9 full ielts reading tests general - 1 file download
TRANSCRIPT
© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved.
1
Candidate Number
Candidate Name ______________________________________________
INTERNATIONAL ENGLISH LANGUAGE TESTING SYSTEM
General Training Reading
PRACTICE TEST 1 hour
Time 1 hour
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
Do not open this question paper until you are told to do so.
Write your name and candidate number in the spaces at the top of this page.
Read the instructions for each part of the paper carefully.
Answer all the questions.
Write your answers on the answer sheet. Use a pencil.
You must complete the answer sheet within the time limit.
At the end of the test, hand in both this question paper and your answer sheet.
INFORMATION FOR CANDIDATES
There are 40 questions on this question paper.
Each question carries one mark.
© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved.
2
SECTION 1 Questions 1–14
Read the text below and answer Questions 1–8.
EMERGENCY PROCEDURESEMERGENCY PROCEDURESEMERGENCY PROCEDURESEMERGENCY PROCEDURES
Revised July 2011
T H I S A P P L I E S T O A L L P E R S O N S O N T H E S C H O O L C A M P U S
In cases of emergency (e.g. fire), find the nearest teacher who will:
send a messenger at full speed to the Office OR inform the Office via phone ext. 99.
PROCEDURE FOR EVACUATION
1. Warning of an emergency evacuation will be marked by a number of short bell
rings. (In the event of a power failure, this may be a hand-held bell or siren.)
2. All class work will cease immediately.
3. Students will leave their bags, books and other possessions where they are.
4. Teachers will take the class rolls.
5. Classes will vacate the premises using the nearest staircase. If these stairs are
inaccessible, use the nearest alternative staircase. Do not use the lifts. Do not
run.
6. Each class, under the teacher’s supervision, will move in a brisk, orderly
fashion to the paved quadrangle area adjacent to the car park.
7. All support staff will do the same.
8. The Marshalling Supervisor, Ms Randall, will be wearing a red cap and she
will be waiting there with the master timetable and staff list in her possession.
9. Students assemble in the quad with their teacher at the time of evacuation. The
teacher will do a head count and check the roll.
10. Each teacher sends a student to the Supervisor to report whether all students
have been accounted for. After checking, students will sit down (in the event
of rain or wet pavement they may remain standing).
11. The Supervisor will inform the Office when all staff and students have been
accounted for.
12. All students, teaching staff and support personnel remain in the evacuation
area until the All Clear signal is given.
13. The All Clear will be a long bell ring or three blasts on the siren.
14. Students will return to class in an orderly manner under teacher guidance.
15. In the event of an emergency occurring during lunch or breaks, students are to
assemble in their home-room groups in the quad and await their home-room
teacher.
© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved.
3
Questions 1–8
Complete the sentences below.
Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the text for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 1–8 on your answer sheet.
1 In an emergency, a teacher will either phone the office or ……………….. .
2 The signal for evacuation will normally be several ……………….. .
3 If possible, students should leave the building by the ……………….. .
4 They then walk quickly to the ……………….. .
5 ……………….. will join the teachers and students in the quad.
6 Each class teacher will count up his or her students and mark ……………….. .
7 After the ……………….. , everyone may return to class.
8 If there is an emergency at lunchtime, students gather in the quad
in ……………….. and wait for their teacher.
© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved.
4
Read the texts below and answer Questions 9–14.
Community Education
Short Courses: Business
Business Basics
Gain foundation knowledge for employment in an accounts position with
bookkeeping and business basics through to intermediate level; suitable for anyone
requiring knowledge from the ground up.
Code B/ED011
16th or 24th April 9am–4pm
Cost $420
Bookkeeping
This course will provide students with a comprehensive understanding of
bookkeeping and a great deal of hands-on experience.
Code B/ED020
19th April 9am–2.30pm (one session only so advance bookings essential)
Cost $250
New Enterprise Module
Understand company structures, tax rates, deductions, employer obligations, profit
and loss statements, GST and budgeting for tax.
Code B/ED030
15th or 27th May 6pm–9pm
Cost $105
Social Networking – the Latest Marketing Tool
This broad overview gives you the opportunity to analyse what web technologies are
available and how they can benefit your organisation.
Code B/ED033
1st or 8th or 15th June 6pm–9pm
Cost $95
Communication
Take the fear out of talking to large gatherings of people. Gain the public-speaking
experience that will empower you with better communication skills and confidence.
Code B/ED401
12th or 13th or 14th July 6pm–9pm
Cost $90
© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved.
5
Questions 9–14 Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text?
In boxes 9–14 on your answer sheet, write
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this
9 Business Basics is appropriate for beginners.
10 Bookkeeping has no practical component.
11 Bookkeeping is intended for advanced students only.
12 The New Enterprise Module can help your business become more profitable.
13 Social Networking focuses on a specific website to help your business succeed.
14 The Communication class involves speaking in front of an audience.
© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved.
6
SECTION 2 Questions 15–28
Questions 15–21
The text on the next page has seven sections, A–G.
Choose the correct heading for each section from the list of headings below.
Write the correct number, i–x, in boxes 15–21 on your answer sheet.
List of Headings
i How can reflection problems be avoided?
ii How long should I work without a break?
iii What if I experience any problems?
iv When is the best time to do filing chores?
v What makes a good seat?
vi What are the common health problems?
vii What is the best kind of lighting to have?
viii What are the roles of management and workers?
ix Why does a VDU create eye fatigue?
x Where should I place the documents?
15 Section A
16 Section B
17 Section C
18 Section D
19 Section E
20 Section F
21 Section G
© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved.
7
BENEFICIAL WORK PRACTICES FOR THE KEYBOARD OPERATOR
A Sensible work practices are an important factor in the prevention of muscular
fatigue; discomfort or pain in the arms, neck, hands or back; or eye strain which can
be associated with constant or regular work at a keyboard and visual display unit
(VDU).
B It is vital that the employer pays attention to the physical setting such as
workplace design, the office environment, and placement of monitors as well as the
organisation of the work and individual work habits. Operators must be able to
recognise work-related health problems and be given the opportunity to participate in
the management of these. Operators should take note of and follow the preventive
measures outlined below.
C The typist must be comfortably accommodated in a chair that is adjustable for
height with a back rest that is also easily adjustable both for angle and height. The
back rest and sitting ledge (with a curved edge) should preferably be cloth-covered to
avoid excessive perspiration.
D When the keyboard operator is working from a paper file or manuscript, it
should be at the same distance from the eyes as the screen. The most convenient
position can be found by using some sort of holder. Individual arrangement will vary
according to whether the operator spends more time looking at the VDU or the
paper – whichever the eyes are focused on for the majority of time should be put
directly in front of the operator.
E While keying, it is advisable to have frequent but short pauses of around thirty
to sixty seconds to proofread. When doing this, relax your hands. After you have been
keying for sixty minutes, you should have a ten minute change of activity. During this
spell it is important that you do not remain seated but stand up or walk around. This
period could be profitably used to do filing or collect and deliver documents.
F Generally, the best position for a VDU is at right angles to the window. If this
is not possible then glare from the window can be controlled by blinds, curtains or
movable screens. Keep the face of the VDU vertical to avoid glare from overhead
lighting.
G Unsatisfactory work practices or working conditions may result in aches or
pain. Symptoms should be reported to your supervisor early on so that the cause of the
trouble can be corrected and the operator should seek medical attention.
© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved.
8
Read the text below and answer Questions 22–28.
Workplace dismissals
Before the dismissal
If an employer wants to dismiss an employee, there is a process to be followed.
Instances of minor misconduct and poor performance must first be addressed through
some preliminary steps.
Firstly, you should be given an improvement note. This will explain the
problem, outline any necessary changes and offer some assistance in correcting the
situation. Then, if your employer does not think your performance has improved, you
may be given a written warning. The last step is called a final written warning which
will inform you that you will be dismissed unless there are improvements in
performance. If there is no improvement, your employer can begin the dismissal
procedure.
The dismissal procedure begins with a letter from the employer setting out the
charges made against the employee. The employee will be invited to a meeting to
discuss these accusations. If the employee denies the charges, he is given the
opportunity to appear at a formal appeal hearing in front of a different manager. After
this, a decision is made as to whether the employee will be let go or not.
Dismissals
Of the various types of dismissal, a fair dismissal is the best kind if an
employer wants an employee out of the workplace. A fair dismissal is legally and
contractually strong and it means all the necessary procedures have been correctly
followed. In cases where an employee’s misconduct has been very serious, however,
an employer may not have to follow all of these procedures. If the employer can prove
that the employee’s behaviour was illegal, dangerous or severely wrong, the employee
can be dismissed immediately: a procedure known as summary dismissal.
Sometimes a dismissal is not considered to have taken place fairly. One of
these types is wrongful dismissal and involves a breach of contract by the employer.
This could involve dismissing an employee without notice or without following
proper disciplinary and dismissal procedures. Another type, unfair dismissal, is when
an employee is sacked without good cause.
There is another kind of dismissal, known as constructive dismissal, which is
slightly peculiar because the employee is not actually openly dismissed by the
employer. In this case the employee is forced into resigning by an employer who tries
to make significant changes to the original contract. This could mean an employee
might have to work night shifts after originally signing on for day work, or he could
be made to work in dangerous conditions.
© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved.
9
Questions 22 and 23
Complete the sentences below.
Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the text for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 22–23 on your answer sheet.
22 If an employee receives a ……………….. , this means he will lose his job if his
work does not get better.
23 If an employee does not accept the reasons for his dismissal, a ………………..
can be arranged.
Questions 24–28
Look at the following descriptions (Questions 24–28) and the list of terms in the box
below.
Match each description with the correct term A–E.
Write the appropriate letter A–E in boxes 24–28 on your answer sheet.
24 An employee is asked to leave work straight away because he has done something really bad.
25 An employee is pressured to leave his job unless he accepts conditions that are
very different from those agreed to in the beginning. 26 An employer gets rid of an employee without keeping to conditions in the
contract. 27 The reason for an employee’s dismissal is not considered good enough. 28 The reasons for an employee’s dismissal are acceptable by law and the terms of
the employment contract.
A Fair dismissal
B Summary dismissal
C Unfair dismissal
D Wrongful dismissal
E Constructive dismissal
© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved.
10
SECTION 3 Questions 29–40
Read the text below and answer Questions 29–40.
CALISTHENICS The world’s oldest form of resistance training
A From the very first caveman to scale a tree or hang from a cliff face, to the
mighty armies of the Greco-Roman empires and the gymnasiums of modern
American high schools, calisthenics has endured and thrived because of its simplicity
and utility. Unlike strength training which involves weights, machines or resistance
bands, calisthenics uses only the body’s own weight for physical development.
B Calisthenics enters the historical record at around 480 B.C., with Herodotus’
account of the Battle of Thermopolylae. Herodotus reported that, prior to the battle,
the god-king Xerxes sent a scout party to spy on his Spartan enemies. The scouts
informed Xerxes that the Spartans, under the leadership of King Leonidas, were
practicing some kind of bizarre, synchronised movements akin to a tribal dance.
Xerxes was greatly amused. His own army was comprised of over 120,000 men,
while the Spartans had just 300. Leonidas was informed that he must retreat or face
annihilation. The Spartans did not retreat, however, and in the ensuing battle they
managed to hold Xerxes’ enormous army at bay for some time until reinforcements
arrived. It turns out their tribal dance was not a superstitious ritual but a form of
calisthenics by which they were building awe-inspiring physical strength and
endurance.
C The Greeks took calisthenics seriously not only as a form of military discipline
and strength, but also as an artistic expression of movement and an aesthetically ideal
physique. Indeed, the term calisthenics itself is derived from the Greek words for
beauty and strength. We know from historical records and images from pottery,
mosaics and sculptures of the period that the ancient Olympians took calisthenics
training seriously. They were greatly admired – and still are, today – for their
combination of athleticism and physical beauty. You may have heard a friend
whimsically sigh and mention that someone ‘has the body of a Greek god’. This
expression has travelled through centuries and continents, and the source of this envy
and admiration is the calisthenics method.
D Calisthenics experienced its second golden age in the 1800s. This century saw
© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved.
11
the birth of gymnastics, an organised sport that uses a range of bars, rings, vaulting
horses and balancing beams to display physical prowess. This period is also when the
phenomena of strongmen developed. These were people of astounding physical
strength and development who forged nomadic careers by demonstrating outlandish
feats of strength to stunned populations. Most of these men trained using hand
balancing and horizontal bars, as modern weight machines had not yet been invented.
E In the 1950s, Angelo Siciliano – who went by the stage name Charles Atlas –
was crowned “The World’s Most Perfectly Developed Man”. Atlas’s own approach
stemmed from traditional calisthenics, and through a series of mail order comic books
he taught these methods to hundreds of thousands of children and young adults
through the 1960s and 1970s. But Atlas was the last of a dying breed. The tides were
turning, fitness methods were drifting away from calisthenics, and no widely-regarded
proponent of the method would ever succeed him.
F In the 1960s and 1970s calisthenics and the goal of functional strength combined
with physical beauty was replaced by an emphasis on huge muscles at any cost. This
became the sport of body building. Although body building’s pioneers were drawn
from the calisthenics tradition, the sole goal soon became an increase in muscle size.
Body building icons, people such as Arnold Schwarzenegger and Sergio Oliva, were
called mass monsters because of their imposing physiques. Physical development of
this nature was only attainable through the use of anabolic steroids, synthetic
hormones which boosted muscle development while harming overall health. These
body builders also relied on free weights and machines, which allowed them to target
and bloat the size of individual muscles rather than develop a naturally proportioned
body. Calisthenics, with its emphasis on physical beauty and a balance in proportions,
had little to offer the mass monsters.
G In this “bigger is better” climate, calisthenics was relegated to groups perceived
to be vulnerable, such as women, people recuperating from injuries and school
students. Although some of the strongest and most physically developed human
beings ever to have lived acquired their abilities through the use of sophisticated
calisthenics, a great deal of this knowledge was discarded and the method was
reduced to nothing more than an easily accessible and readily available activity.
Those who mastered the rudimentary skills of calisthenics could expect to graduate to
weight training rather than advanced calisthenics.
H In recent years, however, fitness trends have been shifting back toward the use
of calisthenics. Bodybuilding approaches that promote excessive muscle development
frequently lead to joint pain, injuries, unbalanced physiques and weak cardiovascular
health. As a result, many of the newest and most popular gyms and programmes
emphasise calisthenics-based methods instead. Modern practices often combine
elements from a number of related traditions such as yoga, Pilates, kettle-ball training,
gymnastics and traditional Greco-Roman calisthenics. Many people are keen to
© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved.
12
recover the original Greek vision of physical beauty and strength and harmony of the
mind-body connection.
© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved.
13
Questions 29–35
The text has eight paragraphs, A–H.
Which paragraph contains the following information?
Write the correct letter, A–H, in boxes, 29–35 on your answer sheet.
29 The origin of the word ‘calisthenics’
30 The last popular supporter of calisthenics
31 The first use of calisthenics as a training method
32 A multidisciplinary approach to all-round health and strength
33 Reasons for the survival of calisthenics throughout the ages
34 The use of a medical substance to increase muscle mass and strength
35 A reference to travelling showmen who displayed their strength for audiences
© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved.
14
Questions 36–40
Complete the summary below.
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the text for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 36–40 on your answer sheet.
During the sixties and seventies, attaining huge muscles became more important than
36 ……………….. or having an attractive-looking body. The first people to take up
this new sport of body building had a background in calisthenics but the most famous
practitioners became known as 37 ……………….. on account of the impressive size
of their muscles. Drugs and mechanical devices were used to develop individual
muscles to a monstrous size.
Calisthenics then became the domain of ‘weaker’ people: females, children and those
recovering from 38 ……………….. . Much of the advanced knowledge about
calisthenics was lost and the method was subsequently downgraded to the status of a
simple, user-friendly activity. Once a person became skilled at this, he would progress
to 39 ……………….. .
Currently a revival of calisthenics is under way as extreme muscle building can harm
the body leaving it sore, out of balance, and in poor 40 ……………….. .
1© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved.
Candidate Number
Candidate Name ______________________________________________
INTERNATIONAL ENGLISH LANGUAGE TESTING SYSTEM
General Training Reading
PRACTICE TEST 2 1 hour
Time 1 hour
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
Do not open this question paper until you are told to do so.
Write your name and candidate number in the spaces at the top of this page.
Read the instructions for each part of the paper carefully.
Answer all the questions.
Write your answers on the answer sheet. Use a pencil.
You must complete the answer sheet within the time limit.
At the end of the test, hand in both this question paper and your answer sheet.
INFORMATION FOR CANDIDATES
There are 40 questions on this question paper.
Each question carries one mark.
2© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved.
SECTION 1 Questions 1–14
Read the text below and answer Questions 1–7.
Volunteers
Thank you for volunteering to work one-on-one with some of the students at our
school who need extra help.
Smoking policy
Smoking is prohibited by law in the classrooms and anywhere on the school grounds.
Safety and Health
Volunteers are responsible for their own personal safety and should notify the school
of any pre-existing medical conditions. Prescription and any other medications that
you normally carry with you must be handed in to the school nurse on arrival and
collected on departure. If you require them, the nurse will dispense them to you in her
office.
Sign-in
A sign-in book is located at office reception. Please sign this register every time you
come to the school. This is important for insurance purposes and emergency situations.
After signing the book, collect a Visitor’s badge from the office. This must be worn at
all times when you are on school premises. Remember to return the badge afterwards.
Messages
Teachers will communicate with volunteers via telephone, email or messages left at
the office. Always ask for messages. You may communicate with teachers in the same
way – the preferred method is to leave a memo in the relevant teacher’s pigeonhole.
These can be found at the end of the corridor in the staffroom block.
Work hours
We understand that your time commitment is entirely voluntary and therefore flexible.
If your personal schedule should change and this affects your availability, please
contact the Co-ordinator for Volunteers at the school on extension 402; alternatively,
you could drop in to her office situated in F block.
Role of the Co-ordinator
The Co-ordinator is responsible for matching volunteer tutors with students,
organising tutorial rooms, ensuring student attendance and overseeing volunteer tutor
training. If you encounter any problems, contact her as above.
3© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved.
Questions 1–7
Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text on the
previous page?
