csat paper 1

7/27/2019 Csat Paper 1

1/19

NUMEN CIVIL SERVICE COACHING CENTRE

Civil Service (Preliminary), 2013

TEST SERIES

CSAT Paper I (TEST 1)

NUMEN COACHING CENTRE, ANJANEYAM, LMN 14, KUNNINPURAM LANE,

LAXMINAGAR, NEAR LIC, PATTOM, TRIVANDRUM


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1. The International Telecommunication Union

(ITU) is responsible for issues that

concern information and communication

technologies. Which of the following

statements is correct about it?

1) ITU is an agency of the United Nationswhich also sets rules of communication for

Internet

2) International Telecommunication

Regulations (ITR) represents binding

agreement between countries regarding the

rules for telecommunication

3) The ITU coordinates the shared global use

of the radio spectrum, promotes

international cooperation in assigning

satellite orbits.

(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 2 (d) All the above

2. Cable Television Network (Regulation)

Amendment Act has made it mandatory to

digitalize cable network across the country.

Which of the statements regarding digitization

are correct?

1) Digitization would allow using television,

internet as well as telephony using the

same cable line

2) Digital transmission however is more

susceptible to theft as compared to analog

transmission

3) The existing co-axial cable lines will need

to be replaced for digitalization of network

(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

3. The Pharmaceutical sector has consistently

been in news with matters relating to

acquisition of Indian companies by the foreign

ones and also granting of compulsory licensing

by the Government. Select the correct

statement from below.

1) The Indian Pharma sector has moved

from Product based patent regime to

Process based regime as required by TRIPS

2)100% FDI is allowed through automatic

approval route for all investments under

this sector

3) After complying with TRIPS agreement

the time period after which license could be

granted under normal conditions for

generic drug production has increased.

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 only

(c) 2 only (d) 3 only

4. With melting of ice in the Arctic, there has

been an increased interest for its potentialresources. Consider the following statements

regarding the Arctic Council and choose the

correct ones?

1) Arctic Council is a United Nations forum

to resolve conflict among the disputing

nations and to safeguard it as part of global

commons

2) India has recognized the Arctic States

sovereignty, sovereign rights and

jurisdiction in the Arctic

3) India is pushing forward to be a

permanent member of the Arctic Council


(c) 2 only (d) 2 and 3

5. Which of the following statements regarding

International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) is

correct?

1) Ratification of Nuclear Non-ProliferationTreaty is not a precondition to join IAEA

2) It is independent of United Nations but

reports to UN Security Council and UN

General Assembly

3) All countries signing NPT are automatically

put under IAEA safeguards
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4) India though non signatory to NPT has

committed to open its civilian nuclear

facilities to IAEA inspection.

(a) 2 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 4

(c) 1 and 3 (d) All the above

6. If water only absorbed light and did not

scatter it, what colour would the water appear

from above?

(a) Blue (b) Yellow

(c) Black (d) White

7. The CBI is one of the premier investigation

agencies of India. Consider the followingstatements about it

1) It draws its powers from the CBI act

1946.

2) It is under the supervision of the CVC in

corruption cases, and under the

Department of Personnel and Training in

other matters.

3) It can take up investigation of crimes in

states only with the consent of the state

government concerned or under thedirections of the courts.

Which of the above are correct?

a) 1 only b) 1 and 2

c) 2 and 3 d) All the above

8. Which of the following statements about

Right to Information (RTI) is/are correct?

1) Information under RTI can be sought via

e-mail

2) Both Article 19 and Article 21 give

constitutional support to RTI

3) The File Notings are exempted from

disclosure under RTI

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2

(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of the above

9. Indias National Policy on Biofuels aims to

promote biofuels as an important componentof our energy mix to reduce oil imports.

Consider the following statements regarding

Biofuels and state which of them are true?

1) Bioethanol could be mixed with diesel as

fuel for usage in diesel vehicles.

2) Jatropha plantation for biodiesel is

adversely impact food security of India by

diverting fertile agricultural lands for its

plantation

3) Extract from Jatropha seeds coulddirectly be used (without refining) in diesel

generators

(4) There is MSP for non-edible oil seeds

(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4

10. Which of the following is not a source for

biofuel?

