Chemistry (B) Final Exam Study Guide 3

Matching

Match each item with the correct statement below.a. product d. balanced equationb. reactant e. skeleton equationc. chemical equation

____ 1. a chemical equation that does not indicate relative amounts of reactants and products____ 2. a new substance formed in a chemical reaction____ 3. a starting substance in a chemical reaction____ 4. a concise representation of a chemical reaction____ 5. an equation in which each side has the same number of atoms of each element

Match each item with the correct statement below.a. activity series of metals c. combustion reactionb. single-replacement reaction d. decomposition reaction

____ 6. a reaction in which a single compound is broken down into simpler substances____ 7. a reaction in which oxygen reacts with another substance, often producing heat or light____ 8. a reaction in which the atoms of one element replace the atoms of a second element in a compound____ 9. a list of metals in order of decreasing reactivity

Match each item with the correct statement below.a. melting point d. evaporationb. boiling point e. vaporizationc. sublimation f. normal boiling point

____ 10. vaporization at the surface of a liquid that is not boiling____ 11. the conversion of a liquid to a gas below the boiling point____ 12. the temperature at which the vapor pressure of a liquid is equal to the external pressure____ 13. the temperature at which the vapor pressure of a liquid is equal to 1 atmosphere____ 14. the temperature at which a solid changes into a liquid____ 15. the change of a solid directly to a vapor

Match each item with the correct statement below.a. kinetic theory d. barometerb. atmospheric pressure e. kinetic energyc. vapor pressure

____ 16. All matter consists of tiny particles that are in constant motion.____ 17. the energy an object has due to its motion____ 18. a device used to measure atmospheric pressure____ 19. the pressure resulting from the collision of atoms and molecules with objects____ 20. a measure of the force exerted by a gas above a liquid

Match each item with the correct statement below.a. substituent e. asymmetric carbonb. structural isomers f. trans configurationc. geometric isomers g. cis configurationd. stereoisomers

____ 21. atom or group of atoms that can take the place of a hydrogen in a parent hydrocarbon molecule____ 22. compounds that have the same molecular formula, but the atoms are joined in a different order____ 23. arrangement in which substituted groups are on the same side of a double bond____ 24. molecules in which atoms are joined in the same order but differ in the arrangements of their atoms in space____ 25. arrangement in which substituted groups are on opposite sides of a double bond____ 26. compounds that differ in the orientation of groups around a double bond____ 27. carbon atom to which four different atoms or groups are attached

Match each item with the correct statement below.a. positron d. transuranium elementb. alpha particle e. gamma radiationc. beta particle f. transmutation

____ 28. element with atomic number greater than 92____ 29. emitted helium nucleus____ 30. energetic electron from decomposed neutron____ 31. high-energy photons emitted by a radioisotope____ 32. particle of charge +1 and mass equal to that of an electron____ 33. conversion of an atom of one element to an atom of another element

Match each item with the correct statement below.a. fission e. scintillation counterb. fusion f. neutron absorptionc. Geiger counter g. neutron moderationd. radioisotope

____ 34. element with unstable nucleus____ 35. combination of two nuclei to form a nucleus of greater mass____ 36. process that decreases the number of slow-moving neutrons____ 37. splitting of nucleus into smaller fragments____ 38. process that slows down neutrons so a reactor fuel can capture them to continue a chain reaction____ 39. radiation detector that makes use of a phosphor-coated surface____ 40. radiation detector that makes use of a gas-filled metal tube

Multiple ChoiceIdentify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 41. Chemical reactions ____.a. occur only in living organisms c. only occur outside living organismsb. create and destroy atoms d. produce new substances

____ 42. Everyday equations describe ____.a. thermonuclear reactions c. chemical reactions

b. everyday processes d. biological chemistry____ 43. What does the symbol in a chemical equation mean?

a. Heat is supplied to the reaction. c. yieldsb. A catalyst is needed. d. precipitate

____ 44. Chemical equations ____.a. describe chemical reactionsb. show how to write chemical formulasc. give directions for naming chemical compoundsd. describe only biological changes

____ 45. A skeleton equation does NOT show which of the following?a. the correct formulas of the reactants and productsb. the reactants on the left, the products on the rightc. an arrow connecting the reactants to the productsd. the relative amounts of reactants and products

____ 46. Symbols used in equations, together with the explanations of the symbols, are shown below. Which set is correct?a. (g), grams c. (aq), dissolved in waterb. (l), liters d. s, solid product

____ 47. A catalyst is ____.a. the product of a combustion reactionb. not used up in a reactionc. one of the reactants in single-replacement reactionsd. a solid product of a reaction

____ 48. Which of the following is the correct skeleton equation for the reaction that takes place when solid phosphorus combines with oxygen gas to form diphosphorus pentoxide?a. P(s) O (g) PO (g) c. P(s) O2(g) P O (s)b. P(s) O(g) P O (g) d. P O (s) P (s) O (g)

____ 49. If you rewrite the following word equation as a balanced chemical equation, what will the coefficient and symbol for fluorine be? nitrogen trifluoride nitrogen fluorinea. 6F c. 6Fb. F d. 3F