In boxes 1–7 on your answer sheet, write
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this
1 As a volunteer, you will be helping students individually.
2 You may smoke in the playground.
3 You cannot take any medicine while at the school.
4 If you forget to sign the register, you won’t be insured for accidents.
5 The best way of communicating with teachers is in writing.
6 You can choose your own hours of work.
7 The co-ordinator keeps student attendance rolls.
4© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved.
Read the text below and answer Questions 8–14.
Minimal impact bushwalking Responsible campers observe minimal impact bushwalking practices. This is a code
of ethics and behaviour aimed at preserving the natural beauty of bushwalking areas.
Planning Good planning is the key to safe and successful camping trips. Obtaining a camping
permit in advance of leaving to camp out overnight in a national park is obligatory.
Bookings are also compulsory for some parks. There could be limits on group sizes
in some parks. Occasionally campsites may be closed owing to bushfire danger or
for other reasons. Always obtain permission from the owner prior to crossing private
property.
Equipment As well as your usual bushwalking gear, you will need the right equipment for
camping.
A fuel stove and fuel for cooking is essential: not only is it safer, faster and cleaner;
but it is easier to use in wet weather. It is recommended that you pitch a free-
standing tent which requires few pegs and therefore has less ecological impact. Take
a sleeping mat, if you have one, to put your sleeping bag on for a more comfortable
night’s sleep. You will also need a hand trowel to bury human waste – for proper
sanitation and hygiene.
Campfires The traditional campfire actually causes a huge amount of environmental damage. If
you gather firewood, you are removing the vital habitat of insects, reptiles, birds and
small mammals. When campfires lead to bushfires, they create enormous danger to
native bush inhabitants and bushwalkers alike and result in destruction of the
environment. Under no circumstances should you light a fire in the bush.
Campsites Erect your tent at an existing site if possible; otherwise try to find a spot where you
won’t damage vegetation. Never cut branches or move rocks or disturb the soil
unnecessarily. Aim to leave your campsite as you found it or even cleaner.
Rubbish Remove all rubbish – carry it out with you. Don’t attempt to burn or bury rubbish
because this creates a fire hazard and/or disturbs the soil. Animals can dig up buried
rubbish and scatter it about. Never feed the local wildlife – carry out all food scraps
as these disturb the natural nutrient balance and can create weed problems.
Walk safely Keep on the track. Wear footwear suitable for the terrain. Take a map.
5© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved.
Questions 8–14
The passage refers to three ways in which campers should behave.
Classify the following behaviours as something that campers
A Must do
B May do
C Must not do
Write the correct letter A, B or C, in boxes 8–14 on your answer sheet.
8 Get the landowner’s consent before walking across his land
9 Use a sleeping mat
10 Make a campfire in the bush
11 Feed the birds
12 Use a free-standing tent
13 Dig a hole to bury rubbish in
14 Get authorisation before setting out to camp in a national park
6© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved.
SECTION 2 Questions 15–27
Read the text below and answer Questions 15–21
Conditions of employment
Weekly hours of work – 40 hours per week at the ordinary hourly rate of pay for
most full-time employees, plus reasonable additional hours (penalty rates1 apply).
Part-time employees work a regular number of hours and days each week, but fewer
hours than full-time workers. Casual employees are employed on an hourly or daily
basis.
Entitlements (full-time employees):
Parental leave – up to 12 months’ unpaid leave for maternity, paternity and adoption
related leave.
Sick leave – up to 10 days’ paid sick leave per year; more than 4 continuous days
requires a medical certificate.
Annual leave – 4 weeks’ paid leave per annum, plus an additional week for shift
workers.
Public holidays – a paid day off on a public holiday, except where reasonably
requested to work. Employees working on public holidays are entitled to 15% above
their normal hourly rate.
Notice of termination – 2 weeks’ notice of termination (3 weeks if the employee is
more than 55 years old and has at least 2 years of continuous service)
Note:
The entitlements you receive will depend on whether you are employed on a full-time,
part-time or casual basis.
If you work part-time, you should receive all the entitlements of a full-time employee
but on a pro-rata or proportional basis.
If you are a casual worker, you do not have rights to any of the above entitlements nor
penalty payments. Casual workers have no guarantee of hours to be worked and they
do not have to be given advance notice of termination.
1 Penalty rate = a higher rate of pay to compensate for working overtime or outside normal hours e.g.
night-time or on public holidays.
7© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved.
Questions 15–21
Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text?
In boxes 15–21 on your answer sheet write
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this
15 Part-time workers are entitled to a higher rate of pay if they work more than
their usual number of hours per week.
16 Casual workers may be hired by the hour or by the day.
17 A full-timer who takes a year off to have a baby can return to the same
employer.
18 A full-time worker needs a doctor’s note if he is sick for 4 days in a row.
19 A full-time night-shift worker is entitled to 5 weeks’ paid holiday each year.
20 Any workers over 55 are entitled to 3 weeks’ notice of termination.
21 Casual workers can be dismissed without notice.
8© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved.
Questions 22–27
The text on the next page has six sections, A–F.
Choose the correct heading for each section, A–F, from the list of headings below.
Write the correct number, i–x, in boxes 22–27 on your answer sheet.
List of Headings
i Written communication
ii Clarity
iii Style
iv Research
v End of message
vi One point per email
vii Relevance
viii Specify the response you want
ix The subject line
x Internal emails
22 Section A
23 Section B
24 Section C
25 Section D
26 Section E
27 Section F
9© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved.
Writing Effective Emails
Follow these simple rules to make a
positive impression and get an
appropriate response.
A
Like a headline in a newspaper: it should
grab the recipient’s attention and specify
what the message is about – use a few
well-chosen words. If the email is one of
a series e.g. a weekly newsletter, include
the date in the subject line. Never leave
it blank.
B
If you need to email someone about
several different issues, write a separate
email for each subject. This allows the
recipient to reply to each one
individually in a timely manner. For
instance, one subject might be dealt with
quickly while another could involve
some research. If you have several
related points, put them all in the same
email but present each point in a
numbered or bulleted paragraph.
C
Your email should be clear and concise.
Sentences should be short and to the
point. The purpose of the message
should be outlined in the first paragraph
and the body should contain all of the
relevant information.
D
Be sure to include a ‘call to action’ – a
phone call or a follow-up appointment
perhaps. To ensure a prompt reply,
incorporate your contact information –
name, title, company, phone/fax
numbers or extensions, even your
business address if necessary. Even
internal messages must have contact
information.
E
Only use this technique for very short
messages or reminders where all the
relevant information can fit in the
subject line. Write EOM at the end of
the line to indicate that the recipient
doesn’t have to open the email.
F
Emails, even internal ones, should not be
too informal – after all, they are written
forms of communication. Use your spell-
check and avoid slang.
10© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved.
SECTION 3 Questions 28–40
Read the text below and answer Questions 28–40.
Making the CutMaking the CutMaking the CutMaking the Cut
When we talk about how films convey meaning we tend to refer to acting,
music, dialogue, props and narrative developments, but often forgotten is the visual
essence of a film itself, which is the cutting together of moving images – “motion
pictures” – each one carefully tailored to meet a particular need or purpose.
Most films and many important scenes within them open with an establishing
shot. Typically this shot precedes our introduction to the main characters by
presenting us with the locale in which the scene’s action or dialogue is about to occur.
Occasionally, however, a director will use an establishing shot with another goal in
mind. An opening view of a thousand soldiers parading in synchronized fashion might
have little to reveal about the film’s geography, for example, but it does inform the
audience that ideas about discipline and conformity are likely to arise in the material
that follows. In this way, establishing shots can also introduce a film’s theme.
After an establishing shot, most directors choose a long shot in order to
progress the narrative. This type of shot displays the entire human physique in relation
to its surroundings, so it is ideal for bridging the narrative divide between location and
individual activity. A long shot is therefore often used to centre on a pivotal character
in the scene. A film might begin with an establishing shot of bleak, snowy mountains
and then cut to a long shot of a lone skier, for example, or a sweeping panorama of a
bustling metropolis could segue into a street view of someone entering a building.
From here the door is wide open for directors to choose whichever shots will
enhance the narration. Close-up shots are popular in suspense sequences – a handgun
being loaded, a doorknob being turned, the startled expression of someone freshly
roused from sleep. Confining the visual field in this way adds to the viewer’s
apprehension. Dramatic films will probably want to emphasise character interaction.
The third-person shot – in which a third of the frame consists of a rear view of a
person’s upper torso and head – can be effectively utilised here. This shot encourages
11© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved.
us to actually slip into the persona of that character, and vicariously live through their
experiences.
A number of special-purpose shots are used quite rarely – once, if at all, in
most films. One such type is the money shot. A money shot has no specific technical
features or content, but is typically the most expensive element of a film’s production
values and comes with a cost massively disproportionate to its screen time (which
may be limited to just a brief glimpse). Because of its spectacular, extravagant nature,
however, the money shot is a major revenue generator and is widely exploited for use
in promotional materials. Money shots are most popular amongst – but not limited
to – high visual-impact genres such as action, war, thriller and disaster films.
But more affordable shots can also add an interesting twist to the story. The
Dutch tilt can depict a character in a state of psychological unease by shooting them
from a jaunty angle. In this way they appear literally and metaphorically unbalanced.
A trunk shot often shows a small group of characters peering into the trunk of a
vehicle. It is filmed from a perspective within the trunk itself, although frequently to
avoid camera damage directors will simply place a detached piece of trunk door in the
corner of the frame. This shot was a favourite of Quentin Tarantino and has been used
in many crime and gangster films, often as a first-person shot through the eyes of
someone who is tied up and lying inside the vehicle. A shot that has gained traction in
avant-garde circles is the extreme close-up. This is when a single detail of the subject
fills up the entire frame. Alfred Hitchcock famously used an extreme close-up in
‘Psycho’, when he merged a shot of a shower drain into a view of a victim’s eye. It
has also been used in Westerns to depict tension between duelling gunmen eyeing
each other up before a shoot out.
Not all types of shots are used in order to enhance the narrative. Sometimes
financial restrictions or technical limitations are a more pressing concern, especially
for low-budget film makers. In the early murder mysteries of the 1920s and 1930s, the
American shot – which acquired its name from French critics who referred to a “plan
américain” – was used widely for its ability to present complex dialogue scenes
without alterations in camera position. Using the American shot, directors have their
cast assemble in single file while discussing key plot points. The result is an
efficiently produced scene that conveys all relevant information, but the trade off is a
natural tone. Because few people in real life would ever associate in such an awkward
manner, American shots tend to result in a hammy, stiff feel to the production.
12© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved.
Questions 28-33
Look at the following descriptions (Questions 28–33) and the list of terms below.
Match each description with the correct term, A–J.
Write the correct letter, A–J, in boxes 28–33 on your answer sheet.
28 A group of people, full length body shot
29 Two people, only one facing camera, head and shoulders shot
30 Distance shot of central city, from the air
31 A single person, head and shoulders, off-centre angle shot
32 Lone pedestrian, walking a city street
33 A flaming bus, about to crash
List of Terms
A Trunk shot
B Dutch tilt
C Establishing shot
D Money shot
E American shot
F Long shot
G Extreme close-up
H Third-person shot
I First-person shot
J Close-up
13© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved.
Questions 34-37
Answer the questions below:
Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 34–37 on your answer sheet.
34 Which TWO aspects of story can be shown with an establishing shot?
35 What does a long shot focus our attention on?
36 What do close-ups restrict in order to make audiences nervous?
37 What does a third-person shot place importance on?
Questions 38–40
Complete the summary below.
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the text for each answer.
Some shots are not used very often. Money shots have a high
38 ………………… considering that they only last for a few seconds. The money
shot brings in a lot of money, however, and is an important part of the film’s
39 ………………….
Other, less expensive shots can still be fascinating: a character can be made to
seem 40 ………………… in both mind and body when filmed with a Dutch tilt, for
instance.
1© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved.
Candidate Number
Candidate Name ______________________________________________
INTERNATIONAL ENGLISH LANGUAGE TESTING SYSTEM
General Training Reading
PRACTICE TEST 3 1 hour
Time 1 hour
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
Do not open this question paper until you are told to do so.
Write your name and candidate number in the spaces at the top of this page.
Read the instructions for each part of the paper carefully.
Answer all the questions.
Write your answers on the answer sheet. Use a pencil.
You must complete the answer sheet within the time limit.
At the end of the test, hand in both this question paper and your answer sheet.
INFORMATION FOR CANDIDATES
There are 40 questions on this question paper.
Each question carries one mark.
2© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved.
SECTION 1 Questions 1–14
Read the text below and answer Questions 1–9.
ENROLMENT IN THE SELF-ACCESS CENTRE (SAC)
Who can enrol? Any permanent or temporary migrant (anyone on a student visa
is only eligible if an individual exemption is granted).
Where to enrol? The Advance School of English
4th floor, J Block, Main Campus
120 Portsmith Road, PORTSMITH
How to enrol? Ask at the ESOL Enquiries Counter (Room 404, 4th floor, J
Block)
What does it cost? $0.50 per hour for holders of concession cards
$1.00 per hour for permanent visas (casual)
$5.00 per hour for temporary visas (casual)
How many hours? You can choose how many hours per week or per month you
attend. A concession card is issued to anyone on a permanent
visa who wishes to pay for a minimum of 50 hours in advance
(50 hours x 50c = $25). All other visitors to the SAC are
charged the higher casual fee.
What does enrolment in the SAC give access to?
� All books, CDs, DVDs, and CALL materials (CALL = computer assisted
language learning). A booking system is used with resources in high demand.
� Speaking practice with Conversation Tutors:
Monday–Thursday: 11.30 a.m.–1.30 p.m. / Friday: 12.30–3 p.m.
� Word processing – a self-paced, internet-based program
Tuesday: 9 a.m. – 3 p.m.
Wednesday: 1 p.m. – 3 p.m.
Thursday: 9 a.m. – 3 p.m.
Who can help? The SAC Manager and SAC facilitators (who are all ESOL
teachers) are on duty every day from 9 a.m. – 3 p.m.
Procedure: First, enrol (as above).
Register your attendance at the SAC Information Desk when
you arrive – please note: you pay for a minimum of 2 hours
each time.
3© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved.
Use the SAC any day or time that suits YOU!
Questions 1–4
Complete each sentence with the correct ending, A–H, below.
Write the correct letter, A–H, in boxes 1–4 on your answer sheet.
1 Students on a student visa need special permission to be able to
2 Students who want to enrol in the SAC should
3 Only permanent migrants can
4 Temporary migrants must
A enrol in the School of English
B go to room 404 in J Block
C have access to DVDs
D pay more per visit
E pay their fees at the Enquiries Counter
F purchase a concession card
G reserve popular materials
H use the SAC
4© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved.
Questions 5–9
Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text?
In boxes 5–9 on your answer sheet write
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this
5 The tutors who take conversation groups are not paid.
6 Conversation tutors are unavailable on Wednesdays.
7 Students cannot access the word processing program on Wednesday
morning.
8 The SAC facilitators are also teachers at the Advance School of English.
9 Students cannot use the SAC for more than two hours at a time.
5© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved.
Read the text below and answer Questions 10–14.
Home appliances
� Refrigerator
Turn the thermostat down so that your refrigerator temperature is around 3 degrees C
and the freezer is as close to minus 16 degrees as possible. Check the door seals for a
tight fit and leave the door open for no longer than absolutely necessary. These
appliances account for about 20% of household electricity.
� Water cylinder
Turn down the thermostat to 60o (or even 50o is usually sufficient). This is also a
much safer temperature for water – it reduces the likelihood of a household member
getting scalded when using a hot tap.
� Washing machine
Use cold water – around 20 degrees. Anything less than 15 degrees is too cold and
won’t get your laundry clean. Only start the machine when it is full and when possible
hang your laundry outside instead of using a dryer.
� Dishwasher
Only use it when it is full and turn off the drying cycle – allowing the contents to air
dry will save 20% of the dishwasher’s total energy use.
Home heating & cooling
� Thermostat settings
In winter, set the temperature at 20 degrees during the day and reduce it to 12 degrees
before you go to bed. You can save energy by wearing an extra layer of clothing or
putting another blanket on the bed. In summer, use blinds and drapes to keep the sun
out and don’t set your thermostat lower than 24.
� Filters
Clean air filters regularly – energy is wasted when air conditioners have to work
harder to draw air through dirty filters.
A small investment
� Compact fluorescent lights
These cost more initially but they use only 25% of the energy of an incandescent light
bulb and they last ten times longer.
6© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved.
Questions 10–14
Complete the sentences below.
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER from the text for
each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 10–14 on your answer sheet.
10 The most energy-efficient temperature for ensuring food stays frozen
is ………………… degrees C.
11 You can get your clothes clean quite economically by washing them in
water no hotter than ………………… degrees C.
12 On a cold night you can save energy and still stay warm by setting your
heater’s thermostat at ………………… degrees C.
13 Letting your dishes ………………… saves energy.
14 Buying ………………… light bulbs costs less in the long term.
7© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved.
SECTION 2 Questions 15–27
Read the text below and answer Questions 15–21.
Company Dress Code Policy
Policy Statement
Employees are representatives of the company and should dress appropriately. It is
recognised that employees dealing with customers should dress accordingly, whereas
those working in the office, laboratories or warehouses should dress in a manner
consistent with the nature of their work and Health and Safety regulations.
Dress Code Requirements
An employee’s schedule of duties should largely determine his or her work attire. The
company’s objective is to allow employees to work comfortably, so smart-casual
attire is the standard except in the following circumstances:
- When employees are meeting with clients, community visitors or interviewing
candidates, in order to project a professional image, they should dress in a
conventional business-like manner.
- Employees must abide by the safety procedures of their departments and wear
whatever protective clothing and/or safety equipment is necessary.
In the Laboratory
- Long-sleeved shirts and trousers offer the best protection. Shorts and short skirts
do not give adequate protection to your legs.
- Loose-fitting clothing and long hair may create a fire hazard when burners are in
use: loose-fitting clothing is unacceptable but long hair can be secured with a
rubber band.
- Sandals and open-toed shoes are not suitable footwear.
- Clothing such as ties, scarves or long jewelry, which could droop in chemicals or
a flame, should be removed.
- Hair spray is highly flammable and should not be used before entering the lab.
- Synthetic fingernails are also highly flammable and therefore not permissible.
In the Warehouse
- Dress codes for warehouse employees are also based on safety concerns: thus the
requirement for steel-toed boots and durable trousers (jeans are acceptable) or
overalls. Workers may wear T-shirts as long as they conform to the rules.
8© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved.