1) Seaweed

2) Grass

3) Algae

4) Hydrogen fuel

5) Animal Fats

6) Peat


(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 4

11. Large areas of organic wetland (peat) soils

are currently drained for agriculture, forestry

and peat extraction. Choose the correct

statements from below.

1. Peat forms in wetland conditions, where

flooding obstructs the flow of oxygen from


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(a) 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 3

(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4

16. The IUCN Red List of Species (also known as

the IUCN Red List or Red Data List) is the world'smost comprehensive inventory of the

global conservation status ofbiological species.

When discussing the IUCN Red List, the official

term threatened is a grouping of which of the

following categories?

1) Critically Endangered

2) Extinct from Wild

3) Endangered

4) Vulnerable

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 3 and 4

(c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 and 4

17. Reserved forests or Protected forests are

terms denoting forests accorded a certain

degree of protection. Which of the following

statements regarding them are correct?

1) In Reserved forests, explicit permission is

required for activities like logging, grazing

2) In Protected forests, activities like

logging, grazing are allowed unless explicitly

prohibited

3) Reserved forests and Protected forests

are declared by the respective state

governments while National Parks are

declared by Government of India


(c) All of the above (d) None of the above

18. Which of the following statements

regarding a Biosphere Reserve is correct?

1) Protection is granted to the flora and

fauna of the protected region, and the

human communities who inhabit these

regions are evicted

2) It comes under Category V of IUCN

Protected areas

3) Research, Development and logistics is

an important aspect of Biosphere Reserves

(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 only (d) All of the above

19. In a bid to bring environmental concerns

into mainstream accounting, the government

plans to release green GDP data from

2015.What is Green GDP?

(a) Calculating the total value of all the

produce that has taken place in sustainable

manner

(b) Adjusting the countrys GDP accounting

for economic costs of environmental

degradation

(c) Calculating the total value of all the

environmental resources available for

production process

(d) None of the above

20. Availability of drugs at the right price is

essential for a nations health. The NewPharmaceutical Pricing Policy(NPPP) is deigned

to realize this vision. Which of the following are

the principles of the NPPP to control prices?

1) Recognition of Drugs as an essential good

2) Cost of production based pricing

3) Control of prices of only bulk drugs and

intermediaries



21. Speaker is the guardian of powers and

privileges of the members of Lok Sabha. Which

of the following with respect to the Speaker are

correct?
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1) His power of regulating procedure orconducting business is not subject to

jurisdiction of any Court

2) He has to resign from his membershipof his party on his election as Speaker

3) He does not have right to vote onlegislations

4) He nominates a panel of Chairpersonsto preside the House in his absence

(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1 and 4


22. Recently the President of India Shri. Pranab

Mukherjee stressed the importance of

popularizing Alternate methods of DisputeResolution (ADR). Consider following

statements regarding different tools of ADRs

(Arbitration, Conciliation, Mediation,

Negotiation) and select the correct answer from

the given codes.

1) While Mediation would involve making

proposals for settlement, Conciliation

would merely facilitate a settlement

between the parties.

2) Once submitted for arbitration, theArbitrator renders their verdicts and

imposes them, with or without the consent

of the parties.

3) Negotiation does not involve any third

party and is done by the parties themselves.

(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3


23. The Law of the Sea Convention (UNCLOS)defines the rights and responsibilities of nations

in their use of the world's oceans and the

management of marine natural resources.

Which of the following statements regarding

UNCLOS is/are correct?

1) Vessels of foreign countries have right to

passage through territorial waters of another

country if it does not prejudice its security or

peace

2) A country can initiate prosecution against

the offender for crime committed in its

contiguous zone

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 2 (d) none of the above

24. Acts of Piracy threaten maritime security by

endangering the welfare of seafarers and the

security of navigation and commerce. Consider

the following statement with respect to piracy

and choose the correct ones?

1) There is universal jurisdiction and action

can be taken against pirates withoutobjection from the flag state of the pirate

vessel.

2) There are problems in prosecution of

pirates since piracy as a crime is not

recognized under Indian criminal law


(c) 1 and 2 (d) None of the above

25. Which of the following statementsregarding the National Investigating Agency

(NIA) is correct?

