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© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved.

1

Candidate Number

Candidate Name ______________________________________________

INTERNATIONAL ENGLISH LANGUAGE TESTING SYSTEM

General Training Reading

PRACTICE TEST 1 hour

Time 1 hour

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

Do not open this question paper until you are told to do so.

Write your name and candidate number in the spaces at the top of this page.

Read the instructions for each part of the paper carefully.

Answer all the questions.

Write your answers on the answer sheet. Use a pencil.

You must complete the answer sheet within the time limit.

At the end of the test, hand in both this question paper and your answer sheet.

INFORMATION FOR CANDIDATES

There are 40 questions on this question paper.

Each question carries one mark.

© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved.

2

SECTION 1 Questions 1–14

Read the text below and answer Questions 1–8.

EMERGENCY PROCEDURESEMERGENCY PROCEDURESEMERGENCY PROCEDURESEMERGENCY PROCEDURES

Revised July 2011

T H I S A P P L I E S T O A L L P E R S O N S O N T H E S C H O O L C A M P U S

In cases of emergency (e.g. fire), find the nearest teacher who will:

send a messenger at full speed to the Office OR inform the Office via phone ext. 99.

PROCEDURE FOR EVACUATION

1. Warning of an emergency evacuation will be marked by a number of short bell

rings. (In the event of a power failure, this may be a hand-held bell or siren.)

2. All class work will cease immediately.

3. Students will leave their bags, books and other possessions where they are.

4. Teachers will take the class rolls.

5. Classes will vacate the premises using the nearest staircase. If these stairs are

inaccessible, use the nearest alternative staircase. Do not use the lifts. Do not

run.

6. Each class, under the teacher’s supervision, will move in a brisk, orderly

fashion to the paved quadrangle area adjacent to the car park.

7. All support staff will do the same.

8. The Marshalling Supervisor, Ms Randall, will be wearing a red cap and she

will be waiting there with the master timetable and staff list in her possession.

9. Students assemble in the quad with their teacher at the time of evacuation. The

teacher will do a head count and check the roll.

10. Each teacher sends a student to the Supervisor to report whether all students

have been accounted for. After checking, students will sit down (in the event

of rain or wet pavement they may remain standing).

11. The Supervisor will inform the Office when all staff and students have been

accounted for.

12. All students, teaching staff and support personnel remain in the evacuation

area until the All Clear signal is given.

13. The All Clear will be a long bell ring or three blasts on the siren.

14. Students will return to class in an orderly manner under teacher guidance.

15. In the event of an emergency occurring during lunch or breaks, students are to

assemble in their home-room groups in the quad and await their home-room

teacher.

© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved.

3

Questions 1–8

Complete the sentences below.

Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the text for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 1–8 on your answer sheet.

1 In an emergency, a teacher will either phone the office or ……………….. .

2 The signal for evacuation will normally be several ……………….. .

3 If possible, students should leave the building by the ……………….. .

4 They then walk quickly to the ……………….. .

5 ……………….. will join the teachers and students in the quad.

6 Each class teacher will count up his or her students and mark ……………….. .

7 After the ……………….. , everyone may return to class.

8 If there is an emergency at lunchtime, students gather in the quad

in ……………….. and wait for their teacher.

© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved.

4

Read the texts below and answer Questions 9–14.

Community Education

Short Courses: Business

Business Basics

Gain foundation knowledge for employment in an accounts position with

bookkeeping and business basics through to intermediate level; suitable for anyone

requiring knowledge from the ground up.

Code B/ED011

16th or 24th April 9am–4pm

Cost $420

Bookkeeping

This course will provide students with a comprehensive understanding of

bookkeeping and a great deal of hands-on experience.

Code B/ED020

19th April 9am–2.30pm (one session only so advance bookings essential)

Cost $250

New Enterprise Module

Understand company structures, tax rates, deductions, employer obligations, profit

and loss statements, GST and budgeting for tax.

Code B/ED030

15th or 27th May 6pm–9pm

Cost $105

Social Networking – the Latest Marketing Tool

This broad overview gives you the opportunity to analyse what web technologies are

available and how they can benefit your organisation.

Code B/ED033

1st or 8th or 15th June 6pm–9pm

Cost $95

Communication

Take the fear out of talking to large gatherings of people. Gain the public-speaking

experience that will empower you with better communication skills and confidence.

Code B/ED401

12th or 13th or 14th July 6pm–9pm

Cost $90

© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved.

5

Questions 9–14 Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text?

In boxes 9–14 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement agrees with the information

FALSE if the statement contradicts the information

NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

9 Business Basics is appropriate for beginners.

10 Bookkeeping has no practical component.

11 Bookkeeping is intended for advanced students only.

12 The New Enterprise Module can help your business become more profitable.

13 Social Networking focuses on a specific website to help your business succeed.

14 The Communication class involves speaking in front of an audience.

© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved.

6

SECTION 2 Questions 15–28

Questions 15–21

The text on the next page has seven sections, A–G.

Choose the correct heading for each section from the list of headings below.

Write the correct number, i–x, in boxes 15–21 on your answer sheet.

List of Headings

i How can reflection problems be avoided?

ii How long should I work without a break?

iii What if I experience any problems?

iv When is the best time to do filing chores?

v What makes a good seat?

vi What are the common health problems?

vii What is the best kind of lighting to have?

viii What are the roles of management and workers?

ix Why does a VDU create eye fatigue?

x Where should I place the documents?

15 Section A

16 Section B

17 Section C

18 Section D

19 Section E

20 Section F

21 Section G

© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved.

7

BENEFICIAL WORK PRACTICES FOR THE KEYBOARD OPERATOR

A Sensible work practices are an important factor in the prevention of muscular

fatigue; discomfort or pain in the arms, neck, hands or back; or eye strain which can

be associated with constant or regular work at a keyboard and visual display unit

(VDU).

B It is vital that the employer pays attention to the physical setting such as

workplace design, the office environment, and placement of monitors as well as the

organisation of the work and individual work habits. Operators must be able to

recognise work-related health problems and be given the opportunity to participate in

the management of these. Operators should take note of and follow the preventive

measures outlined below.

C The typist must be comfortably accommodated in a chair that is adjustable for

height with a back rest that is also easily adjustable both for angle and height. The

back rest and sitting ledge (with a curved edge) should preferably be cloth-covered to

avoid excessive perspiration.

D When the keyboard operator is working from a paper file or manuscript, it

should be at the same distance from the eyes as the screen. The most convenient

position can be found by using some sort of holder. Individual arrangement will vary

according to whether the operator spends more time looking at the VDU or the

paper – whichever the eyes are focused on for the majority of time should be put

directly in front of the operator.

E While keying, it is advisable to have frequent but short pauses of around thirty

to sixty seconds to proofread. When doing this, relax your hands. After you have been

keying for sixty minutes, you should have a ten minute change of activity. During this

spell it is important that you do not remain seated but stand up or walk around. This

period could be profitably used to do filing or collect and deliver documents.

F Generally, the best position for a VDU is at right angles to the window. If this

is not possible then glare from the window can be controlled by blinds, curtains or

movable screens. Keep the face of the VDU vertical to avoid glare from overhead

lighting.

G Unsatisfactory work practices or working conditions may result in aches or

pain. Symptoms should be reported to your supervisor early on so that the cause of the

trouble can be corrected and the operator should seek medical attention.

© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved.

8

Read the text below and answer Questions 22–28.

Workplace dismissals

Before the dismissal

If an employer wants to dismiss an employee, there is a process to be followed.

Instances of minor misconduct and poor performance must first be addressed through

some preliminary steps.

Firstly, you should be given an improvement note. This will explain the

problem, outline any necessary changes and offer some assistance in correcting the

situation. Then, if your employer does not think your performance has improved, you

may be given a written warning. The last step is called a final written warning which

will inform you that you will be dismissed unless there are improvements in

performance. If there is no improvement, your employer can begin the dismissal

procedure.

The dismissal procedure begins with a letter from the employer setting out the

charges made against the employee. The employee will be invited to a meeting to

discuss these accusations. If the employee denies the charges, he is given the

opportunity to appear at a formal appeal hearing in front of a different manager. After

this, a decision is made as to whether the employee will be let go or not.

Dismissals

Of the various types of dismissal, a fair dismissal is the best kind if an

employer wants an employee out of the workplace. A fair dismissal is legally and

contractually strong and it means all the necessary procedures have been correctly

followed. In cases where an employee’s misconduct has been very serious, however,

an employer may not have to follow all of these procedures. If the employer can prove

that the employee’s behaviour was illegal, dangerous or severely wrong, the employee

can be dismissed immediately: a procedure known as summary dismissal.

Sometimes a dismissal is not considered to have taken place fairly. One of

these types is wrongful dismissal and involves a breach of contract by the employer.

This could involve dismissing an employee without notice or without following

proper disciplinary and dismissal procedures. Another type, unfair dismissal, is when

an employee is sacked without good cause.

There is another kind of dismissal, known as constructive dismissal, which is

slightly peculiar because the employee is not actually openly dismissed by the

employer. In this case the employee is forced into resigning by an employer who tries

to make significant changes to the original contract. This could mean an employee

might have to work night shifts after originally signing on for day work, or he could

be made to work in dangerous conditions.

© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved.

9

Questions 22 and 23

Complete the sentences below.

Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the text for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 22–23 on your answer sheet.

22 If an employee receives a ……………….. , this means he will lose his job if his

work does not get better.

23 If an employee does not accept the reasons for his dismissal, a ………………..

can be arranged.

Questions 24–28

Look at the following descriptions (Questions 24–28) and the list of terms in the box

below.

Match each description with the correct term A–E.

Write the appropriate letter A–E in boxes 24–28 on your answer sheet.

24 An employee is asked to leave work straight away because he has done something really bad.

25 An employee is pressured to leave his job unless he accepts conditions that are

very different from those agreed to in the beginning. 26 An employer gets rid of an employee without keeping to conditions in the

contract. 27 The reason for an employee’s dismissal is not considered good enough. 28 The reasons for an employee’s dismissal are acceptable by law and the terms of

the employment contract.

A Fair dismissal

B Summary dismissal

C Unfair dismissal

D Wrongful dismissal

E Constructive dismissal

© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved.

10

SECTION 3 Questions 29–40

Read the text below and answer Questions 29–40.

CALISTHENICS The world’s oldest form of resistance training

A From the very first caveman to scale a tree or hang from a cliff face, to the

mighty armies of the Greco-Roman empires and the gymnasiums of modern

American high schools, calisthenics has endured and thrived because of its simplicity

and utility. Unlike strength training which involves weights, machines or resistance

bands, calisthenics uses only the body’s own weight for physical development.

B Calisthenics enters the historical record at around 480 B.C., with Herodotus’

account of the Battle of Thermopolylae. Herodotus reported that, prior to the battle,

the god-king Xerxes sent a scout party to spy on his Spartan enemies. The scouts

informed Xerxes that the Spartans, under the leadership of King Leonidas, were

practicing some kind of bizarre, synchronised movements akin to a tribal dance.

Xerxes was greatly amused. His own army was comprised of over 120,000 men,

while the Spartans had just 300. Leonidas was informed that he must retreat or face

annihilation. The Spartans did not retreat, however, and in the ensuing battle they

managed to hold Xerxes’ enormous army at bay for some time until reinforcements

arrived. It turns out their tribal dance was not a superstitious ritual but a form of

calisthenics by which they were building awe-inspiring physical strength and

endurance.

C The Greeks took calisthenics seriously not only as a form of military discipline

and strength, but also as an artistic expression of movement and an aesthetically ideal

physique. Indeed, the term calisthenics itself is derived from the Greek words for

beauty and strength. We know from historical records and images from pottery,

mosaics and sculptures of the period that the ancient Olympians took calisthenics

training seriously. They were greatly admired – and still are, today – for their

combination of athleticism and physical beauty. You may have heard a friend

whimsically sigh and mention that someone ‘has the body of a Greek god’. This

expression has travelled through centuries and continents, and the source of this envy

and admiration is the calisthenics method.

D Calisthenics experienced its second golden age in the 1800s. This century saw

© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved.

11

the birth of gymnastics, an organised sport that uses a range of bars, rings, vaulting

horses and balancing beams to display physical prowess. This period is also when the

phenomena of strongmen developed. These were people of astounding physical

strength and development who forged nomadic careers by demonstrating outlandish

feats of strength to stunned populations. Most of these men trained using hand

balancing and horizontal bars, as modern weight machines had not yet been invented.

E In the 1950s, Angelo Siciliano – who went by the stage name Charles Atlas –

was crowned “The World’s Most Perfectly Developed Man”. Atlas’s own approach

stemmed from traditional calisthenics, and through a series of mail order comic books

he taught these methods to hundreds of thousands of children and young adults

through the 1960s and 1970s. But Atlas was the last of a dying breed. The tides were

turning, fitness methods were drifting away from calisthenics, and no widely-regarded

proponent of the method would ever succeed him.

F In the 1960s and 1970s calisthenics and the goal of functional strength combined

with physical beauty was replaced by an emphasis on huge muscles at any cost. This

became the sport of body building. Although body building’s pioneers were drawn

from the calisthenics tradition, the sole goal soon became an increase in muscle size.

Body building icons, people such as Arnold Schwarzenegger and Sergio Oliva, were

called mass monsters because of their imposing physiques. Physical development of

this nature was only attainable through the use of anabolic steroids, synthetic

hormones which boosted muscle development while harming overall health. These

body builders also relied on free weights and machines, which allowed them to target

and bloat the size of individual muscles rather than develop a naturally proportioned

body. Calisthenics, with its emphasis on physical beauty and a balance in proportions,

had little to offer the mass monsters.

G In this “bigger is better” climate, calisthenics was relegated to groups perceived

to be vulnerable, such as women, people recuperating from injuries and school

students. Although some of the strongest and most physically developed human

beings ever to have lived acquired their abilities through the use of sophisticated

calisthenics, a great deal of this knowledge was discarded and the method was

reduced to nothing more than an easily accessible and readily available activity.

Those who mastered the rudimentary skills of calisthenics could expect to graduate to

weight training rather than advanced calisthenics.

H In recent years, however, fitness trends have been shifting back toward the use

of calisthenics. Bodybuilding approaches that promote excessive muscle development

frequently lead to joint pain, injuries, unbalanced physiques and weak cardiovascular

health. As a result, many of the newest and most popular gyms and programmes

emphasise calisthenics-based methods instead. Modern practices often combine

elements from a number of related traditions such as yoga, Pilates, kettle-ball training,

gymnastics and traditional Greco-Roman calisthenics. Many people are keen to

© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved.

12

recover the original Greek vision of physical beauty and strength and harmony of the

mind-body connection.

© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved.

13

Questions 29–35

The text has eight paragraphs, A–H.

Which paragraph contains the following information?

Write the correct letter, A–H, in boxes, 29–35 on your answer sheet.

29 The origin of the word ‘calisthenics’

30 The last popular supporter of calisthenics

31 The first use of calisthenics as a training method

32 A multidisciplinary approach to all-round health and strength

33 Reasons for the survival of calisthenics throughout the ages

34 The use of a medical substance to increase muscle mass and strength

35 A reference to travelling showmen who displayed their strength for audiences

© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved.

14

Questions 36–40

Complete the summary below.

Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the text for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 36–40 on your answer sheet.

During the sixties and seventies, attaining huge muscles became more important than

36 ……………….. or having an attractive-looking body. The first people to take up

this new sport of body building had a background in calisthenics but the most famous

practitioners became known as 37 ……………….. on account of the impressive size

of their muscles. Drugs and mechanical devices were used to develop individual

muscles to a monstrous size.

Calisthenics then became the domain of ‘weaker’ people: females, children and those

recovering from 38 ……………….. . Much of the advanced knowledge about

calisthenics was lost and the method was subsequently downgraded to the status of a

simple, user-friendly activity. Once a person became skilled at this, he would progress

to 39 ……………….. .

Currently a revival of calisthenics is under way as extreme muscle building can harm

the body leaving it sore, out of balance, and in poor 40 ……………….. .

1© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved.

Candidate Number

Candidate Name ______________________________________________

INTERNATIONAL ENGLISH LANGUAGE TESTING SYSTEM

General Training Reading

PRACTICE TEST 2 1 hour

Time 1 hour

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

Do not open this question paper until you are told to do so.

Write your name and candidate number in the spaces at the top of this page.

Read the instructions for each part of the paper carefully.

Answer all the questions.

Write your answers on the answer sheet. Use a pencil.

You must complete the answer sheet within the time limit.

At the end of the test, hand in both this question paper and your answer sheet.

INFORMATION FOR CANDIDATES

There are 40 questions on this question paper.

Each question carries one mark.

2© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved.

SECTION 1 Questions 1–14

Read the text below and answer Questions 1–7.

Volunteers

Thank you for volunteering to work one-on-one with some of the students at our

school who need extra help.

Smoking policy

Smoking is prohibited by law in the classrooms and anywhere on the school grounds.

Safety and Health

Volunteers are responsible for their own personal safety and should notify the school

of any pre-existing medical conditions. Prescription and any other medications that

you normally carry with you must be handed in to the school nurse on arrival and

collected on departure. If you require them, the nurse will dispense them to you in her

office.

Sign-in

A sign-in book is located at office reception. Please sign this register every time you

come to the school. This is important for insurance purposes and emergency situations.

After signing the book, collect a Visitor’s badge from the office. This must be worn at

all times when you are on school premises. Remember to return the badge afterwards.

Messages

Teachers will communicate with volunteers via telephone, email or messages left at

the office. Always ask for messages. You may communicate with teachers in the same

way – the preferred method is to leave a memo in the relevant teacher’s pigeonhole.

These can be found at the end of the corridor in the staffroom block.

Work hours

We understand that your time commitment is entirely voluntary and therefore flexible.

If your personal schedule should change and this affects your availability, please

contact the Co-ordinator for Volunteers at the school on extension 402; alternatively,

you could drop in to her office situated in F block.

Role of the Co-ordinator

The Co-ordinator is responsible for matching volunteer tutors with students,

organising tutorial rooms, ensuring student attendance and overseeing volunteer tutor

training. If you encounter any problems, contact her as above.

3© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved.

Questions 1–7

Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text on the

previous page?

In boxes 1–7 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement agrees with the information

FALSE if the statement contradicts the information

NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

1 As a volunteer, you will be helping students individually.

2 You may smoke in the playground.

3 You cannot take any medicine while at the school.

4 If you forget to sign the register, you won’t be insured for accidents.

5 The best way of communicating with teachers is in writing.

6 You can choose your own hours of work.

7 The co-ordinator keeps student attendance rolls.

4© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved.

Read the text below and answer Questions 8–14.

Minimal impact bushwalking Responsible campers observe minimal impact bushwalking practices. This is a code

of ethics and behaviour aimed at preserving the natural beauty of bushwalking areas.

Planning Good planning is the key to safe and successful camping trips. Obtaining a camping

permit in advance of leaving to camp out overnight in a national park is obligatory.

Bookings are also compulsory for some parks. There could be limits on group sizes

in some parks. Occasionally campsites may be closed owing to bushfire danger or

for other reasons. Always obtain permission from the owner prior to crossing private

property.

