ccna final exam reviewer
TRANSCRIPT
CCNA Exploration 1: Network Fundamentals – Chapter 2 Exam01. Which statements correctly identify the role of intermediary devices in the network? (Choose
three.)
determine pathways for data
initiate data communications
retime and retransmit data signals
originate the flow of data
manage data flows
final termination point for data flow
02. Select the statements that are correct concerning network protocols. (Choose three.)
define the structure of layer specific PDU’s
dictate how to accomplish layer functions
outline the functions necessary for communications between layers
limit the need for hardware compatibility
require layer dependent encapsulations
eliminate standardization among vendors
03. What are two functions of encapsulation? (Choose two.)
tracks delay between end devices
enables consistent network paths for communication
allows modification of the original data before transmission
identifies pieces of data as part of the same communication
ensures that data pieces can be directed to the correct receiving end device
04. What is a primary function of the trailer information added by the data link layer
encapsulation?
supports error detection
ensures ordered arrival of data
provides delivery to correct destination
identifies the devices on the local network
assists intermediary devices with processing and path selection
05. Which two layers of the OSI model have the same functions as the TCP/IP model Network
Access Layer? (Choose two.)
Network
Transport
Physical
Data Link
Session
06. What is a PDU?
corruption of a frame during transmission
data reassembled at the destination
retransmitted packets due to lost communication
a layer specific encapsulation
07. Which characteristic correctly refers to end devices in a network?
manage data flows
originate data flow
retime and retransmit data signals
determine pathways for data
08.
Refer to the exhibit. “Cell A” at IP address 10.0.0.34 has established an IP session with “IP Phone
1″ at IP address 172.16.1.103. Based upon the graphic, which device type best describes the
function of wireless device “Cell A?”
the destination device
an end device
an intermediate device
a media device
09.
Refer to the exhibit. Which three labels correctly identify the network types for the network segments that
are shown? (Choose three.)
Network A — WAN
Network B — WAN
Network C — LAN
Network B — MAN
Network C — WAN
Network A – LAN
10. Which three statements best describe a Local Area Network (LAN)? (Choose three.)
A LAN is usually in a single geographical area.
The network is administered by a single organization.
The connection between segments in the LAN is usually through a leased connection.
The security and access control of the network are controlled by a service provider.
A LAN provides network services and access to applications for users within a common
organization.
Each end of the network is generally connected to a Telecommunication Service Provider (TSP).
11.
Refer to the exhibit. Which networking term describes the data interleaving process represented
in the graphic?
piping
PDU
streaming
multiplexing
encapsulation
12. What is the primary purpose of Layer 4 port assignment?
to identify devices on the local media
to identify the hops between source and destination
to identify to the intermediary devices the best path through the network
to identify the source and destination end devices that are communicating
to identify the processes or services that are communicating within the end devices
13. What device is considered an intermediary device?
file server
IP phone
laptop
printer
switch
14.
Refer to the exhibit. Which term correctly identifies the device type that is included in the area B?
source
end
transfer
intermediary
15.
Refer to the exhibit. What type of network is shown?
WAN
MAN
LAN
WLAN
16. Which layer encapsulates the segment into packets?
physical
data link
network
transport
17. What can be identified by examining the network layer header?
the destination device on the local media
the destination host address
the bits that will be transferred over the media
the source application or process creating the data
18.
Refer to the exhibit. Which set of devices contains only end devices?
A, C, D
B, E, G, H
C, D, G, H, I, J
D, E, F, H, I, J
E, F, H, I, J
19. During the encapsulation process, what occurs at the data link layer?
No address is added.
The logical address is added.
The physical address is added.
The process port number is added.
20. What is the purpose of the TCP/IP Network Access layer?
path determination and packet switching
data presentation
reliability, flow control, and error detection
network media control
the division of segments into packets
21. What is the proper order of the layers of the OSI model from the highest layer to the lowest
layer?
physical, network, application, data link, presentation, session, transport
application, physical, session, transport, network, data link, presentation
application, presentation, physical, session, data link, transport, network
application, presentation, session, transport, network, data link, physical
presentation, data link, session, transport, network, physical, application
Chapter 3
1. What three protocols operate at the Application layer of the OSI model? (Choose three.)ARPDNSPPPSMTPPOPICMP 2. As compared to SSH, what is the primary disadvantage of telnet?not widely availabledoes not support encryptionconsumes more network bandwidthdoes not support authentication 3. Which two protocols are used to control the transfer of web resources from a web server to a client browser? (Choose two.)ASPFTPHTMLHTTPHTTPSIP 4. What application layer protocol describes the services that are used for file sharing in Microsoft networks?DHCPDNSSMBSMTPTelnet 5. What is the role of the OSI application layer?provides segmentation of dataprovides encryption and conversion of dataprovides the interface between the applications on either end of the networkprovides control of all the data flowing between the source and destination devices 6. What are two characteristics of clients in data networks? (Choose two.)use daemonsinitiate data exchangesare repositories of data
may upload data to serverslisten for requests from servers 7. What are three properties of peer-to-peer applications? (Choose three.)acts as both a client and server within the same communication.requires centralized account administration.hybrid mode includes a centralized directory of files.can be used in client-server networks.requires a direct physical connection between devices.centralized authentication is required. 8. What is the automated service that matches resource names with the required IP address?HTTPSSHFQDNDNSTelnetSMTP 9. How does the application layer on a server usually process multiple client request for services?ceases all connections to the servicedenies multiple connections to a single daemonsuspends the current connection to allow the new connectionuses support from lower layer functions to distinguish between connections to the service 10. Which statements are correct concerning the role of the MTA in handling email? (Choose three.)routes email to the MDA on other serversreceives email from the client’s MUAreceives email via the POP3 protocolpasses email to the MDA for final deliveryuses SMTP to route email between serversdelivers email to clients via the POP3 protocol 11. What are two forms of application layer software? (Choose two.)applicationsdialogsrequestsservicessyntax 12. What application layer protocol is commonly used to support for file transfers between a client and a server?HTMLHTTPFTPTelnet
13. A small home network has been installed to interconnect three computers together for gaming and file sharing. What two properties represent this network type? (Choose two.)User accounts are centralized.Security is difficult to enforce.Specialized operating system software is required.File permissions are controlled by a single computer.A computer that responds to a file sharing request is functioning as a server. 14. Which email components are used to forward mail between servers? (Choose two.)MDAIMAPMTAPOPSMTPMUA 15.
