BUS 335 Week 9 Quiz – Strayer

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Quiz 8 Chapter 11 and 12

Student: ___________________________________________________________________________

1. Practical significance is the sign of a correlation coefficient. True    False

 

2. Validity refers to the relationship between predictor and criterion scores. True    False

 

3. A useful predictor is one where the sign of the relationship is consistent with the logic or theory behind the predictor. True    False

 

4. Statistical significance is stated as a probability and indicates a given predictor's chances of yielding similar validity coefficients with different sets of applicants. True    False

 

5. A significance level of p<0.05 means that there are fewer than 5 chances in 100 of concluding there is a relationship in the population of job applicants, when in fact, there is not. True    False

 

6. In general, the greater the correlation of a given predictor with other predictors of a criterion, the more useful the predictor will be. True    False

 

7. The usefulness of a predictor is determined by the value it adds to the prediction of job success above and beyond the forecasting powers of other available predictors. True    False

 

8. There are no cases in which a predictor has high validity and high adverse impact. True    False

 

9. All other things being equal, if a selection specialist must decide between two predictors, the one that causes the least adverse impact would be the best choice. True    False

 

10. Utility refers to the expected gains to be derived from using a predictor. True    False

 

11. The selection ratio is the number of people hired divided by the number of applicants, and it is desirable that this ratio be high. True    False

 

12. It is desirable that the denominator of a selection ratio be small. True    False

 

13. The base rate is the number of hirees divided by the number of employees. True    False

 

14. When deciding whether or not to use a new predictor, the validity coefficient, the base rate, and the selection ratio should be considered in combination, not independently. True    False

 

15. The most fundamental concern regarding utility analysis is that it lacks realism. True    False

 

16. If you are using the "economic gains formula," and you have just increased the validity of your selection procedures with no change in cost, your economic gain value should increase. True    False

 

17. The most difficult factor in the economic gain formula to estimate is "cost per applicant". True    False

 

18. Utility analysis models do not take factors like EEO/AA concerns into account. True    False

 

19. Research suggests that managers prefer the results of utility analysis to the presentation of simple validity coefficients. True    False

 

20. Utility decreases as the number of valid predictors used in the selection process increases. True    False

 

21. If you are evaluating the usefulness of a given predictor in predicting job success, and you are interested in the value the predictor adds to the prediction of job success, you want to know the predictor's ________.A. validity coefficientB. practical significanceC. signD. statistical significance

 

22. When HR specialists state that a new predictor "adds value" to the prediction of job success, they mean that _____. A. the predictor provides economic benefit to predictionB. the predictor has a high validity coefficientC. the predictor adds to the prediction of job success over and beyond the forecasting powers of current predictorsD. the predictor is highly correlated with other predictors, thus increasing efficiency

 

23. A significance level of p<0.05 in a validity study means _________. A. that there are fewer than 5 chances in 100 of concluding there is a relationship in the population of job applicants, when in fact, there is notB. that there are 5 chances in 100 of concluding that there is not a relationship in the population of job applicants, when in fact, there isC. that the practical significance of the observed relationship is very lowD. that there are fewer than 5 chances in 100 that a predictor has adverse impact

 

24. Validity refers to __________. A. the number of individuals hired by a predictorB. the number of individuals hired divided by the number of applicantsC. the relationship between predictor and criterion scoresD. the inverse of the adverse impact ratio

 

25. If an HR specialist is assessing the usefulness of predictors in forecasting job success, and it is noted that a given predictor has both high validity and high adverse impact, the HR specialist should conclude ___________. A. this can never happen and the method of calculating validity must be incorrectB. this is a common circumstance and the predictor should be usedC. if the predictor is highly correlated with other predictors, this will compensate for adverse impactD. legal problems could result and alternative predictors should be sought

 

26. Under which circumstances is "hiring success gain" likely to be optimal? A. Low selection ratio, low base rate, high validityB. High selection ratio, high base rate, high validityC. High selection ratio, low base rate, high validityD. High selection ratio, low base rate, low validity

 

27. Which of the following is the most difficult to estimate term in the economic gain formula? A. Average tenure of employees.B. Number of applicants.C. Dollar value of job performance.D. Cost per applicant.