Equipment As well as your usual bushwalking gear, you will need the right equipment for

camping.

A fuel stove and fuel for cooking is essential: not only is it safer, faster and cleaner;

but it is easier to use in wet weather. It is recommended that you pitch a free-

standing tent which requires few pegs and therefore has less ecological impact. Take

a sleeping mat, if you have one, to put your sleeping bag on for a more comfortable

night’s sleep. You will also need a hand trowel to bury human waste – for proper

sanitation and hygiene.

Campfires The traditional campfire actually causes a huge amount of environmental damage. If

you gather firewood, you are removing the vital habitat of insects, reptiles, birds and

small mammals. When campfires lead to bushfires, they create enormous danger to

native bush inhabitants and bushwalkers alike and result in destruction of the

environment. Under no circumstances should you light a fire in the bush.

Campsites Erect your tent at an existing site if possible; otherwise try to find a spot where you

won’t damage vegetation. Never cut branches or move rocks or disturb the soil

unnecessarily. Aim to leave your campsite as you found it or even cleaner.

Rubbish Remove all rubbish – carry it out with you. Don’t attempt to burn or bury rubbish

because this creates a fire hazard and/or disturbs the soil. Animals can dig up buried

rubbish and scatter it about. Never feed the local wildlife – carry out all food scraps

as these disturb the natural nutrient balance and can create weed problems.

Walk safely Keep on the track. Wear footwear suitable for the terrain. Take a map.

5© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved.

Questions 8–14

The passage refers to three ways in which campers should behave.

Classify the following behaviours as something that campers

A Must do

B May do

C Must not do

Write the correct letter A, B or C, in boxes 8–14 on your answer sheet.

8 Get the landowner’s consent before walking across his land

9 Use a sleeping mat

10 Make a campfire in the bush

11 Feed the birds

12 Use a free-standing tent

13 Dig a hole to bury rubbish in

14 Get authorisation before setting out to camp in a national park

6© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved.

SECTION 2 Questions 15–27

Read the text below and answer Questions 15–21

Conditions of employment

Weekly hours of work – 40 hours per week at the ordinary hourly rate of pay for

most full-time employees, plus reasonable additional hours (penalty rates1 apply).

Part-time employees work a regular number of hours and days each week, but fewer

hours than full-time workers. Casual employees are employed on an hourly or daily

basis.

Entitlements (full-time employees):

Parental leave – up to 12 months’ unpaid leave for maternity, paternity and adoption

related leave.

Sick leave – up to 10 days’ paid sick leave per year; more than 4 continuous days

requires a medical certificate.

Annual leave – 4 weeks’ paid leave per annum, plus an additional week for shift

workers.

Public holidays – a paid day off on a public holiday, except where reasonably

requested to work. Employees working on public holidays are entitled to 15% above

their normal hourly rate.

Notice of termination – 2 weeks’ notice of termination (3 weeks if the employee is

more than 55 years old and has at least 2 years of continuous service)

Note:

The entitlements you receive will depend on whether you are employed on a full-time,

part-time or casual basis.

If you work part-time, you should receive all the entitlements of a full-time employee

but on a pro-rata or proportional basis.

If you are a casual worker, you do not have rights to any of the above entitlements nor

penalty payments. Casual workers have no guarantee of hours to be worked and they

do not have to be given advance notice of termination.

1 Penalty rate = a higher rate of pay to compensate for working overtime or outside normal hours e.g.

night-time or on public holidays.

7© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved.

Questions 15–21

Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text?

In boxes 15–21 on your answer sheet write

TRUE if the statement agrees with the information

FALSE if the statement contradicts the information

NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

15 Part-time workers are entitled to a higher rate of pay if they work more than

their usual number of hours per week.

16 Casual workers may be hired by the hour or by the day.

17 A full-timer who takes a year off to have a baby can return to the same

employer.

18 A full-time worker needs a doctor’s note if he is sick for 4 days in a row.

19 A full-time night-shift worker is entitled to 5 weeks’ paid holiday each year.

20 Any workers over 55 are entitled to 3 weeks’ notice of termination.

21 Casual workers can be dismissed without notice.

8© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved.

Questions 22–27

The text on the next page has six sections, A–F.

Choose the correct heading for each section, A–F, from the list of headings below.

Write the correct number, i–x, in boxes 22–27 on your answer sheet.

List of Headings

i Written communication

ii Clarity

iii Style

iv Research

v End of message

vi One point per email

vii Relevance

viii Specify the response you want

ix The subject line

x Internal emails

22 Section A

23 Section B

24 Section C

25 Section D

26 Section E

27 Section F

9© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved.

Writing Effective Emails

Follow these simple rules to make a

positive impression and get an

appropriate response.

A

Like a headline in a newspaper: it should

grab the recipient’s attention and specify

what the message is about – use a few

well-chosen words. If the email is one of

a series e.g. a weekly newsletter, include

the date in the subject line. Never leave

it blank.

B

If you need to email someone about

several different issues, write a separate

email for each subject. This allows the

recipient to reply to each one

individually in a timely manner. For

instance, one subject might be dealt with

quickly while another could involve

some research. If you have several

related points, put them all in the same

email but present each point in a

numbered or bulleted paragraph.

C

Your email should be clear and concise.

Sentences should be short and to the

point. The purpose of the message

should be outlined in the first paragraph

and the body should contain all of the

relevant information.

D

Be sure to include a ‘call to action’ – a

phone call or a follow-up appointment

perhaps. To ensure a prompt reply,

incorporate your contact information –

name, title, company, phone/fax

numbers or extensions, even your

business address if necessary. Even

internal messages must have contact

information.

E

Only use this technique for very short

messages or reminders where all the

relevant information can fit in the

subject line. Write EOM at the end of

the line to indicate that the recipient

doesn’t have to open the email.

F

Emails, even internal ones, should not be

too informal – after all, they are written

forms of communication. Use your spell-

check and avoid slang.

10© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved.

SECTION 3 Questions 28–40

Read the text below and answer Questions 28–40.

Making the CutMaking the CutMaking the CutMaking the Cut

When we talk about how films convey meaning we tend to refer to acting,

music, dialogue, props and narrative developments, but often forgotten is the visual

essence of a film itself, which is the cutting together of moving images – “motion

pictures” – each one carefully tailored to meet a particular need or purpose.

Most films and many important scenes within them open with an establishing

shot. Typically this shot precedes our introduction to the main characters by

presenting us with the locale in which the scene’s action or dialogue is about to occur.

Occasionally, however, a director will use an establishing shot with another goal in

mind. An opening view of a thousand soldiers parading in synchronized fashion might

have little to reveal about the film’s geography, for example, but it does inform the

audience that ideas about discipline and conformity are likely to arise in the material

that follows. In this way, establishing shots can also introduce a film’s theme.

After an establishing shot, most directors choose a long shot in order to

progress the narrative. This type of shot displays the entire human physique in relation

to its surroundings, so it is ideal for bridging the narrative divide between location and

individual activity. A long shot is therefore often used to centre on a pivotal character

in the scene. A film might begin with an establishing shot of bleak, snowy mountains

and then cut to a long shot of a lone skier, for example, or a sweeping panorama of a

bustling metropolis could segue into a street view of someone entering a building.

From here the door is wide open for directors to choose whichever shots will

enhance the narration. Close-up shots are popular in suspense sequences – a handgun

being loaded, a doorknob being turned, the startled expression of someone freshly

roused from sleep. Confining the visual field in this way adds to the viewer’s

apprehension. Dramatic films will probably want to emphasise character interaction.

The third-person shot – in which a third of the frame consists of a rear view of a

person’s upper torso and head – can be effectively utilised here. This shot encourages

11© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved.

us to actually slip into the persona of that character, and vicariously live through their

experiences.

A number of special-purpose shots are used quite rarely – once, if at all, in

most films. One such type is the money shot. A money shot has no specific technical

features or content, but is typically the most expensive element of a film’s production

values and comes with a cost massively disproportionate to its screen time (which

may be limited to just a brief glimpse). Because of its spectacular, extravagant nature,

however, the money shot is a major revenue generator and is widely exploited for use

in promotional materials. Money shots are most popular amongst – but not limited

to – high visual-impact genres such as action, war, thriller and disaster films.

But more affordable shots can also add an interesting twist to the story. The

Dutch tilt can depict a character in a state of psychological unease by shooting them

from a jaunty angle. In this way they appear literally and metaphorically unbalanced.

A trunk shot often shows a small group of characters peering into the trunk of a

vehicle. It is filmed from a perspective within the trunk itself, although frequently to

avoid camera damage directors will simply place a detached piece of trunk door in the

corner of the frame. This shot was a favourite of Quentin Tarantino and has been used

in many crime and gangster films, often as a first-person shot through the eyes of

someone who is tied up and lying inside the vehicle. A shot that has gained traction in

avant-garde circles is the extreme close-up. This is when a single detail of the subject

fills up the entire frame. Alfred Hitchcock famously used an extreme close-up in

‘Psycho’, when he merged a shot of a shower drain into a view of a victim’s eye. It

has also been used in Westerns to depict tension between duelling gunmen eyeing

each other up before a shoot out.

Not all types of shots are used in order to enhance the narrative. Sometimes

financial restrictions or technical limitations are a more pressing concern, especially

for low-budget film makers. In the early murder mysteries of the 1920s and 1930s, the

American shot – which acquired its name from French critics who referred to a “plan

américain” – was used widely for its ability to present complex dialogue scenes

without alterations in camera position. Using the American shot, directors have their

cast assemble in single file while discussing key plot points. The result is an

efficiently produced scene that conveys all relevant information, but the trade off is a

natural tone. Because few people in real life would ever associate in such an awkward

manner, American shots tend to result in a hammy, stiff feel to the production.

12© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved.

Questions 28-33

Look at the following descriptions (Questions 28–33) and the list of terms below.

Match each description with the correct term, A–J.

Write the correct letter, A–J, in boxes 28–33 on your answer sheet.

28 A group of people, full length body shot

29 Two people, only one facing camera, head and shoulders shot

30 Distance shot of central city, from the air

31 A single person, head and shoulders, off-centre angle shot

32 Lone pedestrian, walking a city street

33 A flaming bus, about to crash

List of Terms

A Trunk shot

B Dutch tilt

C Establishing shot

D Money shot

E American shot

F Long shot

G Extreme close-up

H Third-person shot

I First-person shot

J Close-up

13© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved.

Questions 34-37

Answer the questions below:

Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 34–37 on your answer sheet.

34 Which TWO aspects of story can be shown with an establishing shot?

35 What does a long shot focus our attention on?

36 What do close-ups restrict in order to make audiences nervous?

37 What does a third-person shot place importance on?

Questions 38–40

Complete the summary below.

Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the text for each answer.

Some shots are not used very often. Money shots have a high

38 ………………… considering that they only last for a few seconds. The money

shot brings in a lot of money, however, and is an important part of the film’s

39 ………………….

Other, less expensive shots can still be fascinating: a character can be made to

seem 40 ………………… in both mind and body when filmed with a Dutch tilt, for

instance.

14© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved.

1© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved.

Candidate Number

Candidate Name ______________________________________________

INTERNATIONAL ENGLISH LANGUAGE TESTING SYSTEM

General Training Reading

PRACTICE TEST 3 1 hour

Time 1 hour

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

Do not open this question paper until you are told to do so.

Write your name and candidate number in the spaces at the top of this page.

Read the instructions for each part of the paper carefully.

Answer all the questions.

Write your answers on the answer sheet. Use a pencil.

You must complete the answer sheet within the time limit.

At the end of the test, hand in both this question paper and your answer sheet.

INFORMATION FOR CANDIDATES

There are 40 questions on this question paper.

Each question carries one mark.

2© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved.

SECTION 1 Questions 1–14

Read the text below and answer Questions 1–9.

ENROLMENT IN THE SELF-ACCESS CENTRE (SAC)

Who can enrol? Any permanent or temporary migrant (anyone on a student visa

is only eligible if an individual exemption is granted).

Where to enrol? The Advance School of English

4th floor, J Block, Main Campus

120 Portsmith Road, PORTSMITH

How to enrol? Ask at the ESOL Enquiries Counter (Room 404, 4th floor, J

Block)

What does it cost? $0.50 per hour for holders of concession cards

$1.00 per hour for permanent visas (casual)

$5.00 per hour for temporary visas (casual)

How many hours? You can choose how many hours per week or per month you

attend. A concession card is issued to anyone on a permanent

visa who wishes to pay for a minimum of 50 hours in advance

(50 hours x 50c = $25). All other visitors to the SAC are

charged the higher casual fee.

What does enrolment in the SAC give access to?

� All books, CDs, DVDs, and CALL materials (CALL = computer assisted

language learning). A booking system is used with resources in high demand.

� Speaking practice with Conversation Tutors:

Monday–Thursday: 11.30 a.m.–1.30 p.m. / Friday: 12.30–3 p.m.

� Word processing – a self-paced, internet-based program

Tuesday: 9 a.m. – 3 p.m.

Wednesday: 1 p.m. – 3 p.m.

Thursday: 9 a.m. – 3 p.m.

Who can help? The SAC Manager and SAC facilitators (who are all ESOL

teachers) are on duty every day from 9 a.m. – 3 p.m.

Procedure: First, enrol (as above).

Register your attendance at the SAC Information Desk when

you arrive – please note: you pay for a minimum of 2 hours

each time.

3© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved.

Use the SAC any day or time that suits YOU!

Questions 1–4

Complete each sentence with the correct ending, A–H, below.

Write the correct letter, A–H, in boxes 1–4 on your answer sheet.

1 Students on a student visa need special permission to be able to

2 Students who want to enrol in the SAC should

3 Only permanent migrants can

4 Temporary migrants must

A enrol in the School of English

B go to room 404 in J Block

C have access to DVDs

D pay more per visit

E pay their fees at the Enquiries Counter

F purchase a concession card

G reserve popular materials

H use the SAC

4© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved.

Questions 5–9

Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text?

In boxes 5–9 on your answer sheet write

TRUE if the statement agrees with the information

FALSE if the statement contradicts the information

NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

5 The tutors who take conversation groups are not paid.

6 Conversation tutors are unavailable on Wednesdays.

7 Students cannot access the word processing program on Wednesday

morning.

8 The SAC facilitators are also teachers at the Advance School of English.

9 Students cannot use the SAC for more than two hours at a time.

5© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved.

Read the text below and answer Questions 10–14.

Home appliances

� Refrigerator

Turn the thermostat down so that your refrigerator temperature is around 3 degrees C

and the freezer is as close to minus 16 degrees as possible. Check the door seals for a

tight fit and leave the door open for no longer than absolutely necessary. These

appliances account for about 20% of household electricity.

� Water cylinder

Turn down the thermostat to 60o (or even 50o is usually sufficient). This is also a

much safer temperature for water – it reduces the likelihood of a household member

getting scalded when using a hot tap.

� Washing machine

Use cold water – around 20 degrees. Anything less than 15 degrees is too cold and

won’t get your laundry clean. Only start the machine when it is full and when possible

hang your laundry outside instead of using a dryer.

� Dishwasher

Only use it when it is full and turn off the drying cycle – allowing the contents to air

dry will save 20% of the dishwasher’s total energy use.

Home heating & cooling

� Thermostat settings

In winter, set the temperature at 20 degrees during the day and reduce it to 12 degrees

before you go to bed. You can save energy by wearing an extra layer of clothing or

putting another blanket on the bed. In summer, use blinds and drapes to keep the sun

out and don’t set your thermostat lower than 24.

� Filters

Clean air filters regularly – energy is wasted when air conditioners have to work

harder to draw air through dirty filters.

A small investment

� Compact fluorescent lights

These cost more initially but they use only 25% of the energy of an incandescent light

bulb and they last ten times longer.

6© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved.

Questions 10–14

Complete the sentences below.

Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER from the text for

each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 10–14 on your answer sheet.

10 The most energy-efficient temperature for ensuring food stays frozen

is ………………… degrees C.

11 You can get your clothes clean quite economically by washing them in

water no hotter than ………………… degrees C.

12 On a cold night you can save energy and still stay warm by setting your

heater’s thermostat at ………………… degrees C.

13 Letting your dishes ………………… saves energy.

14 Buying ………………… light bulbs costs less in the long term.

7© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved.

SECTION 2 Questions 15–27

Read the text below and answer Questions 15–21.

Company Dress Code Policy

Policy Statement

Employees are representatives of the company and should dress appropriately. It is

recognised that employees dealing with customers should dress accordingly, whereas

those working in the office, laboratories or warehouses should dress in a manner

consistent with the nature of their work and Health and Safety regulations.

Dress Code Requirements

An employee’s schedule of duties should largely determine his or her work attire. The

company’s objective is to allow employees to work comfortably, so smart-casual

attire is the standard except in the following circumstances:

- When employees are meeting with clients, community visitors or interviewing

candidates, in order to project a professional image, they should dress in a

conventional business-like manner.

- Employees must abide by the safety procedures of their departments and wear

whatever protective clothing and/or safety equipment is necessary.

In the Laboratory

- Long-sleeved shirts and trousers offer the best protection. Shorts and short skirts

do not give adequate protection to your legs.

- Loose-fitting clothing and long hair may create a fire hazard when burners are in

use: loose-fitting clothing is unacceptable but long hair can be secured with a

rubber band.

- Sandals and open-toed shoes are not suitable footwear.

- Clothing such as ties, scarves or long jewelry, which could droop in chemicals or

a flame, should be removed.

- Hair spray is highly flammable and should not be used before entering the lab.

- Synthetic fingernails are also highly flammable and therefore not permissible.

In the Warehouse

- Dress codes for warehouse employees are also based on safety concerns: thus the

requirement for steel-toed boots and durable trousers (jeans are acceptable) or

overalls. Workers may wear T-shirts as long as they conform to the rules.

8© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved.

Inappropriate clothing

- Sport-related clothing including T-shirts or ties with slogans or club insignia

- T-shirts or tops displaying offensive pictures or bad language

- Revealing clothing that exposes too much cleavage, your back, chest, feet,

stomach or your underwear

- Wrinkled, torn, dirty, or frayed clothing

Some common issues – piercings, tattoos, hairstyle, jewellery

- Any jewellery that could pose a safety hazard for employees operating machinery

must be removed.

- Employees wearing a ‘business’ standard of dress may be asked to remove certain

piercings (such as nose and eyebrow rings) and cover up tattoos.

- Hairstyles should always be tidy and hair should never hang over the eyes.

All employees of the company should adhere to the dress code policy at all times.

9© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved.

Questions 15–21

Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text?

In boxes 15–21 on your answer sheet write

TRUE if the statement agrees with the information

FALSE if the statement contradicts the information

NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

15 The company wants its workers to wear comfortable clothes.

16 Employees dealing with external visitors should wear smart-casual attire.

17 Lab workers must keep their fingernails short.

18 Sturdy footwear is compulsory for warehouse workers.

19 Clothing should always be clean and pressed.

20 Machine operators must remove all jewellery.

21 Employees who come into contact with customers must not have visible

tattoos.

10© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved.