Refer to the exhibit. What is the destination port for the communication that is represented on line 5?80126115533391265520 16. Which layer of the OSI model supplies services that allow user to interface with the network?physicalsessionnetworkpresentationapplication
transport 17. What are two characteristics of peer-to-peer networks? (Choose two.)scalableone way data flowdecentralized resourcescentralized user accountsresource sharing without a dedicated server 18. Which application layer protocols correctly match a corresponding function? (Choose two.)DNS dynamically allocates IP addresses to hostsHTTP transfers data from a web server to a clientPOP delivers email from the client to the server email serverSMTP supports file sharingTelnet provides a virtual connection for remote access 19. What is the purpose of resource records in DNS?temporarily holds resolved entriesused by the server to resolve namessent by the client to during a querypasses authentication information between the server and client
CCNA 4 Chapter 4 2011 V4.0 Answers 100%
1. Which two statements are true regarding network security? (Choose
two.)
Securing a network against internal threats is a lower priority because
company employees represent a low security risk.
Both experienced hackers who are capable of writing their own exploit code
and inexperienced individuals who download exploits from the Internet pose a
serious threat to network security.
Assuming a company locates its web server outside the firewall and has
adequate backups of the web server, no further security measures are needed
to protect the web server because no harm can come from it being hacked.
Established network operating systems like UNIX and network protocols like
TCP/IP can be used with their default settings because they have no inherent
security weaknesses.
Protecting network devices from physical damage caused by water or
electricity is a necessary part of the security policy.
2. Which two statements are true about network attacks? (Choose two.)
Strong network passwords mitigate most DoS attacks.
Worms require human interaction to spread, viruses do not.
Reconnaissance attacks are always electronic in nature, such as ping sweeps or
port scans.
A brute-force attack searches to try every possible password from a
combination of characters.
Devices in the DMZ should not be fully trusted by internal devices, and
communication between the DMZ and internal devices should be authenticated
to prevent attacks such as port redirection.
3. Users are unable to access a company server. The system logs show
that the server is operating slowly because it is receiving a high level of
fake requests for service. Which type of attack is occurring?
reconnaissance
access
DoS
worm
virus
Trojan horse
4.
Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the “ip ospf message-digest-
key 1 md5 cisco” statement in the configuration?
to specify a key that is used to authenticate routing updates
to save bandwidth by compressing the traffic
to enable SSH encryption of traffic
to create an IPsec tunnel
5. What are three characteristics of a good security policy? (Choose
three.)
It defines acceptable and unacceptable use of network resources.
It communicates consensus and defines roles.
It is developed by end users.
It is developed after all security devices have been fully tested.
It defines how to handle security incidents.
It should be encrypted as it contains backups of all important passwords and
keys.
6. Intrusion detection occurs at which stage of the Security Wheel?
securing
monitoring
testing
improvement
reconnaissance
7. Which two objectives must a security policy accomplish? (Choose
two.)
provide a checklist for the installation of secure servers
describe how the firewall must be configured
document the resources to be protected
identify the security objectives of the organization
identify the specific tasks involved in hardening a router
8. Which two statements define the security risk when DNS services are
enabled on the network? (Choose two.)
By default, name queries are sent to the broadcast address 255.255.255.255.
DNS name queries require the ip directed-broadcast command to be enabled
on the Ethernet interfaces of all routers.
Using the global configuration command ip name-server on one router
enables the DNS services on all routers in the network.
The basic DNS protocol does not provide authentication or integrity assurance.
The router configuration does not provide an option to set up main and backup
DNS servers.
9.
Refer to the exhibit. Security Device Manager (SDM) has been used to
configure a required level of security on the router. What would be
accomplished when the SDM applies the next step on the security
problems that are identified on the router?
SDM will automatically invoke the AutoSecure command.
SDM will generate a report that will outline the proper configuration actions to
alleviate the security issues.
SDM will create a configuration file that can be copy and pasted into the router
to reconfigure the services.
SDM will reconfigure the services that are marked in the exhibit as “fix it” to
apply the suggested security changes.
10. An IT director has begun a campaign to remind users to avoid
opening e-mail messages from suspicious sources. Which type of attack
is the IT director trying to protect users from?
DoS
DDoS
virus
access
reconnaissance
11. What are two benefits of using Cisco AutoSecure? (Choose two.)
It gives the administrator detailed control over which services are enabled or
disabled.
It offers the ability to instantly disable non-essential system processes and
services.
It automatically configures the router to work with SDM.
It ensures the greatest compatibility with other devices in your network.
It allows the administrator to configure security policies without having to
understand all of the Cisco IOS software features.
12. Which statement is true about Cisco Security Device Manager
(SDM)?
SDM can run only on Cisco 7000 series routers.
SDM can be run from router memory or from a PC.
SDM should be used for complex router configurations.
SDM is supported by every version of the Cisco IOS software.