 

28. Taylor-Russell tables are an effective decision making tool in that they ________. A. allow for calculating selection ratiosB. enable HR specialists to calculate utility ratiosC. allow simultaneous consideration of a predictor's base rate, selection ratio, and validityD. help to increase validity coefficients to more acceptable levels

 

29. Economic gain formulas provide the HR specialist with an estimate of ______. A. the economic gain derived from using a predictor versus random selectionB. the economic gain from using random selectionC. the economic gain of the standard deviation of job performanceD. the economic gain of the validity coefficient

 

30. A compensatory approach to selection decisions means that applicants must earn a passing score on each predictor before advancing in the selection process. True    False

 

31. The clinical prediction method of determining an applicant's score on a job assessment instrument relies on adding the individual predictor scores together to arrive at the applicant's total score. True    False

 

32. The "unit weighting" method of determining the score of a job applicant on an assessment instrument considers the relative importance of each predictor. True    False

 

33. Multiple regression will be more precise than unit weighting if there is a small number of predictors, low correlations between predictors, and a large sample. True    False

 

34. The multiple hurdles method of setting a passing score for a job predictor would be a cost efficient method for making decisions about hiring. True    False

 

35. The _________ approach means that selection decisions means that scores on one predictor can make up for low scores on another. A. multiple hurdlesB. Markov processC. compensatory modelD. none of the above

 

36. The _________ method of determining an applicant's score is based on the expert judgment of the manager. A. multiple regressionB. clinical predictionC. unit weightingD. none of the above

 

37. The _________ method of determining an applicant's score is based on assigning weights by statistical procedures and then adding predictor scores together. A. multiple regressionB. clinical predictionC. unit weightingD. none of the above

 

38. The _________ approach means that an applicant must earn a passing score on each predictor before advancing in the selection process. A. multiple hurdlesB. Markov processC. compensatory modelD. none of the above

 

39. In establishing procedures for setting cutoff scores, organizations should stress the job-relatedness of the assessment procedure and de-emphasize validity. True    False

 

40. In assessing cutoff scores, a "false negative" is an applicant who is assessed as not likely to succeed, but who would have been successful if hired. True    False

 

41. In assessing cutoff scores, a "false positive" is an applicant who is assessed as not likely to succeed, but who would have been successful if hired. True    False

 

42. The minimum competency method involves setting the cut score on the basis of the minimum qualifications deemed necessary to perform a job. True    False

 

43. In top down hiring, all individuals who are above a minimum competency point are hired. True    False

 

44. There is little evidence that individuals who perceive themselves to be overqualified are less satisfied or have higher intentions to turnover. True    False

 

45. The law prohibits using different norms for test scores of minority and majority groups. True    False

 

46. Banding is a procedure whereby applicants who score in different score ranges or bands are considered to have scored equivalently. True    False

 

47. Applicants react positively when banding is associated with affirmative action. True    False

 

48. An applicant who is hired but does not perform successfully is a ______________. A. true positiveB. false positiveC. true negativeD. false negative

 

49. An applicant who is not hired but who would have performed successfully if hired is a ______________. A. true positiveB. false positiveC. true negativeD. false negative

 

50. If a cutoff score is lowered, the effect of this on hiring results is likely to be ______________. A. fewer false negatives onlyB. both fewer false negatives and more true positivesC. fewer false negatives and fewer false positivesD. more false negatives and more false positives

 

51. If a cutoff scores is set based on the qualifications deemed necessary to perform a job, it is most likely the ______ method of determining cut scores. A. top-downB. criterion-relatedC. minimum competencyD. banding

 

52. When applicants who score within a certain score range are considered to have scored equivalently ________. A. top-downB. criterion-relatedC. minimum competencyD. banding

 

53. Which of the following statements is a useful guideline for setting cutoff scores? A. Cutoff scores should be consistent with normal expectations of acceptable proficiency within the workforce.B. The job relatedness of assessment procedures should not be correlated with validity.C. A single "best" method of setting cutoff scores should be identified.D. Cutoff scores should be set to maximize true positives.