Read the text below and answer Questions 22–27

Customer service – tips for handling complaints Many complaints are made by telephone. In this case, there is a simple 7-step

procedure to follow. At the outset, you should make a note of the person’s phone

number and explain that you have done this in case the call should be disconnected

for any reason. Getting cut off is a major source of upset and distress, so

demonstrating that you have guarded against this is a positive first step. This is

especially important if the customer has been transferred, made to wait or if there

have been previous attempts at resolving the problem.

State your name clearly because customers are tired of automated answer-

phone menu systems and anonymous voices at the end of the line. You should also

provide the customer with your direct line so that he feels he can make contact with

you quickly and easily in the future. Establishing fast personal responsibility in this

way is another positive step.

Explain to the customer that you will deal with the issue until it is resolved.

Your making a personal commitment to do this lightens the pressure on a frustrated

customer. Once you have done this, just listen – be sure to listen with empathy and

feeling – and let the customer unload his problem. He is most likely feeling very

angry and exasperated and you can help him calm down and make him feel better by

listening patiently and trying to understand how he feels.

Take notes – get the facts and write them down, even if it takes time. The

customer will appreciate this as it shows you are treating his problem seriously and

with respect. Asking the person to focus on the facts can also help defuse an

emotional situation.

If the complaint is justified and shows that our company’s product is defective

or our service is to blame, then you should immediately acknowledge the problem and

unreservedly apologise. Finally, quickly move on to settling the issue. However, it is a

mistake to guarantee remedial action or compensation that you or the company will be

unable to deliver.

11© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved.

Questions 22–27

Complete the flow-chart below.

Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the text for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 22–27 on your answer sheet.

12© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved.

SECTION 3 Questions 28–40

Read the text below and answer Questions 28–40.

Walking on WaterWalking on WaterWalking on WaterWalking on Water

The availability of groundwater has always been taken for granted by

Australians. Groundwater supplies have in prior times been perceived as a resource of

infinite bounds – the prevailing mindset was “out of sight, out of mind”. This has all

changed with the modern epoch. Persistent neglect has resulted in numerous

complications for groundwater users, and many interest groups have a great stake in

its management and allocation. Over-allocation of surface water and persistent water

shortages mean that reliance on groundwater supplies is expected to swell over the

coming years.

The main point of concern now is whether or not a groundwater source can

deliver a sustainable yield. This relies on a proper management of discharge (outflow)

and recharge (inflow) rates. Discharge occurs when humans extract water, as well as

through vegetation and evaporation into the atmosphere. Sustainable use therefore

depends on more than keeping within the recharge rate; if humans use water at

precisely the recharge rate, discharge through other ways can be adversely affected.

Queensland has been one of the most active states in managing groundwater

supplies. This is because the territory sits atop the Great Artesian Basin (GAB), an

expansive underwater aquifer1 that covers nearly one-fifth of the Australian continent.

This resource has long been used by indigenous people and outback communities,

particularly in times of drought (when surface water could dry up for hundreds of

kilometres on end). Since farmers at Kerribee pioneered the use of bores2 in the

country, the number has spiralled beyond sustainable levels and caused water pressure

and flow rates across the region to decline. Furthermore, estimates indicate that 80 per

cent of GAB outflow is wasted because of inefficient and out-dated delivery systems.

Open drains used to keep livestock hydrated are a particular scourge – much water is

lost due to seepage and evaporation.

1 A layer of rock, sand or gravel through which groundwater flows 2 Holes drilled deep into the ground

13© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved.

A number of initiatives have been undertaken to help stem this problem. The

Queensland Government declared in 2005 a moratorium3 on issuing new licences for

water extraction from the GAB. A strategy group known as the Great Artesian Basin

Consultative Council has also published a management plan that involves capping

some bores (to prevent further declines in pressure) and rehabilitating hundreds of

other bores and bore drains with troughs and polyester piping (to prevent water

seeping into the earth).

It is now also apparent that corruption of groundwater supplies by humans is

going to be an issue to contend with. In 2006, thousands of Sydney residents had their

groundwater usage curtailed due to industrial pollution of the Botany Sands aquifer.

Bore water for any domestic purposes has since been off limits due to chemical

seepage from an estimated eight industrial sites.

Nevertheless, groundwater plans continue apace. Development of a

controversial desalinisation plant has been postponed indefinitely while the feasibility

of exploiting two aquifers near Sydney is explored. Authorities intend to use the

aquifers to provide up to thirty gigalitres of water a year during dry spells and then

leave them alone to replenish during higher rainfall years. But the proposed scheme is

riddled with difficulties: low flow rates are hampering extraction; replenishment rates

are lower than expected; and salinity imbalances caused by the procedure could wreak

havoc on efforts to preserve wetland flora and fauna ecosystems that rely on a

plentiful, clean and steady supply of water from the aquifers.

It is not too late to turn groundwater into a sustainable resource. Groundwater

is renewable through surface run off (and, at a much slower rate, in organic springs

where it is literally drip fed through rock on its way to the aquifers). At present,

however, experts believe excessive amounts of ground water are being squandered on

aesthetic projects such as keeping parks, gardens and golf courses green.

Aside from more judicious use of groundwater, many experts also believe that

we need to look at harnessing other potential sources in order to meet our water needs.

During rainy seasons, for example, urban areas are inundated with storm water and

flash flooding that can bring cities to a standstill. Better storm water control

mechanisms could potentially capture and preserve this rainwater for use at a later

date.

3 A stop, postponement or delay

14© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved.

Questions 28-31

Choose FOUR letters, A–J.

Write the correct letter, A–J, in boxes 28–31 on your answer sheet.

The writer mentions a number of uses of groundwater in Australia. Which FOUR of the following uses are mentioned by the writer of the text?

A Maintaining recreational areas

B Helping sewer systems function

C Providing opportunities for underground adventure sports

D Supporting wildlife habitats

E Storing excess amounts of surface water in cities

F Naturally removing salt content from water

G Personal household use

H Forming hot springs for bathing

I Providing water for animals

J Dumping toxic waste products

Questions 32-35

Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text?

In boxes 32–35 on your answer sheet write

TRUE if the statement agrees with the information

FALSE if the statement contradicts the information

NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

32 Australians have always seen groundwater as a precious resource.

33 Use of groundwater is predicted to increase.

34 Humans cannot alter the recharge rate of groundwater.

35 Using water at the recharge rate or lower will ensure sustainable use.

15© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved.

Questions 36–40

Complete each sentence with the correct ending, A–J, below.

Write the correct letter, A–J, in boxes 36–40 on your answer sheet.

36 Outback communities

37 Farmers at Kerribee station

38 In 2005, Queensland authorities

39 The Great Artesian Basin Consultative Committee

40 Some residents in Sydney

A took action to stop more people from being able to use

groundwater.

B released a plan to improve bores and lessen wasted water.

C used groundwater to create artificial rivers.

D began a formal register to control access to groundwater.

E decreased the amount of water in movement.

F used their bore holes to dispose of waste products.

G were prevented from using ground water due to contamination.

H relied on ground water during long periods of dry weather.

I were the first to use a bore in Australia.

© British Council. All rights reserved. 1

Candidate Number

Candidate Name ______________________________________________

INTERNATIONAL ENGLISH LANGUAGE TESTING SYSTEM

General Training Reading PRACTICE TEST 1 hour

Time 1 hour INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES Do not open this question paper until you are told to do so.

Write your name and candidate number in the spaces at the top of this page.

Read the instructions for each part of the paper carefully.

Answer all the questions.

Write your answers on the answer sheet. Use a pencil.

You must complete the answer sheet within the time limit.

At the end of the test, hand in both this question paper and your answer sheet.

INFORMATION FOR CANDIDATES

There are 40 questions on this question paper.

Each question carries one mark.

© British Council. All rights reserved. 2

SECTION 1 Questions 1–14 Read the text below and answer Questions 1–7.

Neighbourhood  Support  

Neighbourhood  Support  aims  for  a  safer,  more  caring  community  by  encouraging  

neighbours  to  talk  to  each  other  and  by  educating  and  empowering  people  to  take  

responsibility  for  their  own  safety.  Sharing  information  can  reduce  the  risk  and  fear  of  

crime.  A  local  group  is  formed  to  provide  a  means  for  residents  to  meet  and  develop  a  

supportive  and  secure  environment  for  everyone,  particularly  the  young,  elderly  and  

disadvantaged.  The  group  tries  to  prevent  the  occurrences  of  crime  in  the  

neighbourhood  by  erecting  signs  to  inform  likely  criminals  that  neighbours  watch  over  

one  another’s  properties.  Enhancing  the  safety  features  and  appearance  of  the  

neighbourhood  can  be  an  effective  way  to  minimise  burglaries  and  car  crime  in  the  local  

area.  

Neighbourhood  Support  provides  a  common  voice  for  dealing  with  local  issues  such  as  

graffiti,  traffic  problems,  play  areas  and  street  lighting  issues.  Of  course,  not  everyone  in  

the  street  will  want  to  join.  Only  those  who  want  protection  and  support  are  included.  

Groups  vary  in  size  from  three  to  ten  homes  within  sight  of  one  another.  There  is  no  cost  

involved  and  the  area  coordinator  keeps  everyone  up  to  date  with  what  is  happening  in  

the  community.  Information  kits  are  provided  to  help  set  up  each  group.  Usually  one  

member  is  nominated  to  be  the  group  contact  but  this  role  can  be  shared.  

Neighbourhood  Support  can  also  help  people  to  deal  with  and  survive  a  civil  emergency,  

such  as  an  earthquake  or  a  flood,  by  being  prepared  as  a  group.    

© British Council. All rights reserved. 3

Questions 1–7

Complete the summary below.

Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the text for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 1–7 on your answer sheet.

Neighbourhood Support fosters communication among neighbours, giving them confidence

to take charge of their own safety, and lessening their anxiety about 1 ……………. Small

groups of residents work together to make their streets safer, especially for children, the

2 … ………… and old people. Usually, 3 …………… are put up and the safety aspects of the

neighbourhood are improved.

Neighbourhood Support presents a unified 4 …………… when it comes to managing local

problems. Membership of a group is free and voluntary and members are kept informed by

the 5 …………… . However, one member is appointed as the 6 …………… person.

An organised group of Neighbourhood Support residents are also better able to cope with

various types of 7…………… .

© British Council. All rights reserved. 4

Read the text below and answer Questions 8–14.

School  Disciplinary  Procedures  

 

Three  types  of  behaviour  can  result  in  the  suspension  of  a  student  from  school.  Often  it  may  be  a  

combination  of  two  or  even  all  three:  

v Gross  misconduct  that  is  damaging  or  dangerous  –  a  very  serious  one-­‐off  incident  

v A  pattern  of  disobedience  that  is  a  harmful  or  dangerous  example  to  other  students  

v There  is  the  likelihood  of  someone  being  seriously  hurt  if  the  offending  student  is  not  

removed  

When  a  student  has  misbehaved,  the  disciplinary  process  gets  underway  with  an  investigation  by  

the  principal  of  what  actually  happened.  Suspension  does  not  inevitably  follow,  even  if  school  

rules  have  been  violated.  It  depends  on  whether  any  of  the  points  mentioned  above  can  be  

proven.  The  outcome  of  the  enquiry  could  be  that  the  student  stays  at  school,  but  with  some  

form  of  punishment  such  as  cleaning  the  grounds  or  detention.    However,  students  cannot  be  

detained  outside  school  hours  without  parental  consent.  

For  serious  misdemeanours,  there  are  several  options.  The  first  is  a  stand-­‐down:  removal  from  

school  for  a  fixed  period  of  not  more  than  five  days  per  school  term  or  ten  days  per  year.  The  

parents  have  to  be  notified  and  given  the  reasons  in  writing.  

The  second  option  is  suspension.  The  principal  decides  to  suspend  the  student  from  school  until  

the  board  of  governors  meets  to  discuss  the  case.  Parents  must  be  kept  fully  informed  and  will  

be  given  all  the  information  that  the  board  will  consider.  Generally,  the  board  will  meet  within  

ten  days  and  the  parents  have  the  right  to  be  at  the  meeting,  with  or  without  a  support  person,  

and  to  be  heard  by  the  board  before  a  decision  is  made.  If  the  board  decides  to  exclude  a  

student  who  is  under  sixteen,  the  principal  must  try  to  arrange  for  enrolment  in  another  school.  

Expulsion  is  the  harshest  punishment,  but  it  can  only  apply  to  students  aged  sixteen  or  over.  In  

such  cases,  there  is  no  obligation  on  the  principal  to  find  another  school.  

It  should  be  noted  that  school  discipline  is  not  confined  to  misbehaviour  in  the  school  itself,  but  

can  extend  to  school  trips,  school  buses,  even  downtown  –  if  the  student  is  in  school  uniform.

Questions 8–14  

© British Council. All rights reserved. 5

Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text on the previous

page?

In boxes 8–14 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement agrees with the information

FALSE if the statement contradicts the information

NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

8 A student cannot be suspended unless the bad behaviour is continual.

9 A student can be suspended even if no one has actually been harmed yet.

10 Breaking school rules is grounds for automatic suspension.

11 After-school detention is the punishment preferred by most parents.

12 A stand-down is for a minimum of five days each school term.

13 Parents can speak at the board meeting to discuss suspension.

14 Schooling is compulsory for children until they turn sixteen.

© British Council. All rights reserved. 6

SECTION 2 Questions 15–27

Read the text below and answer Questions 15–20.

Preparing for an interview

Congratulations! You’ve made it to the interview stage! Now is your opportunity to show

that you have the skills, experience and personal attributes necessary for the job. Before

the interview, do your research. Learn more about the public profile of the organisation

and its products or services. You could do this through the internet, company brochures

or business publications. Talk to anyone you know who has worked for the organisation.

It is advantageous to visit the workplace, too. Arrange to do this openly by making an

appointment. It shows you are eager, even if the visit is not feasible. When you visit,

make sure you have prepared appropriate questions and are well groomed and well

dressed. You should aim to discover more about the size of the company, their products

and key markets. You should get a good idea of the dress code and what level of

formality is required with regard to workplace communication, and also how members of

staff address one another. Above all, ascertain where the interview will take place.

Predict what the interviewer might ask and prepare possible answers by reviewing the

application form, the information package (if one was supplied) and the job description.

Boost your self-assurance by practising mock interviews with a friend or family member.

Have your physical evidence organised and ready to show the employer. He or she will

want to sight original documents: diplomas and certificates (with official translations),

work or residence visas (if applicable), etc.

Finally, prepare a neat and tidy outfit and decide how you will get to the interview on the

day. It is a good idea to make a contingency plan for unforeseen events – in any case,

allow for extra time so that you are not rushed. Avoid becoming flustered at the actual

interview by anticipating all sorts of eventualities. For example, you may be asked to take

a test of some kind (a skills or aptitude test for instance); you may be asked to solve a

hypothetical problem, take part in a group activity or confront a whole panel of

interviewers instead of just one.

Good luck!

 

© British Council. All rights reserved. 7

Questions 15–20

Complete the notes below.

Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the text for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 15–20 on your answer sheet.

Before the interview

Research:

• Find out more about the company by using 15 ……………, reading published

material or talking to people.

• Set up 16 …………… to see the workplace. Present yourself well.

When you visit:

• Ask relevant questions

• Notice what employees wear and the 17 …………… they use when speaking at

work.

• Find out location of interview.

Prepare for the interview:

• How will you answer questions? Arrange 18 …………… to gain more confidence.

• Sort out all your 19 …………… for the employer to inspect.

On the day:

• Dress neatly.

• Set off for the interview with plenty of time to spare and have a 20 …………… in case

something unexpected happens.

• Stay calm – anticipate possible requests  

 

 

 

.

© British Council. All rights reserved. 8

Read the text below and answer Questions 21–27.

Work Emails

A   Email  is  extensively  used  as  a  tool  for  communication  at  work.  However,  the  number  of  

emails  office  workers  receive  every  day  is  overwhelming.  Therefore,  consider  firstly  whether  the  

email  you  are  about  to  write  is  necessary  or  even  the  best  way  to  communicate.  A  telephone  call  or  

instant  messaging  is  more  appropriate  for  a  back-­‐and-­‐forth  dialogue,  and  reports  of  a  potentially  

distressing  nature  should  always  be  delivered  in  person  if  possible.  

B   A  well-­‐written  subject  line  should  be  concise,  ideally  no  more  than  6–8  words  (so  that  the  

entire  subject  line  can  be  read  on  a  mobile  device  as  well  as  an  ordinary  computer  screen).  It  should  

highlight  the  most  important  information.    A  quick  glance  at  their  inbox  will  be  enough  for  the  

addressee  to  get  your  message  –  if  they  do  not  need  to  waste  time  opening  the  email,  use  EOM  (End  

of  Message)  to  indicate  all  the  information  is  in  the  subject  line.  Example:    Marketing  meeting  9.00  

a.m.  Friday  13th  EOM.  

C   If  you  do  need  to  write  a  message,  keep  it  straightforward  and  to  the  point.  If  you  must  

communicate  several  different  but  related  items,  consider  using  numbered  paragraphs  or  bullet  

points  where  you  can  chunk  information  into  separate,  well-­‐structured  segments.  A  different  topic  is  

best  covered  in  a  separate  email  permitting  the  recipient  to  respond  to  one  topic  at  a  time.  If  you  

want  the  recipient  to  do  something,  make  this  clear.  If  you  are  merely  informing  the  reader  of  

something,  use  FYI  (For  Your  Information)  in  the  subject  or  as  a  preface  to  the  first  sentence.  

D   Emails  are  not  necessarily  less  formal  than  traditional  letters  –  they  will  reflect  your  

professionalism,  so  be  polite.  They  could  also  be  printed  and  distributed  to  colleagues;  therefore,    

avoid  informal  language,  slang,  emoticons  and  inappropriate  abbreviations,  such  as  LOL  and  others  

commonly  used  in  casual  text  messages.  Although  it  is  good  to  be  succinct,  pay  attention  to  your  

choice  of  words  and  sentence  length  or  your  intention  might  be  misinterpreted.    You  could  

unwittingly  convey  a  tone  of  annoyance  by  appearing  terse  when  you  are  aiming  to  appear  concise  

and  economical.    

E   Begin  your  email  with  a  greeting.  Choose  a  level  of  formality  to  reflect  your  relationship  with  

the  reader.  Intra-­‐company  or  peer-­‐to-­‐peer  communications  are  generally  less  formal  than  messages  

to  outside  businesses.  It  is  also  polite  to  finish  with  an  appropriate  closing  and  signature.    Use  your  

full  name  and  title  for  formal  emails.  A  first  name  only  is  sufficient  for  colleagues  with  whom  you  are  

familiar.  You  may  also  want  to  include  contact  information  –  this  can  be  part  of  your  customised  

automatic  signature.  Finally,  carefully  proofread  your  emails  before  you  hit  the  ‘send’  button.  

© British Council. All rights reserved. 9

Questions 21–27

The text has five paragraphs, A–E.

Which paragraph mentions the following?

Write the correct letter, A–E, in boxes 21–27 on your answer sheet.

NB You may use any letter more than once.