____ 50. What are the coefficients that will balance the skeleton equation below?AlCl + NaOH Al(OH) NaCla. 1, 3, 1, 3 c. 1, 1, 1, 3b. 3, 1, 3, 1 d. 1, 3, 3, 1

____ 51. What are the coefficients that will balance the skeleton equation below?

N + H NH

a. 1, 1, 2 c. 3, 1, 2b. 1, 3, 3 d. 1, 3, 2

____ 52. When the equation Fe Cl FeCl is balanced, what is the coefficient for Cl ?a. 1 c. 3b. 2 d. 4

____ 53. When the following equation is balanced, what is the coefficient for HCl? Mg(s) HCl(aq) MgCl (aq) H (g)a. 6 c. 1

b. 3 d. 2

____ 54. Which of the following statements is NOT true about what happens in all chemical reactions?a. The ways in which atoms are joined together are changed.b. New atoms are formed as products.c. The starting substances are called reactants.d. The bonds of the reactants are broken and new bonds of the products are formed.

____ 55. Chemical equations must be balanced to satisfy ____.a. the law of definite proportions c. the law of conservation of massb. the law of multiple proportions d. Avogadro’s principle

____ 56. When the equation KClO (s) KCl(s) + O (g) is balanced, the coefficient of KClO3 is ____.a. 1 c. 3b. 2 d. 4

____ 57. What are the missing coefficients for the skeleton equation below?Cr(s) Fe(NO ) (aq) Fe(s) Cr(NO ) (aq)a. 4, 6, 6, 2 c. 2, 3, 3, 2b. 2, 3, 2, 3 d. 1, 3, 3, 1

____ 58. What are the missing coefficients for the skeleton equation below? Al (SO ) (aq) KOH(aq) Al(OH) (aq) K SO (aq)a. 1, 3, 2, 3 c. 4, 6, 2, 3b. 2, 12, 4, 6 d. 1, 6, 2, 3

____ 59. The product of a combination reaction is Ba(OH) . If one of the reactants is H O, what is the other reactant?a. Ba O c. BaHb. BaO d. BaO

____ 60. In order to predict whether or not a single-replacement reaction takes place, you need to consult a chart that shows the ____.a. periodic tableb. activity series of metalsc. common polyatomic ionsd. ionic charges of representative elements

____ 61. In order for the reaction 2Al 6HCl 2AlCl 3H to occur, which of the following must be true?a. Al must be above Cl on the activity series.b. Al must be above H on the activity series.c. Heat must be supplied for the reaction.d. A precipitate must be formed.

____ 62. In a combustion reaction, one of the reactants is ____.a. hydrogen c. oxygenb. nitrogen d. a metal

____ 63. The products of a combustion reaction do NOT include ____.a. water c. carbon monoxideb. carbon dioxide d. hydrogen

____ 64. In a double-replacement reaction, the ____.a. products are always molecularb. reactants are two ionic compoundsc. reactants are two elementsd. products are a new element and a new compound

____ 65. Which of the following statements is NOT correct?a. The only way to determine the products of a reaction is to carry out the reaction.b. All chemical reactions can be classified as one of five general types.c. Complete combustion has occurred when all the carbon in the product is in the form of

carbon dioxide.d. A single reactant is the identifying characteristic of a decomposition reaction.

____ 66. Which of the following is a balanced equation representing the decomposition of lead(IV) oxide?a. PbO Pb 2O c. Pb O 2Pb Ob. PbO Pb O d. PbO Pb O

____ 67. What are the correct formulas and coefficients for the products of the following double-replacement reaction? RbOH H PO a. Rb(PO ) H O c. Rb PO 3H Ob. RbPO 2H O d. H Rb PO OH

____ 68. Which of the following statements is NOT true about the decomposition of a simple binary compound?a. The products are unpredictable.b. The products are the constituent elements.c. The reactant is a single substance.d. The reactant could be an ionic or a molecular compound.

____ 69. Which of the following statements is true about single-replacement reactions?a. They are restricted to metals. c. Two reactants produce two products.b. They involve a single product. d. Any metal replaces any other metal.

____ 70. In the activity series of metals, which metal(s) will displace hydrogen from an acid?a. only metals above hydrogen c. any metalb. only metals below hydrogen d. only metals from Li to Na

____ 71. Use the activity series of metals to complete a balanced chemical equation for the following single replacement reaction. Ags KNO aq a. AgNO Kb. AgK NOc. AgKNOd. No reaction takes place because silver is less reactive than potassium.

____ 72. Which of the following statements is NOT true about double-replacement reactions?a. The product may precipitate from solution.b. The product may be a gas.c. The product may be a molecular compound.d. The reactant may be a solid metal.