1) NIA has concurrent jurisdiction with states

and does not need permission of states for

investigation into matters under its mandate

2) Apart from terrorism it also deals with

narcotics and drug trafficking

3) It however has only investigating powers

without powers of arrest and prosecution



26. Cabinet Committee on Investment (CCI) has

been set up to quicken the process of clearance

in time bound manner for important projects
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Natural_resourcehttp://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Natural_resource


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which have been facing delays. Choose the

correct options from below regarding the same.

1) It is chaired by the Finance minister

2) Cabinet Secretariat is the nodal agency

for coordinating CCI meetings and setting

agenda

3) It can override decision by individual

ministry


(c) 2 only (d) None of the above

27. The UN has asked India to revoke AFSPA

saying it had the no place in Indian democracy

and is against International Covenant on Civil

and Political Rights. Choose the correctstatements with respect to the same.

1) Central Government as well the Governor

of state can declare an area as Disturbed

for application of AFSPA

2) AFSPA is currently being applicable to all

the seven North Eastern States

3) Justice Jeevan Reddy commission

constituted to study this act has called for its

repeal



28.World Conference on International

Telecommunications (WCIT) in Dubai, on

December 2012 reviewed the International

Telecommunication Regulations (ITRs),

designed to facilitate international

interconnection and interoperability of

information and communication services.Choose the correct statements regarding this

conference.

1) It proposed to establish regulatory

oversight by UN over internet

2) While India opposed it US and UK were in

support of such regulation

3) Currently ICANN, an international

multilateral organization controls

coordination of internet protocol, address

spaces and management of top level domain

names



29. Pandit Ravi Shankar who recently passed

away was an expert Sitar player. Which of

following is/are correct about Sitar?

1) Modern Sitar, which today has many

strings, originated as three string instrument

during Mughal rule

2) The South Indian tradition of musicgenerally doesnt use Sitar in compositions


(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of the above

30. Designer crops are designed to solve the

food security concerns of the resource starved

earth. Consider following statements regarding

designer crops and select the correct answer

from the given codes.

1) Designer crops are also called transgenic

crops.

2) It uses Marker Assisted Selection,

wherein gene sequencing is used.



31. As per the Convention on Biodiversity (CBD)

which among the following conditions are the

criteria for the designation of Ecologically and

Biologically Significant Areas (EBSA).

1) Uniqueness or Rarity

2) Special importance for life history stages

of species and habitats
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3) Vulnerability, fragility, sensitivity, or slow

recovery

4) Biological productivity

5) Naturalness

(a) 1, 3, 4 and 5 (b) 2,3 and 4

(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) All of the above

32. A new study has found that exposure to

Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs) may also

play a role in developing type 2 diabetes. Which

of the following are characteristics of POPs.

1) High water solubility

2) Semi-volatility

3) Low lipid solubility

4) They tend to accumulate in colder

regions of the world



33. Past two months several sea turtle or green

turtle carcasses have been found littering along

coastline in Tamilnadu.

1) Green turtle is in the endangered

category of IUCN Red List

2) They usually migrate from the Polar

Regions to the Indian coast during the

breeding season

3) It is the only known sea turtle species

that is herbivorous

4) The species' common name does not

derive from any particular green external

coloration of the turtle.

(a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 1and 2

(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3

34. India had created National Clean Energy

Fund (NCEF) out of a cess at the rate of Rs. 50

per tonne of coal to invest in entrepreneurial

and research in clean energy technologies.

Choose the correct statements from below.

1) Carbon tax is revenue positive when itinvolves no adjustment to other tax rates in

the economy.

2) Carbon tax is revenue neutral when other

tax rates are adjusted so that the revenue

inflow from carbon tax is exactly balanced

by an equal reduction in yields from

reduced taxes

3) It is levied on both public as well as

private companies.

4) Even if we follow a revenue neutralpolicy we would incur a loss on the GDP

side.

(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 3


35. Nicobar Megapod and Narcondum Hornbill

were in news with respect to question of

Security vs. Environment, over which the

Defence Ministry and Environment Ministry

fought. Which of the following statements

about them is/are correct?

1) Nicobar Megapod is a critically

endangered bird under IUCN.

2) Narcondum Hornbill is a bird species

native to North East India.



36. The three ecological pyramids that areusually studied are pyramid of number, pyramid

of biomass and pyramid of energy. Which of the

following statements are true about them?