Inappropriate clothing
- Sport-related clothing including T-shirts or ties with slogans or club insignia
- T-shirts or tops displaying offensive pictures or bad language
- Revealing clothing that exposes too much cleavage, your back, chest, feet,
stomach or your underwear
- Wrinkled, torn, dirty, or frayed clothing
Some common issues – piercings, tattoos, hairstyle, jewellery
- Any jewellery that could pose a safety hazard for employees operating machinery
must be removed.
- Employees wearing a ‘business’ standard of dress may be asked to remove certain
piercings (such as nose and eyebrow rings) and cover up tattoos.
- Hairstyles should always be tidy and hair should never hang over the eyes.
All employees of the company should adhere to the dress code policy at all times.
9© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved.
Questions 15–21
Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text?
In boxes 15–21 on your answer sheet write
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this
15 The company wants its workers to wear comfortable clothes.
16 Employees dealing with external visitors should wear smart-casual attire.
17 Lab workers must keep their fingernails short.
18 Sturdy footwear is compulsory for warehouse workers.
19 Clothing should always be clean and pressed.
20 Machine operators must remove all jewellery.
21 Employees who come into contact with customers must not have visible
tattoos.
10© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved.
Read the text below and answer Questions 22–27
Customer service – tips for handling complaints Many complaints are made by telephone. In this case, there is a simple 7-step
procedure to follow. At the outset, you should make a note of the person’s phone
number and explain that you have done this in case the call should be disconnected
for any reason. Getting cut off is a major source of upset and distress, so
demonstrating that you have guarded against this is a positive first step. This is
especially important if the customer has been transferred, made to wait or if there
have been previous attempts at resolving the problem.
State your name clearly because customers are tired of automated answer-
phone menu systems and anonymous voices at the end of the line. You should also
provide the customer with your direct line so that he feels he can make contact with
you quickly and easily in the future. Establishing fast personal responsibility in this
way is another positive step.
Explain to the customer that you will deal with the issue until it is resolved.
Your making a personal commitment to do this lightens the pressure on a frustrated
customer. Once you have done this, just listen – be sure to listen with empathy and
feeling – and let the customer unload his problem. He is most likely feeling very
angry and exasperated and you can help him calm down and make him feel better by
listening patiently and trying to understand how he feels.
Take notes – get the facts and write them down, even if it takes time. The
customer will appreciate this as it shows you are treating his problem seriously and
with respect. Asking the person to focus on the facts can also help defuse an
emotional situation.
If the complaint is justified and shows that our company’s product is defective
or our service is to blame, then you should immediately acknowledge the problem and
unreservedly apologise. Finally, quickly move on to settling the issue. However, it is a
mistake to guarantee remedial action or compensation that you or the company will be
unable to deliver.
11© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved.
Questions 22–27
Complete the flow-chart below.
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the text for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 22–27 on your answer sheet.
12© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved.
SECTION 3 Questions 28–40
Read the text below and answer Questions 28–40.
Walking on WaterWalking on WaterWalking on WaterWalking on Water
The availability of groundwater has always been taken for granted by
Australians. Groundwater supplies have in prior times been perceived as a resource of
infinite bounds – the prevailing mindset was “out of sight, out of mind”. This has all
changed with the modern epoch. Persistent neglect has resulted in numerous
complications for groundwater users, and many interest groups have a great stake in
its management and allocation. Over-allocation of surface water and persistent water
shortages mean that reliance on groundwater supplies is expected to swell over the
coming years.
The main point of concern now is whether or not a groundwater source can
deliver a sustainable yield. This relies on a proper management of discharge (outflow)
and recharge (inflow) rates. Discharge occurs when humans extract water, as well as
through vegetation and evaporation into the atmosphere. Sustainable use therefore
depends on more than keeping within the recharge rate; if humans use water at
precisely the recharge rate, discharge through other ways can be adversely affected.
Queensland has been one of the most active states in managing groundwater
supplies. This is because the territory sits atop the Great Artesian Basin (GAB), an
expansive underwater aquifer1 that covers nearly one-fifth of the Australian continent.
This resource has long been used by indigenous people and outback communities,
particularly in times of drought (when surface water could dry up for hundreds of
kilometres on end). Since farmers at Kerribee pioneered the use of bores2 in the
country, the number has spiralled beyond sustainable levels and caused water pressure
and flow rates across the region to decline. Furthermore, estimates indicate that 80 per
cent of GAB outflow is wasted because of inefficient and out-dated delivery systems.
Open drains used to keep livestock hydrated are a particular scourge – much water is
lost due to seepage and evaporation.
1 A layer of rock, sand or gravel through which groundwater flows 2 Holes drilled deep into the ground
13© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved.
A number of initiatives have been undertaken to help stem this problem. The
Queensland Government declared in 2005 a moratorium3 on issuing new licences for
water extraction from the GAB. A strategy group known as the Great Artesian Basin
Consultative Council has also published a management plan that involves capping
some bores (to prevent further declines in pressure) and rehabilitating hundreds of
other bores and bore drains with troughs and polyester piping (to prevent water
seeping into the earth).
It is now also apparent that corruption of groundwater supplies by humans is
going to be an issue to contend with. In 2006, thousands of Sydney residents had their
groundwater usage curtailed due to industrial pollution of the Botany Sands aquifer.
Bore water for any domestic purposes has since been off limits due to chemical
seepage from an estimated eight industrial sites.
Nevertheless, groundwater plans continue apace. Development of a
controversial desalinisation plant has been postponed indefinitely while the feasibility
of exploiting two aquifers near Sydney is explored. Authorities intend to use the
aquifers to provide up to thirty gigalitres of water a year during dry spells and then
leave them alone to replenish during higher rainfall years. But the proposed scheme is
riddled with difficulties: low flow rates are hampering extraction; replenishment rates
are lower than expected; and salinity imbalances caused by the procedure could wreak
havoc on efforts to preserve wetland flora and fauna ecosystems that rely on a
plentiful, clean and steady supply of water from the aquifers.
It is not too late to turn groundwater into a sustainable resource. Groundwater
is renewable through surface run off (and, at a much slower rate, in organic springs
where it is literally drip fed through rock on its way to the aquifers). At present,
however, experts believe excessive amounts of ground water are being squandered on
aesthetic projects such as keeping parks, gardens and golf courses green.
Aside from more judicious use of groundwater, many experts also believe that
we need to look at harnessing other potential sources in order to meet our water needs.
During rainy seasons, for example, urban areas are inundated with storm water and
flash flooding that can bring cities to a standstill. Better storm water control
mechanisms could potentially capture and preserve this rainwater for use at a later
date.
3 A stop, postponement or delay
14© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved.
Questions 28-31
Choose FOUR letters, A–J.
Write the correct letter, A–J, in boxes 28–31 on your answer sheet.
The writer mentions a number of uses of groundwater in Australia. Which FOUR of the following uses are mentioned by the writer of the text?
A Maintaining recreational areas
B Helping sewer systems function
C Providing opportunities for underground adventure sports
D Supporting wildlife habitats
E Storing excess amounts of surface water in cities
F Naturally removing salt content from water
G Personal household use
H Forming hot springs for bathing
I Providing water for animals
J Dumping toxic waste products
Questions 32-35
Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text?
In boxes 32–35 on your answer sheet write
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this
32 Australians have always seen groundwater as a precious resource.
33 Use of groundwater is predicted to increase.
34 Humans cannot alter the recharge rate of groundwater.
35 Using water at the recharge rate or lower will ensure sustainable use.
15© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved.
Questions 36–40
Complete each sentence with the correct ending, A–J, below.
Write the correct letter, A–J, in boxes 36–40 on your answer sheet.
36 Outback communities
37 Farmers at Kerribee station
38 In 2005, Queensland authorities
39 The Great Artesian Basin Consultative Committee
40 Some residents in Sydney
A took action to stop more people from being able to use
groundwater.
B released a plan to improve bores and lessen wasted water.
C used groundwater to create artificial rivers.
D began a formal register to control access to groundwater.
E decreased the amount of water in movement.
F used their bore holes to dispose of waste products.
G were prevented from using ground water due to contamination.
H relied on ground water during long periods of dry weather.
I were the first to use a bore in Australia.
© British Council. All rights reserved. 1
Candidate Number
Candidate Name ______________________________________________
INTERNATIONAL ENGLISH LANGUAGE TESTING SYSTEM
General Training Reading PRACTICE TEST 1 hour
Time 1 hour INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES Do not open this question paper until you are told to do so.
Write your name and candidate number in the spaces at the top of this page.
Read the instructions for each part of the paper carefully.
Answer all the questions.
Write your answers on the answer sheet. Use a pencil.
You must complete the answer sheet within the time limit.
At the end of the test, hand in both this question paper and your answer sheet.
INFORMATION FOR CANDIDATES
There are 40 questions on this question paper.
Each question carries one mark.
© British Council. All rights reserved. 2
SECTION 1 Questions 1–14 Read the text below and answer Questions 1–7.
Neighbourhood Support
Neighbourhood Support aims for a safer, more caring community by encouraging
neighbours to talk to each other and by educating and empowering people to take
responsibility for their own safety. Sharing information can reduce the risk and fear of
crime. A local group is formed to provide a means for residents to meet and develop a
supportive and secure environment for everyone, particularly the young, elderly and
disadvantaged. The group tries to prevent the occurrences of crime in the
neighbourhood by erecting signs to inform likely criminals that neighbours watch over
one another’s properties. Enhancing the safety features and appearance of the
neighbourhood can be an effective way to minimise burglaries and car crime in the local
area.
Neighbourhood Support provides a common voice for dealing with local issues such as
graffiti, traffic problems, play areas and street lighting issues. Of course, not everyone in
the street will want to join. Only those who want protection and support are included.
Groups vary in size from three to ten homes within sight of one another. There is no cost
involved and the area coordinator keeps everyone up to date with what is happening in
the community. Information kits are provided to help set up each group. Usually one
member is nominated to be the group contact but this role can be shared.
Neighbourhood Support can also help people to deal with and survive a civil emergency,
such as an earthquake or a flood, by being prepared as a group.
© British Council. All rights reserved. 3
Questions 1–7
Complete the summary below.
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the text for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 1–7 on your answer sheet.
Neighbourhood Support fosters communication among neighbours, giving them confidence
to take charge of their own safety, and lessening their anxiety about 1 ……………. Small
groups of residents work together to make their streets safer, especially for children, the
2 … ………… and old people. Usually, 3 …………… are put up and the safety aspects of the
neighbourhood are improved.
Neighbourhood Support presents a unified 4 …………… when it comes to managing local
problems. Membership of a group is free and voluntary and members are kept informed by
the 5 …………… . However, one member is appointed as the 6 …………… person.
An organised group of Neighbourhood Support residents are also better able to cope with
various types of 7…………… .
© British Council. All rights reserved. 4
Read the text below and answer Questions 8–14.
School Disciplinary Procedures
Three types of behaviour can result in the suspension of a student from school. Often it may be a
combination of two or even all three:
v Gross misconduct that is damaging or dangerous – a very serious one-‐off incident
v A pattern of disobedience that is a harmful or dangerous example to other students
v There is the likelihood of someone being seriously hurt if the offending student is not
removed
When a student has misbehaved, the disciplinary process gets underway with an investigation by
the principal of what actually happened. Suspension does not inevitably follow, even if school
rules have been violated. It depends on whether any of the points mentioned above can be
proven. The outcome of the enquiry could be that the student stays at school, but with some
form of punishment such as cleaning the grounds or detention. However, students cannot be
detained outside school hours without parental consent.
For serious misdemeanours, there are several options. The first is a stand-‐down: removal from
school for a fixed period of not more than five days per school term or ten days per year. The
parents have to be notified and given the reasons in writing.
The second option is suspension. The principal decides to suspend the student from school until
the board of governors meets to discuss the case. Parents must be kept fully informed and will
be given all the information that the board will consider. Generally, the board will meet within
ten days and the parents have the right to be at the meeting, with or without a support person,
and to be heard by the board before a decision is made. If the board decides to exclude a
student who is under sixteen, the principal must try to arrange for enrolment in another school.
Expulsion is the harshest punishment, but it can only apply to students aged sixteen or over. In
such cases, there is no obligation on the principal to find another school.
It should be noted that school discipline is not confined to misbehaviour in the school itself, but
can extend to school trips, school buses, even downtown – if the student is in school uniform.
Questions 8–14
© British Council. All rights reserved. 5
Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text on the previous
page?
In boxes 8–14 on your answer sheet, write
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this
8 A student cannot be suspended unless the bad behaviour is continual.
9 A student can be suspended even if no one has actually been harmed yet.
10 Breaking school rules is grounds for automatic suspension.
11 After-school detention is the punishment preferred by most parents.
12 A stand-down is for a minimum of five days each school term.
13 Parents can speak at the board meeting to discuss suspension.
14 Schooling is compulsory for children until they turn sixteen.
© British Council. All rights reserved. 6
SECTION 2 Questions 15–27
Read the text below and answer Questions 15–20.
Preparing for an interview
Congratulations! You’ve made it to the interview stage! Now is your opportunity to show
that you have the skills, experience and personal attributes necessary for the job. Before
the interview, do your research. Learn more about the public profile of the organisation
and its products or services. You could do this through the internet, company brochures
or business publications. Talk to anyone you know who has worked for the organisation.
It is advantageous to visit the workplace, too. Arrange to do this openly by making an
appointment. It shows you are eager, even if the visit is not feasible. When you visit,
make sure you have prepared appropriate questions and are well groomed and well
dressed. You should aim to discover more about the size of the company, their products
and key markets. You should get a good idea of the dress code and what level of
formality is required with regard to workplace communication, and also how members of
staff address one another. Above all, ascertain where the interview will take place.
Predict what the interviewer might ask and prepare possible answers by reviewing the
application form, the information package (if one was supplied) and the job description.
Boost your self-assurance by practising mock interviews with a friend or family member.
Have your physical evidence organised and ready to show the employer. He or she will
want to sight original documents: diplomas and certificates (with official translations),
work or residence visas (if applicable), etc.
Finally, prepare a neat and tidy outfit and decide how you will get to the interview on the
day. It is a good idea to make a contingency plan for unforeseen events – in any case,
allow for extra time so that you are not rushed. Avoid becoming flustered at the actual
interview by anticipating all sorts of eventualities. For example, you may be asked to take
a test of some kind (a skills or aptitude test for instance); you may be asked to solve a
hypothetical problem, take part in a group activity or confront a whole panel of
interviewers instead of just one.
Good luck!
© British Council. All rights reserved. 7
Questions 15–20
Complete the notes below.
Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the text for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 15–20 on your answer sheet.
Before the interview
Research:
• Find out more about the company by using 15 ……………, reading published
material or talking to people.
• Set up 16 …………… to see the workplace. Present yourself well.
When you visit:
• Ask relevant questions
• Notice what employees wear and the 17 …………… they use when speaking at
work.
• Find out location of interview.
Prepare for the interview:
• How will you answer questions? Arrange 18 …………… to gain more confidence.
• Sort out all your 19 …………… for the employer to inspect.
On the day:
• Dress neatly.
• Set off for the interview with plenty of time to spare and have a 20 …………… in case
something unexpected happens.
• Stay calm – anticipate possible requests
.
© British Council. All rights reserved. 8
Read the text below and answer Questions 21–27.
Work Emails
A Email is extensively used as a tool for communication at work. However, the number of
emails office workers receive every day is overwhelming. Therefore, consider firstly whether the
email you are about to write is necessary or even the best way to communicate. A telephone call or
instant messaging is more appropriate for a back-‐and-‐forth dialogue, and reports of a potentially
distressing nature should always be delivered in person if possible.
B A well-‐written subject line should be concise, ideally no more than 6–8 words (so that the
entire subject line can be read on a mobile device as well as an ordinary computer screen). It should
highlight the most important information. A quick glance at their inbox will be enough for the
addressee to get your message – if they do not need to waste time opening the email, use EOM (End
of Message) to indicate all the information is in the subject line. Example: Marketing meeting 9.00
a.m. Friday 13th EOM.
C If you do need to write a message, keep it straightforward and to the point. If you must
communicate several different but related items, consider using numbered paragraphs or bullet
points where you can chunk information into separate, well-‐structured segments. A different topic is
best covered in a separate email permitting the recipient to respond to one topic at a time. If you
want the recipient to do something, make this clear. If you are merely informing the reader of
something, use FYI (For Your Information) in the subject or as a preface to the first sentence.
D Emails are not necessarily less formal than traditional letters – they will reflect your
professionalism, so be polite. They could also be printed and distributed to colleagues; therefore,
avoid informal language, slang, emoticons and inappropriate abbreviations, such as LOL and others
commonly used in casual text messages. Although it is good to be succinct, pay attention to your
choice of words and sentence length or your intention might be misinterpreted. You could
unwittingly convey a tone of annoyance by appearing terse when you are aiming to appear concise
and economical.
E Begin your email with a greeting. Choose a level of formality to reflect your relationship with
the reader. Intra-‐company or peer-‐to-‐peer communications are generally less formal than messages
to outside businesses. It is also polite to finish with an appropriate closing and signature. Use your
full name and title for formal emails. A first name only is sufficient for colleagues with whom you are
familiar. You may also want to include contact information – this can be part of your customised
automatic signature. Finally, carefully proofread your emails before you hit the ‘send’ button.
© British Council. All rights reserved. 9
Questions 21–27
The text has five paragraphs, A–E.
Which paragraph mentions the following?
Write the correct letter, A–E, in boxes 21–27 on your answer sheet.
NB You may use any letter more than once.
21 ways to present material in small units
22 how to sign off at the end of an email
23 methods to use for topics that require a lot of discussion
24 how the writer could give the wrong impression
25 an abbreviation that tells the recipient there is no need for action
26 a time-saving tip
27 how to communicate bad news
© British Council. All rights reserved. 10
SECTION 3 Questions 28–40
Read the text below and answer Questions 28–40.
LIE DETECTION –
How to spot a liar
Native English speakers all have their own style of speech, influenced by factors such as where they live and their socioeconomic status. Yet Pamela Myer reveals in her book Liespotting that when people tell lies, their verbal and non-verbal behaviours are nearly universal.