____ 73. In a double-replacement reaction, ____.a. the reactants are usually a metal and a nonmetalb. one of the reactants is often waterc. the reactants are generally two ionic compounds in aqueous solutiond. energy in the form of heat or light is often produced

____ 74. A double-replacement reaction takes place when aqueous Na CO reacts with aqueous Sn(NO ) . You would expect one of the products of this reaction to be ____.a. NaNO c. Sn(CO )b. NaSn d. CNO

____ 75. The complete combustion of which of the following substances produces carbon dioxide and water?a. C H c. CaHCOb. K CO d. NO

____ 76. Which of the following is the correctly balanced equation for the incomplete combustion of heptene, C H ?a. C H 14O 7CO 7H O c. 2C H 21O 14CO 14H Ob. C H 7O 7CO 7H O d. C H O C O 7H

____ 77. The reaction 2Fe 3Cl 2FeCl is an example of which type of reaction?a. combustion reaction c. combination reactionb. single-replacement reaction d. decomposition reaction

____ 78. The equation Mg(s) 2HCl(aq) MgCl (aq) H g is an example of which type of reaction?a. combination reaction c. decomposition reactionb. single-replacement reaction d. double-replacement reaction

____ 79. The equation H PO 3KOH K PO 3H O is an example of which type of reaction?a. double-replacement reaction c. decomposition reactionb. combination reaction d. single-replacement reaction

____ 80. The equation 2C H OH 9O 6CO 8H O is an example of which type of reaction?a. combustion reaction c. double-replacement reactionb. single-replacement reaction d. decomposition reaction

____ 81. A double-replacement reaction takes place when aqueous cobalt(III) chloride reacts with aqueous lithium hydroxide. One of the products of this reaction is ____.a. Co(OH) c. LiCob. Co(OH) d. LiCl

____ 82. What is the balanced chemical equation for the reaction that takes place between bromine and sodium iodide?a. Br NaI NaBr I c. Br NaI NaBrIb. Br 2NaI 2NaBr I d. Br NaI NaBr I

____ 83. What is the driving force in the following reaction? Ni(NO ) (aq) K S(aq) NiSs 2KNO (aq)a. A gas is formed. c. Ionic compounds are reactants.b. A precipitate is formed. d. Ionic compounds are products.

____ 84. According to the kinetic theory, collisions between molecules in a gas ____.a. are perfectly elastic c. never occurb. are inelastic d. cause a loss of total kinetic energy

____ 85. Which of the following statements is part of the kinetic theory?a. The particles of a gas move independently of each other.b. The particles in a gas move rapidly.c. The particles in a gas are relatively far apart.d. all of the above

____ 86. Which of the following statements is NOT true, according to the kinetic theory?a. There is no attraction between particles of a gas.b. Only particles of matter in the gaseous state are in constant motion.c. The particles of a gas collide with each other and with other objects.d. All of the statements are true.

____ 87. Particles in a gas are best described as ____.a. slow-moving, kinetic, hard spheresb. spheres that are in fixed positions when trapped in a containerc. small, hard spheres with insignificant volumesd. hard spheres influenced by repulsive forces from other spheres

____ 88. Which of the following statements is NOT true about the movement of particles in a gas?a. Particles travel in straight-line paths until they collide with other objects.b. Particles usually travel uninterrupted indefinitely.c. Particles fill their containers regardless of the shape or volume of the container.d. The aimless path taken by particles is known as a random walk.

____ 89. What instrument is normally used to measure atmospheric pressure?a. thermometer c. vacuumb. barometer d. manometer

____ 90. What is the SI unit of pressure?a. candela c. pascalb. mole d. newton

____ 91. What is one standard atmosphere of pressure in kilopascals?a. 0 kPa c. 101.3 kPab. 760 kPa d. 1 kPa

____ 92. Standard conditions when working with gases are defined as ____.a. 0 K and 101.3 kPa c. 0 C and 101.3 kPab. 0 K and 1 kPa d. 0 C and 1 kPa

____ 93. How does the atmospheric pressure at altitudes below sea level compare with atmospheric pressure at sea level?a. The atmospheric pressure below sea level is higher.b. The atmospheric pressure below sea level is lower.c. The pressures are the same.d. Differences in pressures cannot be determined.

____ 94. What causes gas pressure in a container such as a helium balloon?a. the walls of the containerb. the vacuum maintained in the containerc. the simultaneous collisions of fast-moving particles in the containerd. atmospheric pressure acting on the outside walls of the container

____ 95. The pressure of a gas in a container is 152 mm Hg. This is equivalent to ____.a. 0.2 atm c. 0.3 atmb. 2 atm d. 0.4 atm

____ 96. What happens to the average kinetic energy of the particles in a sample of matter as the temperature of the sample is increased?a. The average kinetic energy decreases.b. The average kinetic energy increases.

c. The average kinetic energy does not change.d. The change in average kinetic energy cannot be determined.

____ 97. With which temperature scale is temperature directly proportional to average kinetic energy?a. Celsius c. Kelvinb. Fahrenheit d. centigrade

____ 98. What happens to the range of energies of the particles in matter when the temperature is increased?a. The range of energies becomes narrower.b. The range of energies becomes broader.c. The range of energies does not change.d. The range of energies cannot be determined.

____ 99. The average kinetic energy of the particles of a substance ____.a. is not affected by the temperature of the substanceb. increases as the temperature of the substance is loweredc. is directly proportional to the temperature of the substanced. is equal to the total energy absorbed by the substance

____ 100. When a gas is heated, ____.a. all of the absorbed energy is converted to kinetic energyb. some of the absorbed energy is converted to potential energy, and some is converted to

kinetic energyc. all of the absorbed energy is converted to potential energyd. none of the energy is converted to kinetic energy

____ 101. Consider an iron cube and an aluminum cube. If the two cubes were at the same temperature, how would the average kinetic energy of the particles in iron compare with the average kinetic energy of the particles in aluminum?a. The average kinetic energy of the iron particles would be greater.b. The average kinetic energy of the aluminum particles would be greater.c. There would be no difference in the average kinetic energies.d. No determination can be made based on the information given.