1) Pyramid of energy always shows a

decrease towards higher trophic level
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2) Pyramid of number can increase or


3) Pyramid of biomass always shows a




37. Interspecific interactions arise from the

interaction of populations of two different

species. Select the correct statements about

different types of interaction?

1) Commensalism refers to interaction

where both the interacting species neither

harm each other nor benefit

2) Amensalism refers to interaction whereone species benefits while other is harmed

3) Competition refers to interaction where

both the species are negatively affected



38. Use of Bt Cotton has been a subject of

debate ever since its introduction with it having

fair share of success as well as failures. How isBt Cotton different from normal ones?

1) It consists of a genetic trait taken from a

pest resistant plant to save it from pest

attack

2) This implanted genetic trait codes for a

protein that that gets activated only in the

alkaline medium of insects gut, thus killing

them without affecting human beings



39. Mobile touch screens basically operate on

either Resistive touch or Capacitive touch.

Select the correct statements regarding them.

1) Resistive touch screen is more costly but

has better clarity than Capacitive

2) Resistive touch screen have longer life

than Capacitive



40. The Government of India Act. 1919 brought

forth the concept ofDiarchy in the Indian

political landscape. How was the concept of

diarchy envisaged under the act?

(a) It for the first time introduced Bicameral

legislature i.e. the Upper House and the

Lower House

(b) It demarcates the Central and Provincialsubjects

(c) It divides provincial subjects between

Executive Council and the popular Ministers

(d) It provides for setting up of

Parliamentary panel in the House of Lords

to look after Indian affairs

41. Which of the following statements regarding

Constituent Assembly are correct?1) The Constituent Assembly was truly a

representative body as it members were

elected by the people on the basis of

universal adult franchise

2) The Constituent Assembly was constituted

under the scheme formulated by the

Mountbatten Plan



42. Cornwallis brought about significant

changes in administration during his tenure.

Which of the following reforms were

undertaken by him?

1) He modernized and rationalized civil

services in India


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4) S-waves are considered the most

damaging.


(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) All the above

48. Consider the following statements about

Fogs and choose the correct ones.

1) Fogs are more common in sea than in

land.

2) Dense fogs are more likely to occur in

the tropics rather than the high and

middle latitude.

3) Fog occurs only in lower strata of

atmosphere.

4) The fog associated with the leakage of

radioactive elements is called radiation

fog.

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3


49. The latitudinal differences in pressure

delineate a number of major pressure zones,

which correspond with

(a) Zones of climate

(b) Zones of ocean

(c) Zones of land

(d) Zones of cyclonic depression

50. The landforms that are created by massive

earth movements due to plate tectonics are

called

(a) Structural landforms

(b) Depositinal landforms

(c) Erosionial landforms

(d) Weathering landforms

51. Rangarajan Panel was set up to look into the

current issues regarding Sugar pricing and

regulatory control over it. Select from below the

correct statements regarding existing

mechanism of controls over sugarcane and

sugar.

1) Each farmer has a designated sugar mill

and can sell his produce only to that mill.

2) Sugar mills have to set aside 10% of their

produce reserved for government

procurement for Targeted Public Distribution

System

3) There is mandatory jute packing for sugar

4) Government decides as to how much

sugar is released into the domestic open

market for sale by mill owners

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4


52. Which of the following statements is true

about Rajiv Gandhi Equity Saving Scheme?

1) The scheme is targeted at encouraging

small investors to enter capital market

2) This scheme is applicable to first time

investors only

3) Investment under this scheme however

does not attract tax benefit

4) There is no lock-in period for the

investment


(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 4

53. Priority sector refers to those which may

not get timely and adequate credit in absence

of special attention. Choose the correct

statements regarding priority sector.

1) Education and Housing are included under

it


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2) There are separate targets for credit

disbursement under it for small and micro

industries as well as for weaker sections

3) Loans given to Micro finance institutions

for loaning it to agricultural needs comes

under priority sector lending

4) All the loans under priority sector have

lower interest rates

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3


54. Which of the following would result in

regressive taxation policy going against the

principle of equity?

1) Increase in Excise duty

2) Increase in Sales tax

3) Increase in Personal Income tax

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3


55. Anti-Dumping Duty and Countervailing Duty

are two mechanisms which India uses to protect

domestic industry from foreign ones. Choose

the correct statements from below with respect

to them.