Liars reveal themselves through various verbal tactics. They will use statement structure to avoid answering questions or to deflect suspicion. A parrot statement, repeating a question verbatim, is used to stall for time in order to think up a suitable response. If someone genuinely wants to clarify a question, she might choose to repeat a key word or two but rarely the entire question. Beware, also, the dodgeball statement – the suspect ignores the question just asked and, instead, tosses one straight back at you. Then there is what Myer calls the guilt-trip statement, a device that puts the enquirer on the defensive. The liar feigns offence and hopes that you will forget the question while you defend yourself against his accusation of unfairness or prejudice.
Another tactic for deception is the protest statement. This is when the suspect avoids a direct response to a question by listing his favourable assets and deeds so that you will think he is incapable of wrongdoing. The too little or too much statement is just that. The culprit will attempt to skirt the question by offering too little information or by being effusive – offering a wordy explanation but managing to avoid answering the question.
A bolstering statement contains a phrase that adds emphasis in an attempt to sound more credible and sincere: “To be honest, I have no idea how the item got damaged.” Listen also for the qualifying phrase that people use to protect themselves from reproach or responsibility: “As far as I recall, …”. If a religious phrase is used to bolster a statement, for instance: “Honest to God, I didn’t touch her purse”, the speaker is most likely a hypocrite, because an honest person does not need to appeal to God or religion for support.
Distancing statements are highly characteristic of deceptive speech. A deceiver will avoid using first person pronouns (I, me, myself) in order to literally keep himself completely out of the statement. He will also avoid using first names and, where possible, use language that depersonalises another person, for example: “I don’t know what that woman said.” Euphemism, substituting a mild or vague term for a harsher one, is another means of distancing the speaker from the action. “I did not pocket the money" instead of “I didn’t steal the money”.
Verbal leaks are said to occur when the mental burden of sustaining a lie becomes too much. The liar may ‘um’ and ‘ah’ too much or make grammar mistakes and other
© British Council. All rights reserved. 11
errors. A slip of the tongue is an unintentional mistake, often trivial, but occasionally revealing an unconscious thought or wish (the so-called Freudian slip). Consider: “I’d like to spank all teachers” – George W. Bush. A non-contracted denial is another verbal leak. It is usually uttered slowly with emphasis on ‘not’, as in: “I did not leave the door open.” A fibber who cannot express himself in a straightforward manner because he needs time to think may pause frequently and speech disfluencies – meaningless words, sighs and throat clearing – will populate his dialogue. “It was – sigh – late, when I, uh, got home, like, around midnight.” However, you would need to have a normal conversational baseline for the speaker in order to make an objective comparison as some people use fillers such as ‘like’ and ‘you know’ constantly.
Vocal quality is another indicator of deception. Listen for higher pitch, a slower rate of speech and strain or tension in the voice. These are very subjective criteria, however, so take into account other facial, body language and verbal indicators. Vocal quality alone is the least reliable indicator unless you are very familiar with the speaker’s standard mode of speech. In an effort to stay in control of the lie, the liar may control his body, becoming rigid and upright while his voice may assume a matching lifeless monotone. Sometimes actions do not correspond to words – an emphatic ‘no’ accompanied by a slight nod of the head is a sure giveaway.
The manner of articulation and delivery combined with facial expressions, body language and verbal clues will suggest an overall attitude; and attitude is a crucial indicator of both truthfulness and deceit. Weigh up all the factors including whether the subject has been cooperative or unhelpful.
Another weapon in the arsenal of lie detection is story analysis. Most stories have a beginning, a middle and an end, but real memories are not usually related in chronological order. Our emotions cause us to recall the most dramatic event first and in a lot of sensory detail, whereas the liar will ‘remember’ his story in chronological sequence. A false story often has a prolonged and detailed prologue setting the scene (with many truthful features such as time and place). Then the main event (the lie) is passed over quite quickly whereas, for the truthful person, this is the most important part of the action and it is recounted at length. The truth teller will also deliver an epilogue, at times becoming very emotional, as she describes the impact and after effects of the main event. Rarely does the false narrative conclude with an epilogue as the narrator was unaffected by the main event because it did not happen or, if it did, not in the way he related it.
Lie detection is more than just picking up on the occasional verbal clue; rather, it is recognising a cluster of clues and appraising them in the light of the subject’s nonverbal behaviour. By watching and listening carefully and for long enough, you will discern deception if it is there.
© British Council. All rights reserved. 12
Questions 28–32
Complete each sentence with the correct ending, A–I, below.
Write the correct letter, A–I, in boxes 28–32 on your answer sheet.
28 A person uses a parrot statement
29 A person uses a dodgeball statement
30 A person uses a guilt-trip statement
31 A person uses a protest statement
32 A person uses a bolstering statement
A to appear more truthful and convincing
B to repeat a few words of the question
C to ask a question instead of giving an answer
D to clarify a question
E to criticise the questioner
F to delay answering
G to deny his guilt
H to give a reason in his defence
I to show off his good qualities
© British Council. All rights reserved. 13
Questions 33–36
Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text on the previous
pages?
In boxes 33–36 on your answer sheet, write
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this
33 Liars would rather give too little than too much information.
34 Liars use qualifying statements if they need to take responsibility for their mistakes.
35 Truthful people are less likely to bolster their statements with religious phrases.
36 A slip of the tongue is an accidental error that could expose a hidden belief.
© British Council. All rights reserved. 14
Questions 37–40
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.
Write the correct letter in boxes 37–40 on your answer sheet.
37 The statement: “I was not in the office after hours” contains which of the following
verbal clues?
A a filler
B impersonal language
C a non-contracted denial
D a euphemism
38 Which of the following is the least dependable as a marker of deception?
A vocal quality
B verbal leaks
C attitude
D body language
39 An untruthful story is more likely to have
A a jumbled sequence of life events
B expressions of emotion
C a short main event section
D an illogical grammatical structure
40 A truthful story is more likely to have
A strict chronological order
B a lengthy introduction
C few details around the main event
D a heartfelt conclusion
© British Council. All rights reserved. 1
Candidate Number
Candidate Name ______________________________________________
INTERNATIONAL ENGLISH LANGUAGE TESTING SYSTEM
General Training Reading PRACTICE TEST 1 hour
Time 1 hour INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES Do not open this question paper until you are told to do so.
Write your name and candidate number in the spaces at the top of this page.
Read the instructions for each part of the paper carefully.
Answer all the questions.
Write your answers on the answer sheet. Use a pencil.
You must complete the answer sheet within the time limit.
At the end of the test, hand in both this question paper and your answer sheet.
INFORMATION FOR CANDIDATES
There are 40 questions on this question paper.
Each question carries one mark.
© British Council. All rights reserved. 2
SECTION 1 Questions 1–14
Read the text below and answer Questions 1–7.
BPA – the Backpackers’ All iance
The leading hostel network for independent travellers
What is BPA? It is the largest group of backpacker-style accommodation providers in the state — these are state-owned and operated so they all meet rigid criteria for health and safety.
BPA Accommodation: We have over 200 listings to give you the best chance of finding the most suitable accommodation where you are most likely to enjoy it … and that could be in the mountains, by the sea, in the bush, in the centre of a bustling city — almost anywhere in the state!
BPA prices are always the lowest — order your BPA Accommodation Guide now and check it out!
Membership: Join BPA and enjoy the benefits of registration, which include access to a variety of popular options
• BPA online bookings • Secure telephone bookings (you will NOT need to risk giving out your credit
card details over the phone) • Rating details (one to four stars) on all BPC accommodation
You will also receive your BPA Club Card, which gives you
• Preferential regular-user rates — once you have used our service 10 times, you become a “loyal customer” and enjoy an 8% discount on all bookings
• A $5 rebate on all online bookings (accommodation only) • Guaranteed fixed prices (non-members must pay a higher ‘casual’ rate which
can change without notice) • Deals and discounts on transport and activities (if booked through our website)
Remember: Registration is free — there are no hidden fees or commissions. However, there is a $20 processing fee for replacement of a lost or stolen card.
Working holiday: BPA can assist you with this. We can advise you on travel, insurance, what to pack and what to expect. We can also help you find work close to the hostel of your choice by setting up interviews with local employers. We’ll also arrange for you to attend at least one social event where you can meet fellow travellers and some of the residents from the area.
© British Council. All rights reserved. 3
Questions 1–7
Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text on the previous page?
In boxes 1–7 on your answer sheet, write
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information FALSE if the statement contradicts the information NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this
1 The BPA hostels are managed by independent owners.
2 You can find BPA hostels in many different environments.
3 BPA hostels have the cheapest accommodation anywhere in the state.
4 Online bookings are more popular than telephone bookings.
5 BPA members who frequently use the hostels pay less than the normal fee.
6 There is an initial $20 registration fee.
7 Local employers prefer to hire casual employees through BPA
© British Council. All rights reserved. 4
Read the text below and answer Questions 8–14.
Applying for a Driver’s License
• Personal Vehicle Licences:
All applicants will have to show two forms of identification and pass an eye exam. There also is a compulsory driving course, the cost of which must be borne by the driver. Special licences of this class include:
o Provisional Licence: For ages 16 to 18. Drivers on this licence are subject to several restrictions. Drivers must not drive after 8 pm, and are required to have a fully-licensed adult in the car at all times. The driver may apply to transfer to a full licence after attaining 18 years of age, provided he or she has a clean record.
o Motorcycle Licence: An optional extension course on defensive driving is recommended for drivers with this type of licence. This can reduce insurance premiums. Not all motorized two-wheel vehicles classify as motorcycles. Scooters, for example, do not require this licence, but note that these vehicles are restricted from riding on main roads and highways.
• Commercial Licences
o Livery Licences: Anyone planning to use their vehicle as a taxi or a limousine will require this licence. Applicants must have a personal vehicle licence, which they must surrender upon receipt of the new licence. This licence also requires renewal every two years. Drivers are required to display a registration plate to indicate that they are legally allowed to accept passengers.
o Commercial vehicle licences: These include: § City buses (single or coupled) § School buses § Lorries (single or coupled)
All licences for commercial vehicles require a probation period, after which the full licence will be issued. Application for such a vehicle licence will require proof of training, proof of insurance, and a mandatory fee, which can usually be claimed back once employment is found.
© British Council. All rights reserved. 5
Questions 8–14
Complete the sentences below.
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the text for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 8–14 on your answer sheet.
8. People who want a personal vehicle licence must pay for a ……………. .
9. A teenager must have a ………………… to get a full licence at 18 years old.
10. Motorcycle drivers who attend a special class can get a discount on their
……………………………….
11. People who ride ……………………. on back roads or off-road do not need a
licence.
12. People who drive a ……………or …………… need a livery licence.
13. Anyone who charges money for driving people in a private car must show a
special ……………….
14. Commercial drivers have to wait for a ………………….. to get their full licence.
© British Council. All rights reserved. 6
SECTION 2 Questions 15–27
Questions 15–20
Read the text below and answer Questions 15–20.
Becoming an employer
Running a small business is a rewarding but challenging endeavour, and one of the major challenges is hiring staff once your business starts to grow.
What kind of employee would suit your business needs? You’ll need to evaluate the typical workload your business operates under, and whether this work is steady. Permanent staff can be employed full or part time, but you’ll need to ensure that there is ongoing work into the foreseeable future and that your business can take on the further cost of entitlements such as sick leave, annual leave and parental leave. As an employer, you’ll be legally required to provide these, as well as health and safety training. You’ll need to specify their hours of work, wages and details of their role in advance, and prepare a contract for both parties to sign.
Your business may not be ready to take on such a long-term responsibility, especially if you only require help during big projects or holiday rushes. In this case, you might consider hiring a fixed-term employee. Remember, though, that after a certain number of fixed-term contracts with the same employee, the law requires you to make the position permanent. If you are not sure how long the term of employment will be, construct the contract carefully to ensure you can terminate the employee at any time, allowing the legally-required two weeks’ notice, of course.
Alternatively, you could take on a casual worker, who can be employed on an ad-hoc basis, covering just the days that you cannot manage alone, though you’ll need to offer a higher hourly rate, called casual loading, to compensate for the lack of regularity.
If your current budget does not permit hiring another member of staff, you could consider using an intern. However, interns are not just a source of free labour. You must be able to provide experience that benefits them in some way, such as by learning a new skill. Agreements of this sort can legally extend to 12 months, but while you will have to stipulate the duration of the internship, the interns themselves are permitted to resign at any time without giving notice.
All workers must be given a contract, no matter whether they are permanent, fixed-term, casual or even interns.
© British Council. All rights reserved. 7
Questions 15–20
Look at the following statements and the list of employee types below.
Match each statement with the correct type, A, B, C or D.
Write the correct letter A, B, C or D, in boxes 15–20 on your answer sheet.
15 They cannot work for more than one year.
16 They get a paid holiday every year.
17 They can leave without warning.
18 You can finish their contract early if you give warning.
19 They usually get higher wages.
20 This kind of employee is best for seasonal work.
Employee types
A permanent employees
B fixed-term employees
C casual employees
D interns
© British Council. All rights reserved. 8
SECTION 2 Questions 15–27
Questions 21–27
The text on the next page has seven sections, A–G.
Choose the correct heading for each section from the list of headings below.
Write the correct number, i–x, in boxes 21–27 on your answer sheet.
List of Headings
i Don’t waste energy on things you
can’t change
ii Trust your natural responses
iii Understand before being understood
iv Never accept a loss
v Know what is best for business
vi Think win-win
vii Don’t take sides
viii Realise you have a choice
ix Take a stand on every issue
x Don’t get personal
21 Section A _____
22 Section B _____
23 Section C _____
24 Section D _____
25 Section E _____
26 Section F _____
27 Section G _____
© British Council. All rights reserved. 9
Office politics A Office politics concern differences that arise between employees – differences of opinion and conflicts of interest. Good communication is the best way to deal with office politics.
A natural reaction to disputes at work is to defend yourself and fight for what you want, but the typical response to that stance is resistance, which achieves nothing. However, if you flee from conflict and don’t take a stand, you will be seen as a pushover. Although both fight and flight are instinctive reactions, it is best not to be impulsive but rather to carefully consider how you feel and decide how you will react.
B There is a temptation to focus on the differences – of employees’ positions or opinions – but try to concentrate on business objectives instead and discuss the problem with these in mind. After all, everyone wants to work for a successful company, so put petty disagreements aside and look at the big picture.
C Sometimes issues arise which workers have little control over, for example company policies, customer demands or directives from management. It is easy to get caught up in an endless round of complaint, but this rarely if ever solves these outside problems. Be realistic about what you can actually influence at work, and don’t put your focus on insoluble problems.
D Occasionally you will find yourself caught between two powerful individuals in contention. Do not get drawn into the conflict by supporting one or the other. Remain neutral and objective and try to keep the discussion focused on the interests of the organisation.
E When office politics erupt, avoid angry outbursts and never direct your rage towards a particular person. This will only provoke negative feelings towards you, possibly harming your chances of advancement or promotion later.
F If you try to identify and comprehend the position of other parties first, you will gain their trust and open up communication because they will feel less defensive. Using this technique will facilitate a swifter solution to the problem.
G People don’t like to lose. It is humiliating. Outcomes of a conflict at work where there is a loser and a winner are generally not beneficial for either the individuals involved or for the company, so it is better to find a resolution which is acceptable to both parties. It is better to have allies than enemies.
© British Council. All rights reserved. 10
SECTION 3 Questions 28–40
Read the text below and answer Questions 28–40.
Shark Deterrent Wetsuits A The words “shark attack” strike fear in beachgoers – surfers, swimmers, divers and others who enjoy a dip in the ocean. After seven people died from fatal attacks off the coast of Western Australia (WA) between 2010 and 2013, the state government reacted by capturing and shooting large sharks (of the great white, tiger and bull varieties) near swimming beaches. This shark culling policy caused an outcry amongst environmentalists.
B The existence of the white shark is already threatened; it is at a ‘vulnerable’ status – at high risk of becoming an endangered species. For this reason, it is fully protected in some countries, but the WA government had this species made exempt from protection in Australia, despite there being no scientific evidence to suggest an increase in white shark numbers.
C Sharks are apex predators, key to maintaining the balance of prey populations by removing sick or weak individuals and regulating the well-being of the marine ecosystem. They are very slow to reproduce and, with about 100 million sharks being killed every year as a result of fishing and hunting, the global population has been reduced by more than 70% in the last twenty years. The WA government policy of killing large sharks takes out the mature breeding stock of the species, hastening their eventual extinction.
D Protesters argue that the culling is extreme and unnecessary because the actual risk of death by shark is very slim, and the practice of tagging sharks and equipping them with transmitters is enough to alert swimmers when sharks are near. When a tagged shark comes within one kilometre of a beach it ‘tweets’ a message (via the Surf Lifesaving WA Twitter feed) giving its type (e.g. bull shark), location, date and time.
E Scientists at Shark Attack Mitigation Systems (SAMS), in collaboration with the Oceans Institute at the University of Western Australia, have come up with a novel and pragmatic solution to the shark problem: a shark deterrent wetsuit. The good news is that it is simple, affordable, and the technology can also be applied to surfboards. The scientific breakthrough came about after observation of how other species protect themselves from shark attacks. In this research, particular attention was given to the pilot fish, which has a mutualistic association with sharks, swimming alongside them devouring their harmful parasites and keeping them clean. The pilot fish are relatively small (about 30-60 cm) and are easily recognised by their patterning. This consists of five to seven transverse bands of a darker colour than the rest of the body, which is dark blue or blackish-silver. These bands are also seen on the poisonous banded sea snake. Folklore claims that some Pacific island tribes used to paint themselves in bands to simulate the appearance of this snake and thus to ward off the shark gods.
© British Council. All rights reserved. 11
F It is known that sharks use a range of sensors when they prepare for attack, but apparently the sight sensor is what they use to identify their target, especially when they get close up. Experts in shark vision and shark neurology confirmed that sharks see in black and white, or greyscale. The SAMS scientists, in collaboration with others, then mapped the physical characteristics of the eyes of the three main predatory sharks, genetically and anatomically. Next, they used complex computer modelling to figure out what the shark’s eye could see at different depths and distances, and in different light situations and water clarity conditions. From that, they were able to identify what patterns and shapes would essentially “hide” a potential target or at least create confusion for the shark; and what patterns and shapes might break up the profile of a person so that he was not mistaken for shark prey.
G Once the science was converted into practical wetsuit design, two ideas emerged. The first model, using the banding concept, presents a highly disruptive profile to the shark, and depicts the wearer as dangerous and unpalatable. This one is suitable for swimmers/surfers on the surface where they would otherwise provide a tempting, backlit silhouette. The second model, the cryptic wetsuit, consists of three panels on the suit, one or more matching the reflective spectra of the water and the other creating a confusing profile. This one is better suited to scuba enthusiasts, making them virtually indiscernible in the water column.