____ 102. The average kinetic energy of water molecules is greatest in ____.a. steam at 100 C c. liquid water at 373 Kb. liquid water at 90 C d. ice at 0 C

____ 103. What is the key difference between a liquid and a gas?a. intermolecular attractions c. average kinetic energyb. the ability to flow d. the motion of their particles

____ 104. Which states of matter can flow?a. gases only c. gases and liquids onlyb. liquids only d. gases, liquids, and solids

____ 105. What happens to the temperature of a liquid as it evaporates?a. It increases. c. It does not change.b. It decreases. d. The change cannot be determined.

____ 106. Which are the first particles to evaporate from a liquid?a. particles with the lowest kinetic energyb. particles with the highest kinetic energyc. particles below the surface of the liquidd. All particles evaporate at the same rate.

____ 107. What happens to the rate of evaporation of a liquid as the liquid is cooled?a. It increases. c. It does not change.b. It decreases. d. The change cannot be determined.

____ 108. Why does a liquid's rate of evaporation increase when the liquid is heated?a. More molecules have enough energy to overcome the attractive forces holding them in the

liquid.b. The average kinetic energy of the liquid decreases.c. The surface area of the liquid is reduced.d. The potential energy of the liquid increases.

____ 109. Which of the following will evaporate the fastest?a. water at 0 Cb. water at 20 Cc. water at 40 Cd. All samples will evaporate at the same rate.

____ 110. In a dynamic equilibrium between the liquid state and the gas state, what is true about the rate of evaporation?a. It is greater than the rate of condensation.b. It is less than the rate of condensation.c. It is equal to the rate of condensation.d. The rate of evaporation cannot be determined.

____ 111. If a liquid is sealed in a container and kept at constant temperature, how does its vapor pressure change over time?a. It continues to steadily increase.b. It increases at first, then remains constant.c. It increases at first, then decreases.d. It continues to steadily decrease.

____ 112. An increase in the temperature of a contained liquid ____.a. has no effect on the kinetic energy of the liquidb. causes the vapor pressure above the liquid to decreasec. causes fewer particles to escape from the surface of the liquidd. causes the vapor pressure above the liquid to increase

____ 113. If energy is added to a boiling liquid, what happens to the temperature of the liquid?a. It increases. c. It does not change.b. It decreases. d. The change cannot be determined.

____ 114. What is the pressure when a liquid is boiling at its normal boiling point?a. 0 kPa c. 202 kPab. 101.3 kPa d. 505 kPa

____ 115. Water could be made to boil at 105 C instead of 100 C by ____.a. adding a lot of energy to the water c. decreasing the external pressureb. increasing the external pressure d. taking the sample to a higher altitude

____ 116. When the external pressure is 505 kPa, what is the vapor pressure of water at its boiling point?a. 0 kPa c. 505 kPab. 101.3 kPa d. 1010 kPa

____ 117. The normal boiling point of chloroform, which has a higher vapor pressure than water at 100 C, is ____.a. higher than the normal boiling point of waterb. lower than the normal boiling point of waterc. the same as the normal boiling point of waterd. unable to be measured

____ 118. Which of the following best describes the motion of the particles in a piece of steel?a. None are moving. c. All are moving.

b. A few are moving. d. Most are moving.____ 119. Most solids ____.

a. are dense and difficult to compress c. are amorphousb. are able to flow d. have a disorderly structure

____ 120. Crystals are classified into how many different crystal systems?a. 4 c. 6b. 5 d. 7

____ 121. Crystals are characterized by particular patterns that repeat in how many dimensions?a. one dimension only c. three dimensions onlyb. two dimensions only d. The patterns do not repeat.

____ 122. How do crystal systems differ?a. in the angles between faces onlyb. in the number of edges of equal length onlyc. in the angles between faces and the number of edges of equal lengthd. Crystal systems do not differ.

____ 123. Which of the following elements has the ability to undergo sublimation?a. oxygen c. sodiumb. carbon d. iodine

____ 124. Which of the following is an example of a phase?a. pressure c. temperatureb. water vapor d. triple point

____ 125. How are conditions of pressure and temperature, at which two phases coexist in equilibrium, shown on a phase diagram?a. by a line separating the phasesb. by the endpoints of the line segment separating the phasesc. by the planar regions between lines in the diagramd. by a triple point on the diagram

____ 126. Why is a gas easier to compress than a liquid or a solid?a. Its volume increases more under pressure than an equal volume of liquid does.b. Its volume increases more under pressure than an equal volume of solid does.c. The space between gas particles is much less than the space between liquid or solid

particles.d. The volume of a gas’s particles is small compared to the overall volume of the gas.