13. The Cisco IOS image naming convention allows identification of
different versions and capabilities of the IOS. What information can be
gained from the filename c2600-d-mz.121-4? (Choose two.)
The “mz” in the filename represents the special capabilities and features of the
IOS.
The file is uncompressed and requires 2.6 MB of RAM to run.
The software is version 12.1, 4th revision.
The file is downloadable and 121.4MB in size.
The IOS is for the Cisco 2600 series hardware platform.
14.
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is trying to back up the
Cisco IOS router software and receives the output shown. What are two
possible reasons for this output? (Choose two.)
The Cisco IOS file has an invalid checksum.
The TFTP client on the router is corrupt.
The router cannot connect to the TFTP server.
The TFTP server software has not been started.
There is not enough room on the TFTP server for the software.
15. The password recovery process begins in which operating mode and
using what type of connection? (Choose two.)
ROM monitor
boot ROM
Cisco IOS
direct connection through the console port
network connection through the Ethernet port
network connection through the serial port
16.
Refer to the exhibit. Security Device Manager (SDM) is installed on
router R1. What is the result of opening a web browser on PC1 and
entering the URL https://192.168.10.1?
The password is sent in plain text.
A Telnet session is established with R1.
The SDM page of R1 appears with a dialog box that requests a username and
password.
The R1 home page is displayed and allows the user to download Cisco IOS
images and configuration files.
17.
ccna 4 chapter 4
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to configure a
router to use SDM, but it is not functioning correctly. What could be
the problem?
The privilege level of the user is not configured correctly.
The authentication method is not configured correctly.
The HTTP server is not configured correctly.
The HTTP timeout policy is not configured correctly.
18. Which step is required to recover a lost enable password for a
router?
Set the configuration register to bypass the startup configuration.
Copy the running configuration to the startup configuration.
Reload the IOS from a TFTP server from ROMMON.
Reconfigure the router using setup mode.
19. What is the best defense for protecting a network from phishing
exploits?
Schedule antivirus scans.
Schedule antispyware scans .
Schedule training for all users.
Schedule operating systems updates.
20. Which two conditions should the network administrator verify
before attempting to upgrade a Cisco IOS image using a TFTP server?
(Choose two.)
Verify the name of the TFTP server using the show hosts command.
Verify that the TFTP server is running using the tftpdnld command.
Verify that the checksum for the image is valid using the show
version command.
Verify connectivity between the router and TFTP server using
the ping command.
Verify that there is enough flash memory for the new Cisco IOS image using
the show flash command.
21.
Refer to the exhibit. What is accomplished when both commands are
configured on the router?
The commands filter UDP and TCP traffic coming to the router.
The commands disable any TCP or UDP request sent by the routing protocols.
The commands disable the services such as echo, discard, and chargen on the
router to prevent security vulnerabilities.
The commands disable the BOOTP and TFTP server services to prevent
security vulnerabilities.
22. Which two statements regarding preventing network attacks are
true? (Choose two.)
The default security settings for modern server and PC operating systems can
be trusted to have secure default security settings.
Intrusion prevention systems can log suspicious network activity, but there is
no way to counter an attack in progress without user intervention.
Physical security threat mitigation consists of controlling access to device
console ports, labeling critical cable runs, installing UPS systems, and
providing climate control.
Phishing attacks are best prevented by firewall devices.
Changing default usernames and passwords and disabling or uninstalling
unnecessary services are aspects of device hardening.
CCNA 4 Chapter 5 2011 V4.0 Answers 100%
1. The following commands were entered on a router:
Router(config)# access-list 2 deny 172.16.5.24
Router(config)# access-list 2 permit any
The ACL is correctly applied to an interface. What can be concluded about this
set of commands?
The wildcard mask 0.0.0.0 is assumed.
The access list statements are misconfigured.
All nodes on the 172.16.0.0 network will be denied access to other networks.
No traffic will be allowed to access any nodes or services on the 172.16.0.0
network.
2. Interface s0/0/0 already has an IP ACL applied inbound. What
happens when the network administrator attempts to apply a second
inbound IP ACL?
The second ACL is applied to the interface, replacing the first.
Both ACLs are applied to the interface.
The network administrator receives an error.
Only the first ACL remains applied to the interface.
3. Which two statements are correct about extended ACLs? (Choose
two)
Extended ACLs use a number range from 1-99.
Extended ACLs end with an implicit permit statement.
Extended ACLs evaluate the source and destination addresses.
Port numbers can be used to add greater definition to an ACL.
Multiple ACLs can be placed on the same interface as long as they are in the
same direction.
4. Which benefit does an extended ACL offer over a standard ACL?
Extended ACLs can be named, but standard ACLs cannot.
Unlike standard ACLs, extended ACLS can be applied in the inbound or
outbound direction.
Based on payload content, an extended ACL can filter packets, such as
information in an e-mail or instant message.
In addition to the source address, an extended ACL can also filter on
destination address, destination port, and source port.
5.
CCNA Exploration 4 Accessing the WAN – Chapter 5 exam
Refer to the exhibit. How will Router1 treat traffic matching the time-
range requirement of EVERYOTHERDAY?
TCP traffic entering fa0/0 from 172.16.1.254/24 destined to the 10.1.1.0/24
network is permitted.
TCP traffic entering fa0/0 from 10.1.1.254/24 destined to the 172.16.1.0/24
network is permitted.
Telnet traffic entering fa0/0 from 172.16.1.254/24 destined to the 10.1.1.0/24
network is permitted.
Telnet traffic entering fa0/0 from 10.1.1.254/24 destined to the 172.16.1.0/24
network is permitted.