H It was very difficult to test these wetsuits because, for obvious reasons, the researchers could not use humans or even humanoid shapes as bait. Therefore, they wrapped perforated drums full of bait in the newly designed neoprene skins and used underwater cameras to watch how the sharks interacted with the prototype. As a control model, they used a rig wrapped in plain black neoprene just like a normal wetsuit. They were able to record a tiger shark circling and hunting the test rig for six minutes, trying to find what it could smell and sense but not see. Then the shark gave up and ripped into the control rig as soon as it encountered it. They watched a great white shark encounter a control rig, go to the bottom, then come straight up and strike it, whereas it was more apprehensive and reluctant to go for the test rig.
I It is hoped that these shark-deterrent designs, by disrupting a shark’s visual perception, will protect swimmers either by deterring attack or at least delaying it sufficiently to allow the user time to get out of the water.
© British Council. All rights reserved. 12
Questions 28–36
The text has nine paragraphs, A–I.
Which paragraph contains the following information?
Write the correct letter, A–I, in boxes 28–36 on your answer sheet.
NB You may use any letter more than once.
28 an example of water sport equipment that can use the new wetsuit design
29 details of the trials carried out on the new wetsuits
30 findings of scientists investigating sharks’ perception
31 how beachgoers can be warned of the presence of sharks
32 the importance of sharks in keeping fish stocks healthy
33 statistics that triggered a shark-killing response
34 the relationship between sharks and a different sea species
35 how the new wetsuits work as shark deterrents
36 an explanation of why sharks are in danger of extinction
Questions 37–40
Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text on the previous page?
In boxes 37–40 on your answer sheet, write
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information FALSE if the statement contradicts the information NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this
37 A deep-sea diver wearing a cryptic wetsuit is almost invisible to sharks.
38 Sharks do not regard banded wetsuits as good to eat.
39 The tiger shark waited before attacking the control rig.
40 Great white sharks have more confidence than tiger sharks.
© British Council. All rights reserved. 1
Candidate Number
Candidate Name ______________________________________________
INTERNATIONAL ENGLISH LANGUAGE TESTING SYSTEM
General Training Reading PRACTICE TEST 1 hour
Time 1 hour INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES Do not open this question paper until you are told to do so.
Write your name and candidate number in the spaces at the top of this page.
Read the instructions for each part of the paper carefully.
Answer all the questions.
Write your answers on the answer sheet. Use a pencil.
You must complete the answer sheet within the time limit.
At the end of the test, hand in both this question paper and your answer sheet.
INFORMATION FOR CANDIDATES
There are 40 questions on this question paper.
Each question carries one mark.
© British Council. All rights reserved. 2
SECTION 1 Questions 1-14
Read the text below and answer Questions 1–6.
Making an effective complaint
When something goes wrong, it can be difficult to know what to do. The following course of action may help you make a successful complaint.
• Know your rights. Before you complain, find out your legal rights – the Citizens Advice
Bureau (CAB) is a good source for this kind of information.
• If possible and practical, talk to the same person you dealt with in the first place – the
problem could just be the result of a misunderstanding or an honest mistake that might
be settled without too much effort.
• Act now while the facts are fresh in your memory. There may be a time limit for making
a complaint.
• Be fair and reasonable when you ask for the situation to be put right – make your
request proportionate to the problem.
• Collect the evidence, especially any faulty merchandise or parts. Keep a paper trail, i.e.
all the written records of any transactions, correspondence, receipts, quotes, accounts,
contracts, etc., while waiting for the issue to be resolved.
• Prepare your tactics. Practise what you want to say. Consider taking a support person
along in the case of a face-‐to-‐face encounter. Above all, remain composed.
• Be polite. Do not get drawn into a heated quarrel – either withdraw or ask to speak to a
higher authority (perhaps a manager or supervisor).
• If the matter is still not resolved, write a formal letter of complaint and pass it to a third
party such as a complaints service. The CAB can direct you to the most appropriate
service for your complaint.
• Exchange contact details so the other parties involved can get in touch with you to
follow up on the matter and so that you can contact them again if necessary.
• Always obtain the final decision in writing if it was made over the phone or in person.
© British Council. All rights reserved. 3
Questions 1–6
Complete the notes below.
Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the text for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 1–6 on your answer sheet.
Making a complaint
⎯ Know your legal rights – ask CAB
⎯ Speak to the same person – he or she may have made 1……………….. that
could be easily resolved.
⎯ Don’t delay in case there is a 2 ……………….. .
⎯ Don’t make unrealistic demands.
⎯ Keep track of poor quality goods and save all 3 ……………….. until the problem
is sorted.
⎯ Prepare, practise and stay calm.
⎯ Don’t argue. It’s better to 4 ……………….. or talk to the boss.
⎯ As a last resort, take your complaint to an outside authority.
⎯ Make sure everyone concerned has your 5 ……………….. .
⎯ Get the resolution in 6 ………………...
© British Council. All rights reserved. 4
Read the text below and answer Questions 7–14.
IDENTITY CRIME
Identity crime is a generic term used to describe offences in which someone uses a fabricated or fictitious identity, a manipulated identity (the alteration of one’s own identity) or a stolen identity to commit a crime. The third of these, identity theft, knows no geographical boundaries and is on the increase as more people conduct business and social interactions over the internet. This type of crime produces substantial profits for criminals and causes extensive economic losses to governments, private corporations and individuals. Much of the money lost by individuals stems from credit card fraud, identity theft and scams. However, what worries law enforcement agencies the most is how identity crime facilitates serious and organised crime, with distressing effects on society as a whole. Identity crime is a major problem, made more difficult to investigate and solve as the offender can be on one side of the world and the victim on the other.
There are some simple steps you can take to reduce the risk of having your personal information stolen or misused. Only give out personal information over the phone or internet if you have initiated the call or the transaction and can verify that the person or organisation is legitimate. Never record PIN numbers for bankcards anywhere inside your purse or wallet. Secure your letterbox with a lock and clear your mail regularly. Burn or shred documents with personal information or store them in a secure place, and wipe your computer hard drive if you are selling it. Make sure the virus and security software on your computer or mobile device is up-to-date and don’t use public computers or unsecured wireless hotspots (such as those at a library or internet café) for internet banking. Always check bank and credit card statements for unauthorised transactions and report any discrepancies to the bank promptly. Don’t respond to scam emails or letters that promise a prize or reward if you provide bank account details to the senders to enable them to ‘deposit’ the money.
Always use the most secure settings and keep a tight rein on how much private information you post on publicly accessible networking sites. Remember, also, that information on the internet can remain accessible even if the original posting is removed.
© British Council. All rights reserved. 5
Questions 7–14
Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text on the previous page?
In boxes 7–14 on your answer sheet, write
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this
7 There are three main kinds of identity theft.
8 Identity theft is becoming more common.
9 Individuals lose more money through identity crime than businesses or governments.
10 Criminal organisations profit from identity crime.
11 Identity theft is a global problem.
12 You should never give personal information over the phone.
13 It is generally safe to do internet banking on computers in large public places.
14 Once you delete a posting from a social website it is gone forever.
.
© British Council. All rights reserved. 6
SECTION 2 Questions 15–27
Read the text below and answer Questions 15–21.
Making a presentation without props
When you make a business presentation using PowerPoint or a flip chart, the audience’s attention will mostly be on the slides or chart. When you give a talk without props, the only visual you have is yourself. Obviously, the content is a key part of the presentation, and you will work on that until it is word perfect. However, a successful delivery is also governed by your body language.
Body language (gesture, stance and facial expression) is a key element in generating interest and building credibility. It helps you connect with your listeners and helps them focus on your message. Use body language with purpose to accentuate key points of your talk and to project authenticity and enthusiasm.
Use eye contact to quickly establish a close bond, by focusing on one person at a time rather than sweeping the audience as a whole. Hand gestures should either be open and neutral (relaxed at your sides) or defined and strong to intensify what you say. Interestingly, research has shown that gesture is intrinsically linked to speech and that by incorporating appropriate gestures we can express ourselves more powerfully verbally. Effective gestures come from the shoulders rather than wrists or elbows and have a twofold advantage: not only do they project further across the audience but they also release tension in the presenter’s upper body.
Your stance is an open book: the audience can read whether you are confident and comfortable or anxious and afraid. Balance your weight evenly with feet slightly apart and pointing straight ahead. Stillness projects calmness, whereas constant movement or swaying about is an annoying distraction. You can occasionally move around in the space available to you as long as you do so confidently and purposefully, to highlight a change in topic for instance. Lean slightly towards the audience when asking a question or offering a revelation.
Facial expressions are vital to effective communication. Unfortunately, public speaking can cause a face to freeze, but the audience relies on facial expressions to amplify the meaning of what you say. Voice, too, is a flexible tool that can be used to great advantage. Before your presentation, practise relaxing the voice and finding a lower, more authoritative pitch. Avoid rising intonation at the ends of sentences as it lacks authority – rather it sounds as if you are unsure or seeking approval – not at all the impression you want to give. Breathe deeply and enunciate clearly.
© British Council. All rights reserved. 7
Questions 15–21
Complete the sentences below.
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the text for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 15–21 on your answer sheet.
15 A successful presentation without props depends on both ……………….. and delivery.
16 Body language must have clear objectives – to highlight ……………….. of the discussion and show that you are keen and sincere.
17 Look at individuals to create a ……………….. .
18 Match ……………….. to spoken language.
19 Movement of the ……………….. is more easily seen and it makes the speaker more
relaxed.
20 Standing still shows ……………….. although some movement is acceptable at appropriate times.
21 Use facial expressions to reinforce meaning and lower the pitch of your voice in order to
sound ……………….. .
.
© British Council. All rights reserved. 8
Read the text below and answer Questions 22–27.
Job Specification: Public Relations Manager
Job Description:
To develop and manage public relations programmes to create and support a positive corporate public image.
Duties and Tasks:
• Identify principal clients and stakeholders and determine the most effective means of transmitting promotional information to them.
• Write press releases; make information available for media kits; develop and keep company internet and intranet pages up to date.
• Write speeches for company executives and set up interviews for them with the media. • Coordinate special events including sponsorships and promotion of new products with a
view to gaining media and public attention.
Activities:
• Obtain relevant information from various sources. • Create and sustain collaborative work relationships and constructive liaisons with clients
and others outside the company. • Communicate with clients, the public and government agencies as required.
Communications may take the form of face-‐to-‐face interactions, telephone conversations, emails, letters, instant messages or memos.
• Analyse information and explore creative solutions to problems. • Use computer systems to enter data and process information.
Skills and Abilities:
• Public speaking – clarity of articulation and expression is important • Active listening – pay attention, understand the sequence of an argument, ask sensible
questions at appropriate times, refrain from interrupting • Written communication – correct and unambiguous written statements suited to the target
audience • Reading comprehension – ability to understand all work-‐related documents • Critical thinking – use logical and rational methods to weigh up the pros and cons of any
given proposal • Originality of ideas – ability to come up with a number of novel, extraordinary or ingenious
approaches to solving problems • Decision-‐making – use good judgement to make well-‐considered decisions before taking
action • Negotiation – use effective mediation skills, reconcile differences
Knowledge and experience or education: • University degree in a relevant field (preferably post-‐graduate) • Proficiency in the English language and a foreign (non-‐English) language • Media – dissemination techniques for written, spoken, visual media • Administration, clerical systems and office procedures
© British Council. All rights reserved. 9
Questions 22–27
Complete the notes below.
Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the text for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 22–27 on your answer sheet.
Job description: To promote a favourable 22 ……………….. of the company
Duties/tasks include:
• deciding on the best way to communicate 23 ……………….. to interested parties
• writing speeches and statements for the media
• managing 24 ……………….. to raise the profile of the company
Activities include:
• gathering information
• maintaining positive relationships
• interacting with others in person, in writing, or by way of 25 ………………..
• computing
Skills/Abilities include:
• clear oral and written communication
• understanding others
• identifying strengths and weaknesses of 26 ………………..
• thinking of many new ways of handling difficult situations
• resolving disputes through 27 ………………..skills
Experience/education includes:
• University degree
• English and a foreign language
• Media – all types
• Administration and office systems
© British Council. All rights reserved. 10
SECTION 3 Questions 28–40
Read the text below and answer Questions 28–40.
Bioremediation
– a natural way to clean up indoor air contaminants –
A Global energy needs will probably increase by 30% over the next ten years and, at present, 40% of the world’s energy is consumed by buildings. One way to make buildings more energy efficient is to insulate them and minimise fresh air exchange. However, reduced air circulation causes a phenomenon known as Sick Building Syndrome when combined with the volatile organic compounds (VOCs) emitted by modern materials used in office blocks, furnishings and high-tech equipment, along with human bio-effluents. Eye irritation, skin rashes, sinus and respiratory problems, headaches and drowsiness are common symptoms. The VOCs are not only noxious but carcinogenic, with long-term exposure heightening one’s risk of cancer.
B An environmental scientist, Dr Bill Wolverton, working for The National Aeronautics Space Administration (NASA), came up with a solution: “If man is to move into closed environments, on Earth or in space, he must take along nature’s life support system.” In other words, plants. Early experiments were conducted in the BioHome, an airtight habitat constructed entirely of synthetic materials, designed for one person to live in. Before Wolverton introduced houseplants into the environment, it was uninhabitable because of the poor air quality – anyone entering suffered burning eyes and breathing difficulties.
C Wolverton found that, apart from absorbing carbon dioxide and releasing oxygen as all plants do, some plants are able remove considerable amounts of VOCs. They do this by absorption through tiny openings (stomata) on their leaves, but roots and microorganisms living in the potting soil or other growing medium are also important in the removal of toxins from the air. Most of the plants used by Wolverton originated in the understory of subtropical or tropical forests, with their particular leaf composition enabling them to photosynthesise in reduced sunlight. This ability is what allows them to thrive indoors away from direct sunshine. One largish plant for approximately every ten square metres of home or office space is suggested as an operational ratio.
D The strategy of using indoor plants as air purifiers has not been widely endorsed because of a lack of quantifiable outcomes. This could be changing, however. Recent studies at the University of Technology in Sydney have shown that certain plants on Wolverton’s list, namely Dracaena deremensis ‘Janet Craig’ and the peace lily Spathiphyllum wallisii, reduced pollution levels to negligible levels when placed in offices with high quantities of VOCs.
E Building on the NASA experiments and with the help of the Indian Institutes of Technology and The Energy and Resources Institute, Kamal Meattle of New Delhi has trialed several of Wolverton’s recommended plant species at his workplace. He used 1,200 plants for 300 occupants (four waist- to shoulder-high plants per person) in a twenty-year-old building measuring some 4,600 square metres. Results of this experiment showed elevated blood oxygen levels in the occupants and reduced incidences of eye irritation, as well as a marked reduction in respiratory system disorders and headaches. Since the installation of the plants, the labour force has increased productivity by over 20% and energy requirements for the
© British Council. All rights reserved. 11
building have been reduced by 15 per cent. For his study, he used the areca palm, the snake plant (or mother-in-law’s tongue) and the money plant (golden pothos).
F The areca palm (Chrysalidocarpus lutescens), native to the island of Madagascar, has a smooth silver-green trunk and feathery-shaped fronds. A sensitive plant, it needs year-round care with the right amount of bright but indirect light. The soil should be kept a little moist in spring and summer but allowed to dry slightly in autumn and winter. The areca favours a snug container – the crowded root system will limit the size of the palm; if unrestricted, it may grow as tall as six metres. The areca palm has been proven effective in the removal of toluene (in new carpet, paints and varnishes) and xylene (a potent neurotoxin found in marker pens, paints and varnishes).
G The snake plant (Sansevieria trifasciata) is an evergreen perennial species, originally a resident of tropical West Africa. Its stiff vertical leaves extend up to a metre in length. It is more tolerant of irregular watering and low light levels than the areca palm. Meattle notes that it would be ideally placed in bedrooms because it is a nocturnal oxygenator. It also does a good job of absorbing benzene (a commonly used solvent in oils, paints, plastics and rubber), trichloroethylene (a commercial product with a wide variety of uses including inks, paints, adhesives) and formaldehyde, in addition to toluene and xylene. Formaldehyde is a pervasive and abundant chemical found in numerous paper products, particleboard, plywood, synthetic fabrics, carpet, cigarette smoke and heating and cooking fuels.
H The money plant (Epipremnum aureum), is indigenous to French Polynesia. This evergreen vine is a very hardy plant, but highly invasive if it takes root out of doors. It is an easy and undemanding plant to care for, equally comfortable in bright or low light, nutrient-poor or nutrient-rich soil – it can even be grown in a jar of water. Unfortunately, its leaves are poisonous to cats, dogs and children and even the sap from the plant may cause a rash in people with sensitive skin. However, it is extremely efficient at filtering all the same pollutants as the snake plant, except for trichloroethylene.
I Popular minimalist architecture mostly did away with indoor plants but, as a result of research by Dr Wolverton and others, they are making a comeback. After all, in the words of Margaret Burchett of the University of Technology in Sydney: “Potted plants can provide an efficient, self-regulating, low-cost, sustainable bioremediation system for indoor air pollution.” Plants have even more in their favour: they balance indoor humidity, are pleasing on the eye and, according to a recently published article, “plants relieve physiological stress and negative psychological symptoms”.1
1 Journal of Physiological Anthropology 2015, 34:21
© British Council. All rights reserved. 12
Questions 28–32
The text on the previous page has nine paragraphs, A–I.
Which paragraph mentions the following?
Write the correct letter, A–I, in boxes 28–32 on your answer sheet.
NB You may use any letter more than once.
28 measurable effects of bioremediation on workers
29 how plants cleanse the air
30 research which tested the bioremediation effects of two different plant species
31 an experimental facility that was initially unfit to live in
32 a condition affecting office workers
© British Council. All rights reserved. 13
Questions 33–39
Look at the following statements and the list of plant species below.
Match each statement with the correct plant, A, B, or C.
Write the correct letter A, B, or C, in boxes 33–39 on your answer sheet.
33 It is robust.
34 It prefers a tight-fitting pot.
35 It easily overruns other plants in an outside environment
36 It releases oxygen at night.
37 It is delicate
38 It is harmful to infants and some adults.
39 It has leaves that grow straight up.
A Areca palm
B Snake plant
C Money plant
Question 40
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.
Write the correct letter in box 40 on your answer sheet.