21 ways to present material in small units

22 how to sign off at the end of an email

23 methods to use for topics that require a lot of discussion

24 how the writer could give the wrong impression

25 an abbreviation that tells the recipient there is no need for action

26 a time-saving tip

27 how to communicate bad news

© British Council. All rights reserved. 10

SECTION 3 Questions 28–40

Read the text below and answer Questions 28–40.

LIE DETECTION –

How to spot a liar

Native English speakers all have their own style of speech, influenced by factors such as where they live and their socioeconomic status. Yet Pamela Myer reveals in her book Liespotting that when people tell lies, their verbal and non-verbal behaviours are nearly universal.

Liars reveal themselves through various verbal tactics. They will use statement structure to avoid answering questions or to deflect suspicion. A parrot statement, repeating a question verbatim, is used to stall for time in order to think up a suitable response. If someone genuinely wants to clarify a question, she might choose to repeat a key word or two but rarely the entire question. Beware, also, the dodgeball statement – the suspect ignores the question just asked and, instead, tosses one straight back at you. Then there is what Myer calls the guilt-trip statement, a device that puts the enquirer on the defensive. The liar feigns offence and hopes that you will forget the question while you defend yourself against his accusation of unfairness or prejudice.

Another tactic for deception is the protest statement. This is when the suspect avoids a direct response to a question by listing his favourable assets and deeds so that you will think he is incapable of wrongdoing. The too little or too much statement is just that. The culprit will attempt to skirt the question by offering too little information or by being effusive – offering a wordy explanation but managing to avoid answering the question.

A bolstering statement contains a phrase that adds emphasis in an attempt to sound more credible and sincere: “To be honest, I have no idea how the item got damaged.” Listen also for the qualifying phrase that people use to protect themselves from reproach or responsibility: “As far as I recall, …”. If a religious phrase is used to bolster a statement, for instance: “Honest to God, I didn’t touch her purse”, the speaker is most likely a hypocrite, because an honest person does not need to appeal to God or religion for support.

Distancing statements are highly characteristic of deceptive speech. A deceiver will avoid using first person pronouns (I, me, myself) in order to literally keep himself completely out of the statement. He will also avoid using first names and, where possible, use language that depersonalises another person, for example: “I don’t know what that woman said.” Euphemism, substituting a mild or vague term for a harsher one, is another means of distancing the speaker from the action. “I did not pocket the money" instead of “I didn’t steal the money”.

Verbal leaks are said to occur when the mental burden of sustaining a lie becomes too much. The liar may ‘um’ and ‘ah’ too much or make grammar mistakes and other

© British Council. All rights reserved. 11

errors. A slip of the tongue is an unintentional mistake, often trivial, but occasionally revealing an unconscious thought or wish (the so-called Freudian slip). Consider: “I’d like to spank all teachers” – George W. Bush. A non-contracted denial is another verbal leak. It is usually uttered slowly with emphasis on ‘not’, as in: “I did not leave the door open.” A fibber who cannot express himself in a straightforward manner because he needs time to think may pause frequently and speech disfluencies – meaningless words, sighs and throat clearing – will populate his dialogue. “It was – sigh – late, when I, uh, got home, like, around midnight.” However, you would need to have a normal conversational baseline for the speaker in order to make an objective comparison as some people use fillers such as ‘like’ and ‘you know’ constantly.

Vocal quality is another indicator of deception. Listen for higher pitch, a slower rate of speech and strain or tension in the voice. These are very subjective criteria, however, so take into account other facial, body language and verbal indicators. Vocal quality alone is the least reliable indicator unless you are very familiar with the speaker’s standard mode of speech. In an effort to stay in control of the lie, the liar may control his body, becoming rigid and upright while his voice may assume a matching lifeless monotone. Sometimes actions do not correspond to words – an emphatic ‘no’ accompanied by a slight nod of the head is a sure giveaway.

The manner of articulation and delivery combined with facial expressions, body language and verbal clues will suggest an overall attitude; and attitude is a crucial indicator of both truthfulness and deceit. Weigh up all the factors including whether the subject has been cooperative or unhelpful.

Another weapon in the arsenal of lie detection is story analysis. Most stories have a beginning, a middle and an end, but real memories are not usually related in chronological order. Our emotions cause us to recall the most dramatic event first and in a lot of sensory detail, whereas the liar will ‘remember’ his story in chronological sequence. A false story often has a prolonged and detailed prologue setting the scene (with many truthful features such as time and place). Then the main event (the lie) is passed over quite quickly whereas, for the truthful person, this is the most important part of the action and it is recounted at length. The truth teller will also deliver an epilogue, at times becoming very emotional, as she describes the impact and after effects of the main event. Rarely does the false narrative conclude with an epilogue as the narrator was unaffected by the main event because it did not happen or, if it did, not in the way he related it.

Lie detection is more than just picking up on the occasional verbal clue; rather, it is recognising a cluster of clues and appraising them in the light of the subject’s nonverbal behaviour. By watching and listening carefully and for long enough, you will discern deception if it is there.

© British Council. All rights reserved. 12

Questions 28–32

Complete each sentence with the correct ending, A–I, below.

Write the correct letter, A–I, in boxes 28–32 on your answer sheet.

28 A person uses a parrot statement

29 A person uses a dodgeball statement

30 A person uses a guilt-trip statement

31 A person uses a protest statement

32 A person uses a bolstering statement

A to appear more truthful and convincing

B to repeat a few words of the question

C to ask a question instead of giving an answer

D to clarify a question

E to criticise the questioner

F to delay answering

G to deny his guilt

H to give a reason in his defence

I to show off his good qualities

© British Council. All rights reserved. 13

Questions 33–36

Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text on the previous

pages?

In boxes 33–36 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement agrees with the information

FALSE if the statement contradicts the information

NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

33 Liars would rather give too little than too much information.

34 Liars use qualifying statements if they need to take responsibility for their mistakes.

35 Truthful people are less likely to bolster their statements with religious phrases.

36 A slip of the tongue is an accidental error that could expose a hidden belief.

© British Council. All rights reserved. 14

Questions 37–40

Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

Write the correct letter in boxes 37–40 on your answer sheet.

37 The statement: “I was not in the office after hours” contains which of the following

verbal clues?

A a filler

B impersonal language

C a non-contracted denial

D a euphemism

38 Which of the following is the least dependable as a marker of deception?

A vocal quality

B verbal leaks

C attitude

D body language

39 An untruthful story is more likely to have

A a jumbled sequence of life events

B expressions of emotion

C a short main event section

D an illogical grammatical structure

40 A truthful story is more likely to have

A strict chronological order

B a lengthy introduction

C few details around the main event

D a heartfelt conclusion

© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved. 15

©  British  Council.  All  rights  reserved.     1    

Candidate Number

Candidate Name ______________________________________________

INTERNATIONAL ENGLISH LANGUAGE TESTING SYSTEM

General Training Reading PRACTICE TEST 1 hour

Time 1 hour INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES Do not open this question paper until you are told to do so.

Write your name and candidate number in the spaces at the top of this page.

Read the instructions for each part of the paper carefully.

Answer all the questions.

Write your answers on the answer sheet. Use a pencil.

You must complete the answer sheet within the time limit.

At the end of the test, hand in both this question paper and your answer sheet.

INFORMATION FOR CANDIDATES

There are 40 questions on this question paper.

Each question carries one mark.

©  British  Council.  All  rights  reserved.     2    

SECTION 1 Questions 1–14

Read the text below and answer Questions 1–7.

BPA – the Backpackers’ All iance

The leading hostel network for independent travellers

What is BPA? It is the largest group of backpacker-style accommodation providers in the state — these are state-owned and operated so they all meet rigid criteria for health and safety.

BPA Accommodation: We have over 200 listings to give you the best chance of finding the most suitable accommodation where you are most likely to enjoy it … and that could be in the mountains, by the sea, in the bush, in the centre of a bustling city — almost anywhere in the state!

BPA prices are always the lowest — order your BPA Accommodation Guide now and check it out!

Membership: Join BPA and enjoy the benefits of registration, which include access to a variety of popular options

• BPA online bookings • Secure telephone bookings (you will NOT need to risk giving out your credit

card details over the phone) • Rating details (one to four stars) on all BPC accommodation

You will also receive your BPA Club Card, which gives you

• Preferential regular-user rates — once you have used our service 10 times, you become a “loyal customer” and enjoy an 8% discount on all bookings

• A $5 rebate on all online bookings (accommodation only) • Guaranteed fixed prices (non-members must pay a higher ‘casual’ rate which

can change without notice) • Deals and discounts on transport and activities (if booked through our website)

Remember: Registration is free — there are no hidden fees or commissions. However, there is a $20 processing fee for replacement of a lost or stolen card.

Working holiday: BPA can assist you with this. We can advise you on travel, insurance, what to pack and what to expect. We can also help you find work close to the hostel of your choice by setting up interviews with local employers. We’ll also arrange for you to attend at least one social event where you can meet fellow travellers and some of the residents from the area.

©  British  Council.  All  rights  reserved.     3    

Questions 1–7

Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text on the previous page?

In boxes 1–7 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement agrees with the information FALSE if the statement contradicts the information NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

1 The BPA hostels are managed by independent owners.

2 You can find BPA hostels in many different environments.

3 BPA hostels have the cheapest accommodation anywhere in the state.

4 Online bookings are more popular than telephone bookings.

5 BPA members who frequently use the hostels pay less than the normal fee.

6 There is an initial $20 registration fee.

7 Local employers prefer to hire casual employees through BPA

©  British  Council.  All  rights  reserved.     4    

Read the text below and answer Questions 8–14.

Applying for a Driver’s License

• Personal Vehicle Licences:

All applicants will have to show two forms of identification and pass an eye exam. There also is a compulsory driving course, the cost of which must be borne by the driver. Special licences of this class include:

o Provisional Licence: For ages 16 to 18. Drivers on this licence are subject to several restrictions. Drivers must not drive after 8 pm, and are required to have a fully-licensed adult in the car at all times. The driver may apply to transfer to a full licence after attaining 18 years of age, provided he or she has a clean record.

o Motorcycle Licence: An optional extension course on defensive driving is recommended for drivers with this type of licence. This can reduce insurance premiums. Not all motorized two-wheel vehicles classify as motorcycles. Scooters, for example, do not require this licence, but note that these vehicles are restricted from riding on main roads and highways.

• Commercial Licences

o Livery Licences: Anyone planning to use their vehicle as a taxi or a limousine will require this licence. Applicants must have a personal vehicle licence, which they must surrender upon receipt of the new licence. This licence also requires renewal every two years. Drivers are required to display a registration plate to indicate that they are legally allowed to accept passengers.

o Commercial vehicle licences: These include: § City buses (single or coupled) § School buses § Lorries (single or coupled)

All licences for commercial vehicles require a probation period, after which the full licence will be issued. Application for such a vehicle licence will require proof of training, proof of insurance, and a mandatory fee, which can usually be claimed back once employment is found.

©  British  Council.  All  rights  reserved.     5    

Questions 8–14

Complete the sentences below.

Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the text for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 8–14 on your answer sheet.

8. People who want a personal vehicle licence must pay for a ……………. .

9. A teenager must have a ………………… to get a full licence at 18 years old.

10. Motorcycle drivers who attend a special class can get a discount on their

……………………………….

11. People who ride ……………………. on back roads or off-road do not need a

licence.

12. People who drive a ……………or …………… need a livery licence.

13. Anyone who charges money for driving people in a private car must show a

special ……………….

14. Commercial drivers have to wait for a ………………….. to get their full licence.

©  British  Council.  All  rights  reserved.     6    

SECTION 2 Questions 15–27

Questions 15–20

Read the text below and answer Questions 15–20.

Becoming an employer

Running a small business is a rewarding but challenging endeavour, and one of the major challenges is hiring staff once your business starts to grow.

What kind of employee would suit your business needs? You’ll need to evaluate the typical workload your business operates under, and whether this work is steady. Permanent staff can be employed full or part time, but you’ll need to ensure that there is ongoing work into the foreseeable future and that your business can take on the further cost of entitlements such as sick leave, annual leave and parental leave. As an employer, you’ll be legally required to provide these, as well as health and safety training. You’ll need to specify their hours of work, wages and details of their role in advance, and prepare a contract for both parties to sign.

Your business may not be ready to take on such a long-term responsibility, especially if you only require help during big projects or holiday rushes. In this case, you might consider hiring a fixed-term employee. Remember, though, that after a certain number of fixed-term contracts with the same employee, the law requires you to make the position permanent. If you are not sure how long the term of employment will be, construct the contract carefully to ensure you can terminate the employee at any time, allowing the legally-required two weeks’ notice, of course.

Alternatively, you could take on a casual worker, who can be employed on an ad-hoc basis, covering just the days that you cannot manage alone, though you’ll need to offer a higher hourly rate, called casual loading, to compensate for the lack of regularity.

If your current budget does not permit hiring another member of staff, you could consider using an intern. However, interns are not just a source of free labour. You must be able to provide experience that benefits them in some way, such as by learning a new skill. Agreements of this sort can legally extend to 12 months, but while you will have to stipulate the duration of the internship, the interns themselves are permitted to resign at any time without giving notice.

All workers must be given a contract, no matter whether they are permanent, fixed-term, casual or even interns.

©  British  Council.  All  rights  reserved.     7    

Questions 15–20

Look at the following statements and the list of employee types below.

Match each statement with the correct type, A, B, C or D.

Write the correct letter A, B, C or D, in boxes 15–20 on your answer sheet.

 

15 They cannot work for more than one year.

16 They get a paid holiday every year.

17 They can leave without warning.

18 You can finish their contract early if you give warning.

19 They usually get higher wages.

20 This kind of employee is best for seasonal work.

Employee  types  

A permanent employees

B fixed-term employees

C casual employees

D interns

 

©  British  Council.  All  rights  reserved.     8    

SECTION 2 Questions 15–27

Questions 21–27

The text on the next page has seven sections, A–G.

Choose the correct heading for each section from the list of headings below.

Write the correct number, i–x, in boxes 21–27 on your answer sheet.

List of Headings

i Don’t waste energy on things you

can’t change

ii Trust your natural responses

iii Understand before being understood

iv Never accept a loss

v Know what is best for business

vi Think win-win

vii Don’t take sides

viii Realise you have a choice

ix Take a stand on every issue

x Don’t get personal

21 Section A _____

22 Section B _____

23 Section C _____

24 Section D _____

25 Section E _____

26 Section F _____

27 Section G _____

©  British  Council.  All  rights  reserved.     9    

Office politics A Office politics concern differences that arise between employees – differences of opinion and conflicts of interest. Good communication is the best way to deal with office politics.

A natural reaction to disputes at work is to defend yourself and fight for what you want, but the typical response to that stance is resistance, which achieves nothing. However, if you flee from conflict and don’t take a stand, you will be seen as a pushover. Although both fight and flight are instinctive reactions, it is best not to be impulsive but rather to carefully consider how you feel and decide how you will react.

B There is a temptation to focus on the differences – of employees’ positions or opinions – but try to concentrate on business objectives instead and discuss the problem with these in mind. After all, everyone wants to work for a successful company, so put petty disagreements aside and look at the big picture.

C Sometimes issues arise which workers have little control over, for example company policies, customer demands or directives from management. It is easy to get caught up in an endless round of complaint, but this rarely if ever solves these outside problems. Be realistic about what you can actually influence at work, and don’t put your focus on insoluble problems.

D Occasionally you will find yourself caught between two powerful individuals in contention. Do not get drawn into the conflict by supporting one or the other. Remain neutral and objective and try to keep the discussion focused on the interests of the organisation.

E When office politics erupt, avoid angry outbursts and never direct your rage towards a particular person. This will only provoke negative feelings towards you, possibly harming your chances of advancement or promotion later.

F If you try to identify and comprehend the position of other parties first, you will gain their trust and open up communication because they will feel less defensive. Using this technique will facilitate a swifter solution to the problem.

G People don’t like to lose. It is humiliating. Outcomes of a conflict at work where there is a loser and a winner are generally not beneficial for either the individuals involved or for the company, so it is better to find a resolution which is acceptable to both parties. It is better to have allies than enemies.

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SECTION 3 Questions 28–40

Read the text below and answer Questions 28–40.

Shark  Deterrent  Wetsuits  A The words “shark attack” strike fear in beachgoers – surfers, swimmers, divers and others who enjoy a dip in the ocean. After seven people died from fatal attacks off the coast of Western Australia (WA) between 2010 and 2013, the state government reacted by capturing and shooting large sharks (of the great white, tiger and bull varieties) near swimming beaches. This shark culling policy caused an outcry amongst environmentalists.

B The existence of the white shark is already threatened; it is at a ‘vulnerable’ status – at high risk of becoming an endangered species. For this reason, it is fully protected in some countries, but the WA government had this species made exempt from protection in Australia, despite there being no scientific evidence to suggest an increase in white shark numbers.

C Sharks are apex predators, key to maintaining the balance of prey populations by removing sick or weak individuals and regulating the well-being of the marine ecosystem. They are very slow to reproduce and, with about 100 million sharks being killed every year as a result of fishing and hunting, the global population has been reduced by more than 70% in the last twenty years. The WA government policy of killing large sharks takes out the mature breeding stock of the species, hastening their eventual extinction.

D Protesters argue that the culling is extreme and unnecessary because the actual risk of death by shark is very slim, and the practice of tagging sharks and equipping them with transmitters is enough to alert swimmers when sharks are near. When a tagged shark comes within one kilometre of a beach it ‘tweets’ a message (via the Surf Lifesaving WA Twitter feed) giving its type (e.g. bull shark), location, date and time.

E Scientists at Shark Attack Mitigation Systems (SAMS), in collaboration with the Oceans Institute at the University of Western Australia, have come up with a novel and pragmatic solution to the shark problem: a shark deterrent wetsuit. The good news is that it is simple, affordable, and the technology can also be applied to surfboards. The scientific breakthrough came about after observation of how other species protect themselves from shark attacks. In this research, particular attention was given to the pilot fish, which has a mutualistic association with sharks, swimming alongside them devouring their harmful parasites and keeping them clean. The pilot fish are relatively small (about 30-60 cm) and are easily recognised by their patterning. This consists of five to seven transverse bands of a darker colour than the rest of the body, which is dark blue or blackish-silver. These bands are also seen on the poisonous banded sea snake. Folklore claims that some Pacific island tribes used to paint themselves in bands to simulate the appearance of this snake and thus to ward off the shark gods.

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F It is known that sharks use a range of sensors when they prepare for attack, but apparently the sight sensor is what they use to identify their target, especially when they get close up. Experts in shark vision and shark neurology confirmed that sharks see in black and white, or greyscale. The SAMS scientists, in collaboration with others, then mapped the physical characteristics of the eyes of the three main predatory sharks, genetically and anatomically. Next, they used complex computer modelling to figure out what the shark’s eye could see at different depths and distances, and in different light situations and water clarity conditions. From that, they were able to identify what patterns and shapes would essentially “hide” a potential target or at least create confusion for the shark; and what patterns and shapes might break up the profile of a person so that he was not mistaken for shark prey.