6. Which three statements describe ACL processing of packets? (Choose
three.)
An implicit deny any rejects any packet that does not match any ACL
statement.
A packet can either be rejected or forwarded as directed by the statement that
is matched.
A packet that has been denied by one statement can be permitted by a
subsequent statement.
A packet that does not match the conditions of any ACL statements will be
forwarded by default.
Each statement is checked only until a match is detected or until the end of the
ACL statement list.
Each packet is compared to the conditions of every statement in the ACL
before a forwarding decision is made.
7.
ccna 4 chapter 5 exam answers
Refer to the exhibit. The administrator wishes to block web traffic from
192.168.1.50 from reaching the default port of the web service on
192.168.3.30. To do this, the access control list name is applied
inbound on the router R1 LAN interface. After testing the list, the
administrator has noted that the web traffic remains successful. Why is
web traffic reaching the destination?
Web traffic does not use port 80 by default.
The access list is applied in the wrong direction.
The access list needs to be placed closer to the destination, on R3.
The range of source addresses specified in line 10 does not include host
192.168.1.50.
8. Which feature will require the use of a named ACL rather than a
numbered ACL?
the ability to filter traffic based on a specific protocol
the ability to filter traffic based on an entire protocol suite and destination
the ability to specify source and destination addresses to use when identifying
traffic
the ability to edit the ACL and add additional statements in the middle of the
list without removing and re-creating the list
9. Which two statements are true regarding the significance of the
access control list wildcard mask 0.0.0.7? (Choose two.)
The first 29 bits of a given IP address will be ignored.
The last 3 bits of a given IP address will be ignored.
The first 32 bits of a given IP address will be checked.
The first 29 bits of a given IP address will be checked.
The last 3 bits of a given IP address will be checked.
10. Where should a standard access control list be placed?
close to the source
close to the destination
on an Ethernet port
on a serial port
11. How do Cisco standard ACLs filter traffic?
by destination UDP port
by protocol type
by source IP address
by source UDP port
by destination IP address
12. Which two statements are true regarding named ACLs? (Choose
two.)
Only named ACLs allow comments.
Names can be used to help identify the function of the ACL.
Named ACLs offer more specific filtering options than numbered ACLs.
Certain complex ACLs, such as reflexive ACLs, must be defined with named
ACLs.
More than one named IP ACL can be configured in each direction on a router
interface.
13.
Refer to the exhibit. What will be the effect of the configuration that is
shown?
Users attempting to access hosts in the 192.168.30.0/24 network will be
required to telnet to R3
Hosts connecting to resources in the 191.68.30.0/24 network have an idle
timeout of 15 minutes.
Anyone attempting to telnet into R3 will have an absolute time limit of five
minutes.
Telnet access to R3 will only be permitted on Serial 0/0/1.
14.
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator has configured two access lists on
R1. The list inbound on the serial interface is named Serial and the list
inbound on the LAN interface is named LAN. What affect will be
produced by the access control lists?
PC1 will be able to telnet to PC3.
R3 will not be able to communicate with PC1 and PC3.
PC3 cannot telnet to R3 and cannot communicate with PC1.
PC1 will not be able to telnet to R3 and PC3 will not be able to communicate
with PC1.
15. Which two statements are true regarding the following extended
ACL? (Choose two.)
access-list 101 deny tcp 172.16.3.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 20
access-list 101 deny tcp 172.16.3.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 21
access-list 101 permit ip any any
FTP traffic originating from network 172.16.3.0/24 is denied.
All traffic is implicitly denied.
FTP traffic destined for the 172.16.3.0/24 network is denied.
Telnet traffic originating on network 172.16.3.0/24 is denied.
Web traffic originating from 172.16.3.0 is permitted.
16. Which statement about standard ACLs is true?
Standard ACLS must be numbered and cannot be named.
They should be placed as close to the destination as possible.
They can filter based on source and destination address as well as on source
and destination port.
When applied to an outbound interface, incoming packets are processed before
they are routed to the outbound interface.
17.
ccna 4 chapter 5 exam answers
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about ACL 110 if ACL 110
is applied in the inbound direction on S0/0/0 of R1?
It will deny TCP traffic to the Internet if the traffic is sourced from the
172.22.10.0/24 network.
It will not allow TCP traffic coming from the Internet to enter the network
172.22.10.0/24.
It will allow any TCP traffic from the Internet to enter the network
172.22.10.0/24.
It will permit any TCP traffic that originated from network 172.22.10.0/24 to
return inbound on the S0/0/0 interface.
18. Which three parameters can ACLs use to filter traffic? (Choose
three.)
packet size
protocol suite
source address
destination address
source router interface
destination router interface
19.
ccna 4 chapter 5
Refer to the exhibit. How does this access list process a packet with the
source address 10.1.1.1 and a destination of 192.168.10.13?
It is allowed because of the implicit deny any.
It is dropped because it does not match any of the items in the ACL.
It is allowed because line 10 of the ACL allows packets to 192.168.0.0/16.
It is allowed because line 20 of the ACL allows packets to the host
192.168.10.13.
20. By default, how is IP traffic filtered in a Cisco router?
blocked in and out of all interfaces
blocked on all inbound interfaces, but permitted on all outbound interfaces
permitted in and out of all interfaces
blocked on all outbound interfaces, but permitted on all inbound interfaces
21.
ccna 4 chapter 5 answers
Refer to the exhibit. When creating an extended ACL to deny traffic
from the 192.168.30.0 network destined for the Web server
209.165.201.30, where is the best location for applying the ACL?
ISP Fa0/0 outbound
R2 S0/0/1 inbound
R3 Fa0/0 inbound
R3 S0/0/1 outbound
22.