Which of the following ideas is NOT mentioned in the last paragraph of the passage?
A indoor plants improve air quality B indoor plants need regular care C indoor plants are pleasant to look at D indoor plants are beneficial for the body and mind
1
© British Council. All rights reserved.
Candidate Number
Candidate Name ______________________________________________
INTERNATIONAL ENGLISH LANGUAGE TESTING SYSTEM
General Training Reading PRACTICE TEST 1 hour
Time 1 hour INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES Do not open this question paper until you are told to do so.
Write your name and candidate number in the spaces at the top of this page. Read the instructions for each part of the paper carefully.
Answer all the questions.
Write your answers on the answer sheet. Use a pencil.
You must complete the answer sheet within the time limit.
At the end of the test, hand in both this question paper and your answer sheet.
INFORMATION FOR CANDIDATES
There are 40 questions on this question paper.
Each question carries one mark.
2
© British Council. All rights reserved.
SECTION 1 Questions 1–13
Read the text below and answer Questions 1–7.
Questions 1–7
Thetextonthenextpagehas8sections,A-H
Choosethecorrectheadingforeachsectionfromthelistofheadingsbelow.
Writethecorrectletter,A-H,onyouranswersheetforquestions1-7.
ListofHeadings
1. Thedisadvantagesofthesefoodcourts.
2. Thedesignofthefoodcourts.
3. Thestepstotaketobuythefood.
4. Lookingforwardsinapositivelight.
5. Whytheyarebecomingpopularwithfolksfromothercities/countries.
6. Themethodsthemallsarecompetingwithinternetconsumption.
7. Thevarietytocustomers.
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Proceduresformoderndayfoodcourts
A. Fighting back against the growing popularity in online shopping, malls are attracting
customers to physically come to them for more than the shopping experience itself.
The attraction of great food to be tried is one way of doing so.
B. Food Courts are almost always located on the top floor of the mall, accessed by a trio
of elevators, lifts and stairwells. From time to time however, these may be located in
the basement of the shopping centre.
C These modern eating areas are typically an open-plan layout whereby the multitude
of food outlets are located along the outside walls of a large open space, with
plentiful tables and chairs placed in the spacious interior.
D The food choices range from Korean barbecue bars to Japanese sushi stalls, from
boiled dumplings and steamed filled buns to bubbling hot pots and soup vendors.
More often than not nowadays, Western style options are available too offering
sumptuous steaks.
E The process of purchasing your meal is straightforward. Firstly, purchase a food card
from the cashier topped up with the amount of money you intend to spend and then
make your order directly at the specific food vendor who will swipe your card. Wait
patiently, then they will shout out your receipt number and you collect the delicious
delights cooked up from the vendor once again.
F Foreign visitors and out-of-town day-trippers are easily drawn to these eating
establishments for a couple of reasons; firstly being they offer up a wide range of
eating options to try at affordable prices; and secondly that they are extremely simple
to use for those who cannot comprehend the local language.
G There may be one or two drawbacks of using these places of course; one of which
being they are often bustling and boisterous places packed with numerous diners;
secondly, food hygiene cannot always be guaranteed.
H Overall, it is safe to say that the benefits of these food courts far outweigh some
potential and occasional drawbacks, and that the popularity of these eating
establishments are certain to grow in the future.
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© British Council. All rights reserved.
Questions 8-13
Read the text below and answer questions 8-13
TenstepstoprepareeffectivePPTsforpresentations.
1. Compose Slides
Don’t copy & paste slides from different sources.
Keep the design very basic and simple so that it shall not be distracting.
Leave adequate space for any images.
2. Use Consistency
Consistently use the same font face and sizes on all slides and also match colours.
You may use your company logo, highlight headers, or create a special frame for figures/images.
3. Use Contrast
Black text on a white background will always be the best but also the most boring choice.
If you want to play with colours, keep it easy on the eyes and always keep good contrast in mind so that your readers do not have to strain.
4. Apply Brilliance
Carefully use colour to highlight your message!
Match colours for design and good contrast to highlight your message.
5. The K.I.S.S. Method
Keep It Straight and Simple.
Keywords only are required, and there is no real need for sentences!
Never read your slides, talk freely.
Remember that your slides are only there to support, not to replace your talk!
6. Take Home Message
Always express a Take Home Message.
5
© British Council. All rights reserved.
It’s your message, a summary of your data or story, so make it a highlight that stands out.
7. Add Images
Do not only use images for mere decoration!
Images should be better used to reinforce or complement points, even to visualize and explain.
A picture can say more than a thousand words.
8. Don’t Be Silly
Use animations and media sparingly.
Animations can draw attention precisely to a certain point that needs clarification.
9. Keep Your Audience In Mind
Your target i.e. your audience, defines the content of your presentation.
Consider carefully their needs and simplify your slides down to the very essentials.
In your talk, describe the essentials colourfully and choose your tools appropriately i.e. text, images and animations wisely.
If you lose the attention of your audience, everything will be pointless— it won’t matter how clever your design is or how brilliantly you picked colours and keywords.
10. Practice
A well-prepared and enthusiastic talk will help you convince your audience and maintain their attention.
Know your slides well.
Speak with confidence – loud and clear.
11. Maintaining eye contact with the audience is critical.
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© British Council. All rights reserved.
Questions 8-13
Statewhetheryoumay,mustormustnotdothefollowing:
Pleaseindicate:
A. May
B. Must
C. Mustnot
Write your answers in the boxes provided on your answer sheet for questions 8-13
8. Obtain slides from a variety of locations.
9. Display headers and logos.
10. Read from the slides directly.
11. Deliver a memorable take home message.
12. Decorate slides effectively with images.
13. Keep eye contact at all times with the members in the room
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© British Council. All rights reserved.
SECTION 2 Questions 14–26
Questions 14-20
Read the text below and state what activity session each of the individuals should choose
based on the information given in the table.
ChoosingsuitableactivitiesattheCommunityCentre
Activitysessionsavailable:
Day Time Event
Monday 13:00-14:30 Cakemakingcontest.
Individualprizestobewon.
A
Tuesday 15:00-17:00 Healthycookingclass.
Learnhowtocookfastyethealthy
meals.
B
Wednesday 19:00-22:00 Open-air‘Black&White’film
showing,followedbyachatover
cheeseandbiscuits.
C
Thursday 20:00-22:00 QuizNight.Teamsof3-4.
Greatteamprizestowin
D
Friday 19:30-21:00 Livebandplaying.
Genresfromjazztorock.
E
Saturday 7:00am-8:00am Yoga
Followedbyfruit.
F
Saturday 15:00-18:00 Wildlifelecture. G
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© British Council. All rights reserved.
Followedbyguidednaturewalk
Sunday 9:30am-11:00am Badmintonpairs.
H
Sunday 13:00-14:30 Localhistorytalk.
Cookiesandcoffeeprovided.
I
Benny is fan of all kinds of music. He is not so keen on listening to recorded music however,
and prefers to enjoy a performance delivered by musicians in person.
Justin loves nothing more than catching a classic from the early days of the big screen with
other like-minded enthusiasts. People who are keen to discuss what was seen afterwards
over snacks.
Brenda has a keen interest in baked goods of all kinds including desserts. She is competitive
and loves to show off her skills.
Sally is really an early bird, who is keen to remain in great shape doing gentle activities that
are good for her health, ones that keep her mind and body both sharp and toned.
Benjamin really is a guy who loves to compete and test his wits against others as part of a
group of friends. He likes to keep his brain sharp. His specialist knowledge is history and
geography.
Martin is fascinated and addicted to all games involving nets. He’ll be looking to play with his
lovely wife against other like-minded couples.
Tim is an avid follower of eating well, eating regularly and eating well-balanced nutritious
meals. He is however often pressed for time and would love to find ways to counter that.
Daniel loves nothing more than knowledge. He cannot get enough of learning new things
about the area where he is. In particular, he has a strong interest in birds and going hiking.
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© British Council. All rights reserved.
Example:Benny.E.
14.Justin.
15.Brenda.
16.Sally.
17.Benjamin.
18.Martin.
19.Tim.
20.Daniel.
Questions 21-26
Read the article below and answer questions 21-26.
HealthandSafetyRules
Follow these simple rules to safely enjoy your experience at the Wildlife Park.
- You are advised to read carefully the safety instructions on the back of your ticket;
these include all fire exits and first aid stations.
- Children under the age of nine must be accompanied by fee-paying adult.
- Never touch any animals unless accompanied by a park ranger on a guided tour.
- Guests are reminded that it is strictly forbidden for any animals to be given food or
drink under any circumstance, unless on a guided ranger tour.
- If on a guided ranger tour, after feeding animals, it is essential to thoroughly wash
hands with the professional cleaning materials provided.
- Food and drink brought in to the park by visitors can only be enjoyed in the clearly
marked picnic areas
- It is a requirement that all uneaten food items are disposed of in the yellow bins clearly
provided. Alternatively, you are required take them away with you.
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© British Council. All rights reserved.
- If medical attention is required, please notify the nearest available park ranger, or
use one of the numerous emergency phones that are highly visible (in purple).
- Double gate entrance points are to be used one gate at a time. (When one gate is
open, the other gate has to be closed, so as to prevent animals escaping from their
enclosure)
- Place all recyclable litter in the clearly marked purple circular bins and other litter can
be discarded in the brown square bins located beside them.
- Upon hearing the park fire alarm, follow the signs and immediately walk to the
nearest fire exit.
- It is essential to then remain in the fire assembly point outside of that exit gate.
- Running is not allowed in the park at any time, as it can be both hazardous and
distracting.
- Mobile phones must be set to a low ringing tone at all times so as to not panic any of
the animals.
- Flash photography is not welcomed in the park when photographing animals.
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© British Council. All rights reserved.
Questions 21-26
Complete the sentences below.
Write the answers to questions 21-26 on your answer sheet.
Please write two or three words only to complete the sentence.
21.Youngchildrenarewelcomedintotheparkprovidedthattheyaresupervisedbya
.
22.Apartfromwhenunderofficialguidance,thegivingofedibleitemstoanyanimalsis
.
23.Thetouchingofanimalscanonlyhappenona .
24.Ifguestsdonotusethecolouredbinfordisposingoftheirfoodwaste,theyhavetheoptionto
.
25.Ifmedicalassistanceisrequired,onecanapproachastaffmember,oronecanfindoneofthe
plentiful .
26.Nexttothesquarebrowntrashcans,intheroundonesavailable,peoplearesupposedto
disposeoftheir .
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© British Council. All rights reserved.
SECTION 3 Questions 27 –40
Read the text and answer questions 27-40.
Windfall for the Environment - Downfall for Health
Wind turbines are popping up around the world as an alternative source of energy, but residents who live near them say the machines are making them sick.
Imagine the sound of a train going over a bridge, or a jet engine propeller slicing through the air, even a bee stuck inside your ear.
These are the descriptions given by residents from New Zealand, Australia, and Great Britain, all living near wind farms. What is seen by many people as a solution to the world’s growing need for electricity has become, for these residents, a force so disruptive that they have had to uproot their lives to find relief.
Wind turbine farms are quickly becoming a popular green energy alternative for many countries, including the United States, Germany, and China. There are more than 3,000 onshore turbines in Britain alone, which increased its wind power capacity by nearly 25 percent in 2011. During the same time period, Australia expanded its wind production capacity by more than 11 percent. While organizations such as the World Wind Energy Association praise this increase in wind farms as a positive development in “community energy,” those who live close enough to them to hear their constant drone disagree.
One of those residents, Andreas, lived in Waterloo, South Australia, until last year. In October 2010, the gas and electricity provider TruEnergy installed a 37-turbine wind farm on a ridge skirting his hometown. At the time, he says he was in favor of wind energy. “I was actually a firm believer that wind turbines were going to be a good idea,” he says. “We were all for wind power.”
However, his opinion changed when the blades started to spin at the Waterloo Wind Farm. Within weeks, he says he and his family began to experience everything from heart problems and sleep disturbances to a constant ringing in their ears. However, he didn’t immediately associate his health problems with the new wind farm near his home.
It wasn’t until a conversation with his brother, who lived nearby, that he started to link the two. “He got so angry with me for asking how he slept,” Andreas remembers. “I asked my sister-in-law, and she said, ‘I haven’t slept for a week.’ I asked another neighbor, and he said the same thing. At that point, I thought, ‘it’s not just me.’”
Looking for answers, he searched the Internet for information about the possible side effects of wind turbines, and that’s when he came across the Web site of Dr. Nina Pierpont, a doctor
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© British Council. All rights reserved.
and researcher from New York. Andreas began an e-mail correspondence with her husband, which resulted in her agreeing to come to his home to talk to him and his neighbors in person.
He and his neighbors erupted into stories of night sweats and constant headaches, revealing that they had all experienced similar symptoms. After everyone was finished, she put her book on the table and said, ‘This is happening in Victoria, too. But not just in Victoria. It’s happening all over the world.’
That book was Wind Turbine Syndrome: A Report on a Natural Experiment. Pierpont, first introduced the term “wind turbine syndrome” in 2006; she later published a book about it—the same one on Andreas’s table—in 2009.
Pierpont’s research involved 38 residents in the United States, Canada, the United Kingdom, Ireland, and Italy. Her presentations on wind turbine syndrome have been widely debated within the research and medical communities. The wind energy associations of Canada, the United States, and Britain have all criticized her work, and a study conducted by a group of researchers from The University of Salford in Manchester, England, concluded that there is no such thing as wind turbine syndrome.
Dr. Hünerbein, who specializes in the study of wind profiles and acoustic technology, was one of the five researchers who prepared that Salford University report, Research into Aerodynamic Modulation of Wind Turbine Noise, which was commissioned by the British Department for Environment, Food, and Rural Affairs.
“There is no scientific evidence to date that there is a direct physiological connection between wind turbine noise and health,” she explains. “Having said that, there are effects, and one is sleep disturbance. The thing to point out here very strongly is the sleep disturbance and annoyance can arise from any other noise just as well as wind turbine noise.”
Whether it can be scientifically proven that the noise from wind farms is detrimental to human health is a debate that is likely to continue as wind energy increases globally. The Global Wind Energy Council reports that by 2030 half of all the wind energy produced in the world will come from countries that have just begun to embrace turbine-produced power.
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© British Council. All rights reserved.
Questions 27-30
Match the letters, A-D, with the numbers 27-30.
Label who voices the appropriate following statements:
27.Backgroundnoisefromvariousfactorscannegativelyaffectsleeppatterns.28.Windturbinesyndromehasbecomeaworldwideconcernformanycitizens.29.Originallyverysupportiveoftheconceptofusingwindpower,butthenswitchedviews.30.Usingimaginationrelatingtoannoyinginsectsandtransportationtodescribeeffects.
A. Thelocalresidentatthecenterofthisarticle.B. Thegovernmentfundedresearcher.C. Theauthorofthebookonwindturbinesyndrome.D. Thenumerouslocalsresidingnearby.
Questions 31-36
Writeyouranswerstoquestions31-36ontheanswersheetprovided.
Dothefollowingstatementsagreewiththeinformationgiveninthetext?
LabelasTrue,FalseorNotGiven.(T/F/NG)
True–ifthestatementagreeswiththeinformation
False–ifthestatementcontradictstheinformation
NotGiven–ifthereisnoinformationonthis
31. ThefiguresforBritainonitsownfromafewyearsago,showedthataquarterofturbineswereconstructedonwindfarmsintheseaoffthecoast.
32. Allthosewholivenearthesewindfarmshavebeenaffectedandhavesetuprootselsewhereinordertofindanewpeace.
33. Andreasimmediatelylinkedhisnewhealthissueswiththenearbyrecentlyconstructedwindfarm.34. Researchwas conductedbyAndreason theweb in an attempt todiscoverpotential negative
effectsattributedtowindgeneratingtechnology.35. Criticismontheconceptofwindturbinesyndromehascomefrommanycountries,includingthe
USA,Germany,Italy,Australia,NewZealandandChina.36. Approximately just over a decade later, 50% of energy from wind will be produced in those
locationsjuststartingtousethistechnology.
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Questions 37-38 MultipleChoice:Choosethemostsuitableoptionfromthe3-optionsgiven.
Writetheletteronyouranswersheetforquestions37-38.
37. Asagreenalternateoptiontofossilfuels,energyobtainedfromwindisgainingin
A. Possibility.
B.Popularity.C. Practicality.
38. Seenastheenvironmentalanswerbysome,manyfamilieswereforcedtomoveastheeffects
weretoogreata A. Disruption.B. Production.C. Criticism.
Questions 35-40 Multiple Choice: Choose the most suitable option from the 4-options given.
Write the letter on your answer sheet for questions 39-40
39. Whentellingtheirstories,thesymptomsfeltbyallthosespokentoweredescribedas
A. Immediate.B. Changeable.C. Consistent.D. Similar.
40. Withinthehealthindustryandacademiccommunities,her(Pierpont)findingsatfirstwerewidely
A. Discussed.B. Denied.C. Studied.D. Expanded.
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Candidate Number
Candidate Name ______________________________________________
INTERNATIONAL ENGLISH LANGUAGE TESTING SYSTEM
General Training Reading PRACTICE TEST 1 hour
Time 1 hour INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES Do not open this question paper until you are told to do so.
Write your name and candidate number in the spaces at the top of this page. Read the instructions for each part of the paper carefully.
Answer all the questions.
Write your answers on the answer sheet. Use a pencil.
You must complete the answer sheet within the time limit.
At the end of the test, hand in both this question paper and your answer sheet.
INFORMATION FOR CANDIDATES
There are 40 questions on this question paper.
Each question carries one mark.
2
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SECTION 1 Questions 1–14
Read the text below and answer Questions 1–7.
A. Seaview BnB Charming, quiet little bed and breakfast hotel directly opposite the beach. Warm welcome from local husband and wife proprietors Bill and Jenny Pearce guaranteed. Just £85 per room per night. Price includes half-board (2 meals).