G Once the science was converted into practical wetsuit design, two ideas emerged. The first model, using the banding concept, presents a highly disruptive profile to the shark, and depicts the wearer as dangerous and unpalatable. This one is suitable for swimmers/surfers on the surface where they would otherwise provide a tempting, backlit silhouette. The second model, the cryptic wetsuit, consists of three panels on the suit, one or more matching the reflective spectra of the water and the other creating a confusing profile. This one is better suited to scuba enthusiasts, making them virtually indiscernible in the water column.

H It was very difficult to test these wetsuits because, for obvious reasons, the researchers could not use humans or even humanoid shapes as bait. Therefore, they wrapped perforated drums full of bait in the newly designed neoprene skins and used underwater cameras to watch how the sharks interacted with the prototype. As a control model, they used a rig wrapped in plain black neoprene just like a normal wetsuit. They were able to record a tiger shark circling and hunting the test rig for six minutes, trying to find what it could smell and sense but not see. Then the shark gave up and ripped into the control rig as soon as it encountered it. They watched a great white shark encounter a control rig, go to the bottom, then come straight up and strike it, whereas it was more apprehensive and reluctant to go for the test rig.

I It is hoped that these shark-deterrent designs, by disrupting a shark’s visual perception, will protect swimmers either by deterring attack or at least delaying it sufficiently to allow the user time to get out of the water.

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Questions 28–36

The text has nine paragraphs, A–I.

Which paragraph contains the following information?

Write the correct letter, A–I, in boxes 28–36 on your answer sheet.

NB You may use any letter more than once.

28 an example of water sport equipment that can use the new wetsuit design

29 details of the trials carried out on the new wetsuits

30 findings of scientists investigating sharks’ perception

31 how beachgoers can be warned of the presence of sharks

32 the importance of sharks in keeping fish stocks healthy

33 statistics that triggered a shark-killing response

34 the relationship between sharks and a different sea species

35 how the new wetsuits work as shark deterrents

36 an explanation of why sharks are in danger of extinction

Questions 37–40

Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text on the previous page?

In boxes 37–40 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement agrees with the information FALSE if the statement contradicts the information NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

37 A deep-sea diver wearing a cryptic wetsuit is almost invisible to sharks.

38 Sharks do not regard banded wetsuits as good to eat.

39 The tiger shark waited before attacking the control rig.

40 Great white sharks have more confidence than tiger sharks.

© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved. 15

©  British  Council.  All  rights  reserved.     1    

Candidate Number

Candidate Name ______________________________________________

INTERNATIONAL ENGLISH LANGUAGE TESTING SYSTEM

General Training Reading PRACTICE TEST 1 hour

Time 1 hour INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES Do not open this question paper until you are told to do so.

Write your name and candidate number in the spaces at the top of this page.

Read the instructions for each part of the paper carefully.

Answer all the questions.

Write your answers on the answer sheet. Use a pencil.

You must complete the answer sheet within the time limit.

At the end of the test, hand in both this question paper and your answer sheet.

INFORMATION FOR CANDIDATES

There are 40 questions on this question paper.

Each question carries one mark.

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SECTION 1 Questions 1-14

Read the text below and answer Questions 1–6.

Making  an  effective  complaint  

When  something  goes  wrong,  it  can  be  difficult  to  know  what  to  do.  The  following  course  of  action  may  help  you  make  a  successful  complaint.  

• Know  your  rights.  Before  you  complain,  find  out  your  legal  rights  –  the  Citizens  Advice  

Bureau  (CAB)  is  a  good  source  for  this  kind  of  information.  

• If  possible  and  practical,  talk  to  the  same  person  you  dealt  with  in  the  first  place  –  the  

problem  could  just  be  the  result  of  a  misunderstanding  or  an  honest  mistake  that  might  

be  settled  without  too  much  effort.    

• Act  now  while  the  facts  are  fresh  in  your  memory.  There  may  be  a  time  limit  for  making  

a  complaint.  

• Be  fair  and  reasonable  when  you  ask  for  the  situation  to  be  put  right  –  make  your  

request  proportionate  to  the  problem.  

• Collect  the  evidence,  especially  any  faulty  merchandise  or  parts.  Keep  a  paper  trail,  i.e.  

all  the  written  records  of  any  transactions,  correspondence,  receipts,  quotes,  accounts,  

contracts,  etc.,  while  waiting  for  the  issue  to  be  resolved.  

• Prepare  your  tactics.  Practise  what  you  want  to  say.  Consider  taking  a  support  person  

along  in  the  case  of  a  face-­‐to-­‐face  encounter.  Above  all,  remain  composed.  

• Be  polite.  Do  not  get  drawn  into  a  heated  quarrel  –  either  withdraw  or  ask  to  speak  to  a  

higher  authority  (perhaps  a  manager  or  supervisor).  

• If  the  matter  is  still  not  resolved,  write  a  formal  letter  of  complaint  and  pass  it  to  a  third  

party  such  as  a  complaints  service.  The  CAB  can  direct  you  to  the  most  appropriate  

service  for  your  complaint.  

• Exchange  contact  details  so  the  other  parties  involved  can  get  in  touch  with  you  to  

follow  up  on  the  matter  and  so  that  you  can  contact  them  again  if  necessary.  

• Always  obtain  the  final  decision  in  writing  if  it  was  made  over  the  phone  or  in  person.  

©  British  Council.  All  rights  reserved.     3    

Questions 1–6

Complete the notes below.

Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the text for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 1–6 on your answer sheet.

Making a complaint

⎯ Know your legal rights – ask CAB

⎯ Speak to the same person – he or she may have made 1……………….. that

could be easily resolved.

⎯ Don’t delay in case there is a 2 ……………….. .

⎯ Don’t make unrealistic demands.

⎯ Keep track of poor quality goods and save all 3 ……………….. until the problem

is sorted.

⎯ Prepare, practise and stay calm.

⎯ Don’t argue. It’s better to 4 ……………….. or talk to the boss.

⎯ As a last resort, take your complaint to an outside authority.

⎯ Make sure everyone concerned has your 5 ……………….. .

⎯ Get the resolution in 6 ………………...

©  British  Council.  All  rights  reserved.     4    

Read the text below and answer Questions 7–14.

IDENTITY CRIME

Identity crime is a generic term used to describe offences in which someone uses a fabricated or fictitious identity, a manipulated identity (the alteration of one’s own identity) or a stolen identity to commit a crime. The third of these, identity theft, knows no geographical boundaries and is on the increase as more people conduct business and social interactions over the internet. This type of crime produces substantial profits for criminals and causes extensive economic losses to governments, private corporations and individuals. Much of the money lost by individuals stems from credit card fraud, identity theft and scams. However, what worries law enforcement agencies the most is how identity crime facilitates serious and organised crime, with distressing effects on society as a whole. Identity crime is a major problem, made more difficult to investigate and solve as the offender can be on one side of the world and the victim on the other.

There are some simple steps you can take to reduce the risk of having your personal information stolen or misused. Only give out personal information over the phone or internet if you have initiated the call or the transaction and can verify that the person or organisation is legitimate. Never record PIN numbers for bankcards anywhere inside your purse or wallet. Secure your letterbox with a lock and clear your mail regularly. Burn or shred documents with personal information or store them in a secure place, and wipe your computer hard drive if you are selling it. Make sure the virus and security software on your computer or mobile device is up-to-date and don’t use public computers or unsecured wireless hotspots (such as those at a library or internet café) for internet banking. Always check bank and credit card statements for unauthorised transactions and report any discrepancies to the bank promptly. Don’t respond to scam emails or letters that promise a prize or reward if you provide bank account details to the senders to enable them to ‘deposit’ the money.

Always use the most secure settings and keep a tight rein on how much private information you post on publicly accessible networking sites. Remember, also, that information on the internet can remain accessible even if the original posting is removed.

©  British  Council.  All  rights  reserved.     5    

Questions 7–14  

Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text on the previous page?

In boxes 7–14 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement agrees with the information

FALSE if the statement contradicts the information

NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

7 There are three main kinds of identity theft.

8 Identity theft is becoming more common.

9 Individuals lose more money through identity crime than businesses or governments.

10 Criminal organisations profit from identity crime.

11 Identity theft is a global problem.

12 You should never give personal information over the phone.

13 It is generally safe to do internet banking on computers in large public places.

14 Once you delete a posting from a social website it is gone forever.

.

©  British  Council.  All  rights  reserved.     6    

SECTION 2 Questions 15–27

Read the text below and answer Questions 15–21.

Making a presentation without props

When  you  make  a  business  presentation  using  PowerPoint  or  a  flip  chart,  the  audience’s  attention  will  mostly  be  on  the  slides  or  chart.  When  you  give  a  talk  without  props,  the  only  visual  you  have  is  yourself.  Obviously,  the  content  is  a  key  part  of  the  presentation,  and  you  will  work  on  that  until  it  is  word  perfect.  However,  a  successful  delivery  is  also  governed  by  your  body  language.  

Body  language  (gesture,  stance  and  facial  expression)  is  a  key  element  in  generating  interest  and  building  credibility.  It  helps  you  connect  with  your  listeners  and  helps  them  focus  on  your  message.  Use  body  language  with  purpose  to  accentuate  key  points  of  your  talk  and  to  project  authenticity  and  enthusiasm.  

Use  eye  contact  to  quickly  establish  a  close  bond,  by  focusing  on  one  person  at  a  time  rather  than  sweeping  the  audience  as  a  whole.  Hand  gestures  should  either  be  open  and  neutral  (relaxed  at  your  sides)  or  defined  and  strong  to  intensify  what  you  say.  Interestingly,  research  has  shown  that  gesture  is  intrinsically  linked  to  speech  and  that  by  incorporating  appropriate  gestures  we  can  express  ourselves  more  powerfully  verbally.  Effective  gestures  come  from  the  shoulders  rather  than  wrists  or  elbows  and  have  a  twofold  advantage:  not  only  do  they  project  further  across  the  audience  but  they  also  release  tension  in  the  presenter’s  upper  body.  

Your  stance  is  an  open  book:  the  audience  can  read  whether  you  are  confident  and  comfortable  or  anxious  and  afraid.  Balance  your  weight  evenly  with  feet  slightly  apart  and  pointing  straight  ahead.  Stillness  projects  calmness,  whereas  constant  movement  or  swaying  about  is  an  annoying  distraction.  You  can  occasionally  move  around  in  the  space  available  to  you  as  long  as  you  do  so  confidently  and  purposefully,  to  highlight  a  change  in  topic  for  instance.  Lean  slightly  towards  the  audience  when  asking  a  question  or  offering  a  revelation.  

Facial  expressions  are  vital  to  effective  communication.  Unfortunately,  public  speaking  can  cause  a  face  to  freeze,  but  the  audience  relies  on  facial  expressions  to  amplify  the  meaning  of  what  you  say.  Voice,  too,  is  a  flexible  tool  that  can  be  used  to  great  advantage.  Before  your  presentation,  practise  relaxing  the  voice  and  finding  a  lower,  more  authoritative  pitch.  Avoid  rising  intonation  at  the  ends  of  sentences  as  it  lacks  authority  –  rather  it  sounds  as  if  you  are  unsure  or  seeking  approval  –  not  at  all  the  impression  you  want  to  give.  Breathe  deeply  and  enunciate  clearly.  

©  British  Council.  All  rights  reserved.     7    

Questions 15–21

Complete the sentences below.

Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the text for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 15–21 on your answer sheet.

 

15 A successful presentation without props depends on both ……………….. and delivery.

16 Body language must have clear objectives – to highlight ……………….. of the discussion and show that you are keen and sincere.

17 Look at individuals to create a ……………….. .

18 Match ……………….. to spoken language.

19 Movement of the ……………….. is more easily seen and it makes the speaker more

relaxed.

20 Standing still shows ……………….. although some movement is acceptable at appropriate times.

21 Use facial expressions to reinforce meaning and lower the pitch of your voice in order to

sound ……………….. .

 

.  

©  British  Council.  All  rights  reserved.     8    

Read the text below and answer Questions 22–27.

Job Specification: Public Relations Manager

Job  Description:  

To  develop  and  manage  public  relations  programmes  to  create  and  support  a  positive  corporate  public  image.  

Duties  and  Tasks:  

• Identify  principal  clients  and  stakeholders  and  determine  the  most  effective  means  of  transmitting  promotional  information  to  them.  

• Write  press  releases;  make  information  available  for  media  kits;  develop  and  keep  company  internet  and  intranet  pages  up  to  date.  

• Write  speeches  for  company  executives  and  set  up  interviews  for  them  with  the  media.    • Coordinate  special  events  including  sponsorships  and  promotion  of  new  products  with  a  

view  to  gaining  media  and  public  attention.  

Activities:  

• Obtain  relevant  information  from  various  sources.  • Create  and  sustain  collaborative  work  relationships  and  constructive  liaisons  with  clients  

and  others  outside  the  company.    • Communicate  with  clients,  the  public  and  government  agencies  as  required.  

Communications  may  take  the  form  of  face-­‐to-­‐face  interactions,  telephone  conversations,  emails,  letters,  instant  messages  or  memos.  

• Analyse  information  and  explore  creative  solutions  to  problems.  • Use  computer  systems  to  enter  data  and  process  information.  

Skills  and  Abilities:  

• Public  speaking  –  clarity  of  articulation  and  expression  is  important  • Active  listening  –  pay  attention,  understand  the  sequence  of  an  argument,  ask  sensible  

questions  at  appropriate  times,  refrain  from  interrupting    • Written  communication  –  correct  and  unambiguous  written  statements  suited  to  the  target  

audience  • Reading  comprehension  –  ability  to  understand  all  work-­‐related  documents  • Critical  thinking  –  use  logical  and  rational  methods  to  weigh  up  the  pros  and  cons  of  any  

given  proposal  • Originality  of  ideas  –  ability  to  come  up  with  a  number  of  novel,  extraordinary  or  ingenious  

approaches  to  solving  problems    • Decision-­‐making  –  use  good  judgement  to  make  well-­‐considered  decisions  before  taking  

action    • Negotiation  –  use  effective  mediation  skills,  reconcile  differences  

 Knowledge  and  experience  or  education:  • University  degree  in  a  relevant  field  (preferably  post-­‐graduate)  • Proficiency  in  the  English  language  and  a  foreign  (non-­‐English)  language    • Media  –  dissemination  techniques  for  written,  spoken,  visual  media  • Administration,  clerical  systems  and  office  procedures  

©  British  Council.  All  rights  reserved.     9    

Questions 22–27

Complete the notes below.

Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the text for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 22–27 on your answer sheet.

Job description: To promote a favourable 22 ……………….. of the company

Duties/tasks include:

• deciding on the best way to communicate 23 ……………….. to interested parties

• writing speeches and statements for the media

• managing 24 ……………….. to raise the profile of the company

Activities include:

• gathering information

• maintaining positive relationships

• interacting with others in person, in writing, or by way of 25 ………………..

• computing

Skills/Abilities include:

• clear oral and written communication

• understanding others

• identifying strengths and weaknesses of 26 ………………..

• thinking of many new ways of handling difficult situations

• resolving disputes through 27 ………………..skills

Experience/education includes:

• University degree

• English and a foreign language

• Media – all types

• Administration and office systems

©  British  Council.  All  rights  reserved.     10    

SECTION 3 Questions 28–40

Read the text below and answer Questions 28–40.

Bioremediation  

– a natural way to clean up indoor air contaminants –

A Global energy needs will probably increase by 30% over the next ten years and, at present, 40% of the world’s energy is consumed by buildings. One way to make buildings more energy efficient is to insulate them and minimise fresh air exchange. However, reduced air circulation causes a phenomenon known as Sick Building Syndrome when combined with the volatile organic compounds (VOCs) emitted by modern materials used in office blocks, furnishings and high-tech equipment, along with human bio-effluents. Eye irritation, skin rashes, sinus and respiratory problems, headaches and drowsiness are common symptoms. The VOCs are not only noxious but carcinogenic, with long-term exposure heightening one’s risk of cancer.

B An environmental scientist, Dr Bill Wolverton, working for The National Aeronautics Space Administration (NASA), came up with a solution: “If man is to move into closed environments, on Earth or in space, he must take along nature’s life support system.” In other words, plants. Early experiments were conducted in the BioHome, an airtight habitat constructed entirely of synthetic materials, designed for one person to live in. Before Wolverton introduced houseplants into the environment, it was uninhabitable because of the poor air quality – anyone entering suffered burning eyes and breathing difficulties.

C Wolverton found that, apart from absorbing carbon dioxide and releasing oxygen as all plants do, some plants are able remove considerable amounts of VOCs. They do this by absorption through tiny openings (stomata) on their leaves, but roots and microorganisms living in the potting soil or other growing medium are also important in the removal of toxins from the air. Most of the plants used by Wolverton originated in the understory of subtropical or tropical forests, with their particular leaf composition enabling them to photosynthesise in reduced sunlight. This ability is what allows them to thrive indoors away from direct sunshine. One largish plant for approximately every ten square metres of home or office space is suggested as an operational ratio.

D The strategy of using indoor plants as air purifiers has not been widely endorsed because of a lack of quantifiable outcomes. This could be changing, however. Recent studies at the University of Technology in Sydney have shown that certain plants on Wolverton’s list, namely Dracaena deremensis ‘Janet Craig’ and the peace lily Spathiphyllum wallisii, reduced pollution levels to negligible levels when placed in offices with high quantities of VOCs.

E Building on the NASA experiments and with the help of the Indian Institutes of Technology and The Energy and Resources Institute, Kamal Meattle of New Delhi has trialed several of Wolverton’s recommended plant species at his workplace. He used 1,200 plants for 300 occupants (four waist- to shoulder-high plants per person) in a twenty-year-old building measuring some 4,600 square metres. Results of this experiment showed elevated blood oxygen levels in the occupants and reduced incidences of eye irritation, as well as a marked reduction in respiratory system disorders and headaches. Since the installation of the plants, the labour force has increased productivity by over 20% and energy requirements for the

©  British  Council.  All  rights  reserved.     11    

building have been reduced by 15 per cent. For his study, he used the areca palm, the snake plant (or mother-in-law’s tongue) and the money plant (golden pothos).

F The areca palm (Chrysalidocarpus lutescens), native to the island of Madagascar, has a smooth silver-green trunk and feathery-shaped fronds. A sensitive plant, it needs year-round care with the right amount of bright but indirect light. The soil should be kept a little moist in spring and summer but allowed to dry slightly in autumn and winter. The areca favours a snug container – the crowded root system will limit the size of the palm; if unrestricted, it may grow as tall as six metres. The areca palm has been proven effective in the removal of toluene (in new carpet, paints and varnishes) and xylene (a potent neurotoxin found in marker pens, paints and varnishes).

G The snake plant (Sansevieria trifasciata) is an evergreen perennial species, originally a resident of tropical West Africa. Its stiff vertical leaves extend up to a metre in length. It is more tolerant of irregular watering and low light levels than the areca palm. Meattle notes that it would be ideally placed in bedrooms because it is a nocturnal oxygenator. It also does a good job of absorbing benzene (a commonly used solvent in oils, paints, plastics and rubber), trichloroethylene (a commercial product with a wide variety of uses including inks, paints, adhesives) and formaldehyde, in addition to toluene and xylene. Formaldehyde is a pervasive and abundant chemical found in numerous paper products, particleboard, plywood, synthetic fabrics, carpet, cigarette smoke and heating and cooking fuels.