Refer to the exhibit. ACL 120 is configured inbound on the serial0/0/0
interface on router R1, but the hosts on network 172.11.10.0/24 are
able to telnet to network 10.10.0.0/16. On the basis of the provided
configuration, what should be done to remedy the problem?
Apply the ACL outbound on the serial0/0/0 interface on router R1.
Apply the ACL outbound on the FastEthernet0/0 interface on router R1.
Include the established keyword at the end of the first line in the ACL.
Include a statement in the ACL to deny the UDP traffic that originates from
172.11.10.0/24 network.
23. A network administrator needs to allow traffic through the firewall
router for sessions that originate from within the company network, but
the administrator must block traffic for sessions that originate outside
the network of the company. What type of ACL is most appropriate?
dynamic
port-based
reflexive
time-based
24. A technician is creating an ACL and needs a way to indicate only the
subnet 172.16.16.0/21. Which combination of network address and wildcard
mask will accomplish the desired task?
172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255
127.16.16.0 0.0.0.255
172.16.16.0 0.0.7.255
172.16.16.0 0.0.15.255
172.16.16.0 0.0.255.255
25. Which three items must be configured before a dynamic ACL can
become active on a router? (Choose three.)
extended ACL
reflexive ACL
console logging
authentication
Telnet connectivity
user account with a privilege level of 15
CCNA Exploration 1: Network Fundamentals – Chapter 6 Exam01.
Refer to the exhibit. Which network prefix
will implement the IP addressing scheme for the LANs shown in the graphic?
/24
/16
/20
/27
/25
/28
02. Which IPv4 subnetted addresses represent valid host addresses? (Choose three.)
172.16.4.127 /26
172.16.4.155 /26
172.16.4.193 /26
172.16.4.95 /27
172.16.4.159 /27
172.16.4.207 /27
03. Which statements are true regarding IP addressing? (Choose two.)
NAT translates public addresses to private addresses destined for the Internet.
Only one company is allowed to use a specific private network address space.
Private addresses are blocked from public Internet by router.
Network 172.32.0.0 is part of the private address space.
IP address 127.0.0.1 can be used for a host to direct traffic to itself.
04. Which process do routers use to determine the subnet network address based upon a given IP
address and subnet mask?
binary adding
hexadecimal anding
binary division
binary multiplication
binary ANDing
05.
Refer to the exhibit. Host A is connected to
the LAN, but it cannot get access to any resources on the Internet. The configuration of the host is
shown in the exhibit. What could be the cause of the problem?
The host subnet mask is incorrect.
The default gateway is a network address.
The default gateway is a broadcast address.
The default gateway is on a different subnet from the host.
06. What subnet mask would a network administrator assign to a network address of 172.30.1.0 if
it were possible to have up to 254 hosts?
255.255.0.0
255.255.255.0
255.255.254.0
255.255.248.0
07. Which three IP addresses are private? (Choose three.)
172.168.33.1
10.35.66.70
192.168.99.5
172.18.88.90
192.33.55.89
172.35.16.5
08. Given the IP address and subnet mask of 172.16.134.64 255.255.255.224, which of the following
would describe this address?
This is a useable host address.
This is a broadcast address.
This is a network address.
This is not a valid address.
09. A router interface has been assigned an IP address of 172.16.192.166 with a mask of
255.255.255.248. To which subnet does the IP address belong?
172.16.0.0
172.16.192.0
172.16.192.128
172.16.192.160
172.16.192.168
172.16.192.176
10.
Refer to the exhibit. The network
administrator has assigned the internetwork of LBMISS an address range of 192.168.10.0. This
address range has been subnetted using a /29 mask. In order to accommodate a new building, the
technician has decided to use the fifth subnet for configuring the new network (subnet zero is the
first subnet). By company policies, the router interface is always assigned the first usable host
address and the workgroup server is given the last usable host address. Which configuration
should be entered into the workgroup server’s properties to allow connectivity to the network?
IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 default gateway: 192.168.10.39
IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 default gateway: 192.168.10.33
IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 default gateway: 192.168.10.33
IP address: 192.168.10.39 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 default gateway: 192.168.10.31
IP address: 192.168.10.254 subnet mask: 255.255.255.0 default gateway: 192.168.10.1
11. Which of the following network devices are recommended to be assigned static IP addresses?
(Choose three.)
LAN workstations
servers
network printers
routers
remote workstations
laptops
12. Which of the following are features of IPv6? (Choose three.)
larger address space
faster routing protocols
data types and classes of service
authentication and encryption
improved host naming conventions
same addressing scheme as IPv4
13. What is the primary reason for development of IPv6?
security
header format simplification
expanded addressing capabilities
addressing simplification
14. What two things will happen if a router receives an ICMP packet which has a TTL value of 1
and the destination host is several hops away? (Choose two.)
The router will discard the packet.
The router will decrement the TTL value and forward the packet to the next router on the path to
the destination host.
The router will send a time exceeded message to the source host.
The router will increment the TTL value and forward the packet to the next router on the path to the
destination host.
The router will send an ICMP Redirect Message to the source host.
15.
Refer to the exhibit. Why would the response
shown be displayed after issuing the command ping 127.0.0.1 on a PC?
The IP settings are not properly configured on the host.
Internet Protocol is not properly installed on the host.
There is a problem at the physical or data link layer.
The default gateway device is not operating.
A router on the path to the destination host has gone down.
16. How many bits make up an IPv4 address?
128
64
48
32
17.
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator discovers that host A is having trouble with Internet
connectivity, but the server farm has full connectivity. In addition, host A has full connectivity to
the server farm. What is a possible cause of this problem?