B. Cosy Cottages 17th century cottages with thatched roof. Perfect for a genuine old-English experience. Set in beautiful countryside on the outskirts of the town. Peaceful environment. Self-catering. Available from just £400 per week. C. Family Stay U.K. Opportunities to get to know local people. 3-7 day stays in rooms in the homes of local families at great rates. Be treated as one of the family. From just £30 per night. Meals available upon request at an additional rate. D. Home from Home No-frills hotel chain, great value for money. Clean, quiet, comfortable place to relax after a long day of seeing the sights. Single, Double and 3-bed rooms. Rooms available from £25 per night. Advance booking advisable. No breakfast. E. Hampson’s Holiday Park Something for all ages! Wide range of clubs and activities, sports, fishing, even a golf course. Only 10 minutes’ walk from the beach. Great value - from just £300 per week for a 4-bed holiday trailer. Call us today! F. Hostel Planet Voted coolest place to stay in town by a national website last year. Great place to get to know people from all over the world. Tours of the town and a whole range of other activities available. Choice of 10-bed and 16-bed rooms. Beds from £15 per night.
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G. Best View Hotel National 3-star hotel chain. Good value for money, including free parking and breakfast. Spacious and quiet, and we are located close to the main beach. We advise our guests to book early to avoid disappointment. Rooms from £70 per night.
H. The Grand Hotel Originally opened in 1911, offers guests a touch of quality. High-grade service, fine dining options and classically designed rooms. Follow in the footsteps of many famous people who have stayed here, such as Churchill and Chaplin. Prices available upon request.
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Questions 1-7
Look at the eight accommodation options in a seaside town, A-H, above and read the
descriptions of the people below.
Write the correct letter, A-H, in boxes 1-7 on your answer sheet
What is the most suitable holiday accommodation for each person?
1 A family of four who want to stay somewhere with lots of different things for everyone to
do.
2 A wealthy retired couple who don’t mind spending a bit more when they travel on holiday.
3 A group of three overseas students who are travelling around the country together, and
want to keep their expenses down.
4 Two female friends from the U.S.A. who want to stay somewhere traditional.
5 A Canadian tourist traveling alone who likes to socialize with other travelers.
6 A couple of friends from India who are traveling around by hire car and like to stay
somewhere near to scenic spots.
7 A middle-aged man who likes to stay in a place which provides breakfast and dinner at no
extra charge.
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Read the text below and answer Questions 8–14.
VISIT TORQUAY!
Still deciding where to take the family for your summer holiday this year? Then look no
further than Torquay! Located around an east-facing natural harbour on the English channel,
the town is full of surprises, with its magnificent bay, palm trees and sweeping sandy
beaches.
Delightful dining options
Torquay is an absolute heaven for foodies with a collection of seriously good eating
experiences, from celebrated restaurants to award-winning fish and chips. You’ll love the
seafood diners with fish sourced from nearby Brixham’s famous Fish Market. Families are
well catered for with plenty of family friendly eateries just a short distance from the attractive
harbour.
Families and Fun
The perfect place for families, the town has a huge number of sights and things to do. For
example Living Coasts, an amazing marine zoo next to the harbor with a pair of dolphins,
attracts visitors from all over the country. In addition, the world famous detective writer
Agatha Christie was born in Torquay and a walking trail and museum give fans a unique look
into her life story. Boat trips around the bay and to nearby Dartmouth, Waves Leisure Pool
and the amazing Kents Cavern, one of Europe’s top Stone Age cave sites, are just a few of
the other attractions.
Soak up the sights
The views from the lovely Royal Terrace Gardens are wonderful, with the magnificent new
lighted staircase a real treat after dark. From here, you can see right across the bay to
Brixham. Torquay is part of the English Riviera, a unique area whose natural beauty has real
‘wow’ factor.
Strolling and Walking
The spectacular landscape around the town will make you want to explore further and there
are 22 miles of coastal footpath to enjoy. Take a stroll behind the famous Imperial Hotel and
you’ll enjoy delightful views of the coastline. Go for a walk in the other direction and you’ll
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pass some lovely scenery and catch sight of a steam train. You can also visit the traditional
English village of Cockington, which is located in a pretty valley close to the town.
Beaches and water activities
The town’s sheltered bay makes it perfect for a wide choice of activities including diving,
sailing, surfing and water skiing. Or why not just bring your bucket and spade and build a
giant sandcastle? Alternatively, just kick back and relax with a spot of sunbathing.
Evening Entertainment
The town comes alive in the evening with pretty lights all around the town. In addition to a
wealth of dining choices, there’s a great range of entertainment options. You can enjoy a
non-stop party in the popular clubs, or why not book a top quality show at the Princess
Theatre, one of many around the Bay?
So, what are you waiting for? Visit Torquay! TIME LIMITS Competitors who do not complete within the times listed below will be disqualified from the
race.
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Questions 8-14
Complete the sentences below.
Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the text for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 8-14 on your answer sheet.
Torquay is a coastal town in the U.K. with a famous 8._________which attracts many boats.
The town has a good selection of places to eat out; 9._____________is a local delicacy.
There are a lot of places for families, such as the 10._____________which has a lot of sea
creatures.
The 11._______________is a popular sight in town, especially at night.
With such a long coast, it’s a good idea to go 12.__________ to enjoy more attractive views.
If you don’t feel like doing anything active then 13. ____________ is a good choice.
In the evening, there are numerous 14.__________where you can see a live performance.
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SECTION 2 Questions 15 –27
Read the text below and answer questions 15-20
Business Emails: The Importance of Structure Because of the volume we send and receive, and because they are often misinterpreted, it's important to write emails clearly and concisely. So, what's the key to keeping them short? Well, the best way to go about it is to use a standard structure, which is a regular template to follow. As well as keeping your emails short, this also helps you to produce them more quickly. Over time, you'll develop a structure that works for you, and in the meantime in this article I will provide one to get you started. The structure of the template contains a number of stages, so let's look at each of these in more detail. Greeting. This is the first line of the email. ‘Hi, [First Name]’ is a typical greeting. Compliment or pleasantry. When you're emailing someone for the first time, then a compliment makes an excellent opener. For example: • I enjoyed your presentation about [topic] on [date]. • It was good to meet you at [event]. If you're writing to someone you know, then use a pleasantry instead. This is typically a variation on ‘I hope you're well.’ Alternatively, you can say thank you for something they've helped you with or for information they sent in a previous email. The reason for your email. In this section you say, ‘I'm emailing to ask about...’, or, 'I was wondering if you could help with...’. You'll sometimes need two sentences to explain your reasons for writing. A call to action. After you've explained your reason for sending, don't assume the recipient will know what to do. Provide specific instructions. For example: • Could you send me those files by Thursday? • Could you write that up in the next two weeks? Structuring your request as a question encourages the recipient to get back to you. Alternatively, you can use the line ‘let me know if that's okay with you.’ Closing. Before you sign off your email, be sure to include a closing line. This has the dual purpose of repeating your call to action, and of making the recipient feel good. Examples of good closing lines include: • Thank you for all your help with this. • Let me know if you have any questions. Sign-off. Again, this is an appropriate way to show respect to the person you are writing to - it could be ‘Best Wishes’, ‘Kind Regards’, or ‘Thanks’. You should always follow your sign-off with your name.
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Questions 15-20
Complete the sentences below.
Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the text for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 15-20 on your answer sheet.
15. The fact that emails are easily _____________ is one reason why structure is important.
16. A ____________ shows respect by praising the recipient in some way.
17. A ____________is another way to begin an email.
18. Using a ____________gives the recipient a reason to reply.
19. It is useful to ___________the required action before ending the email.
20. A ___________is a polite method for bringing the message to a close.
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Read the text below and answer questions 21-27
Preparing a Negotiating Strategy
There are basic principles that apply to every negotiation. The first offer is usually the most important and the benchmark by which all subsequent proposals will be judged and compared. You'll never get what you don't ask for, so make your first offer bold and aggressive. The asking price is just that, and will typically include a margin to give away during negotiations. You want to take all of that and hopefully more, so start lower than the seller expects. As long as your offer is not ridiculous, the other side will continue the talks in hopes of settling at a better number.
As a buyer, do not disclose your budget or other limitations in your negotiating position. You want the best product you can get for your money, so employ an approach that maintains the possibility of spending less than you had originally planned. Always have something to trade without hurting your position. For example, consider including some nice-to-have items that aren't critical to the success of the project. If the buyer takes those out to reduce the overall cost, you haven't lost anything but it may help them to reach their price target. Such distractions will help to divert the other party from attacking the meat of your proposal.
Watch for clues such as body movement, speech patterns and reactions to what you say. Be prepared to suspend or cancel proceedings if you feel things are getting nowhere or the other party seems stuck in their position. If they are on the hook to cut a deal, they will feel the pressure to move. Be patient even if the other party isn't. This can be difficult for those with a passion for instant gratification, but the last thing you want is for the other party to think you're in a hurry to conclude negotiations.
From a contractual standpoint, a counteroffer automatically supersedes all previous offers. Once a proposal is made from your side, you should expect it to be accepted or rejected, or to receive a counteroffer that keeps the negotiation open. If it is rejected and you are asked to submit a new and better offer, do not fall into that trap. That would be tantamount to negotiating with yourself, and you should never do this. If the last offer on the table is yours, always insist on a counteroffer to force the other party to move their position before you make another proposal.
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Questions 21-27
Complete the sentences below.
Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the text for each answer. There may be more than one
possible answer.
Write your answers in boxes 21-27 on your answer sheet.
Preparing a negotiating strategy
l Be as 21.__________ as possible during the initial stage. l Never reveal your 22.____________. l Have some items you can easily 23._________. l Gestures and other body language are important 24.___________. l If the talks are not moving forward, be ready to 25. _________them. l Remaining 26.________when the other side are under pressure to act can be an effective
tactic. l Never put yourself at a disadvantage by 27.____________with yourself.
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SECTION 3 Questions 28–40
Read the text below and answer questions 28-40.
The History of ‘O.K.’ A. There is an English word used with such regularity the world over that it doesn’t need to be spoken - a simple hand gesture will suffice. So well-known is the word that it surprises many to learn that it did not exist until 200 years ago. It is the word ‘OK’. B. From its early days the term has always been used informally, which may explain the variations in its spelling that have come about over the years. While some publications prefer ‘okay’, others prefer ‘OK’, ‘O.K.’, ‘ok’ or ‘o.k.’. There has never been any consensus on whether it should be written as a full word or in shortened form; whether certain letters should be large or small; or whether there is a need for full stops after each letter. How the word is presented to readers in print has thus depended on the in-house style choices made by specific magazines, newspapers and institutions. C. Numerous possible explanations have been proposed for how OK entered the English language, but a common thread linking these theories is that it most likely originated in the U.S.A. during the early nineteenth century. An account that is accepted by many language experts is that it was originally one of a number of humorous abbreviations used by newspaper journalists and editors. For instance, ‘NG’ meant ‘no go’, while ‘OK’ was based on ‘all correct’ (‘Ol Korrect’). Another theory traces the source of the word back to slaves from West Africa; the word ‘o ke’. D. The word first rooted itself in public consciousness in the U.S.A. during 1840 Presidential election. The Democratic presidential candidate was Martin Van Buren, and on the campaign trail it was considered that having a Dutch name might prove a challenge. Consequently, one of his backers, the former President Jackson, suggested the nickname ‘OK’, which is likely to have been a reference to the candidate’s home town, ‘Old’ Kinderhook. Thereafter, following the nationwide publicizing of the term in such a high profile event by a former U.S. President, OK became a popular expression across the land. E. ‘OK’ has gone on to become a word which can fulfil a variety of functions in both written and spoken communication. For example, it can be utilised as an adjective to mean both ‘good’ and ‘not so good’ (such as, It’s OK, but I still prefer the other one). It can also be an adverb (The interview went OK). More recently, it has even been used as a noun (The boss gave his OK) and as a verb (She has okayed the colour). It is also commonly uttered while listening to another person speaking, to indicate that one is following the message. F. The meaning the word conveys depends greatly on tone used. Someone might yell, ‘OK!’ In a manner that shows excitement, while, in contrast, teenagers often use it in an irritated voice to intimate forcefully that their sensitivities have been offended. Adding to its versatility, ‘OK’ might suggest an explicit willingness to take action, but on the other hand might also express vagueness. For example, one might say it to acknowledge that one has heard something, while the other party
13
© British Council. All rights reserved.
might assume that one is indicating that one has agreed to take a particular course of action. G. With the global spread of English during the twentieth century, ‘OK’ has become a universal tool of communication. It is one of the first English words that people learn, and is not only used when communicating with native speakers, but has also been incorporated into many other languages. These developments can be attributed to the influence of English-language, especially American, media worldwide. It is certainly very unusual for an American movie or television show with a contemporary setting to avoid the term, and it is also commonly heard in the song lyrics of music fashionable with young people. H. Even in places where no English is spoken, the ‘OK’ gesture has generally become a universally recognized symbol, made by connecting the thumb and index finger into a circle (the ‘O’) and holding the other three fingers straight and relaxed in the air (the ‘K’). However, the sign may also have adverse meanings – for example that the other person is a ‘zero’ (nothing). This means it should be used carefully in an unfamiliar culture. As the world’s most commonly-used word, it will usually be safer and more effective to speak first, if you want to make sure things go ‘OK’.
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© British Council. All rights reserved.
Questions 28-33
The text above has eight paragraphs, A-H.
Which paragraphs contain the following information?
Write the appropriate letters, A-H, in boxes 28-33 on your answer sheet.
28 speculations about the beginnings of the word
29 the flexibility of the word in the English language
30 editorial confusion in using the word
31 the origins of its widespread use
32 its usefulness as a way to express different moods
33 the use of the word in popular culture
Questions 34-37
Answer the questions below.
Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the text for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 34-37 on your answer sheet.
34. One theory about the word ‘OK’ is that it was based on which two words?
35. The 1840 U.S. Presidential Candidate Martin Van Buren was nicknamed ‘O.K.’ for what
reason?
36. When did ‘OK’ become popular outside the U.S.A.?
37. The ‘OK’ sign is made with which two fingers?
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© British Council. All rights reserved.
Questions 38-40
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.
Write the correct letter in boxes 38-40 on your answer sheet.
38. The use of ‘O.K.’ in published form depends on
A which country the text is produced in
B the decisions of the particular publishing house
C what the writer intends to express
D the position of the word within a sentence
39. The reason the word ‘OK’ became so commonly-used after the 1840 election was that
A with so many people arriving in the country it was a simple and easy word to use
B the word was seen as humorous and used in many jokes
C the word became famous after being used by a former President
D a book was published which used the word in its title
40. The word ‘OK’ can sometimes express an attitude of vagueness because
A the word is so short and has many possible meanings
B the way in which the word is used depends on the mood of the speaker
C it contains the letter ‘O’ which can mean ‘zero’ or ‘nothing’
D the listener might just be showing that they understand the message
1© British Council. All rights reserved.
Candidate Number
Candidate Name ______________________________________________
INTERNATIONAL ENGLISH LANGUAGE TESTING SYSTEM
General Training Reading PRACTICE TEST 1 hour
Time 1 hour INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES Do not open this question paper until you are told to do so.
Write your name and candidate number in the spaces at the top of this page. Read the instructions for each part of the paper carefully.
Answer all the questions.
Write your answers on the answer sheet. Use a pencil.
You must complete the answer sheet within the time limit.
At the end of the test, hand in both this question paper and your answer sheet.
INFORMATION FOR CANDIDATES
There are 40 questions on this question paper.
2© British Council. All rights reserved.
Each question carries one mark.
SECTION 1 Questions 1-13
Read the text below and answer Questions 1 - 6.
A)
B)
C)
FIRST MONTH FREE
2 bedroom, 2 bath with washing machine. Large kitchen with custom cabinets and
professional appliances
High ceilings, hardwood flooring, large closet and private balcony
Gated community, two parking spaces and bicycle racks. Convenient location close to
three highways. 15 minute drive to downtown.
Walking distance to convenience shops,
supermarkets and restaurants.
$2995/month, 130 m2
$1400/month - 92 m2 - No Security Deposit
This large studio is one open area. There is a kitchen and a shared laundry machine is included.
Large window in the front of the room. Huge closet; new stove; air conditioning. Tenant pays electric
& gas. Parking available. Bus stop, all major lines, just steps away. Landlord lives in the building.
$3225/month - 185 m2
Your Own Elevator!
Luxury living available now! Top floor with private 27 m2 roof space. Live near all the great restaurants, clubs and theaters. Newer construction with gorgeous features including high ceilings.
Large master bedroom with two large closets. Bedrooms two and three have one closet each. Garage parking space included!
3© British Council. All rights reserved.
D)
E)
F)
G)
$1795/month - 139 m2
Beautiful, fully re-decorated 2-bedroom shared house in the suburbs. Close to Harmony primary academy. Covered parking, laundry in the basement, free storage closet. Rent includes utilities. You pay for rubbish removal. Convenient to shopping centers and the airport. Older couple live downstairs. Please no noise after 9pm.
$6750/month
This stunning, five-bedroom lake house was designed with many green components. Other features include: exposed steel beams and concrete floors. Lower level includes massive home entertainment/media/exercise room. 3 car attached garage. Boat dock included for an extra fee. Pets ok.
Beautiful, historic home! $2750/month
Washing machine, high-speed internet and microwave. Two bedrooms and two bathrooms. Five-minute drive to downtown. Walking distance to book stores, central library and coffee shops. Farmer’s market right outside every Wednesday and Saturday. Electric and gas only $50 a month.
$1000/month - Live Near The Zoo
Be the first to live in this new 55m2 unit right next to a beautiful park and river walking trail - and the City Zoo! Features brand new everything - kitchen cabinets, appliance package with washing machine, wood floors, & tile bathroom. Storage and laundry conveniently on site. City center just a 20 minute drive away!
4© British Council. All rights reserved.
Questions 1-6
Look at the seven rental home advertisements A-G on page ___ and read the descriptions of the people below
Which is the most suitable rental home for people who….?
… do not want to pay separately for electricity and have a young child.
1. _____
…are students and prefer a unique place to live
2. _____
…live with their extended family and enjoy outdoor activities
3. _____
…are on a budget who and do not own transportation
4. _____
…often have guests and enjoy night life
5. _____
…enjoy cooking and prefer a secure place to live
6. _____
5© British Council. All rights reserved.
Read the text below and answer questions 7-14
Road Safety Tips - What to do if your vehicle is having problems
First, you should note your vehicle’s location. If you encounter a problem while driving, make sure you are aware of your surroundings and general location. Know where you are in relation to a major exit or cross street and look for lighted areas. If you are on an interstate highway, note the kilometre marker, last exit number or nearest rest area. Your next step is to assess the problem. While driving, be aware of and know how to respond to warning signs such as steering problems, unusual noises or steam or smoke coming from under the hood. If it’s a flat tire or you run out of gas, try not to panic. Signal, slow down gradually and carefully pull onto the shoulder of the road, avoiding any sudden moves.