____ 127. Why does the pressure inside a container of gas increase if more gas is added to the container?a. There is an increase in the number of collisions between particles and the walls of the

container.b. There is an increase in the temperature of the gas.c. There is a decrease in the volume of the gas.d. There is an increase in the force of the collisions between the particles and the walls of the

container.____ 128. How does the gas propellant move when an aerosol can is used?

a. from a region of high pressure to a region of lower pressureb. from a region of high pressure to a region of equally high pressurec. from a region of low pressure to a region of higher pressured. from a region of low pressure to a region of equally low pressure

____ 129. If the volume of a container of gas is reduced, what will happen to the pressure inside the container?a. The pressure will increase.

b. The pressure will not change.c. The pressure will decrease.d. The pressure depends on the type of gas.

____ 130. If a balloon is squeezed, what happens to the pressure of the gas inside the balloon?a. It increases.b. It stays the same.c. It decreases.d. The pressure depends on the type of gas in the balloon.

____ 131. What happens to the temperature of a gas when it is compressed?a. The temperature increases.b. The temperature does not change.c. The temperature decreases.d. The temperature becomes unpredictable.

____ 132. As the temperature of the gas in a balloon decreases, which of the following occurs?a. The volume of the balloon increases.b. The average kinetic energy of the gas decreases.c. The gas pressure inside the balloon increases.d. all of the above

____ 133. What happens to the pressure of a gas inside a container if the temperature of the gas decreases?a. The pressure increases. c. The pressure decreases.b. The pressure does not change. d. The pressure cannot be predicted.

____ 134. If 4 moles of gas are added to a container that already holds 1 mole of gas, how will the pressure change inside the container?a. The pressure will be five times higher.b. The pressure will double.c. The pressure will be four times higher.d. The pressure will not change.

____ 135. Why does air escape from a tire when the tire valve is opened?a. The pressure outside the tire is lower than the pressure inside the tire.b. The pressure outside the tire is greater than the pressure inside the tire.c. The temperature is higher outside the tire than inside the tire.d. There are more particles of air outside the tire than inside the tire.

____ 136. Which of these changes would NOT cause an increase in the pressure of a contained gas?a. The volume of the container is increased.b. More of the gas is added to the container.c. The temperature is increased.d. The average kinetic energy of the gas in increased.

____ 137. When the Kelvin temperature of an enclosed gas doubles, the particles of the gas ____.a. move fasterb. strike the walls of the container with less forcec. decrease in average kinetic energyd. decrease in volume

____ 138. The volume of a gas is doubled while the temperature is held constant. How does the gas pressure change?a. It is reduced by one half.b. It does not change.c. It is doubled.d. It varies depending on the type of gas.

____ 139. The volume of a gas is reduced from 4 L to 0.5 L while the temperature is held constant. How does the gas pressure change?a. It increases by a factor of four. c. It increases by a factor of eight.b. It decreases by a factor of eight. d. It increases by a factor of two.

____ 140. When the temperature and number of particles of a gas are constant, which of the following is also constant?a. the sum of the pressure and volumeb. the difference of the pressure and volumec. the product of the pressure and volumed. the ratio of the pressure and volume

____ 141. If a balloon is heated, what happens to the volume of the air in the balloon if the pressure is constant?a. It increases. c. It decreases.b. It stays the same. d. The change cannot be predicted.

____ 142. When the pressure and number of particles of a gas are constant, which of the following is also constant?a. the sum of the volume and temperature in kelvinsb. the difference of the volume and temperature in kelvinsc. the product of the volume and temperature in kelvinsd. the ratio of the volume and temperature in kelvins

____ 143. If a balloon is heated, what happens to the pressure of the air inside the balloon if the volume remains constant?a. It increases. c. It decreases.b. It stays the same. d. The change cannot be predicted.

____ 144. When the volume and number of particles of a gas are constant, which of the following is also constant?a. the sum of the pressure and temperature in kelvinsb. the difference of the pressure and temperature in kelvinsc. the product of the pressure and temperature in kelvinsd. the ratio of the pressure and temperature in kelvins

____ 145. If a sealed syringe is plunged into cold water, in which direction will the syringe piston slide?a. in c. No movement will occur.b. out d. The direction cannot be predicted.

____ 146. What happens when a piston is used to decrease the volume of a contained gas?a. Fewer gas particles exert a force on the piston.b. The piston’s pressure on the gas becomes greater than the pressure exerted by the gas on

the piston.c. Gas particles become compressed.d. Gas particles leak out of the container.

____ 147. If a sealed syringe is heated, in which direction will the syringe plunger move?a. out c. The plunger will not move.b. in d. The direction cannot be predicted.

____ 148. In general, for a gas at a constant volume, ____.a. the pressure of the gas is inversely proportional to its temperature in kelvinsb. the volume of the gas is inversely proportional to its temperature in kelvinsc. the volume of the gas is directly proportional to its temperature in kelvinsd. the pressure of the gas is directly proportional to its temperature in kelvins

____ 149. The combined gas law relates which of the following?a. pressure and volume only c. volume and temperature onlyb. temperature and pressure only d. temperature, pressure, and volume

____ 150. What does the ideal gas law allow a scientist to calculate that the other gas laws do not?a. number of moles c. volume

b. pressure d. temperature____ 151. At a certain temperature and pressure, 0.20 mol of carbon dioxide has a volume of 3.1 L. A 3.1-L sample of

hydrogen at the same temperature and pressure ____.a. has the same massb. contains the same number of atomsc. has a higher densityd. contains the same number of molecules

____ 152. How is the ideal gas law usually written?a.

= Rc. PV = nRT

b. = nR

d.P =

____ 153. Which law can be used to calculate the number of moles of a contained gas?a. Boyle’s law c. ideal gas lawb. combined gas law d. Charles’s law

____ 154. Which of the following is constant for 1 mole of any ideal gas?a. PVT c.

b. d.