The router has an incorrect gateway.
Host A has an overlapping network address.
Host A has an incorrect default gateway configured.
Host A has an incorrect subnet mask.
NAT is required for the host A network.
18. What three facts are true about the network portion of an IPv4 address? (Choose three.)
identifies an individual device
is identical for all hosts in a broadcast domain
is altered as packet is forwarded
varies in length
is used to forward packets
uses flat addressing
19. What is a group of hosts called that have identical bit patterns in the high order bits of their
addresses?
an internet
a network
an octet
a radix
20. What is the network address of the host 172.25.67.99 /23 in binary?
10101100. 00011001.01000011.00000000
10101100. 00011001.01000011.11111111
10101100. 00011001.01000010.00000000
10101100. 00011001.01000010.01100011
10101100. 00010001.01000011. 01100010
10101100. 00011001.00000000.00000000
21.
Refer to the
exhibit. A network administrator has to develop an IP addressing scheme that uses the
192.168.1.0 /24 address space. The network that contains the serial link has already been
addressed out of a separate range. Each network will be allocated the same number of host
addresses. Which network mask will be appropriate to address the remaining networks?
255.255.255.248
255.255.255.224
255.255.255.192
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.128
255.255.255.252
CCNA 4 Chapter 7 2011 V4.0 Answers 100%
CCNA 4 Chapter 7 V4.0 Answers 2011 updated
1.
ccna 4 chapter 7
Refer to the exhibit. Traffic exiting R1 is failing translation. What part
of the configuration is most likely incorrect?
ip nat pool statement
access-list statement
ip nat inside is on the wrong interface
interface s0/0/2 should be a private IP address
2.
ccna 4 chapter 7
Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the command marked with
an arrow shown in the partial configuration output of a Cisco
broadband router?
defines which addresses can be translated
defines which addresses are allowed into the router
defines which addresses are assigned to a NAT pool
defines which addresses are allowed out of the router
3. How many bits of an IPv6 address are used to identify the interface
ID?
32
48
64
128
4.
ccna 4 chapter 7 answers
Refer to the exhibit. How many IPv6 broadcast domains exist in this
topology?
0
1
2
3
4
5.
ccna 4 chapter 7
Refer to the exhibit. Which two addresses could be assigned to traffic
leaving S0 as a result of the statement ip nat pool Tampa 179.9.8.96
179.9.8.111 netmask 255.255.255.240? (Choose two.)
10.0.0.125
179.9.8.95
179.9.8.98
179.9.8.101
179.9.8.112
6.
ccna 4 chapter 7
Refer to the exhibit. A network technician determines DHCP clients are
not working properly. The clients are receiving IP configuration
information from a DHCP server configured on the router but cannot
access the Internet. From the output in the graphic, what is the most
likely problem?
The DHCP server service is not enabled.
The inside interface for DCHP is not defined.
The DHCP pool is not bound to the interface.
The pool does not have a default router defined for the clients.
All the host addresses have been excluded from the DHCP pool.
7. Your organization is issued the IPv6 prefix of 2001:0000:130F::/48 by
your service provider. With this prefix, how many bits are available for
your organization to create subnetworks?
8
16
80
128
8. After activating IPv6 routing on a Cisco router and programming
IPv6 addresses on multiple interfaces, what is the remaining step to
activate RIPng?
Enter the interface programming mode for each IPv6 interface and enable IPng
RIP.
Enter the ipv6 router rip name command and then use network statements to
activate RIPng on the interfaces.
Enter the router rip command, and then activate RIPng using
the version command. RIPng then automatically runs on all IPv6 interfaces.
Enter the interface programming mode for each IPv6 interface and enable the
multicast group FF02::9, and then activate RIPng globally using the ipv6
router rip namecommand.
9.
ccna 4 chapter 7
Refer to the exhibit. IPv6 address 2006:1::1/64 eui-64 has been
configured on the router FastEthernet0/0 interface. Which statement
accurately describes the EUI-64 identifier configuration?
It will randomly generate a 64 bit interface ID.
It will assign an address from the pool of IPv6 private addresses to the
interface.
It will assign only the registry prefix of the IPv6 Global Unicast address to the
interface.
The configuration will derive the interface portion of the IPv6 address from the
MAC address of the interface.
10. What is true regarding the differences between NAT and PAT?
PAT uses the word “overload” at the end of the access-list statement to share a
single registered address.
Static NAT allows an unregistered address to map to multiple registered
addresses.
Dynamic NAT allows hosts to receive the same global address each time
external access is required.
PAT uses unique source port numbers to distinguish between translations.
11.
ccna 4 chapter 7
Refer to the exhibit. The FTP server has an RFC 1918 private address.
Users on the Internet need to connect to the FTP server on the Fa0/0
LAN of R1. Which three configurations must be completed on R1?
(Choose three.)
dynamic NAT
NAT with overloading
open port 20
open port 21
open port 23
NAT with port forwarding
12.
ccna 4 chapter 7
Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the configuration shown, how
should the pool of the excluded addresses be assigned to key hosts on
the network, such as router interfaces, printers, and servers?
The addresses are statically assigned by the network administrator.
The DHCP server dynamically assigns the addresses.
The addresses must be listed under the DHCP pool of addresses before they
are available for static assignment.
The addresses must be listed under the DHCP pool of addresses before they
are available for dynamic assignment.
13.
ccna 4 chapter 7 answers
Refer to the exhibit. A technician used SDM to enter the NAT
configuration for a Cisco router. Which statement correctly describes
the result of the configuration?
A user on the inside sees web traffic coming from 192.168.1.3 using port 8080.