1) Countervailing Duty is applied to imported

goods to counterbalance impact of excise

duty on indigenous manufacturers

2) Anti-Dumping Duty is product specific and

not country or company specific

3) Anti-Dumping duty is recognized by WTO

as fair practice against cheap foreign goods.


(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3

56. Current Account Deficit (CAD) has emerged

as an important cause of worry for the

Government, with deficit reaching as high as

5.4% of GDP. Which of the following measures

can reduce CAD?

1) Deregulation of Diesel prices

2) Increased FDI inflows

3) Speeding up environmental clearances forcoal mines

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3


57. What is Transfer Pricing?

(a) Method used by MNCs to shift profit

from high taxation countries to low taxation

ones to reduce tax burden

(b) It is the process of routing investmentsto a country through tax havens

(c) It is reducing import duty burden by

quoting low cost price

(d) Hedging the price of commodity against

volatility in global market

58. India is trying to move away from WPI

(Wholesale Price Index) towards CPI (Consumer

Price Index).Which of the following are the

benefits of CPI over WPI?

1) Data collections is easy in CPI

2) The variations in price is lesser for CPI

3) It is easy to monitor

4) More weightage is given to primary

goods



59. How does increase in fiscal deficit have

adverse effect on Balance of Payments?

1) By making cost of external borrowing

high

2) By resulting in outflow of foreign capital


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3) By reduction in imports

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3


60. The qualification and disqualification of a

Member of Parliament is laid down in the

Constitution and its enabling Representation of

Peoples Act. Which of the following statements

are correct?

1) He must be registered as an elector in the

parliamentary constituency he is contesting

the election

2) He is disqualified if he holds an Office of

Profit3) He must not have been under detention

under any preventive detention law

4) The Speakers decision is final on the

question of disqualification after consulting

with the Election Commission

(a) 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 3


61. Abortion laws have been debated all

throughout the world recently. The Medical

Termination of Pregnancy Act of 1971 legalised

abortion subject to the fulfilment of certain

conditions. Which of the following are among

the conditions stipulated by the Act?

1) Risk of death or grave mental or physical

injury to the health of the pregnant woman

2) Risk that the child, if born, would suffer

from serious physical or mentalabnormalities

3) Where the pregnancy is caused by rape

4) Where the female hasnt attained 18

years of age

5) Where a married woman is pregnant as a

result of the failure of a contraceptive device

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 (b) 1, 3 and 5

(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) All of the above

62. 13th Finance Commission has emphasized

on reduction of revenue deficit to 0% of GDPunder the FRBM mechanism. Which of the

following measures would decrease revenue

deficit?

1) Implementation of New Pension Scheme

2) Reduced Government Borrowings

3) Disinvestment

4) Deregulation of Urea Prices

(a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 4


63. Subsidiary alliance was widely used by Lord

Wellesley to bring Indian states within the orbit

of British political power. Consider the

statements about the same and choose the

correct ones.

1) According to the treaty Indian state had

to surrender both its internal and external

affairs to the company.

2) State was to accept a British Resident at

its head-quarters.



64. Battle of Plassey was a turning point in the

history of India. Consider the following

statements regarding this and choose the

correct ones.

1) By this battle English East India Company

secured territorial rights of the entire Bengal

Province

2) The Indian side was represented by Shah

Alam, Mir Qasim and Shuja Ud daula

3) The French East India Company had sent

their contingent to help Indian side


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(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None of the above

65. Harappan civilization was one of the most

advanced of its contemporary civilizations.Which of the following is/are correct regarding

the same?

1) Harappans used iron for the advancement

of their civilization.

2) Harappans had planned their cities.

3) They worshiped nature.

4) They were considered as a peace loving

society.

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 4(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) All of the above

66. Consider the following about Falkland

Islands and chose the correct ones.

1) They are located near SouthernArgentina in the Pacific Ocean

2) They are hotly disrupted territoriesbetween Argentina, Chile and United

Kingdom

3) They are under the control of UK(a) 1 and 3 (b) 3 only


67. The budget of 2012-13 had introduced a

new term called Effective Revenue Deficit.

What does it indicate?

(a) Revenue deficit adjusted to inflation

(b) Revenue deficit adjusted to account for

capital expenditure from revenue account

(c) Interest payments subtracted from

Revenue Deficit

(d) None of the above

68. Why has there been an increase in demand

for Gold in India over the last two years?