____ 155. At high pressures, how does the volume of a real gas compare with the volume of an ideal gas under the same conditions?a. It is much greater. c. There is no difference.b. It is much less. d. It depends on the type of gas.

____ 156. At low temperatures and pressures, how does the volume of a real gas compare with the volume of an ideal gas under the same conditions?a. It is greater. c. There is no difference.b. It is less. d. It depends on the type of gas.

____ 157. An ideal gas CANNOT be ____.a. condensed c. heatedb. cooled d. compressed

____ 158. Under what conditions of temperature and pressure is the behavior of real gases most like that of ideal gases?a. low temperature and low pressure c. high temperature and low pressureb. low temperature and high pressure d. high temperature and high pressure

____ 159. If the atmospheric pressure on Mt. Everest is one-third the atmospheric pressure at sea level, the partial pressure of oxygen on Everest is ____.a. one-sixth its pressure at sea level c. one-half its pressure at sea levelb. one-third its pressure at sea level d. equal to its pressure at sea level

____ 160. What happens to the partial pressure of oxygen in a sample of air if the temperature is increased?a. It increases. c. It decreases.b. It stays the same. d. The change cannot be determined.

____ 161. If oxygen is removed from a sample of air as iron rusts, what happens to the partial pressure of oxygen in the air?a. It increases. c. It decreases.b. It stays the same. d. The change cannot be determined.

____ 162. If oxygen is removed from a sample of air as iron rusts, what happens to the total pressure of the air?a. It increases. c. It decreases.b. It stays the same. d. The change cannot be determined.

____ 163. A box with a volume of 22.4 L contains 1.0 mol of nitrogen and 2.0 mol of hydrogen at 0 C. Which of the following statements is true?a. The total pressure in the box is 101 kPa.b. The partial pressures of N and H are equal.c. The total pressure is 202 kPad. The partial pressure of N is 101 kPa.

____ 164. If the volume of a container of air is reduced by one-half, what happens to the partial pressure of oxygen within the container?a. It is reduced by one-half. c. It is doubled.b. It does not change. d. It is reduced by one-fourth.

____ 165. Which of the following gases will effuse the most rapidly?a. bromine c. ammoniab. chlorine d. hydrogen

____ 166. Which of the following atoms would have the greatest velocity if each atom had the same kinetic energy?a. bromine c. ammoniab. chlorine d. hydrogen

____ 167. Which of the following gases is the best choice for inflating a balloon that must remain inflated for a long period of time?a. argon c. hydrogenb. oxygen d. neon

____ 168. How many valence electrons does a carbon atom have?a. 1 c. 3b. 2 d. 4

____ 169. How many covalent bonds can each carbon atom form?a. 1 c. 3b. 2 d. 4

____ 170. How many double covalent bonds are in an alkane?a. 0 c. 2b. 1 d. 3

____ 171. Alkanes are hydrocarbons that contain what type of bonds?a. single covalent bonds only c. at least one triple bondb. at least one double bond d. ionic bonds

____ 172. What is the simplest alkane?a. butane c. methaneb. ethane d. pentane

____ 173. How many carbons are in a molecule of hexane?a. 3 c. 5b. 4 d. 6

____ 174. What is the name of the alkane having five carbons?a. propane c. octaneb. methane d. pentane

____ 175. What is the simplest straight-chain alkane?a. graphite c. methaneb. ammonia d. ethane

____ 176. Which of the following is a condensed structural formula for propane?a. C H c. CH CH CHb. CH CH CH d. CH CH CH CH

____ 177. The name for an alkyl group that contains two carbon atoms is ____.a. diphenyl c. dimethylb. ethyl d. propyl

____ 178. What is the physical state of the smallest alkanes at room temperature?a. gas c. solidb. liquid d. gas or liquid

____ 179. What is the general formula for a straight-chain alkane?a. C H c. C Hb. C H d. C H

____ 180. What is the increment of change in a series of straight-chain alkanes?a. CH c. CHb. CH d. CH

____ 181. What is the condensed structural formula for 2,2-dimethylbutane?a. CH (CH ) CH c. (CH ) CCH CHb. CH CH CH CH CH d. C H (CH )

____ 182. What is the name of the compound CH CH(CH )C(CH ) ?a. 2,2,3-trimethylbutane c. 1,1,1,2-tetramethylpropaneb. tetramethylpropane d. isoheptane

____ 183. The condensed structural formula for 2,2,3-trimethylbutane is ____.a. CH CH (CH )CH(CH ) c. CH C(CH ) CH(CH )b. CH C(CH ) C(CH ) d. CH CH CH(CH )C(CH )

____ 184. In which of the following liquids is hexane most likely to dissolve?a. aqueous ammonium hydroxide c. rubbing alcoholb. vinegar d. octane

____ 185. Why are the molecules of hydrocarbons nonpolar?a. The intermolecular attractions are strong.b. All the bonds are single covalent bonds.c. The electron pair is shared almost equally in all the bonds.d. Van der Waals forces overcome polarity.