The address 172.16.1.1 is translated into an address from the pool beginning
with 192.168.1.3.
A user on the outside network sees a request addressed from 192.168.1.3 using
port 80.
A user on the outside must address traffic to port 8080 to reach the address
172.16.1.1.
14.
ccna 4 chapter 7
Refer to the exhibit. According to the output, how many addresses have
been successfully assigned or renewed by this DHCP server?
1
6
7
8
9
15. What are two benefits of NAT? (Choose two.)
It saves public IP addresses.
It adds a degree of privacy and security to a network.
It increases routing performance.
It makes troubleshooting routing issues easier.
It makes tunneling with IPsec less complicated.
16.
ccna 4 chapter 7
Refer to the exhibit. R1 is performing NAT for the 10.1.1.0/24 network,
and R2 is performing NAT for the 192.168.1.2/24 network. What would
be valid destination IP address for HostA to put in its IP header when
communicating with the web server?
10.1.1.1
172.30.20.2
192.168.1.2
255.255.255.255
17.
ccna 4 chapter 7
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the configuration are
true? (Choose two.)
Traffic from the 10.1.1.0 network will be translated.
Traffic from the 209.165.200.0 network will be translated.
Permitted traffic gets translated to a single inside global IP address.
A pool of inside global IP addresses from the 10.1.1.0 network will be used for
translation.
External users from the 209.165.200.0 network can reach private addresses on
the 10.1.1.0 and 10.1.2.0 networks.
18. What type of NAT should a network administrator use to ensure that
a web server on the inside network is always available to the outside
network?
NAT overload
static NAT
dynamic NAT
PAT
19.
ccna 4 chapter 7
Refer to the exhibit. Which address or addresses represent the inside
global address?
10.1.1.2
192.168.0.100
209.165.20.25
any address in the 10.1.1.0 network
20. A technician has been told by a supervisor to always clear any
dynamic translations before attempting to troubleshoot a failed NAT
connection. Why has the supervisor issued these instructions?
The supervisor wants to clear any confidential information that may be seen by
the technician.
Because entries can be cached for long periods of time, the supervisor wants to
prevent decisions being made based on old data.
The translation table may be full and is unable to make new translations until
space is available.
Clearing the translations causes the starting configuration to be reread and
may correct translation problems that have occurred.
21. A network administrator wants to connect two IPv6 islands. The
easiest way is through a public network that uses only IPv4 equipment.
What simple solution solves the problem?
Replace the devices on the public network with devices that support IPv6.
Configure RIPng on the border routers of each IPv6 island.
Configure the routers to take advantage of dual-stack technology.
Use tunneling to encapsulate the IPv6 traffic in the IPv4 protocol.
CCNA Exploration 1 Chapter 8 Exam AnswersMar 20th, 2010
by admin.1. What characteristic of UTP cable helps reduce the effects of interference?the metal braiding in the shielding
the reflective cladding around core
the twisting of the wires in the cablethe insulating material in the outer jacket
2. With the use of unshielded twisted-pair copper wire in a network, what causes crosstalk within the cable pairs?the magnetic field around the adjacent pairs of wirethe use of braided wire to shield the adjacent wire pairs
the reflection of the electrical wave back from the far end of the cable
the collision caused by two nodes trying to use the media simultaneously
3. Which type of cable run is most often associated with fiber-optic cable?backbone cablehorizontal cable
patch cable
work area cable
4. What is a possible effect of improperly applying a connector to a network cable?Data will be forwarded to the wrong node.
Data transmitted through that cable may experience signal loss.An improper signaling method will be implemented for data transmitted on that cable.
The encoding method for data sent on that cable will change to compensate for the improper connection.
5. Which OSI layer is responsible for binary transmission, cable specification, and physical aspects of network communication?Presentation
Transport
Data Link
Physical
6. Which characteristics describe fiber optic cable? (Choose two.)
It is not affected by EMI or RFI.Each pair of cables is wrapped in metallic foil.
It combines the technique of cancellation, shielding and twisting to protect data.
It has a maximum speed of 100 Mbps.
It is the most expensive type of LAN cabling.
7. Which of the following is a characteristic of single-mode fiber-optic cable?generally uses LEDs as the light source
relatively larger core with multiple light paths
less expensive than multimode
generally uses lasers as the light source
8. Which method of signal transmission uses radio waves to carry signals?electrical
optical
wirelessacoustic
9. XYZ Company is installing new cable runs on their data network. What two types of cable would most commonly be used for new runs? (Choose two.)coax
Cat4 UTP
Cat5 UTPCat6 UTPSTP
10. An installed fiber run can be checked for faults, integrity, and the performance of the media by using what device?light injector
OTDRTDR
multimeter
11. Which fiber connector supports full duplex Ethernet?
12. What is considered a benefit of wireless as a media choice?more host mobilitylower security risks
reduced susceptibility to interference
less impact of the surroundings on the effective coverage area
13.
Refer to the exhibit. Which type of Category 5 cable is used to make an Ethernet connection between Host A and Host B?coax cable
rollover cable
crossover cablestraight-through cable
14. What is a primary role of the Physical layer in transmitting data on the network?create the signals that represent the bits in each frame on to the mediaprovide physical addressing to the devices
determine the path packets take through the network
control data access to the media
15. When is a straight-through cable used in a network?when connecting a router through the console port
when connecting one switch to another switch
when connecting a host to a switchwhen connecting a router to another router
16. In most business LANs, which connector is used with twisted-pair networking cable?BNC
RJ-11
RJ-45Type F
17. What are three measures of data transfer? (Choose three.)goodputfrequency
amplitude
throughputcrosstalk
bandwidth
18. In LAN installations where potential electrical hazards or electromagnetic interference may be present, what type of media is recommended for backbone cabling?coax
fiberCat5e UTP
Cat6 UTP
STP
CCNA 1 Chapter 9 V4.0 Answers 100% 2011
1.