1) Because of Inflation

2) Lack of financial instruments available to

average citizen especially in rural areas

3) Volatility in equity market

(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3


69. The Economic Survey has made certain

important observation with respect to LPG

subsidies at a time when government is trying

to reduce its subsidy burden. Which among the

following statements is correct as per the

survey?

1) There is highly un-equitable distribution

of subsidies in both Urban and Rural areas

2) In rural areas the richest population

corner majority of LPG subsidies unlike

Urban areas



70. Policies of Bill and Melinda gates foundation

played a major role in eradicating polio from

India. Which among the following term is most

suitably associated with this foundation?

(a) Social Business

(b) Sustainable Corporation

(c) Creative Capitalism

(d) Green Business

71. Indian Government has taken initiative to

introduce GAAR or General Anti Avoidance

Rules with a view to increase tax collections.

Choose the correct statements in relation to tax

controls.

1) Currently tax mitigation is legal, while

tax avoidance is illegal


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2) GAAR follows the doctrine of substance

over form



72. What does the financial instrument Indian

Depositary Receipt (IDR) stand for?

1) It is a mechanism by which foreign

companies can raise capital in India by

issuing IDRs against their shares

2) It is a mechanism by which Indian

companies can raise capital abroad by

issuing IDRs against their shares

3) It is always issued in Indian Rupees

(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only


73. Which among the following items comes

under the invisibles category in Balance of

Payment?

1) Banking Consultation services

2) Remittances

3) Tourism

4) Business Process Outsourcing

(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4


74. Which of the following statements with

respect to Morley-Minto reforms (Council Act

1909) are correct?

1) It introduced the principle of ministerial

responsibility for the first time

2) It was the first instance of direct election

to provincial legislature

3) It introduced voting on budget for the first

time

4) It clarified for the first time that the

objective of British rule in India is granting

Self Government in the future

(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 3 only


regarding the First World War and Indias

freedom struggle are correct?

1) Moderates and extremists including Tilak

supported the war efforts of the British

2) Montague-Chelmsford reforms promised

Self-Government to placate aspirations of

the Indians



76. Which of the following statements is correct

about the historic annual session of Congress at

Nagpur in 1920?

1) The Congress committed itself to a

programme of extra-constitutional means

of action

2) The Working Committees of theCongress were formed to look into its

activities on a day to day basis

3) The resolution, for launching Non-

Cooperation movement under the

leadership of Gandhiji, was passed

(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3


77. The Mughals ruled the country for almostthree centuries. Which of the following is

correct w.r.t the mighty Mughal Empire?

1) The reign of Shah Jahan, who built the

Red Fort of Delhi, is considered the golden

period of Mughal architecture and arts


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2) The Mughal Empire reached the zenith

of its territorial expansion during the reign

of Aurangzeb

3) Akbar led Mughals in the war against

Marathas, in which the Marathas suffered

heavy loss.

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3


78. Indian classical music refers to the art music

of the Indian subcontinent and is in vogue since

the Vedic times. Consider the following

statements and choose the correct answer.

1) Western music is in single melody

format while Indian classical music ispolyphonic

2) While Hindustani Music derives a lot from

its Persian counterpart, the Carnatic music is

of indigenous origin.



79. A democratic polity as stipulated in the

Preamble is based on the doctrine of popularsovereignty. Which of the following statements

are correct regarding democracy?

1) India is among those countries that

provides for direct democracy

2) Head of the State in both UK and India is

elected



80. Consider the following statements regarding

the power of Parliament with respect to

creation of new states, altering boundaries and

other territorial changes and choose the correct

options

1) Constitution authorizes Parliament to alter

boundaries, names of states only with the

approval of states

2) Establishing new states does not need

constitutional amendment under Article 368

3) Parliament can cede a part of Indian

Territory to other country though a

constitutional amendment

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3



regarding the impact of National Emergency on

Fundamental Rights are correct?

1) All the rights available under Article 19 areautomatically suspended when National

emergency due to external aggression is

declared

2) Through a separate Presidential order

enforcement of all the Fundamental Rights

could be suspended during National

Emergency declared due to War



82. 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendment

aimed to achieve democratic decentralization

through strengthening Local Self Government

bodies. Which among the following are

mandatory provisions provided in the

Amendment Act?