____ 186. Which of the following compounds is an unsaturated hydrocarbon?a. methane c. nonaneb. propyne d. methyl

____ 187. In which of the following compounds does rotation occur around all covalent bonds between carbons?a. octene c. octaneb. octyne d. all of the above

____ 188. A saturated straight-chain hydrocarbon with two carbons is ____.a. ethene c. propaneb. decane d. ethane

____ 189. Which of these compounds is an alkene?a. methane c. butyneb. nonene d. propanone

____ 190. What is the name of the smallest alkyne?

a. butyne c. methyneb. ethyne d. propyne

____ 191. An organic compound that contains only carbon and hydrogen and at least one carbon-carbon triple bond is classified as an ____.a. alkane c. alkyneb. alkene d. arene

____ 192. How are hydrogen atoms arranged in ethene?a. in the same plane, separated by angles of 120b. in different planes, separated by angles of 120c. in the same plane, separated by angles of 180d. in different planes, separated by angles of 180

____ 193. Which of the following compounds is a structural isomer of butane?a. 2-methylbutane c. 2-methylpropaneb. 2,2-dimethylbutane d. 2,2-diethylpropane

____ 194. Which of the following is true about structural isomers?a. Structural isomers have the same molecular formula.b. Structural isomers have different physical and chemical properties.c. Structural isomers have the same elemental composition.d. all of the above

____ 195. A structural isomer of hexane is ____.a. 2,2-dimethylbutane c. benzeneb. cyclohexane d. 2-methylpentene

____ 196. Alkanes do not have geometric isomers because the carbon atoms in their carbon-carbon bonds are ____.a. double bonds c. free to rotateb. quite polar d. asymmetric

____ 197. How many different atoms or groups are attached to an asymmetric carbon?a. 2 c. 6b. 4 d. 8

____ 198. Which hydrocarbon rings are most common in nature?a. rings with 3 or 4 carbon atoms c. rings with 5 or 6 carbon atomsb. rings with 4 or 5 carbon atoms d. rings with 6 or 7 carbon atoms

____ 199. In a cyclic hydrocarbon with only carbon-carbon single bonds and n number of carbon atoms, how many hydrogen atoms are there in terms of n?a. 2 – n c. 2 + nb. 2 d. 2n

____ 200. What compound is the simplest aromatic compound?a. methane c. ethyneb. ethene d. benzene

____ 201. Which of the following molecules does NOT display resonance?a. benzene c. m-xyleneb. phenylethane d. cyclohexane

____ 202. Which of the following is NOT an important fossil fuel?a. petroleum c. natural gasb. hydrogen d. coal

____ 203. What is the first stage in the formation of coal?a. lignite c. peatb. anthracite coal d. bituminous coal

____ 204. What is the main hydrocarbon component of natural gas?

a. benzene c. etheneb. ethane d. methane

____ 205. Which type of coal has the highest carbon content?a. anthracite c. ligniteb. bituminous d. peat

____ 206. What is the first step in the refining of petroleum?a. cracking c. coolingb. drilling d. distillation

____ 207. Which of the following is NOT a fraction obtained from crude oil?a. ammonia c. gasolineb. natural gas d. kerosene

____ 208. Which of the following is NOT a product obtained from the distillation of coal tar?a. benzene c. cokeb. phenol d. toluene

____ 209. An unstable nucleus ____.a. increases its nuclear mass by fission c. emits energy when it decaysb. increases its half-life d. expels all of its protons

____ 210. Which is the most susceptible to damage from ionizing radiation?a. soft tissue c. woodb. paper d. lead

____ 211. What particle is emitted in alpha radiation?a. electron c. helium nucleusb. photon d. hydrogen nucleus

____ 212. A beta particle is a(n) ____.a. photon c. helium nucleusb. electron d. hydrogen nucleus

____ 213. What is the change in atomic mass when an atom emits a beta particle?a. decreases by 2 c. remains the sameb. decreases by 1 d. increases by 1

____ 214. What is the change in atomic mass when an atom emits gamma radiation?a. decreases by 2 c. remains the sameb. decreases by 1 d. increases by 1

____ 215. What is the change in the atomic number when an atom emits an alpha particle?a. decreases by 2 c. increases by 1b. decreases by 1 d. increases by 2

____ 216. What is the change in atomic number when an atom emits a beta particle?a. decreases by 2 c. increases by 2b. decreases by 1 d. increases by 1

____ 217. What is the change in atomic number caused by the emission of gamma radiation?a. decreases by 2 c. remains the sameb. decreases by 1 d. increases by 1

____ 218. Which symbol is used for an alpha particle?a. He c. Heb. He d. He

____ 219. Which of the following materials is necessary to stop an alpha particle?a. three feet of concrete c. single sheet of aluminum foilb. three inches of lead d. single sheet of paper