 

54. When random selection is used to select the finalist to whom a job offer will be made, discretionary assessment methods should be used. True    False

 

55. In ranking finalists are ordered from the most desirable to the least desirable based on the results of discretionary assessments. True    False

 

56. One disadvantage of ranking is that it doesn't provide a clear suggestion of the order in which candidates should be offered jobs. True    False

 

57. Ongoing hiring is most common in organizations with very high turnover rates. True    False

 

58. When using ___________, each finalist has an equal chance of being selected. A. rankingB. random selectionC. clinical predictionD. grouping

 

59. When using ___________, finalists are ordered from the most desirable to the least desirable based on results of discretionary assessments. A. rankingB. random selectionC. clinical predictionD. grouping

 

60. When using ___________, finalists are banded together into rank-ordered categories. A. rankingB. random selectionC. clinical predictionD. grouping

 

61. In general, HR specialists should orchestrate the development of staffing policies and procedures for all departments, but play a secondary, or supporting role in the ultimate decision to hire in areas outside of the HR department. True    False

 

62. Since line managers are not usually technical experts in staffing processes, their input comes to play only in regard to hiring decisions. True    False

 

63. In terms of who should participate in selection decision making (i.e., HR professionals vs. line managers), HR professionals would be least likely to ________. A. make the hiring decisionB. establish

selection proceduresC. ensure relevant laws and regulations are being followedD. represent the interests of employees to management

 

64. In which of the following assessment procedures is the participation of line managers most needed? A. initial assessmentB. substantive methodsC. discretionary methodsD. background investigations

 

65. Employees are most likely to be involved in hiring decision making if they are organized in __________. A. solo workB. functional harmonyC. teamsD. none of the above

 

66. If adverse impact occurs because of certain selection procedures, these procedures may be justified under UGESP through validity studies. True    False

 

67. The two options the UGESP recommends for minimizing adverse impact are use of within-group norming and banding. True    False

 

68. The law suggests that unless the organization is under a formal AAP, protected characteristics should not be considered in selection decision making. True    False

 

69. If an organization wishes to comply with the law and still increase the diversity of its workforce, it should ___________. A. de-emphasize selection based on KSAOsB. use recruitment as a tool for attracting a more diverse and qualified applicant poolC. use clinical and other subjective prediction methodsD. all of the above

 

70. Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures establish guidelines for record-keeping ___________. A. of applicants' sexB. of applicants' raceC. for major job categoriesD. all of the above

 

Chapter 12

Student: ___________________________________________________________________________

1. The three elements required for a contract to be legally binding are: offer, acceptance, and written documentation. True    False

 

2. It is very important for an organization to know, in advance, whether an individual will be classified as either an employee or an independent contractor. True    False

 

3. A third party is someone other than the employer or the offer receiver who speaks on their behalf in the establishment or modification of employment contracts. True    False

 

4. The law is relatively indifferent between the use of written contracts and the use of oral contracts. True    False

 

5. Statements in employee handbooks can be construed as employment contracts. True    False

 

6. The "one year rule" ensures that oral agreements for time intervals greater than one year are legally enforceable. True    False

 

7. If a letter of acceptance says an employee needs to work on weekends, but the employer makes an oral promise that the employee will not have to work on weekends, the oral statement could be legally binding.True    False

 

8. If a co-worker promises a prospective employee overtime hours while visiting the prospective employee in his/her home, this promised "term" of the employment would likely be legally enforceable. True    False

 

9. A disclaimer on an employment application blank stating that the employee can be terminated "with or without cause" and "with or without notice" is legally enforceable. True    False

 

10. It is extremely important for organizations to be sure to keep promises that they make to job applicants in order to avoid subsequent lawsuits. True    False

 

11. In order for "promissory estoppel" claim to apply when a job offer is made, the offer recipient must suffer a detrimental effect. True    False