Be careful when pulling off the road. On most roads, you should exit onto the far right shoulder, as far off the road as possible while remaining on level ground. If you are driving on an interstate or multiple-lane highway with islands or separations, you may consider the left shoulder, again pulling as far away from traffic as possible. If you exit the vehicle, never stand behind or directly in front of it to help avoid injuries if your car is struck by another vehicle. Also, Be sure to alert other drivers. Make sure your vehicle is visible to other drivers, remembering that they may be traveling at a high rate of speed. Then, turn on the emergency flashers, especially at night or during bad weather.
Finally, always communicate your situation. Once you and any passengers are in a safe location, inform others of your vehicle breakdown. Make note of your surroundings and any buildings or road signs. If you have a cell phone, immediately use it to call for help and make the call from inside your vehicle if you are safely out of traffic. Otherwise, do so at a safe distance from the vehicle and road. The most important thing is to remain with your vehicle at all times. Safety experts agree that under most circumstances if you are able to pull away from traffic, it is safest to remain in your vehicle until a police officer arrives.
6© British Council. All rights reserved.
Questions 7-14 Complete the sentences below Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the text for each answer Be aware of your location and try to spot 7. __________. Remain calm when dealing with minor issues, such as a 8. __________. You should always exit to the right side of the road, unless it has 9. __________. Since other cars are moving quickly, yours should be easily seen by10. __________. Let others know what happened to your car as soon as you are in 11. __________. If your car is stopped in traffic, only use your phone away from the 12. __________. and 13. __________ believe that it is best to stay inside your car and wait for a 14. __________.
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SECTION 2 Questions 15–28
Read the text below and answer Questions 15 - 21.
Leadership
Leaders help themselves and others to do the right things. They set direction, build an inspiring vision, and create something new. Leadership is about mapping out where you need to go to "win" as a team or an organization. Yet, while leaders set the direction, they must also use management skills to guide their people to the right destination, in a smooth and efficient way. An effective leader is a person who creates an inspiring vision of the future and motivates and inspires people to engage with that vision. They also manage delivery of the vision and coach and build a team so that it is more effective at achieving the vision.
In business, a vision is a realistic, convincing and attractive depiction of where you want to be in the future. Vision provides direction, sets priorities, and provides a marker, so that you can tell that you've achieved what you wanted to achieve. To create a vision, leaders focus on an organization's strengths by using a wide variety of tools and analyses. They have to think about how their industry is likely to evolve, and how their competitors are likely to behave. Leaders also feel it’s important to look at how they can innovate successfully and shape their businesses and strategies to succeed in future marketplaces. Therefore, leadership is proactive and leaders remain engaged in problem solving and looking ahead.
Once they have developed their visions, leaders must make them compelling and convincing. A compelling vision is one that people can see, feel and understand. Effective leaders provide a rich picture of what the future will look like when their visions have been realized. They tell inspiring stories, and explain their visions in ways that everyone can relate to. Leadership combines the analytical side of vision creation with the passion of shared values, creating something that's really meaningful to the people being led. While a compelling vision provides the foundation for leadership, it is the leaders'
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ability to consistently motivate and inspire people that helps them to deliver that vision.
For example, when you start a new project, you will probably have lots of enthusiasm for it at the beginning. However, it can be difficult to find ways to keep your vision inspiring after the initial enthusiasm fades. Leaders recognize this important fact, and they work hard throughout the project to connect their vision with people's individual needs, goals and aspirations.
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Questions 15-21
Choose the correct letter A, B or C.
15. What kind of ability do leaders use to ensure their workers are going in the right direction?
A. competition B. administration C. persuasion 16. Realizing a vision requires leaders to do what with teams? A. create B. deliver C. evolve 17. Why is it important for businesses to have a vision? A. it allows them to check their progress B. it exposes key weaknesses C. both A and B 18. Anticipating problems and focusing on the future are examples of what kind of behavior? A. attractive B. connective C. proactive 19. What should an inspiring vision be? A. detailed and easily understood B. communicated from the leader to their workers C. both A and B 20. A vision can become reality when a leader does what? A. makes their workers rich B. keeps their workers focused C. recognizes their workers’ importance 21. What is perhaps the most challenging part of keeping a vision alive? A. maintaining passion from beginning to end B. shaping a company’s strategy C. telling encouraging stories
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Read the text below and answer Questions 22-28.
Team Building Approaches
Team building refers to different types of activities that can improve social relations and define roles within teams. Team training, on the other hand, is designed to improve team efficiency, rather than the relationships between team members. Many team building exercises aim to expose and address problems between group members. That is why it is one of the pillars of organizational development. All types of groups, including sports teams, school classes, military units or flight crews all use it to improve performance. The formal definition of team building includes: aligning around goals, building effective working relationships, reducing team members' role confusion and finding solutions to team problems. Of all organizational activities, one study found team development to have the strongest effect for improving an organizations’ performance. A 2008 analysis found that team enhancement activities improve both a team's objective performance and that team's subjective ratings from their superiors. Improving a group’s ability to work together benefits the individual, their work unit and the organization as a whole.
There are four main approaches to team building: setting goals, role clarity, problem solving and inter personal (IP) relations. Goal setting emphasizes the importance of clear objectives and individual and team goals. Team members are involved in action planning to identify ways to define success and failure and achieve goals. This is intended to strengthen motivation and foster a sense of ownership. If work mates are involved in setting their own goals, it is more likely that they will achieve them. Teams can also measure their progress by identifying specific outcomes and tests of gradual success. Many organizations negotiate a team charter with the team leaders. This ensures that everyone’s efforts move in the same direction.
Role clarity focuses on improving team members' understanding of their own and others' respective roles and duties. This reduces confusion and promotes understanding of the importance of structure. It also places importance on members' support and the value of having each member focus on their own role in the team's success. Problem solving, on the other hand, focuses on identifying major problems within the team and working together to find solutions. This can have the added benefit of enhancing critical thinking. Finally, the field of IP relations tends to increase teamwork skills, such as giving and receiving support, communication and sharing. Teams with fewer IP conflicts generally function more effectively than others.
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Questions 22-28 Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text? Answer True, False, or Not Given to questions 15 - 21 22. Team building activities fix group members’ relationship problems. 23. Team building can be useful for athletic organizations but not pilots and plane officers. 24. Team participants make plans to accomplish their aims. 25. Setting general goals is the best way for team to monitor advancement. 26. Role clarity seeks to minimize doubt and define boundaries. 27. Team building has little impact on organizational effectiveness. 28. Teams focusing on inter personal (IP) relations tend to receive more awards.
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SECTION 3 Questions 29–40
Read the text below and answer questions 29 - 40
Caving
29. _____ Caving is the recreational pastime of exploring wild cave systems. In
contrast, “speleology” is the scientific study of caves and the cave environment. The
challenges involved in caving vary according to the cave being visited, but, in
addition to the total absence of light beyond the entrance, often include the
negotiation of steep angles, squeezes and water hazards. Cave diving is a distinct,
and more hazardous, specialty undertaken by a small minority of technically
proficient cavers. In an area of overlap between recreational pursuit and scientific
study, the most devoted and serious minded cavers become accomplished at the
surveying and mapping of caves and the formal publication of their efforts. Many
caving skills overlap with those involved in canyoning, as well as mine and urban
exploration. Sometimes categorized as an extreme sport, it is not commonly
considered as such by long-time enthusiasts, who may dislike the term for its
connotation of disregard for safety.
30. _____ Caving has also been described as an "individualist's team sport" by
some, as cavers can often make a trip without direct physical assistance from others
but will generally go in a group for companionship or to provide emergency help if
needed. Some, however, consider the assistance cavers give each other as a typical
team sport activity. Too much emphasis on the labeling of caving as a sport can
narrow the goals of caving as a whole. Caving is often undertaken for the enjoyment
of the outdoor activity or for physical exercise, as well as original exploration, similar
to mountaineering or diving. Caving often puts the needs and welfare of a cave
before those of the active participants. It is fair to say that while caving shares some
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attributes of sport activities, for many it goes beyond sports as many cavers pursue
cave science, mapping, and the management and conservation of cave resources.
31. _____ Physical or biological science is also an important goal for some cavers.
Virgin cave systems comprise some of the last unexplored regions on Earth and
much effort is put into trying to locate, enter and survey them. In well-explored
regions, the most accessible caves have already been explored, and gaining access
to new caves often requires cave digging or cave diving. Caving, in certain areas,
has also been utilized as a form of eco and adventure tourism. Tour companies have
established an industry leading and guided tours into and through caves. Depending
on the type of cave and the type of tour, the experience could be adventurous or
ecological. In many areas, there are tours led through lava tubes by a guiding
service. Exploring such structures is not without some element of risk.
32. _____ Caves can be dangerous places; dangerously low body temperature,
falling, flooding, falling rocks and physical exhaustion are the main risks. Rescuing
people from underground is difficult and time-consuming, and requires special skills,
training, and equipment. Hard hats are worn to protect the head from bumps and
falling rocks. The caver's primary light source is usually mounted on the helmet in
order to keep the hands free. Electric LED lights are most common. Many cavers
carry two or more sources of light - one as primary and the others as backup in case
the first fails. More often than not, a second light will be mounted to the helmet for
quick transition if the primary fails. Clothing is also of vital importance. The type of
clothes worn underground varies according to the environment of the cave being
explored, and the local culture. In cold caves, the caver may wear a warm base layer
that retains its insulating properties when wet, such as a fleece suit, and an over suit
of hard-wearing or waterproof material. Lighter clothing may be worn in warm caves,
particularly if the cave is dry, and in tropical caves thin clothing is used to provide
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some scratch protection whilst remaining as cool as possible. Other specialized
equipment, also used in climbing, is important to have on-hand.
33. _____ Ropes, for example, are used for descending or ascending pitches or for
protection. Knots commonly used in caving are the figure-of-eight-loop, bowline,
alpine butterfly, and Italian hitch. Ropes are usually rigged using bolts, slings, and
carabiners. In some cases cavers may choose to bring and use a flexible metal
ladder. In addition to the equipment already described, cavers frequently carry packs
containing first-aid kits, emergency equipment, and food. Containers for securely
transporting waste are also commonly carried. During very long trips, it may be
necessary to camp in the cave - some cavers have stayed underground for many
days, or in particularly extreme cases, for weeks at a time. This is particularly the
case when exploring or mapping very extended cave systems, where it would be
impractical to go back over the route back to the surface regularly.
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Questions 29-33 Select the most appropriate heading for each paragraph above from the heading options box. Write the letter of the heading next to each paragraph.
Questions 34-40
Complete the sentences below. Use NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer 34. Cave diving is only done by a _____ of very experienced cavers. 35. Cavers often explore caves without _____ from others. 36. Many people believe that caving _____ sports. 37. Some tour guides lead cavers through an adventurous tour of _____. 38. People wear _____ to protect their heads while caving. 39. Thin clothing is worn in _____ caves. 40. It is sometimes required to _____ in caves during long trips.
Heading Options
A. Be careful B. Caving for discovery C. Be prepared D. A responsible activity E. Caving explained F. Digging and diving G. Caving culture
1© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved.
ANSWERS Each question correctly answered scores 1 mark. Correct spelling is needed in all answers.
General Training Reading practice paper 1
SECTION 1
1. send a messenger
2. short bell rings
3. nearest staircase/stairs
4. (paved) quadrangle (area)/quad
5. (all) support staff/personnel
6. the (class) roll
7. all clear (signal)
8. (their) home-room groups
9. TRUE
10. FALSE
11. NOT GIVEN
12. NOT GIVEN
13. FALSE
14. TRUE
SECTION 2
15. vi
16. viii
17. v
18. x
19. ii
20. i
21. iii
22. final written warning
23. formal appeal hearing
24. B
25. E
26. D
27. C
28. A
SECTION 3
29. C
30. E
31. B
32. H
33. A
34. F
35. D
36. functional strength
37. mass monsters
38. injuries
39. weight training
40. cardiovascular health
1© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved.
ANSWERS Each question correctly answered scores 1 mark. Correct spelling is needed in all answers.
General Training Reading practice paper 2
SECTION 1
1. TRUE
2. FALSE
3. FALSE
4. NOT GIVEN
5. TRUE
6. TRUE
7. NOT GIVEN
8. A
9. B
10. C
11. C
12. B
13. C
14. A
SECTION 2
15. NOT GIVEN
16. TRUE
17. TRUE
18. FALSE
19. TRUE
20. FALSE
21. TRUE
22. ix
23. vi
24. ii
25. viii
26. v
27. iii
SECTION 3
28. E
29. H
30. C
31. B
32. F
33. D
34. locale (and) theme (in either
order; both required for one
mark)
35. (a) pivotal character / individual
activity
36. (the) visual field
37. character interaction
38. cost
39. promotional materials
40. unbalanced
1© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved.
ANSWERS Each question correctly answered scores 1 mark. Correct spelling is needed in all answers.
General Training Reading practice paper 3
SECTION 1
1. H
2. B
3. F
4. D
5. NOT GIVEN
6. FALSE
7. TRUE
8. NOT GIVEN
9. FALSE
10. minus 16 / -16
11. 20
12. 12
13. air dry
14. (compact) fluorescent
SECTION 2
15. TRUE
16. FALSE
17. NOT GIVEN
18. TRUE
19. TRUE
20. FALSE
21. TRUE
22. (tele)phone number
23. direct line
24. (just) listen / listen patiently
25. take notes
26. (unreservedly)
apologise/apologize
27. deliver
SECTION 3
28.–31. IN ANY ORDER
A
D
G
I
32. FALSE
33. TRUE
34. NOT GIVEN
35. FALSE
36. H
37. I
38. A
39. B
40. G
© British Council. All rights reserved. 1
ANSWERS Each question correctly answered scores 1 mark. Correct spelling is needed in all answers.
General Training Reading practice test 4
SECTION 1 1 crime 2 disadvantaged 3 signs 4 voice 5 area coordinator 6 group contact 7 civil emergency 8 FALSE 9 TRUE 10 FALSE 11 NOT GIVEN 12 FALSE 13 TRUE 14 NOT GIVEN
SECTION 2 15 the internet 16 an appointment 17 level of formality 18 mock interviews 19 physical evidence/original documents 20 contingency plan 21 C 22 E 23 A 24 D 25 C 26 B 27 A
SECTION 3 28 F 29 C 30 E 31 I 32 A 33 NOT GIVEN 34 FALSE 35 TRUE 36 TRUE 37 C 38 A 39 C 40 D
© British Council. All rights reserved. 1
ANSWERS Each question correctly answered scores 1 mark. Correct spelling is needed in all answers.
General Training Reading practice test 5
SECTION 1 1 FALSE 2 TRUE 3 TRUE 4 NOT GIVEN 5 TRUE 6 FALSE 7 NOT GIVEN 8 driving course 9 clean record 10 insurance (premiums) 11 scooters 12 taxi (or) limousine 13 registration plate 14 probation period
SECTION 2 15 D 16 A 17 D 18 B 19 C 20 B 21 viii 22 v 23 i 24 vii 25 x 26 iii 27 vi
SECTION 3 28 E 29 H 30 F 31 D 32 C 33 A 34 E 35 G 36 C 37 TRUE 38 TRUE 39 FALSE 40 NOT GIVEN
© British Council. All rights reserved. 1
ANSWERS
Each question correctly answered scores 1 mark. Correct spelling is needed in all answers.
General Training Reading practice test 6
SECTION 1
1 an honest mistake/a mistake
2 a time limit
3 written records
4 withdraw
5 contact details
6 writing
7 FALSE
8 TRUE
9 NOT GIVEN
10 TRUE
11 TRUE
12 FALSE
13 FALSE
14 FALSE
SECTION 2
15 content
16 key points
17 close bond
18 gesture/(hand/appropriate/effective) gestures
19 shoulders
20 calmness
21 (more) authoritative
22 public image
23 promotional information
24 special events
25 telephone (conversations)
26 any (given) proposal
27 (effective) mediation
SECTION 3
28 E
29 C
30 D
31 B
32 A
33 C
34 A
35 C
36 B
37 A
38 C
39 B
40 B
1© British Council. All rights reserved.
ANSWERS Each question correctly answered scores 1 mark. Correct spelling is needed in all answers. General Training Reading practice test 7 SECTION 1
1. G 2. C 3. E 4. H 5. F 6. A 7. D 8. C 9. A 10. C 11. B 12. A 13. B SECTION 2
14. C 15. A 16. F 17. D 18. H 19. B 20. G 21. fee-paying adult 22. strictly forbidden 23. guided tour / guided ranger tour 24. take them away 25. emergency phones 26. recyclable litter
SECTION 3
27. B 28. C 29. A 30. D 31. FALSE 32. NOT GIVEN 33. FALSE 34. TRUE 35. NOT GIVEN 36. TRUE 37. B 38. A 39. D 40. A
1© British Council. All rights reserved.
ANSWERS Each question correctly answered scores 1 mark. Correct spelling is needed in all answers. General Training Reading practice test 8 SECTION 1
1. E 2. H 3. D 4. B 5. F 6. G 7. A 8. habour 9. fish and chips 10. marine zoo 11. lighted staircase 12. for a walk / for a stroll 13. sunbathing 14. theatres SECTION 2
15. misinterpreted 16. compliment 17. pleasantry 18. request 19. repeat 20. sign-off 21. bold / aggressive 22. budget / limitations 23. trade 24. clues 25. suspend / cancel 26. patient 27. negotiating
SECTION 3
28. C 29. E 30. B 31. D 32. F 33. G 34. all correct 35. his hometown 36. 20th century 37. thumb, index finger 38. B 39. C 40. D
1© British Council. All rights reserved.
ANSWERS Each question correctly answered scores 1 mark. Correct spelling is needed in all answers. General Training Reading practice test 8 SECTION 1
1. D 2. F 3. E 4. B 5. C 6. A 7. lighted areas 8. flat tire 9. islands or separations 10. other drivers 11. a safe location 12. vehicle and road 13. safety experts 14. police officer SECTION 2
15. B 16. A 17. A 18. C 19. C 20. B 21. A 22. NOT GIVEN 23. FALSE 24. TRUE 25. FALSE 26. TRUE 27. FALSE 28. NOT GIVEN
SECTION 3
29. caving explained 30. a responsible activity 31. caving for discovery 32. be careful 33. be prepared 34. small minority 35. physical assistance 36. goes beyond 37. lava tubes 38. hard hats 39. tropical 40. camp