____ 220. What particle decomposes to produce the electron of beta radiation?a. proton c. electronb. neutron d. positron

____ 221. What symbol is used for beta radiation?a. e c. eb. e d. e

____ 222. Which of the following materials is necessary to stop a beta particle?a. three feet of concrete c. thin pieces of woodb. three inches of lead d. single sheet of paper

____ 223. Which of the following materials is most effective for stopping gamma radiation?a. several cm of lead c. single sheet of aluminum foilb. one cm of water d. single sheet of paper

____ 224. Which type of ionizing radiation can be blocked by clothing?a. beta radiation c. gamma radiationb. X radiation d. alpha radiation

____ 225. What is the change in atomic mass number when an atom emits an alpha particle?a. decreases by 2 c. increases by 2b. decreases by 4 d. increases by 4

____ 226. What does the band of stability for atomic nuclei refer to?a. the ratio of protons to neutronsb. the ratio of neutrons to protonsc. the ratio of beta particles to neutrinosd. the ratio of alpha particles to beta particles

____ 227. If an isotope decays by the process of beta emission, ____.a. the mass number changesb. the atomic number changesc. protons are given offd. the number of neutrons remains the same

____ 228. What particle is needed to complete this nuclear reaction? Rn Po + _____

a. He c. Hb. e d. n

____ 229. How does an atom with too many neutrons relative to protons undergo radioactive decay?a. by emitting an alpha particle c. by emitting gamma radiationb. by emitting a beta particle d. by emitting X radiation

____ 230. What particle does argon-39 (atomic number 18) emit when it decays to potassium-39 (atomic number 19)?a. neutron c. protonb. electron d. alpha particle

____ 231. What particle is needed to complete the following nuclear equation?Mn ____ + e

a. Co c. Feb. Mn d. Cr

____ 232. What particle is needed to complete the following equation?

N + ____ C + Ha. n c. Heb. e d. e

____ 233. To what element does polonium-208 (atomic number 84) decay when it emits an alpha particle?a. Pb c. Pbb. Po d. Rn

____ 234. What is the approximate half-life of uranium-238?a. hundreds of years c. millions of yearsb. thousands of years d. billions of years

____ 235. Which of the following naturally occurring radioisotopes would be most useful in dating objects thought to be millions of years old?a. carbon-14; t = 5.73 10 yearsb. potassium-40; t = 1.28 10 yearsc. thorium-234; t = 25 daysd. radon-222; t = 3.8 days

____ 236. The production of carbon-14 ____.a. takes place in the upper atmosphereb. is mostly due to fallout from nuclear explosionsc. occurs to a large extent in nuclear reactorsd. is caused by photosynthesis in plants

____ 237. What happens in a chain reaction?a. Products that start a new reaction are released.b. Reactants that have two parts split.c. Products that are radioactive are lost.d. Radioactive reactants are deposited on control rods.

____ 238. Controlled nuclear chain reactions ____.a. take place in nuclear reactorsb. are always fusion reactionsc. never produce radioactive by-productsd. are characteristic of atomic bombs

____ 239. Which type of coolant(s) usually is (are) used to remove heat from a nuclear reactor core?a. water only c. liquid sodium or waterb. liquid sodium only d. CFCs

____ 240. Nuclear fusion ____.a. takes place in the sun c. can be controlled in the laboratoryb. occurs at low temperatures d. is used in medicine

____ 241. What does neutron absorption accomplish in a nuclear reactor?a. It slows down the reaction.b. It speeds up the reaction.c. It increases the rate of heat absorption.d. It recycles the fuel.

____ 242. Control rods made of ____.a. carbon c. plutoniumb. liquid sodium d. cadmium

____ 243. What substances are used as moderators in a nuclear reactor?

a. carbon and water c. plutonium and neptuniumb. liquid sodium and water d. cadmium or other metal

____ 244. Which of the following statements is correct?a. Water is used to moderate (slow down) neutrons in a nuclear reactor.b. Carbon control rods are used to absorb neutrons in a nuclear fission reaction.c. A very high temperature is required to initiate a nuclear fission reaction.d. The energy released from the sun is the result of a nuclear fission reaction.

____ 245. What type of radiation is best detected by a scintillation counter?a. alpha radiation only c. alpha and beta radiation onlyb. gamma radiation only d. all types of radiation

____ 246. What instrument is used routinely to check a person's exposure to radiation?a. Geiger counter c. film badgeb. scintillation counter d. moderating rod

____ 247. What is the main detector of a Geiger counter?a. ionizable gas in a metal tube c. plates of ionizable plasticb. phosphor-covered surface d. potassium metal surface

____ 248. What is the main detector of a scintillation counter?a. ionizable gas in a metal tube c. plates of ionizable plasticb. phosphor-covered surface d. potassium metal surface

____ 249. Radiation therapy is used to ____.a. study reaction mechanisms c. treat cancerb. detect elements d. initiate neutron activation analysis

____ 250. Radioisotopes taken internally for medical reasons ____.a. must be eliminated from the body slowlyb. should be fissionable isotopesc. are usually deposited in fat tissued. should have a short half-life