 

12. Which of the following elements are required for a contract to be legally binding and enforceable? A. offerB. acceptanceC. considerationD. all of the above

 

13. Consideration in a contract entails __________. A. evidence that both parties agree to the terms as offeredB. a polite exchange of informationC. the exchange of something of value between the parties to the contractD. none of the above

 

14. Which of the following statements about written contracts is false? A. The law favors written contracts over oral contracts.B. A statement on a job application blank could be construed as a written contract.C. Written statements in employee handbooks that are unintended as contracts cannot be construed as contracts.D. Internal job posting notices can be construed as written job contracts.

 

15. Which of the following circumstances makes it less likely an oral statement about weekend work would be legally enforceable as a contract term? A. The statement was made in the workplace.B. The statement is not supported by a written policy.C. The statement was made by an organizational manager.D. The statement was a specific one.

 

16. Which of the following statements about disclaimers is false? A. They can appear in almost any written documents made available to job applicants or employees.B. They can be used to limit employee rights.C. They are never oral.D. Their receipt by employees should be acknowledged in some formal way.

 

17. In order to improve the chances of winning a law suit based on "promissory estoppel," the most important point the plaintiff must demonstrate is that ____. A. the promise was accurateB. the promise was made in good faithC. the defendant reneged on the promiseD. the promise was withdrawn, resulting in a detrimental effect

 

18. Upon acceptance, a formal job offer in which consideration is provided to employees becomes a contract. True    False

 

19. Terms and conditions of employment offered by employers unintentionally are not legally enforceable.True    False

 

20. With a tight labor market, the organization will be in a position to provide lower cost offers. True    False

 

21. The strategic approach to job offers involves considering the total package of extrinsic and intrinsic rewards that the offered job will provide to the finalist. True    False

 

22. An organization should provide a definite starting date for an offer, or else the acceptance and consideration of the offer occur whenever the new hire actually begins to work. True    False

 

23. Most organizations provide some form of specific "just cause" guarantee regarding terminations during their job offers. True    False

 

24. One reason organizations often opt out of flat pay rates in favor of differential pay rates, is because job applicants are similar in KSAO quality. True    False

 

25. The use of short-term incentive pay, like commissions or production bonuses, is common among private sector organizations. True    False

 

26. Hiring bonuses tend to enhance employee performance motivation. True    False

 

27. The least common form of long-term variable pay in the private sector is the cost of living adjustment.True    False

 

28. Hiring bonuses can be problematic because recipients of these bonuses might take the bonus and then quit soon after. True    False

 

29. A hot skill premium is a permanent pay premium added to the regular base pay to account for market escalation in pay for certain skills in extreme shortage. True    False

 

30. Non-compete agreements that would keep employees from indefinitely practicing their trade or profession are not enforceable. True    False

 

31. A non-compete agreement restricts a departing employee from competing against the organization. True    False

 

32. Golden handcuff agreements legally bar employees from quitting a job for a specific period of time. True    False

 

33. Written job offers should normally contain terms of acceptance that require acceptance without revision.  True    False

 

34. Which of the following is likely to be a contingency related to a job offer? A. satisfactory reference checksB. job salaryC. job benefitsD. job vacation privileges

 

35. Which of the following is not a choice involved in a strategic approach to job offers? A. determining a compelling offer the finalists will find difficult to turn downB. deciding which short and long term pressures to respond to in an offerC. deciding on specific pay levels that will apply to all individualsD. determine whether there will be a "standard offer" for all finalists or whether "enhanced offers" will be possible for some finalists

 

36. A _____ contract provides certainty to both the new hire and the organization regarding the length of the employment relationship. A. variable premiumB. fixed annuityC. fixed-termD. latent variable

 

37. Flat pay rate job offers are least appropriate for _______. A. situations where applicants have very dissimilar KSAOsB. jobs with a plentiful supply of applicantsC. situations where management desires to

avoid inequities in starting pay among new employeesD. jobs where applicants have KSAOs of similar quality