In the graphic, Host A has reached 50% completion in sending a 1 KB
Ethernet frame to Host D when Host B wishes to transmit its own frame
to Host C. What must Host B do?
Host B can transmit immediately since it is connected on its own cable
segment.
Host B must wait to receive a CSMA transmission from the hub, to signal its
turn.
Host B must send a request signal to Host A by transmitting an interframe gap.
Host B must wait until it is certain that Host A has completed sending its
frame.
2. Ethernet operates at which layers of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
Network layer
Transport layer
Physical layer
Application layer
Session layer
Data-link layer
3. Which of the following describe interframe spacing? (Choose two.)
the minimum interval, measured in bit-times, that any station must wait before
sending another frame
the maximum interval, measured in bit-times, that any station must wait before
sending another frame
the 96-bit payload padding inserted into a frame to achieve a legal frame size
the 96-bit frame padding transmitted between frames to achieve proper
synchronization
the time allowed for slow stations to process a frame and prepare for the next
frame
the maximum interval within which a station must send another frame to avoid
being considered unreachable
4. What three primary functions does data link layer encapsulation
provide? (Choose three.)
addressing
error detection
frame delimiting
port identification
path determination
IP address resolution
5. When a collision occurs in a network using CSMA/CD, how do hosts
with data to transmit respond after the backoff period has expired?
* The hosts return to a listen-before-transmit mode.
The hosts creating the collision have priority to send data.
The hosts creating the collision retransmit the last 16 frames.
The hosts extend their delay period to allow for rapid transmission.
6. What are three functions of the upper data link sublayer in the OSI
model? (Choose three.)
recognizes streams of bits
identifies the network layer protocol
makes the connection with the upper layers
identifies the source and destination applications
insulates network layer protocols from changes in physical equipment
determines the source of a transmission when multiple devices are transmitting
7. What does the IEEE 802.2 standard represent in Ethernet
technologies?
MAC sublayer
Physical layer
Logical Link
Control sublayer
Network layer
8. Why do hosts on an Ethernet segment that experience a collision use
a random delay before attempting to transmit a frame?
A random delay is used to ensure a collision-free link.
A random delay value for each device is assigned by the manufacturer.
A standard delay value could not be agreed upon among networking device
vendors.
* A random delay helps prevent the stations from experiencing another
collision during the transmission.
9.
Refer to the exhibit. Which option correctly identifies content that the
frame data field may contain?
preamble and stop frame
network layer packet
physical addressing
FCS and SoF
10. Host A has an IP address of 172.16.225.93 and a mask of
255.255.248.0. Host A needs to communicate with a new host whose IP
is 172.16.231.78. Host A performs the ANDing operation on the
destination address. What two things will occur? (Choose two.)
Host A will change the destination IP to the IP of the nearest router and
forward the packet.
Host A will broadcast an ARP request for the MAC of its default gateway.
A result of 172.16.225.0 will be obtained.
Host A will broadcast an ARP request for the MAC of the destination host.
A result of 172.16.224.0 will be obtained.
A result of 172.16.225.255 will be obtained.
11. Which of the following is a drawback of the CSMA/CD access
method?
Collisions can decrease network performance.
It is more complex than non-deterministic protocols.
Deterministic media access protocols slow network performance.
CSMA/CD LAN technologies are only available at slower speeds than other
LAN technologies.
12. Ethernet operates at which layer of the TCP/IP network model?
application
physical
transport
internet
data link
network access
13. What is the primary purpose of ARP?
translate URLs to IP addresses
resolve IPv4 addresses to MAC addresses
provide dynamic IP configuration to network devices
convert internal private addresses to external public addresses
14.
Refer to the exhibit. The switch and workstation are administratively
configured for full-duplex operation. Which statement accurately
reflects the operation of this link?
No collisions will occur on this link.
Only one of the devices can transmit at a time.
The switch will have priority for transmitting data.
The devices will default back to half duplex if excessive collisions occur.
15.
Refer to the exhibit. Host_A is attempting to contact Server_B. Which
statements correctly describe the addressing Host_A will generate in
the process? (Choose two.)
A packet with the destination IP of Router_B.
A frame with the destination MAC address of Switch_A.
A packet with the destination IP of Router_A.
A frame with the destination MAC address of Router_A.
A packet with the destination IP of Server_B.
A frame with the destination MAC address of Server_B.
16. Which statements correctly describe MAC addresses? (Choose
three.)
dynamically assigned
copied into RAM during system startup
layer 3 address
contains a 3 byte OUI
6 bytes long
32 bits long
17. Which two features make switches preferable to hubs in Ethernet-
based networks? (Choose two.)
reduction in cross-talk
minimizing of collisions
support for UTP cabling
division into broadcast domains
increase in the throughput of communications
18. What are the two most commonly used media types in Ethernet
networks today? (Choose two.)
coaxial thicknet
copper UTP
coaxial thinnet
optical fiber
shielded twisted pair
19. Convert the binary number 10111010 into its hexadecimal
equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.
85
90
BA
A1
B3
1C
20. After an Ethernet collision, when the backoff algorithm is invoked,
which device has priority to transmit data?
the device involved in the collision with the lowest MAC address
the device involved in the collision with the lowest IP address
any device in the collision domain whose backoff timer expires first
those that began transmitting at the same time
21.
Refer to the exhibit. What command was executed on a host computer
to produce the results shown?
route PRINT
arp –a
arp –d
netstat
telnet