H The money plant (Epipremnum aureum), is indigenous to French Polynesia. This evergreen vine is a very hardy plant, but highly invasive if it takes root out of doors. It is an easy and undemanding plant to care for, equally comfortable in bright or low light, nutrient-poor or nutrient-rich soil – it can even be grown in a jar of water. Unfortunately, its leaves are poisonous to cats, dogs and children and even the sap from the plant may cause a rash in people with sensitive skin. However, it is extremely efficient at filtering all the same pollutants as the snake plant, except for trichloroethylene.

I Popular minimalist architecture mostly did away with indoor plants but, as a result of research by Dr Wolverton and others, they are making a comeback. After all, in the words of Margaret Burchett of the University of Technology in Sydney: “Potted plants can provide an efficient, self-regulating, low-cost, sustainable bioremediation system for indoor air pollution.” Plants have even more in their favour: they balance indoor humidity, are pleasing on the eye and, according to a recently published article, “plants relieve physiological stress and negative psychological symptoms”.1

                                                                                                                         1  Journal of Physiological Anthropology 2015, 34:21  

©  British  Council.  All  rights  reserved.     12    

Questions 28–32

The text on the previous page has nine paragraphs, A–I.

Which paragraph mentions the following?

Write the correct letter, A–I, in boxes 28–32 on your answer sheet.

NB You may use any letter more than once.

28 measurable effects of bioremediation on workers

29 how plants cleanse the air

30 research which tested the bioremediation effects of two different plant species

31 an experimental facility that was initially unfit to live in

32 a condition affecting office workers

©  British  Council.  All  rights  reserved.     13    

Questions 33–39

Look at the following statements and the list of plant species below.

Match each statement with the correct plant, A, B, or C.

Write the correct letter A, B, or C, in boxes 33–39 on your answer sheet.

 

33 It is robust.

34 It prefers a tight-fitting pot.

35 It easily overruns other plants in an outside environment

36 It releases oxygen at night.

37 It is delicate

38 It is harmful to infants and some adults.

39 It has leaves that grow straight up.

A Areca palm

B Snake plant

C Money plant

Question 40

Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

Write the correct letter in box 40 on your answer sheet.

Which of the following ideas is NOT mentioned in the last paragraph of the passage?

A indoor plants improve air quality B indoor plants need regular care C indoor plants are pleasant to look at D indoor plants are beneficial for the body and mind

© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved. 15

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Candidate Number

Candidate Name ______________________________________________

INTERNATIONAL ENGLISH LANGUAGE TESTING SYSTEM

General Training Reading PRACTICE TEST 1 hour

Time 1 hour INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES Do not open this question paper until you are told to do so.

Write your name and candidate number in the spaces at the top of this page. Read the instructions for each part of the paper carefully.

Answer all the questions.

Write your answers on the answer sheet. Use a pencil.

You must complete the answer sheet within the time limit.

At the end of the test, hand in both this question paper and your answer sheet.

INFORMATION FOR CANDIDATES

There are 40 questions on this question paper.

Each question carries one mark.

2

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SECTION 1 Questions 1–13

Read the text below and answer Questions 1–7.

Questions 1–7

Thetextonthenextpagehas8sections,A-H

Choosethecorrectheadingforeachsectionfromthelistofheadingsbelow.

Writethecorrectletter,A-H,onyouranswersheetforquestions1-7.

ListofHeadings

1. Thedisadvantagesofthesefoodcourts.

2. Thedesignofthefoodcourts.

3. Thestepstotaketobuythefood.

4. Lookingforwardsinapositivelight.

5. Whytheyarebecomingpopularwithfolksfromothercities/countries.

6. Themethodsthemallsarecompetingwithinternetconsumption.

7. Thevarietytocustomers.

3

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Proceduresformoderndayfoodcourts

A. Fighting back against the growing popularity in online shopping, malls are attracting

customers to physically come to them for more than the shopping experience itself.

The attraction of great food to be tried is one way of doing so.

B. Food Courts are almost always located on the top floor of the mall, accessed by a trio

of elevators, lifts and stairwells. From time to time however, these may be located in

the basement of the shopping centre.

C These modern eating areas are typically an open-plan layout whereby the multitude

of food outlets are located along the outside walls of a large open space, with

plentiful tables and chairs placed in the spacious interior.

D The food choices range from Korean barbecue bars to Japanese sushi stalls, from

boiled dumplings and steamed filled buns to bubbling hot pots and soup vendors.

More often than not nowadays, Western style options are available too offering

sumptuous steaks.

E The process of purchasing your meal is straightforward. Firstly, purchase a food card

from the cashier topped up with the amount of money you intend to spend and then

make your order directly at the specific food vendor who will swipe your card. Wait

patiently, then they will shout out your receipt number and you collect the delicious

delights cooked up from the vendor once again.

F Foreign visitors and out-of-town day-trippers are easily drawn to these eating

establishments for a couple of reasons; firstly being they offer up a wide range of

eating options to try at affordable prices; and secondly that they are extremely simple

to use for those who cannot comprehend the local language.

G There may be one or two drawbacks of using these places of course; one of which

being they are often bustling and boisterous places packed with numerous diners;

secondly, food hygiene cannot always be guaranteed.

H Overall, it is safe to say that the benefits of these food courts far outweigh some

potential and occasional drawbacks, and that the popularity of these eating

establishments are certain to grow in the future.

4

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Questions 8-13

Read the text below and answer questions 8-13

TenstepstoprepareeffectivePPTsforpresentations.

1. Compose Slides

Don’t copy & paste slides from different sources.

Keep the design very basic and simple so that it shall not be distracting.

Leave adequate space for any images.

2. Use Consistency

Consistently use the same font face and sizes on all slides and also match colours.

You may use your company logo, highlight headers, or create a special frame for figures/images.

3. Use Contrast

Black text on a white background will always be the best but also the most boring choice.

If you want to play with colours, keep it easy on the eyes and always keep good contrast in mind so that your readers do not have to strain.

4. Apply Brilliance

Carefully use colour to highlight your message!

Match colours for design and good contrast to highlight your message.

5. The K.I.S.S. Method

Keep It Straight and Simple.

Keywords only are required, and there is no real need for sentences!

Never read your slides, talk freely.

Remember that your slides are only there to support, not to replace your talk!

6. Take Home Message

Always express a Take Home Message.

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It’s your message, a summary of your data or story, so make it a highlight that stands out.

7. Add Images

Do not only use images for mere decoration!

Images should be better used to reinforce or complement points, even to visualize and explain.

A picture can say more than a thousand words.

8. Don’t Be Silly

Use animations and media sparingly.

Animations can draw attention precisely to a certain point that needs clarification.

9. Keep Your Audience In Mind

Your target i.e. your audience, defines the content of your presentation.

Consider carefully their needs and simplify your slides down to the very essentials.

In your talk, describe the essentials colourfully and choose your tools appropriately i.e. text, images and animations wisely.

If you lose the attention of your audience, everything will be pointless— it won’t matter how clever your design is or how brilliantly you picked colours and keywords.

10. Practice

A well-prepared and enthusiastic talk will help you convince your audience and maintain their attention.

Know your slides well.

Speak with confidence – loud and clear.

11. Maintaining eye contact with the audience is critical.

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Questions 8-13

Statewhetheryoumay,mustormustnotdothefollowing:

Pleaseindicate:

A. May

B. Must

C. Mustnot

Write your answers in the boxes provided on your answer sheet for questions 8-13

8. Obtain slides from a variety of locations.

9. Display headers and logos.

10. Read from the slides directly.

11. Deliver a memorable take home message.

12. Decorate slides effectively with images.

13. Keep eye contact at all times with the members in the room

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SECTION 2 Questions 14–26

Questions 14-20

Read the text below and state what activity session each of the individuals should choose

based on the information given in the table.

ChoosingsuitableactivitiesattheCommunityCentre

Activitysessionsavailable:

Day Time Event

Monday 13:00-14:30 Cakemakingcontest.

Individualprizestobewon.

A

Tuesday 15:00-17:00 Healthycookingclass.

Learnhowtocookfastyethealthy

meals.

B

Wednesday 19:00-22:00 Open-air‘Black&White’film

showing,followedbyachatover

cheeseandbiscuits.

C

Thursday 20:00-22:00 QuizNight.Teamsof3-4.

Greatteamprizestowin

D

Friday 19:30-21:00 Livebandplaying.

Genresfromjazztorock.

E

Saturday 7:00am-8:00am Yoga

Followedbyfruit.

F

Saturday 15:00-18:00 Wildlifelecture. G

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Followedbyguidednaturewalk

Sunday 9:30am-11:00am Badmintonpairs.

H

Sunday 13:00-14:30 Localhistorytalk.

Cookiesandcoffeeprovided.

I

Benny is fan of all kinds of music. He is not so keen on listening to recorded music however,

and prefers to enjoy a performance delivered by musicians in person.

Justin loves nothing more than catching a classic from the early days of the big screen with

other like-minded enthusiasts. People who are keen to discuss what was seen afterwards

over snacks.

Brenda has a keen interest in baked goods of all kinds including desserts. She is competitive

and loves to show off her skills.

Sally is really an early bird, who is keen to remain in great shape doing gentle activities that

are good for her health, ones that keep her mind and body both sharp and toned.

Benjamin really is a guy who loves to compete and test his wits against others as part of a

group of friends. He likes to keep his brain sharp. His specialist knowledge is history and

geography.

Martin is fascinated and addicted to all games involving nets. He’ll be looking to play with his

lovely wife against other like-minded couples.

Tim is an avid follower of eating well, eating regularly and eating well-balanced nutritious

meals. He is however often pressed for time and would love to find ways to counter that.

Daniel loves nothing more than knowledge. He cannot get enough of learning new things

about the area where he is. In particular, he has a strong interest in birds and going hiking.

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© British Council. All rights reserved.

Example:Benny.E.

14.Justin.

15.Brenda.

16.Sally.

17.Benjamin.

18.Martin.

19.Tim.

20.Daniel.

Questions 21-26

Read the article below and answer questions 21-26.

HealthandSafetyRules

Follow these simple rules to safely enjoy your experience at the Wildlife Park.

- You are advised to read carefully the safety instructions on the back of your ticket;

these include all fire exits and first aid stations.

- Children under the age of nine must be accompanied by fee-paying adult.

- Never touch any animals unless accompanied by a park ranger on a guided tour.

- Guests are reminded that it is strictly forbidden for any animals to be given food or

drink under any circumstance, unless on a guided ranger tour.

- If on a guided ranger tour, after feeding animals, it is essential to thoroughly wash

hands with the professional cleaning materials provided.

- Food and drink brought in to the park by visitors can only be enjoyed in the clearly

marked picnic areas

- It is a requirement that all uneaten food items are disposed of in the yellow bins clearly

provided. Alternatively, you are required take them away with you.

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- If medical attention is required, please notify the nearest available park ranger, or

use one of the numerous emergency phones that are highly visible (in purple).

- Double gate entrance points are to be used one gate at a time. (When one gate is

open, the other gate has to be closed, so as to prevent animals escaping from their

enclosure)

- Place all recyclable litter in the clearly marked purple circular bins and other litter can

be discarded in the brown square bins located beside them.

- Upon hearing the park fire alarm, follow the signs and immediately walk to the

nearest fire exit.

- It is essential to then remain in the fire assembly point outside of that exit gate.

- Running is not allowed in the park at any time, as it can be both hazardous and

distracting.

- Mobile phones must be set to a low ringing tone at all times so as to not panic any of

the animals.

- Flash photography is not welcomed in the park when photographing animals.

11

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Questions 21-26

Complete the sentences below.

Write the answers to questions 21-26 on your answer sheet.

Please write two or three words only to complete the sentence.

21.Youngchildrenarewelcomedintotheparkprovidedthattheyaresupervisedbya

.

22.Apartfromwhenunderofficialguidance,thegivingofedibleitemstoanyanimalsis

.

23.Thetouchingofanimalscanonlyhappenona .

24.Ifguestsdonotusethecolouredbinfordisposingoftheirfoodwaste,theyhavetheoptionto

.

25.Ifmedicalassistanceisrequired,onecanapproachastaffmember,oronecanfindoneofthe

plentiful .

26.Nexttothesquarebrowntrashcans,intheroundonesavailable,peoplearesupposedto

disposeoftheir .

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© British Council. All rights reserved.

SECTION 3 Questions 27 –40

Read the text and answer questions 27-40.

Windfall for the Environment - Downfall for Health

Wind turbines are popping up around the world as an alternative source of energy, but residents who live near them say the machines are making them sick.

Imagine the sound of a train going over a bridge, or a jet engine propeller slicing through the air, even a bee stuck inside your ear.

These are the descriptions given by residents from New Zealand, Australia, and Great Britain, all living near wind farms. What is seen by many people as a solution to the world’s growing need for electricity has become, for these residents, a force so disruptive that they have had to uproot their lives to find relief.

Wind turbine farms are quickly becoming a popular green energy alternative for many countries, including the United States, Germany, and China. There are more than 3,000 onshore turbines in Britain alone, which increased its wind power capacity by nearly 25 percent in 2011. During the same time period, Australia expanded its wind production capacity by more than 11 percent. While organizations such as the World Wind Energy Association praise this increase in wind farms as a positive development in “community energy,” those who live close enough to them to hear their constant drone disagree.

One of those residents, Andreas, lived in Waterloo, South Australia, until last year. In October 2010, the gas and electricity provider TruEnergy installed a 37-turbine wind farm on a ridge skirting his hometown. At the time, he says he was in favor of wind energy. “I was actually a firm believer that wind turbines were going to be a good idea,” he says. “We were all for wind power.”

However, his opinion changed when the blades started to spin at the Waterloo Wind Farm. Within weeks, he says he and his family began to experience everything from heart problems and sleep disturbances to a constant ringing in their ears. However, he didn’t immediately associate his health problems with the new wind farm near his home.

It wasn’t until a conversation with his brother, who lived nearby, that he started to link the two. “He got so angry with me for asking how he slept,” Andreas remembers. “I asked my sister-in-law, and she said, ‘I haven’t slept for a week.’ I asked another neighbor, and he said the same thing. At that point, I thought, ‘it’s not just me.’”

Looking for answers, he searched the Internet for information about the possible side effects of wind turbines, and that’s when he came across the Web site of Dr. Nina Pierpont, a doctor

13

© British Council. All rights reserved.

and researcher from New York. Andreas began an e-mail correspondence with her husband, which resulted in her agreeing to come to his home to talk to him and his neighbors in person.

He and his neighbors erupted into stories of night sweats and constant headaches, revealing that they had all experienced similar symptoms. After everyone was finished, she put her book on the table and said, ‘This is happening in Victoria, too. But not just in Victoria. It’s happening all over the world.’

That book was Wind Turbine Syndrome: A Report on a Natural Experiment. Pierpont, first introduced the term “wind turbine syndrome” in 2006; she later published a book about it—the same one on Andreas’s table—in 2009.

Pierpont’s research involved 38 residents in the United States, Canada, the United Kingdom, Ireland, and Italy. Her presentations on wind turbine syndrome have been widely debated within the research and medical communities. The wind energy associations of Canada, the United States, and Britain have all criticized her work, and a study conducted by a group of researchers from The University of Salford in Manchester, England, concluded that there is no such thing as wind turbine syndrome.

Dr. Hünerbein, who specializes in the study of wind profiles and acoustic technology, was one of the five researchers who prepared that Salford University report, Research into Aerodynamic Modulation of Wind Turbine Noise, which was commissioned by the British Department for Environment, Food, and Rural Affairs.

“There is no scientific evidence to date that there is a direct physiological connection between wind turbine noise and health,” she explains. “Having said that, there are effects, and one is sleep disturbance. The thing to point out here very strongly is the sleep disturbance and annoyance can arise from any other noise just as well as wind turbine noise.”

Whether it can be scientifically proven that the noise from wind farms is detrimental to human health is a debate that is likely to continue as wind energy increases globally. The Global Wind Energy Council reports that by 2030 half of all the wind energy produced in the world will come from countries that have just begun to embrace turbine-produced power.

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© British Council. All rights reserved.

Questions 27-30

Match the letters, A-D, with the numbers 27-30.

Label who voices the appropriate following statements:

27.Backgroundnoisefromvariousfactorscannegativelyaffectsleeppatterns.28.Windturbinesyndromehasbecomeaworldwideconcernformanycitizens.29.Originallyverysupportiveoftheconceptofusingwindpower,butthenswitchedviews.30.Usingimaginationrelatingtoannoyinginsectsandtransportationtodescribeeffects.

A. Thelocalresidentatthecenterofthisarticle.B. Thegovernmentfundedresearcher.C. Theauthorofthebookonwindturbinesyndrome.D. Thenumerouslocalsresidingnearby.

Questions 31-36

Writeyouranswerstoquestions31-36ontheanswersheetprovided.

Dothefollowingstatementsagreewiththeinformationgiveninthetext?

LabelasTrue,FalseorNotGiven.(T/F/NG)

True–ifthestatementagreeswiththeinformation

False–ifthestatementcontradictstheinformation

NotGiven–ifthereisnoinformationonthis

31. ThefiguresforBritainonitsownfromafewyearsago,showedthataquarterofturbineswereconstructedonwindfarmsintheseaoffthecoast.

32. Allthosewholivenearthesewindfarmshavebeenaffectedandhavesetuprootselsewhereinordertofindanewpeace.

33. Andreasimmediatelylinkedhisnewhealthissueswiththenearbyrecentlyconstructedwindfarm.34. Researchwas conductedbyAndreason theweb in an attempt todiscoverpotential negative

effectsattributedtowindgeneratingtechnology.35. Criticismontheconceptofwindturbinesyndromehascomefrommanycountries,includingthe

USA,Germany,Italy,Australia,NewZealandandChina.36. Approximately just over a decade later, 50% of energy from wind will be produced in those

locationsjuststartingtousethistechnology.

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Questions 37-38 MultipleChoice:Choosethemostsuitableoptionfromthe3-optionsgiven.

Writetheletteronyouranswersheetforquestions37-38.

37. Asagreenalternateoptiontofossilfuels,energyobtainedfromwindisgainingin

A. Possibility.

B.Popularity.C. Practicality.

38. Seenastheenvironmentalanswerbysome,manyfamilieswereforcedtomoveastheeffects

weretoogreata A. Disruption.B. Production.C. Criticism.

Questions 35-40 Multiple Choice: Choose the most suitable option from the 4-options given.

Write the letter on your answer sheet for questions 39-40

39. Whentellingtheirstories,thesymptomsfeltbyallthosespokentoweredescribedas

A. Immediate.B. Changeable.C. Consistent.D. Similar.

40. Withinthehealthindustryandacademiccommunities,her(Pierpont)findingsatfirstwerewidely

A. Discussed.B. Denied.C. Studied.D. Expanded.

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Candidate Number

Candidate Name ______________________________________________

INTERNATIONAL ENGLISH LANGUAGE TESTING SYSTEM

General Training Reading PRACTICE TEST 1 hour

Time 1 hour INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES Do not open this question paper until you are told to do so.