 

38. Terms and conditions that the organization states the employee is entitled to upon departure from the organization constitute _________. A. pay ratesB. health benefitsC. severance packagesD. life insurance

 

39. Long-term variable pay plans provide employees ownership opportunities as the value of the organization increases are applicable only in the ____. A. public sectorB. private sectorC. technology sectorD. none of the above

 

40. Which of the following is true regarding long-term variable pay? A. Stock options qualify for special tax treatment for employees.B. Small public organizations are more likely to provide stock options than large public organizations.C. Stock options guarantee a fixed rate of return on investment.D. None of the above

 

41. Studies of job seekers graduating from hotel administration and engineering programs showed that job offers involving _____ are seen more favorably. A. pay contingent on performanceB. pay raises based on group performanceC. a flexible benefits packageD. pay pegged to skills

 

42. A _____ is a right to purchase a share of stock for a predetermined price at a later date. A. stock optionB. profit shareC. realized dividendD. mutual fund

 

43. A temporary pay premium added to the regular base pay of an employee to account for a temporary market escalation in pay for certain skills in extreme shortage is called a(n) ____________. A. hot skill premiumB. tight labor market adjustmentC. key skill premiumD. none of the above

 

44. ______ prohibit current or departing employees from the unauthorized use or disclosure of information during or after employment. A. Non-compete agreementsB. RetainersC. Confidentiality clausesD. Mixed-motive contracts

 

45. Non-compete agreements should be drafted in such a way that they cover ____. A. high-value employeesB. experienced employeesC. all employeesD. only managerial, technical, and scientific staff

 

46. Organizations can gauge the likely reactions of job applicants to job offers not only by conducting formal research, but also by gathering information about various preferences from the offer recipient during the actual recruitment/selection process. True    False

 

47. Access to typical salary information for various occupations or job titles is very hard to come by, especially for job seekers. True    False

 

48. Applicant dishonesty is a common problem as relates to the reporting of the applicant's current salary.True    False

 

49.  A currently employed offer receiver normally incurs costs for leaving and will expect a "make whole" offer amounting to 20-30% of the offer receiver's current base pay.  True    False

 

50. The lowball strategy will be especially effective for desperate or unknowledgeable employees. True    False

 

51. An advantage of the "competitive strategy" for negotiating initial job offers is that this strategy repeatedly yields acceptances from the highest quality (KSAOs) applicants. True    False

 

52. When job offer negotiating strategies are to be used as part of an aggressive EEO/AA recruitment program, the strategy most appropriate to be used in such a situation is the "competitive strategy." True    False

 

53. When rejecting job applicants, most organizations do so with a rejection message to the applicant that is short and vague in content.  True    False

 

54. In using information about competitors to structure job offers, which of the following statements is not useful as a general guideline? A. It makes a difference who the competitors are.B. Competitive offers should always be matched to ensure acceptance.C. Analysis of competitive advertisements should be performed in

order to have the "market information" needed to prepare effective job offers.D. Trade associations should be consulted for competitive information whenever possible.

 

55. The most sensible approach for addressing the issue of applicant truthfulness would be to ________. A. receive applicant information in good faith since the majority of applicants will be honest and it is not fair to inconvenience everyone with more verification because of a few "bad apples"B. treat applicants with trust and they will respond with honesty in most casesC. have applicants provide independent, third-party documentation of all job information provided on application blanksD. verify the applicant information provided that is deemed most vital

 

56. The most commonly negotiated element of a job offer is ___. A. severance packagesB. educational assistanceC. salaryD. paid time off

 

57. As a general rule concerning job offers, it can be said that __________. A. "low ball" job offers are expensive to the organizationB. "competitive" job offers have no important drawbacksC. "competitive" job offers tend to leave room to negotiateD. "competitive" offers usually stimulate the most positive reactions on the part of offer recipients

 

58. The sales approach to presenting a job offer has been adopted by many organizations because ________. A. mechanical presentations of job offers have been proven not to workB. they apply to all situationsC. they cost less than mechanical presentationsD. they may increase the likelihood of bringing job offers to closure