1) Constitution of State Finance Commission

2) Direct election to all seats in Panchayats

at the village, intermediate and district level3) Reservation for Backward Classes

4) Reserving 1/3rd.

seats for women in

Panchayats at all three levels

(a) 1 and 4 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Art_musichttp://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Indian_subcontinenthttp://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Indian_subcontinenthttp://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Art_music


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83. The office of CAG has been called as the

most important office of the country by Dr.

Ambedkar. Which of the following statements

are correct?

1) He is appointed by President on the

recommendation of a collegium consisting ofPrime Minister, Leader of Opposition and

Home Minister

2) He is eligible for further office under

Government of India unlike the Chairman of

UPSC

3) He holds the office till the pleasure of the

President

4) He submits the audit report to the

Speaker who in turn lays it down before the

Lok Sabha

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 4 only


84. Which among the following statements is

correct regarding the jurisdiction of Supreme

Court?

1) Supreme Court has the choice to tender

or not to tender its opinion on Presidential

reference regarding any question of publicimportance

2) It has original, exclusive and final

authority regarding disputes related to

election of President and Vice-President




regarding pardoning powers of the Presidentare correct?

1) President and Governor have concurrent

powers with respect to pardoning of death

sentence

2) President can pardon sentences inflicted

by Court Martial while Governor cannot

3) Pardoning power of President cannot be

exercised without the advice of Union

cabinet

4) The petitioner for mercy has right to oral

hearing by President

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 3 and 4

(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 3

86. In what way does International Court of

Justice (ICJ) differ from International Criminal

Court (ICC)?

1) ICJ is the judicial wing of UN while ICC is

an independent international organization

not governed by UN

2) ICC can punish only individuals while ICJcan punish both individuals as well as states

3) India is opposed to the existing

mechanism at ICC and hence is not a

member while it is a member of ICJ


(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3

87. Part III of Constitution of India relates to the

fundamental rights. They are available onlyagainst the State. What all constitutes State as

per definition under Article 12?

1) Executive and Legislative wings of Union

and State Government

2) Judiciary

3) Private body working as an

instrumentality of the state

4) Local Self-Government bodies

(a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 4


88. Following are the statements regarding the

Parliamentary and Presidential system of India

and US respectively. Choose the correct options


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1) President is a constituent part of

Parliament of India just Like United States

where he is an integral part of US Congress

2) Rajya Sabha which is regarded as Council

of States draws its members from

representatives of states only

3) Unlike US Senate all states are given equal

representation in Rajya Sabha



89. Under the system of proportional

representation all sections of people get equal

representation. In India for which of the

following elections is proportionalrepresentation used?

1) Election of members to Rajya Sabha

2) Election of members to State Legislative

Council

3) Election of President

4) Election of Vice President

5) Election of Speaker

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4

(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) All of the above

90. Which of the following statement regarding

the working of induction cooking is true?

1) In induction cooking the source of heat is

the cooking vessel itself

2) Ferromagnetic vessels are more suitable

for induction cooking as compared to copper



91. Incineration and Gasification are two

technologies that could be used for municipal

waste treatment, currently emerging as an

important issue in urban areas. Choose the

correct statements regarding the above

technologies

1) Incineration and Gasification both involve

combustion of waste at high temperatures

2) Incineration requires lesser oxygen as

compared to Gasification

3) The toxic waste in Gasification process is

high as compared to that of incineration

because of incomplete burning in

gasification process



92. Which of the following aspects of cloud

computing mentioned below is correct?

1) SAAS (Software As A Service) refers to

provision of computing platform for

application developers

2) IAAS (Infrastructure As A Service) refers to

provision of hardware like servers, storage

network etc.



93. Despite the controversies that arose due to

cases of death following the dose of

pentalvalent vaccine during pilot study in some

states (Kerala, Haryana) as well as

internationally, Madhya Pradesh is mulling to

launch Pentavalent vaccine under the National

Immunization Programme that targets five

infections. Which among the following are the

diseases targeted under it?

1) Diphtheria2) Poliomyelitis

3) Tuberculosis

4) Pertussis

5) Haemophilus influenzae Type B diseases

(a) 1, 3, 4 and 5 (b) 1, 3 and 4


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csat paper 1

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