Write your name and candidate number in the spaces at the top of this page. Read the instructions for each part of the paper carefully.

Answer all the questions.

Write your answers on the answer sheet. Use a pencil.

You must complete the answer sheet within the time limit.

At the end of the test, hand in both this question paper and your answer sheet.

INFORMATION FOR CANDIDATES

There are 40 questions on this question paper.

Each question carries one mark.

2

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SECTION 1 Questions 1–14

Read the text below and answer Questions 1–7.

A. Seaview BnB Charming, quiet little bed and breakfast hotel directly opposite the beach. Warm welcome from local husband and wife proprietors Bill and Jenny Pearce guaranteed. Just £85 per room per night. Price includes half-board (2 meals).

B. Cosy Cottages 17th century cottages with thatched roof. Perfect for a genuine old-English experience. Set in beautiful countryside on the outskirts of the town. Peaceful environment. Self-catering. Available from just £400 per week. C. Family Stay U.K. Opportunities to get to know local people. 3-7 day stays in rooms in the homes of local families at great rates. Be treated as one of the family. From just £30 per night. Meals available upon request at an additional rate. D. Home from Home No-frills hotel chain, great value for money. Clean, quiet, comfortable place to relax after a long day of seeing the sights. Single, Double and 3-bed rooms. Rooms available from £25 per night. Advance booking advisable. No breakfast. E. Hampson’s Holiday Park Something for all ages! Wide range of clubs and activities, sports, fishing, even a golf course. Only 10 minutes’ walk from the beach. Great value - from just £300 per week for a 4-bed holiday trailer. Call us today! F. Hostel Planet Voted coolest place to stay in town by a national website last year. Great place to get to know people from all over the world. Tours of the town and a whole range of other activities available. Choice of 10-bed and 16-bed rooms. Beds from £15 per night.

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G. Best View Hotel National 3-star hotel chain. Good value for money, including free parking and breakfast. Spacious and quiet, and we are located close to the main beach. We advise our guests to book early to avoid disappointment. Rooms from £70 per night.

H. The Grand Hotel Originally opened in 1911, offers guests a touch of quality. High-grade service, fine dining options and classically designed rooms. Follow in the footsteps of many famous people who have stayed here, such as Churchill and Chaplin. Prices available upon request.

4

© British Council. All rights reserved.

Questions 1-7

Look at the eight accommodation options in a seaside town, A-H, above and read the

descriptions of the people below.

Write the correct letter, A-H, in boxes 1-7 on your answer sheet

What is the most suitable holiday accommodation for each person?

1 A family of four who want to stay somewhere with lots of different things for everyone to

do.

2 A wealthy retired couple who don’t mind spending a bit more when they travel on holiday.

3 A group of three overseas students who are travelling around the country together, and

want to keep their expenses down.

4 Two female friends from the U.S.A. who want to stay somewhere traditional.

5 A Canadian tourist traveling alone who likes to socialize with other travelers.

6 A couple of friends from India who are traveling around by hire car and like to stay

somewhere near to scenic spots.

7 A middle-aged man who likes to stay in a place which provides breakfast and dinner at no

extra charge.

5

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Read the text below and answer Questions 8–14.

VISIT TORQUAY!

Still deciding where to take the family for your summer holiday this year? Then look no

further than Torquay! Located around an east-facing natural harbour on the English channel,

the town is full of surprises, with its magnificent bay, palm trees and sweeping sandy

beaches.

Delightful dining options

Torquay is an absolute heaven for foodies with a collection of seriously good eating

experiences, from celebrated restaurants to award-winning fish and chips. You’ll love the

seafood diners with fish sourced from nearby Brixham’s famous Fish Market. Families are

well catered for with plenty of family friendly eateries just a short distance from the attractive

harbour.

Families and Fun

The perfect place for families, the town has a huge number of sights and things to do. For

example Living Coasts, an amazing marine zoo next to the harbor with a pair of dolphins,

attracts visitors from all over the country. In addition, the world famous detective writer

Agatha Christie was born in Torquay and a walking trail and museum give fans a unique look

into her life story. Boat trips around the bay and to nearby Dartmouth, Waves Leisure Pool

and the amazing Kents Cavern, one of Europe’s top Stone Age cave sites, are just a few of

the other attractions.

Soak up the sights

The views from the lovely Royal Terrace Gardens are wonderful, with the magnificent new

lighted staircase a real treat after dark. From here, you can see right across the bay to

Brixham. Torquay is part of the English Riviera, a unique area whose natural beauty has real

‘wow’ factor.

Strolling and Walking

The spectacular landscape around the town will make you want to explore further and there

are 22 miles of coastal footpath to enjoy. Take a stroll behind the famous Imperial Hotel and

you’ll enjoy delightful views of the coastline. Go for a walk in the other direction and you’ll

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© British Council. All rights reserved.

pass some lovely scenery and catch sight of a steam train. You can also visit the traditional

English village of Cockington, which is located in a pretty valley close to the town.

Beaches and water activities

The town’s sheltered bay makes it perfect for a wide choice of activities including diving,

sailing, surfing and water skiing. Or why not just bring your bucket and spade and build a

giant sandcastle? Alternatively, just kick back and relax with a spot of sunbathing.

Evening Entertainment

The town comes alive in the evening with pretty lights all around the town. In addition to a

wealth of dining choices, there’s a great range of entertainment options. You can enjoy a

non-stop party in the popular clubs, or why not book a top quality show at the Princess

Theatre, one of many around the Bay?

So, what are you waiting for? Visit Torquay! TIME LIMITS Competitors who do not complete within the times listed below will be disqualified from the

race.

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Questions 8-14

Complete the sentences below.

Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the text for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 8-14 on your answer sheet.

Torquay is a coastal town in the U.K. with a famous 8._________which attracts many boats.

The town has a good selection of places to eat out; 9._____________is a local delicacy.

There are a lot of places for families, such as the 10._____________which has a lot of sea

creatures.

The 11._______________is a popular sight in town, especially at night.

With such a long coast, it’s a good idea to go 12.__________ to enjoy more attractive views.

If you don’t feel like doing anything active then 13. ____________ is a good choice.

In the evening, there are numerous 14.__________where you can see a live performance.

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© British Council. All rights reserved.

SECTION 2 Questions 15 –27

Read the text below and answer questions 15-20

Business Emails: The Importance of Structure Because of the volume we send and receive, and because they are often misinterpreted, it's important to write emails clearly and concisely. So, what's the key to keeping them short? Well, the best way to go about it is to use a standard structure, which is a regular template to follow. As well as keeping your emails short, this also helps you to produce them more quickly. Over time, you'll develop a structure that works for you, and in the meantime in this article I will provide one to get you started. The structure of the template contains a number of stages, so let's look at each of these in more detail. Greeting. This is the first line of the email. ‘Hi, [First Name]’ is a typical greeting. Compliment or pleasantry. When you're emailing someone for the first time, then a compliment makes an excellent opener. For example: • I enjoyed your presentation about [topic] on [date]. • It was good to meet you at [event]. If you're writing to someone you know, then use a pleasantry instead. This is typically a variation on ‘I hope you're well.’ Alternatively, you can say thank you for something they've helped you with or for information they sent in a previous email. The reason for your email. In this section you say, ‘I'm emailing to ask about...’, or, 'I was wondering if you could help with...’. You'll sometimes need two sentences to explain your reasons for writing. A call to action. After you've explained your reason for sending, don't assume the recipient will know what to do. Provide specific instructions. For example: • Could you send me those files by Thursday? • Could you write that up in the next two weeks? Structuring your request as a question encourages the recipient to get back to you. Alternatively, you can use the line ‘let me know if that's okay with you.’ Closing. Before you sign off your email, be sure to include a closing line. This has the dual purpose of repeating your call to action, and of making the recipient feel good. Examples of good closing lines include: • Thank you for all your help with this. • Let me know if you have any questions. Sign-off. Again, this is an appropriate way to show respect to the person you are writing to - it could be ‘Best Wishes’, ‘Kind Regards’, or ‘Thanks’. You should always follow your sign-off with your name.

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Questions 15-20

Complete the sentences below.

Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the text for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 15-20 on your answer sheet.

15. The fact that emails are easily _____________ is one reason why structure is important.

16. A ____________ shows respect by praising the recipient in some way.

17. A ____________is another way to begin an email.

18. Using a ____________gives the recipient a reason to reply.

19. It is useful to ___________the required action before ending the email.

20. A ___________is a polite method for bringing the message to a close.

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Read the text below and answer questions 21-27

Preparing a Negotiating Strategy

There are basic principles that apply to every negotiation. The first offer is usually the most important and the benchmark by which all subsequent proposals will be judged and compared. You'll never get what you don't ask for, so make your first offer bold and aggressive. The asking price is just that, and will typically include a margin to give away during negotiations. You want to take all of that and hopefully more, so start lower than the seller expects. As long as your offer is not ridiculous, the other side will continue the talks in hopes of settling at a better number.

As a buyer, do not disclose your budget or other limitations in your negotiating position. You want the best product you can get for your money, so employ an approach that maintains the possibility of spending less than you had originally planned. Always have something to trade without hurting your position. For example, consider including some nice-to-have items that aren't critical to the success of the project. If the buyer takes those out to reduce the overall cost, you haven't lost anything but it may help them to reach their price target. Such distractions will help to divert the other party from attacking the meat of your proposal.

Watch for clues such as body movement, speech patterns and reactions to what you say. Be prepared to suspend or cancel proceedings if you feel things are getting nowhere or the other party seems stuck in their position. If they are on the hook to cut a deal, they will feel the pressure to move. Be patient even if the other party isn't. This can be difficult for those with a passion for instant gratification, but the last thing you want is for the other party to think you're in a hurry to conclude negotiations.

From a contractual standpoint, a counteroffer automatically supersedes all previous offers. Once a proposal is made from your side, you should expect it to be accepted or rejected, or to receive a counteroffer that keeps the negotiation open. If it is rejected and you are asked to submit a new and better offer, do not fall into that trap. That would be tantamount to negotiating with yourself, and you should never do this. If the last offer on the table is yours, always insist on a counteroffer to force the other party to move their position before you make another proposal.

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Questions 21-27

Complete the sentences below.

Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the text for each answer. There may be more than one

possible answer.

Write your answers in boxes 21-27 on your answer sheet.

Preparing a negotiating strategy

l Be as 21.__________ as possible during the initial stage. l Never reveal your 22.____________. l Have some items you can easily 23._________. l Gestures and other body language are important 24.___________. l If the talks are not moving forward, be ready to 25. _________them. l Remaining 26.________when the other side are under pressure to act can be an effective

tactic. l Never put yourself at a disadvantage by 27.____________with yourself.

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SECTION 3 Questions 28–40

Read the text below and answer questions 28-40.

The History of ‘O.K.’ A. There is an English word used with such regularity the world over that it doesn’t need to be spoken - a simple hand gesture will suffice. So well-known is the word that it surprises many to learn that it did not exist until 200 years ago. It is the word ‘OK’. B. From its early days the term has always been used informally, which may explain the variations in its spelling that have come about over the years. While some publications prefer ‘okay’, others prefer ‘OK’, ‘O.K.’, ‘ok’ or ‘o.k.’. There has never been any consensus on whether it should be written as a full word or in shortened form; whether certain letters should be large or small; or whether there is a need for full stops after each letter. How the word is presented to readers in print has thus depended on the in-house style choices made by specific magazines, newspapers and institutions. C. Numerous possible explanations have been proposed for how OK entered the English language, but a common thread linking these theories is that it most likely originated in the U.S.A. during the early nineteenth century. An account that is accepted by many language experts is that it was originally one of a number of humorous abbreviations used by newspaper journalists and editors. For instance, ‘NG’ meant ‘no go’, while ‘OK’ was based on ‘all correct’ (‘Ol Korrect’). Another theory traces the source of the word back to slaves from West Africa; the word ‘o ke’. D. The word first rooted itself in public consciousness in the U.S.A. during 1840 Presidential election. The Democratic presidential candidate was Martin Van Buren, and on the campaign trail it was considered that having a Dutch name might prove a challenge. Consequently, one of his backers, the former President Jackson, suggested the nickname ‘OK’, which is likely to have been a reference to the candidate’s home town, ‘Old’ Kinderhook. Thereafter, following the nationwide publicizing of the term in such a high profile event by a former U.S. President, OK became a popular expression across the land. E. ‘OK’ has gone on to become a word which can fulfil a variety of functions in both written and spoken communication. For example, it can be utilised as an adjective to mean both ‘good’ and ‘not so good’ (such as, It’s OK, but I still prefer the other one). It can also be an adverb (The interview went OK). More recently, it has even been used as a noun (The boss gave his OK) and as a verb (She has okayed the colour). It is also commonly uttered while listening to another person speaking, to indicate that one is following the message. F. The meaning the word conveys depends greatly on tone used. Someone might yell, ‘OK!’ In a manner that shows excitement, while, in contrast, teenagers often use it in an irritated voice to intimate forcefully that their sensitivities have been offended. Adding to its versatility, ‘OK’ might suggest an explicit willingness to take action, but on the other hand might also express vagueness. For example, one might say it to acknowledge that one has heard something, while the other party

13

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might assume that one is indicating that one has agreed to take a particular course of action. G. With the global spread of English during the twentieth century, ‘OK’ has become a universal tool of communication. It is one of the first English words that people learn, and is not only used when communicating with native speakers, but has also been incorporated into many other languages. These developments can be attributed to the influence of English-language, especially American, media worldwide. It is certainly very unusual for an American movie or television show with a contemporary setting to avoid the term, and it is also commonly heard in the song lyrics of music fashionable with young people. H. Even in places where no English is spoken, the ‘OK’ gesture has generally become a universally recognized symbol, made by connecting the thumb and index finger into a circle (the ‘O’) and holding the other three fingers straight and relaxed in the air (the ‘K’). However, the sign may also have adverse meanings – for example that the other person is a ‘zero’ (nothing). This means it should be used carefully in an unfamiliar culture. As the world’s most commonly-used word, it will usually be safer and more effective to speak first, if you want to make sure things go ‘OK’.

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Questions 28-33

The text above has eight paragraphs, A-H.

Which paragraphs contain the following information?

Write the appropriate letters, A-H, in boxes 28-33 on your answer sheet.

28 speculations about the beginnings of the word

29 the flexibility of the word in the English language

30 editorial confusion in using the word

31 the origins of its widespread use

32 its usefulness as a way to express different moods

33 the use of the word in popular culture

Questions 34-37

Answer the questions below.

Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the text for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 34-37 on your answer sheet.

34. One theory about the word ‘OK’ is that it was based on which two words?

35. The 1840 U.S. Presidential Candidate Martin Van Buren was nicknamed ‘O.K.’ for what

reason?

36. When did ‘OK’ become popular outside the U.S.A.?

37. The ‘OK’ sign is made with which two fingers?

15

© British Council. All rights reserved.

Questions 38-40

Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

Write the correct letter in boxes 38-40 on your answer sheet.

38. The use of ‘O.K.’ in published form depends on

A which country the text is produced in

B the decisions of the particular publishing house

C what the writer intends to express

D the position of the word within a sentence

39. The reason the word ‘OK’ became so commonly-used after the 1840 election was that

A with so many people arriving in the country it was a simple and easy word to use

B the word was seen as humorous and used in many jokes

C the word became famous after being used by a former President

D a book was published which used the word in its title

40. The word ‘OK’ can sometimes express an attitude of vagueness because

A the word is so short and has many possible meanings

B the way in which the word is used depends on the mood of the speaker

C it contains the letter ‘O’ which can mean ‘zero’ or ‘nothing’

D the listener might just be showing that they understand the message

1© British Council. All rights reserved.

Candidate Number

Candidate Name ______________________________________________

INTERNATIONAL ENGLISH LANGUAGE TESTING SYSTEM

General Training Reading PRACTICE TEST 1 hour

Time 1 hour INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES Do not open this question paper until you are told to do so.

Write your name and candidate number in the spaces at the top of this page. Read the instructions for each part of the paper carefully.

Answer all the questions.

Write your answers on the answer sheet. Use a pencil.

You must complete the answer sheet within the time limit.

At the end of the test, hand in both this question paper and your answer sheet.

INFORMATION FOR CANDIDATES

There are 40 questions on this question paper.

2© British Council. All rights reserved.

Each question carries one mark.

SECTION 1 Questions 1-13

Read the text below and answer Questions 1 - 6.

A)

B)

C)

FIRST MONTH FREE

2 bedroom, 2 bath with washing machine. Large kitchen with custom cabinets and

professional appliances

High ceilings, hardwood flooring, large closet and private balcony

Gated community, two parking spaces and bicycle racks. Convenient location close to

three highways. 15 minute drive to downtown.

Walking distance to convenience shops,

supermarkets and restaurants.

$2995/month, 130 m2

$1400/month - 92 m2 - No Security Deposit

This large studio is one open area. There is a kitchen and a shared laundry machine is included.

Large window in the front of the room. Huge closet; new stove; air conditioning. Tenant pays electric

& gas. Parking available. Bus stop, all major lines, just steps away. Landlord lives in the building.

$3225/month - 185 m2

Your Own Elevator!

Luxury living available now! Top floor with private 27 m2 roof space. Live near all the great restaurants, clubs and theaters. Newer construction with gorgeous features including high ceilings.

Large master bedroom with two large closets. Bedrooms two and three have one closet each. Garage parking space included!

3© British Council. All rights reserved.

D)

E)

F)

G)

$1795/month - 139 m2

Beautiful, fully re-decorated 2-bedroom shared house in the suburbs. Close to Harmony primary academy. Covered parking, laundry in the basement, free storage closet. Rent includes utilities. You pay for rubbish removal. Convenient to shopping centers and the airport. Older couple live downstairs. Please no noise after 9pm.

$6750/month

This stunning, five-bedroom lake house was designed with many green components. Other features include: exposed steel beams and concrete floors. Lower level includes massive home entertainment/media/exercise room. 3 car attached garage. Boat dock included for an extra fee. Pets ok.

Beautiful, historic home! $2750/month

Washing machine, high-speed internet and microwave. Two bedrooms and two bathrooms. Five-minute drive to downtown. Walking distance to book stores, central library and coffee shops. Farmer’s market right outside every Wednesday and Saturday. Electric and gas only $50 a month.

$1000/month - Live Near The Zoo

Be the first to live in this new 55m2 unit right next to a beautiful park and river walking trail - and the City Zoo! Features brand new everything - kitchen cabinets, appliance package with washing machine, wood floors, & tile bathroom. Storage and laundry conveniently on site. City center just a 20 minute drive away!

4© British Council. All rights reserved.

Questions 1-6

Look at the seven rental home advertisements A-G on page ___ and read the descriptions of the people below

Which is the most suitable rental home for people who….?

… do not want to pay separately for electricity and have a young child.

1. _____

…are students and prefer a unique place to live

2. _____

…live with their extended family and enjoy outdoor activities

3. _____

…are on a budget who and do not own transportation

4. _____

…often have guests and enjoy night life

5. _____

…enjoy cooking and prefer a secure place to live

6. _____

5© British Council. All rights reserved.