 

59. Most rejection messages sent to applicants are _________. A. specific in terms of the reason for the rejectionB. not conveyed by formal meansC. vague in contentD. designed carefully to "soften the blow" of the rejection

 

60. Which of the following statements about reneging on job offers is false? A. reneging is often caused by sudden changes in circumstances, such as a change in health statusB. there are substantial legal concerns about renegingC. most employers feel the level of reneging has increased dramatically in recent yearsD. solid evidence on reneging and why it occurs is lacking

 

61. Orientation is likely to be more effective when newcomers have realistic information about job requirements and rewards before the job begins. True    False

 

62. Orientation should focus on the person/job match exclusively. True    False

 

63. Whereas orientation focuses on the initial and immediate aspects of newcomer adaptation, socialization emphasizes helping the newcomer fit into the job and organization over time. True    False

 

64. One way to improve employee socialization outcomes is to provide realistic requirement information regarding job requirements and rewards. True    False

 

65. Clarifying job requirements and knowledge of skills are the only demonstrated methods for consistently improving employee socialization. True    False

 

66. Research suggests that socialization programs are equally effective when conducted online relative to person-to-person. True    False

 

67. Effective orientation training should include __________. A. sources of influence in the organizationB. integrating the newcomer into the work unit and teamC. conducting active mentoring for the newcomerD. all of the above

 

68. What is the relationship between orientation and socialization activities? A. Orientation covers job content, socialization covers social content.B. Orientation is usually a small group activity, socialization is one on one.C. Orientation is typically an immediate activity for new hires, which overlaps with more long-term socialization.D. Orientation is formal, socialization is informal.

 

69. The goal(s) of the socialization process is(are) ___________. A. to achieve an effective person/job matchB. to achieve an effective person/organization matchC. to help the newcomer fit into the job in the long-termD. all of the above are true

 

70. From the newcomer's perspective, likely components for inclusion in the socialization process include addressing _________. A. performance proficiencyB. organization goals and valuesC. politicsD. all of the

above are correct

 

71. Research has shown that ____ facilitates employee socialization to a new job. A. clarifying job requirements and knowledge and skills to be acquiredB. minimizing biasing contact from current co-workersC. providing a highly positive recruitment message regarding job requirements at rewardsD. all of the above

 

72. The delivery of newcomer socialization should be the responsibility of __________. A. his/her supervisorB. a mentor or sponsorC. the HR departmentD. all of the above

 

73. Although organizations are strongly encouraged to check the authorization to work of all employees, they cannot discriminate against applicants on the basis of country of origin. True    False

 

74. It is best to ask for proof of employment eligibility prior to making a job offer. True    False

 

75. Negligent hiring claims are made when an employer fails to provide adequate compensation and benefits to a new hire. True    False

 

76. Having applicants sign release statements so the employer can do background investigations is a legal means for minimizing the possibility of negligent hiring. True    False

 

77. In general, the employment relationship is an at-will one. True    False

 

78. Under the requirements of the Immigration Reform and Control Act, employers must ___________. A. adjust pay scales for alien statusB. verify employability status for aliens onlyC. verify employability status for all potential employeesD. verify employability status for applicants before an offer is extended

 

79. Which of the following statements about negligent hiring lawsuits against employers is accurate? A. monetary damages are usually leveled against the employee found to be at faultB. the plaintiff must present evidence the injury or harm was a foreseeable consequence of hiring the unfit employeeC. the

employer has the initial burden to present evidence of proper hiring practice in such casesD. suits of this kind are decreasing as companies in the private sector recognize the liabilities involved

 

80. To reduce the likelihood of negligent hiring lawsuits organizations should _____. A. emphasize characteristics like licensure requirements, criminal records, and referencesB. avoid gathering too much KSAO information because it can be used to demonstrate that an organization "should have known" an employee would be a problemC. refuse to fire individuals with a history of mental illnessesD. none of the above are useful to prevent negligent hiring suits