitae is a part of cerebrum

(3) Activity of brain is recorded by ECG.

(4) Pons and medulla enclose fourth ventricle

184. Which of the following nerves control the

movement of the eyeball?

(1) III, IV & VI (2) III, V & VII

(3) II, III & IV (4) III, IV & V

185. Which statement is CORRECT?

(1) Impulse transmission is faster across an

electrical synapse than across a chemical

synapse.

(2) Impulse transmission across an electrical

synapse involves neurotransmitters

(3) Impulse transmission is faster across chemical

synapse than electrical synapse.

(4) both synapses have equal impulse transmission

speed.

186. Limbic system comprises

(1) hypothalamus and olfactory lobes.

(2) hippocampus, amygdala and basal ganglion.

(3) hippocampus and cerebellum.

(4) brain stem and optic chiasma.

187. Find out the CORRECT match from the

following table.

Column-I Column-II Column-III

(a) Corpusluteum

Progesteron Maintainingthe thicknessofendometrium

(b) Pinealgland

Vasopressin Intracellulartransport

(c) Parsnervosa

Coherin Inducescontraction ofjejunum

(1) a only (2) a and b

(3) c only (4) b and c

188. Which of the following statements regarding

the menstrual cycle are CORRECT?

(a) The initiation of the preantral phase of

follicular development is under the control

of LH.

(b) The development of the antral follicle depends

on the expression of receptors for FSH and LH.

(c) Ovulation occurs after about 14 days.

(d) Ovulation occurs in response to a sudden

increase in plasma LH.

(e) The period before ovulation is known as the

luteal phase.

(f) The luteal phase is associated with a large

increase in plasma progesterone.

(1) (a), (b) and (e)

(2) (b), (c), (e) and (f)

(3) (b), (c), (d) and (f)

(4) (a), (d) and (e)

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189. Which of the following statements regarding

the testes are CORRECT?

(a) Leydig cells secrete androgen.

(b) Testosterone inhibits the secretion of LH by

negative feedback.

(c) Pyramidal cells prevent free diffusion of

water soluble substances between the

seminiferous tubules and the blood.

(d) Leydig's cells respond to androgen by

synthesising ABP (androgen binding protein).

(e) Pyramidal cells line the seminiferous tubules

and directly give rise to the developing sperm.

(1) (a), (b) and (d) (2) (b), (d) and (e)

(3)(a), (b) and (c) (4) (d) and (e)

190. Contraction of the cremester muscle occurs

because of -

(1) the sexual arousal and warm temperature.

(2) lowered sperm production and cold temperature.

(3) the sexual arousal and temperature change.

(4) high hormone levels.

191. Given figure of T.S. of penis

QR

P

How will penile function be altered if the blood

supply to the Q is impaired?

(1) Erection will be able to occur but ejaculation

will not be possible.

(2) The urethra will become occluded.

(3) Erection will not occur.

(4) The erect penis will be unable to become

flaccid.

192. Refer to the given figure showing T.S. of

mammalian testis. Identify the labels along with

their functions and select the correct option.

X

Y

Z

W

(1) W are spermatids which have 46 chromosomes.

(2) X are Leydig's cells which provide nutrition

to the developing sperm.

(3) Y are seminiferous tubules whose wall is

formed of germinal epithelium.

(4) Z are Sertoli cells which secrete male sex

hormone.

193. The given figure shows stages in the

development of sperm from spermatogonia in

human male

P

R

QS

T

Identify the cells labelled (P-S) and select the

option that CORRECTLY represents

chromosome number per cell.

P Q R S

(1) 46 23 46 23

(2) 46 46 23 23

(3) 23 23 46 46

(4) 23 46 23 46

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194. Identify the parts labelled P, Q, R and S in the

given figure.

Q P

R

S

P Q R S

1 Second polar

body

Granulosa

cell

First meiotic

spindle

Zona

pellucida

2 Second polar

body

Zona

pellucida

First meiotic

spindle

Granulosa

cell

3 First polar

body

Corona

radiata

Second meiotic

spindle

Zona

pellucida

4 First polar

body

Zona

pellucida

Second meiotic

spindle

Granulosa

cell

195. "Testis are extrabdominal in position". Which

of the following is the most appropriate reason?

(1) Narrow pelvis in male.

(2) Special protection for testis.

(3) Prostate gland and seminal vesicles occupy

maximum space.

(4) 2.0-2.50C lower than the normal body

temperature.

196. Identify the CORRECT match from the

columns I, II and III.

Column -1 Column - II Column - III

a. Interstitial

cells

P. Cortex of

ovary

w. Follicular fluid

b. Sertoli cells q. Ovarian

follicle

x. Progesterone

c. Granulosa

cells

r. Testis y. Attachment of

sperm bundle

d. Cells of corpus

luteum

s. Seminifero us

tubules

z. Testosterone

(1) b - p - y, a - r - z, c - q - w, d - s - x

(2) a - r - z, b - s - y, c - q - w, d - p - x

(3) a - s - y, b - p - z, c - q - w, d - r - x

(4) b - s - y, a - r - z, c - p - x, d - q - z

197. In case of a couple where a man is having very

low sperm count, which of the following

technique will be suitable for fertilization?

(1) Intra-uterine transfer

(2) Gamete intra-cytoplasmic fallopian transfer

(3) Artificial insemination

(4) Intra-cytoplasmic sperm injection

198. Read carefully and choose the CORRECT

statement

(1) Condom and pencillin at the time of exposure

are prophylactic treatment of syphilis.

(2) Combined pill is the most commonly used

birth control pill.

(3) The pill saheli is taken weekly. Saheli is 1st

steriodal birth control pills.

(4) Neisseria gonorrhoeae does not causes arthritis.

199. What is the oldest method of birth control?

(1) Rhythmic method

(2) Oral devices

(3) Coitus interruptus

(4) IUCD

200. Match the following :

Incubation period Disease

a. 2 to 14 days p. Syphilis

in male

b. 7 to 21 days q. Gonorrhoea

in female

c. 21 to 28 days r. Leprosy

(1) a - p, b - q, c - r

(2) a - q, b - q, c - p

(3) a - r, b - p, c - q

(4) a - q, b - p, c - r

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01DM314010


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