Read the text below and answer questions 7-14

Road Safety Tips - What to do if your vehicle is having problems

First, you should note your vehicle’s location. If you encounter a problem while driving, make sure you are aware of your surroundings and general location. Know where you are in relation to a major exit or cross street and look for lighted areas. If you are on an interstate highway, note the kilometre marker, last exit number or nearest rest area. Your next step is to assess the problem. While driving, be aware of and know how to respond to warning signs such as steering problems, unusual noises or steam or smoke coming from under the hood. If it’s a flat tire or you run out of gas, try not to panic. Signal, slow down gradually and carefully pull onto the shoulder of the road, avoiding any sudden moves.

Be careful when pulling off the road. On most roads, you should exit onto the far right shoulder, as far off the road as possible while remaining on level ground. If you are driving on an interstate or multiple-lane highway with islands or separations, you may consider the left shoulder, again pulling as far away from traffic as possible. If you exit the vehicle, never stand behind or directly in front of it to help avoid injuries if your car is struck by another vehicle. Also, Be sure to alert other drivers. Make sure your vehicle is visible to other drivers, remembering that they may be traveling at a high rate of speed. Then, turn on the emergency flashers, especially at night or during bad weather.

Finally, always communicate your situation. Once you and any passengers are in a safe location, inform others of your vehicle breakdown. Make note of your surroundings and any buildings or road signs. If you have a cell phone, immediately use it to call for help and make the call from inside your vehicle if you are safely out of traffic. Otherwise, do so at a safe distance from the vehicle and road. The most important thing is to remain with your vehicle at all times. Safety experts agree that under most circumstances if you are able to pull away from traffic, it is safest to remain in your vehicle until a police officer arrives.

6© British Council. All rights reserved.

Questions 7-14 Complete the sentences below Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the text for each answer Be aware of your location and try to spot 7. __________. Remain calm when dealing with minor issues, such as a 8. __________. You should always exit to the right side of the road, unless it has 9. __________. Since other cars are moving quickly, yours should be easily seen by10. __________. Let others know what happened to your car as soon as you are in 11. __________. If your car is stopped in traffic, only use your phone away from the 12. __________. and 13. __________ believe that it is best to stay inside your car and wait for a 14. __________.

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SECTION 2 Questions 15–28

Read the text below and answer Questions 15 - 21.

Leadership

Leaders help themselves and others to do the right things. They set direction, build an inspiring vision, and create something new. Leadership is about mapping out where you need to go to "win" as a team or an organization. Yet, while leaders set the direction, they must also use management skills to guide their people to the right destination, in a smooth and efficient way. An effective leader is a person who creates an inspiring vision of the future and motivates and inspires people to engage with that vision. They also manage delivery of the vision and coach and build a team so that it is more effective at achieving the vision.

In business, a vision is a realistic, convincing and attractive depiction of where you want to be in the future. Vision provides direction, sets priorities, and provides a marker, so that you can tell that you've achieved what you wanted to achieve. To create a vision, leaders focus on an organization's strengths by using a wide variety of tools and analyses. They have to think about how their industry is likely to evolve, and how their competitors are likely to behave. Leaders also feel it’s important to look at how they can innovate successfully and shape their businesses and strategies to succeed in future marketplaces. Therefore, leadership is proactive and leaders remain engaged in problem solving and looking ahead.

Once they have developed their visions, leaders must make them compelling and convincing. A compelling vision is one that people can see, feel and understand. Effective leaders provide a rich picture of what the future will look like when their visions have been realized. They tell inspiring stories, and explain their visions in ways that everyone can relate to. Leadership combines the analytical side of vision creation with the passion of shared values, creating something that's really meaningful to the people being led. While a compelling vision provides the foundation for leadership, it is the leaders'

8

ability to consistently motivate and inspire people that helps them to deliver that vision.

For example, when you start a new project, you will probably have lots of enthusiasm for it at the beginning. However, it can be difficult to find ways to keep your vision inspiring after the initial enthusiasm fades. Leaders recognize this important fact, and they work hard throughout the project to connect their vision with people's individual needs, goals and aspirations.

9

Questions 15-21

Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

15. What kind of ability do leaders use to ensure their workers are going in the right direction?

A. competition B. administration C. persuasion 16. Realizing a vision requires leaders to do what with teams? A. create B. deliver C. evolve 17. Why is it important for businesses to have a vision? A. it allows them to check their progress B. it exposes key weaknesses C. both A and B 18. Anticipating problems and focusing on the future are examples of what kind of behavior? A. attractive B. connective C. proactive 19. What should an inspiring vision be? A. detailed and easily understood B. communicated from the leader to their workers C. both A and B 20. A vision can become reality when a leader does what? A. makes their workers rich B. keeps their workers focused C. recognizes their workers’ importance 21. What is perhaps the most challenging part of keeping a vision alive? A. maintaining passion from beginning to end B. shaping a company’s strategy C. telling encouraging stories

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Read the text below and answer Questions 22-28.

Team Building Approaches

Team building refers to different types of activities that can improve social relations and define roles within teams. Team training, on the other hand, is designed to improve team efficiency, rather than the relationships between team members. Many team building exercises aim to expose and address problems between group members. That is why it is one of the pillars of organizational development. All types of groups, including sports teams, school classes, military units or flight crews all use it to improve performance. The formal definition of team building includes: aligning around goals, building effective working relationships, reducing team members' role confusion and finding solutions to team problems. Of all organizational activities, one study found team development to have the strongest effect for improving an organizations’ performance. A 2008 analysis found that team enhancement activities improve both a team's objective performance and that team's subjective ratings from their superiors. Improving a group’s ability to work together benefits the individual, their work unit and the organization as a whole.

There are four main approaches to team building: setting goals, role clarity, problem solving and inter personal (IP) relations. Goal setting emphasizes the importance of clear objectives and individual and team goals. Team members are involved in action planning to identify ways to define success and failure and achieve goals. This is intended to strengthen motivation and foster a sense of ownership. If work mates are involved in setting their own goals, it is more likely that they will achieve them. Teams can also measure their progress by identifying specific outcomes and tests of gradual success. Many organizations negotiate a team charter with the team leaders. This ensures that everyone’s efforts move in the same direction.

Role clarity focuses on improving team members' understanding of their own and others' respective roles and duties. This reduces confusion and promotes understanding of the importance of structure. It also places importance on members' support and the value of having each member focus on their own role in the team's success. Problem solving, on the other hand, focuses on identifying major problems within the team and working together to find solutions. This can have the added benefit of enhancing critical thinking. Finally, the field of IP relations tends to increase teamwork skills, such as giving and receiving support, communication and sharing. Teams with fewer IP conflicts generally function more effectively than others.

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Questions 22-28 Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text? Answer True, False, or Not Given to questions 15 - 21 22. Team building activities fix group members’ relationship problems. 23. Team building can be useful for athletic organizations but not pilots and plane officers. 24. Team participants make plans to accomplish their aims. 25. Setting general goals is the best way for team to monitor advancement. 26. Role clarity seeks to minimize doubt and define boundaries. 27. Team building has little impact on organizational effectiveness. 28. Teams focusing on inter personal (IP) relations tend to receive more awards.

12

SECTION 3 Questions 29–40

Read the text below and answer questions 29 - 40

Caving

29. _____ Caving is the recreational pastime of exploring wild cave systems. In

contrast, “speleology” is the scientific study of caves and the cave environment. The

challenges involved in caving vary according to the cave being visited, but, in

addition to the total absence of light beyond the entrance, often include the

negotiation of steep angles, squeezes and water hazards. Cave diving is a distinct,

and more hazardous, specialty undertaken by a small minority of technically

proficient cavers. In an area of overlap between recreational pursuit and scientific

study, the most devoted and serious minded cavers become accomplished at the

surveying and mapping of caves and the formal publication of their efforts. Many

caving skills overlap with those involved in canyoning, as well as mine and urban

exploration. Sometimes categorized as an extreme sport, it is not commonly

considered as such by long-time enthusiasts, who may dislike the term for its

connotation of disregard for safety.

30. _____ Caving has also been described as an "individualist's team sport" by

some, as cavers can often make a trip without direct physical assistance from others

but will generally go in a group for companionship or to provide emergency help if

needed. Some, however, consider the assistance cavers give each other as a typical

team sport activity. Too much emphasis on the labeling of caving as a sport can

narrow the goals of caving as a whole. Caving is often undertaken for the enjoyment

of the outdoor activity or for physical exercise, as well as original exploration, similar

to mountaineering or diving. Caving often puts the needs and welfare of a cave

before those of the active participants. It is fair to say that while caving shares some

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attributes of sport activities, for many it goes beyond sports as many cavers pursue

cave science, mapping, and the management and conservation of cave resources.

31. _____ Physical or biological science is also an important goal for some cavers.

Virgin cave systems comprise some of the last unexplored regions on Earth and

much effort is put into trying to locate, enter and survey them. In well-explored

regions, the most accessible caves have already been explored, and gaining access

to new caves often requires cave digging or cave diving. Caving, in certain areas,

has also been utilized as a form of eco and adventure tourism. Tour companies have

established an industry leading and guided tours into and through caves. Depending

on the type of cave and the type of tour, the experience could be adventurous or

ecological. In many areas, there are tours led through lava tubes by a guiding

service. Exploring such structures is not without some element of risk.

32. _____ Caves can be dangerous places; dangerously low body temperature,

falling, flooding, falling rocks and physical exhaustion are the main risks. Rescuing

people from underground is difficult and time-consuming, and requires special skills,

training, and equipment. Hard hats are worn to protect the head from bumps and

falling rocks. The caver's primary light source is usually mounted on the helmet in

order to keep the hands free. Electric LED lights are most common. Many cavers

carry two or more sources of light - one as primary and the others as backup in case

the first fails. More often than not, a second light will be mounted to the helmet for

quick transition if the primary fails. Clothing is also of vital importance. The type of

clothes worn underground varies according to the environment of the cave being

explored, and the local culture. In cold caves, the caver may wear a warm base layer

that retains its insulating properties when wet, such as a fleece suit, and an over suit

of hard-wearing or waterproof material. Lighter clothing may be worn in warm caves,

particularly if the cave is dry, and in tropical caves thin clothing is used to provide

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some scratch protection whilst remaining as cool as possible. Other specialized

equipment, also used in climbing, is important to have on-hand.

33. _____ Ropes, for example, are used for descending or ascending pitches or for

protection. Knots commonly used in caving are the figure-of-eight-loop, bowline,

alpine butterfly, and Italian hitch. Ropes are usually rigged using bolts, slings, and

carabiners. In some cases cavers may choose to bring and use a flexible metal

ladder. In addition to the equipment already described, cavers frequently carry packs

containing first-aid kits, emergency equipment, and food. Containers for securely

transporting waste are also commonly carried. During very long trips, it may be

necessary to camp in the cave - some cavers have stayed underground for many

days, or in particularly extreme cases, for weeks at a time. This is particularly the

case when exploring or mapping very extended cave systems, where it would be

impractical to go back over the route back to the surface regularly.

15

Questions 29-33 Select the most appropriate heading for each paragraph above from the heading options box. Write the letter of the heading next to each paragraph.

Questions 34-40

Complete the sentences below. Use NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer 34. Cave diving is only done by a _____ of very experienced cavers. 35. Cavers often explore caves without _____ from others. 36. Many people believe that caving _____ sports. 37. Some tour guides lead cavers through an adventurous tour of _____. 38. People wear _____ to protect their heads while caving. 39. Thin clothing is worn in _____ caves. 40. It is sometimes required to _____ in caves during long trips.

Heading Options

A. Be careful B. Caving for discovery C. Be prepared D. A responsible activity E. Caving explained F. Digging and diving G. Caving culture

1© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved.

ANSWERS Each question correctly answered scores 1 mark. Correct spelling is needed in all answers.

General Training Reading practice paper 1

SECTION 1

1. send a messenger

2. short bell rings

3. nearest staircase/stairs

4. (paved) quadrangle (area)/quad

5. (all) support staff/personnel

6. the (class) roll

7. all clear (signal)

8. (their) home-room groups

9. TRUE

10. FALSE

11. NOT GIVEN

12. NOT GIVEN

13. FALSE

14. TRUE

SECTION 2

15. vi

16. viii

17. v

18. x

19. ii

20. i

21. iii

22. final written warning

23. formal appeal hearing

24. B

25. E

26. D

27. C

28. A

SECTION 3

29. C

30. E

31. B

32. H

33. A

34. F

35. D

36. functional strength

37. mass monsters

38. injuries

39. weight training

40. cardiovascular health

1© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved.

ANSWERS Each question correctly answered scores 1 mark. Correct spelling is needed in all answers.

General Training Reading practice paper 2

SECTION 1

1. TRUE

2. FALSE

3. FALSE

4. NOT GIVEN

5. TRUE

6. TRUE

7. NOT GIVEN

8. A

9. B

10. C

11. C

12. B

13. C

14. A

SECTION 2

15. NOT GIVEN

16. TRUE

17. TRUE

18. FALSE

19. TRUE

20. FALSE

21. TRUE

22. ix

23. vi

24. ii

25. viii

26. v

27. iii

SECTION 3

28. E

29. H

30. C

31. B

32. F

33. D

34. locale (and) theme (in either

order; both required for one

mark)

35. (a) pivotal character / individual

activity

36. (the) visual field

37. character interaction

38. cost

39. promotional materials

40. unbalanced

1© The British Council 2012. All rights reserved.

ANSWERS Each question correctly answered scores 1 mark. Correct spelling is needed in all answers.

General Training Reading practice paper 3

SECTION 1

1. H

2. B

3. F

4. D

5. NOT GIVEN

6. FALSE

7. TRUE

8. NOT GIVEN

9. FALSE

10. minus 16 / -16

11. 20

12. 12

13. air dry

14. (compact) fluorescent

SECTION 2

15. TRUE

16. FALSE

17. NOT GIVEN

18. TRUE

19. TRUE

20. FALSE

21. TRUE

22. (tele)phone number

23. direct line

24. (just) listen / listen patiently

25. take notes

26. (unreservedly)

apologise/apologize

27. deliver

SECTION 3

28.–31. IN ANY ORDER

A

D

G

I

32. FALSE

33. TRUE

34. NOT GIVEN

35. FALSE

36. H

37. I

38. A

39. B

40. G

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ANSWERS  Each  question  correctly  answered  scores  1  mark.  Correct  spelling  is  needed  in  all  answers.  

General  Training  Reading  practice  test  4    

SECTION 1 1 crime 2 disadvantaged 3 signs 4 voice 5 area coordinator 6 group contact 7 civil emergency 8 FALSE 9 TRUE 10 FALSE 11 NOT GIVEN 12 FALSE 13 TRUE 14 NOT GIVEN

SECTION 2 15 the internet 16 an appointment 17 level of formality 18 mock interviews 19 physical evidence/original documents 20 contingency plan 21 C 22 E 23 A 24 D 25 C 26 B 27 A

SECTION 3 28 F 29 C 30 E 31 I 32 A 33 NOT GIVEN 34 FALSE 35 TRUE 36 TRUE 37 C 38 A 39 C 40 D

©  British  Council.  All  rights  reserved.     1    

ANSWERS Each question correctly answered scores 1 mark. Correct spelling is needed in all answers.

General Training Reading practice test 5

SECTION 1 1 FALSE 2 TRUE 3 TRUE 4 NOT GIVEN 5 TRUE 6 FALSE 7 NOT GIVEN 8 driving course 9 clean record 10 insurance (premiums) 11 scooters 12 taxi (or) limousine 13 registration plate 14 probation period

SECTION 2 15 D 16 A 17 D 18 B 19 C 20 B 21 viii 22 v 23 i 24 vii 25 x 26 iii 27 vi

SECTION 3 28 E 29 H 30 F 31 D 32 C 33 A 34 E 35 G 36 C 37 TRUE 38 TRUE 39 FALSE 40 NOT GIVEN

© British Council. All rights reserved. 1

ANSWERS

Each question correctly answered scores 1 mark. Correct spelling is needed in all answers.

General Training Reading practice test 6

SECTION 1

1 an honest mistake/a mistake

2 a time limit

3 written records

4 withdraw

5 contact details

6 writing

7 FALSE

8 TRUE

9 NOT GIVEN

10 TRUE

11 TRUE

12 FALSE

13 FALSE

14 FALSE

SECTION 2

15 content

16 key points

17 close bond

18 gesture/(hand/appropriate/effective) gestures

19 shoulders

20 calmness

21 (more) authoritative

22 public image

23 promotional information

24 special events

25 telephone (conversations)

26 any (given) proposal

27 (effective) mediation

SECTION 3

28 E

29 C

30 D

31 B

32 A

33 C

34 A

35 C

36 B

37 A

38 C

39 B

40 B

1© British Council. All rights reserved.

ANSWERS Each question correctly answered scores 1 mark. Correct spelling is needed in all answers. General Training Reading practice test 7 SECTION 1

1. G 2. C 3. E 4. H 5. F 6. A 7. D 8. C 9. A 10. C 11. B 12. A 13. B SECTION 2

14. C 15. A 16. F 17. D 18. H 19. B 20. G 21. fee-paying adult 22. strictly forbidden 23. guided tour / guided ranger tour 24. take them away 25. emergency phones 26. recyclable litter

SECTION 3

27. B 28. C 29. A 30. D 31. FALSE 32. NOT GIVEN 33. FALSE 34. TRUE 35. NOT GIVEN 36. TRUE 37. B 38. A 39. D 40. A

1© British Council. All rights reserved.

ANSWERS Each question correctly answered scores 1 mark. Correct spelling is needed in all answers. General Training Reading practice test 8 SECTION 1

1. E 2. H 3. D 4. B 5. F 6. G 7. A 8. habour 9. fish and chips 10. marine zoo 11. lighted staircase 12. for a walk / for a stroll 13. sunbathing 14. theatres SECTION 2

15. misinterpreted 16. compliment 17. pleasantry 18. request 19. repeat 20. sign-off 21. bold / aggressive 22. budget / limitations 23. trade 24. clues 25. suspend / cancel 26. patient 27. negotiating

SECTION 3

28. C 29. E 30. B 31. D 32. F 33. G 34. all correct 35. his hometown 36. 20th century 37. thumb, index finger 38. B 39. C 40. D

1© British Council. All rights reserved.

ANSWERS Each question correctly answered scores 1 mark. Correct spelling is needed in all answers. General Training Reading practice test 8 SECTION 1

1. D 2. F 3. E 4. B 5. C 6. A 7. lighted areas 8. flat tire 9. islands or separations 10. other drivers 11. a safe location 12. vehicle and road 13. safety experts 14. police officer SECTION 2

15. B 16. A 17. A 18. C 19. C 20. B 21. A 22. NOT GIVEN 23. FALSE 24. TRUE 25. FALSE 26. TRUE 27. FALSE 28. NOT GIVEN

SECTION 3

29. caving explained 30. a responsible activity 31. caving for discovery 32. be careful 33. be prepared 34. small minority 35. physical assistance 36. goes beyond 37. lava tubes 38. hard hats 39. tropical 40. camp