b.mat full syllabus test vii main qns

8/12/2019 B.mat Full Syllabus Test VII Main Qns

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Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/BMAT7/PMC(MAIN)- 1

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FULL SYLLABUS TEST 7FOR OUR STUDENTS

TOWARDS

JOINT ENTRANCE EXAMINATION, 2013

Time: 3 hours Maximum marks: 360IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS

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1. The Test Booklet consists of 90questions. The maximum marks are 360.

2. There are threeparts in the questions paper A, B, C consisting of Physics, Mathematics andChemistry having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each question is allotted4(four) marks for each correct response.

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JEE 2013

BMAT 7 (MAIN)

Feb 2013


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2

Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/BMAT7/PMC(MAIN) - 2

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

1. Two metallic plates A and B are kept

parallel to one another and charges are

given to them as shown in figure. The

plate B is earthed, after charging. Then

4 C

10 C

(1) The charge on the opposite faces of

A and B is 6 C.

(2) The charge that flows to the earthfrom B is 2 C.

(3) The charge that flows from the earth

to the plate B is 3 C.

(4) The charge on the outer face of A is

7 C.

2. A network of six identical capacitors,

each of value C, is made as shown in

figure below. What is the equivalent

capacitance between A and B?

(1)5C

2 (2)

3C

2

(3)7C

2 (4)

C

2

3. For the charge configuration shown in

figure, the potential at r for points on the

vertical axis, assuming >>r d,is given by

=

0

1k

4

(1) ( )

= +

q 2dV r k 1

r r

(2) ( )

=

q 2dV r k 1

r r

(3) ( )

=

q 2dV r k 1

r r

(4) ( ) ( )= V r k qr r 2d

PART A: PHYSICS


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4. Two particles A and B start moving

simultaneously along the line joiningthem in the same direction with acc-

eleration of 21m/s and 22 m / s and

speeds 3 m / s and 1m/s respectively.

Initially A is 10 m behind B. What is the

minimum distance between them?

(1) 3 m (2) 5 m

(3) 6.5 m (4) 8 m

5. A particle moves in the x y plane with

constant acceleration directed along the

negative y-axis. The equation of path of

the particle has the form = 2y bx cx ,

where b and c are positive constants. Find

the velocity of the particle at the origin of

coordinates. [Given = 2a 10 m/ s , b = 5

and c = 13 1m ]

(1) 110 ms (2) 18 ms

(3) 16 ms (4) 111ms

6. The system is pulled by a force F as

shown in figure. All surfaces are smooth

except between B and C. Friction

coefficient between B and C is .

Minimum value of F to prevent block B

from downward slipping is

(1)

3mg

2 (2)

5mg

2

(3)

5mg

2 (4)

3mg

2

7. Figure below shows two rectangular

wave pulses travelling in opposite

directions along a string at t = 0. What is

the shape of the resultant wave pulse at

t = 2s? [Amplitude of the pulses is the

same]

(1) (2)

(3) (4)


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8. A set of 55 tuning forks is arranged in

series of increasing frequencies. If eachfork gives 3 beats with the preceding

one and the sum of the frequencies of

all the 55 forks is 13365 Hz, what is the

frequency of the last fork?

(1) 110 Hz (2) 256 Hz

(3) 512 Hz (4) 324 Hz

9. In the circuit given below, the ammeter

and voltmeter are ideal measuring

devices. Then the reading of the

6 V

A V

12

(1) ammeter is 2 A

(2) voltmeter is 6 V

(3) ammeter is 1 A

(4) voltmeter is 0 V

10. An 8 g bullet is fired into a 2.50 kg block

that is initially at rest at the edge of a

frictionless table of height 1m. The bullet

remains in the block, lands 2m from the

bottom of the table. Determine the initial

speed of the bullet.

(1) 2.01 km/s (2) 1.01 km/s

(3)1.39 km/s (4) 3.21 km/s

11. A potentiometer wire of length 1m has a

resistance of 10 . It is connected in

series with a resistance of 790 . The

equivalent emf E of the network shown

below is balanced across 40 cm length

of the potentiometer wire. Then the

value of 2E is

=1E 10 mV = 1r 1.5

= 2r 0.5

2E

(1)5 mV (2) 10 mV

(3) 12 mV (4) 15 mV


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12. A square of side 2.0m is placed in a uni-

form magnetic field ( )= + + 0B B i j k . Equalcurrent =i 3.0 A is flowing in the

directions shown in figure. Find the

magnitude of magnetic force on the

loop? =0[Given B 2T]

(1) 24 N (2) 16 N (3) 12 N (4) 8 N

13. A proton beam passes without deviation

through a region of space where there is

uniform transverse mutually r to

electric and magnetic fields with

=kV

E 120m

and =B 50 mT. Then the

beam strikes a grounded target. Find

approximately the force imparted by the

beam on the target if the beam current

is equal to C = 0.80 mA. [mass of proton

= 271.6 10 kg and charge on the

electron

=

19

1.6 10 C ]

(1) 58 10 N (2) 52 10 N

(3) 54 10 N (4) 56 10 N

14. The current induced in a coil of

resistance 10 varies with time asshown in figurebelow. The total charge

in flux in Webers through the coil i s

( )s

s s s s

(1) 31.6 10 (2) 30.8 10

(3) 61.6 10 (4) 60.8 10

15. A square loop of side 12 cm with its sides

parallel to x and y axes is moved with a

velocity of 0.8 cm/s in the positive x-

direction in an environment containing a

magnetic field in the positive z-direction.

The field is varying with respect to time

and space. The gradient of the field in the

positive x-direction is 310 T /m . Its time

rate of change is 310 T/ s . What is the

magnitude of the induced emf?

(1) 52.6 10 V (2) 51.8 10 V

(3) 53.2 10 V (4) 54.1 10 V


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16. If the charge that passes through a

battery of V volt in one time constant ina series LR circuit, having L = 1 mH and

= R 10 is 3.68 C, what is the voltage

of the battery? = Givene 2.718

(1) 2 V (2) 1V

(3) 0.5 V (4) 2.5 V

17. An electric lamp which runs at 100 V d.c

and takes 10 A current is to be

connected to a 200 V, 50 Hz a.c. supply.

To run the lamp at its normal operating

condition, a choke is used first and the

power supplied by the battery iscomputed. The choke is then replaced

by an additional resistance and the

power supplied by the battery is

computed. What is the ratio of the

power supplied by the battery?

(1) 2 (2) 1 (3)1

2 (4)

1

4

18. Figure below shows the plot of the

stopping potential versus the frequency

of the light used in an experiment on

photoelectric effect. Then the ratio

h

e

in units of 1510 Vs is

sV

14( 10 Hz)

(1)1.52 (2) 2.82

(3) 3.60 (4) 4.14

19. An oil drop of mass 151.6 10 kg falls

vertically with terminal velocity through

air between two vertical parallel plateskept 2 cm apart. When a potential

difference of 1000 volt is applied across

the plates the drop is found to move

towards the positive plate along a

direction inclined at 0 to the vertical.

Find the angle , if the charge on the

drop is 193.2 10 C. [Given = k 6 a

and = 2g 10 ms ]

(1)45 (2) 30 (3)60 (4) 37


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20. In a cancer therapy unit, patients are

given treatment from a certainradioactive source. This source has a half

life of 4 years. A particular treatment

requires 10 minutes of irradiation when

the source is first used. The time required

for this treatment, using the same source

2 years later is given by

=

n2

nt 10 what

is n?

(1) 8 (2) 2 (3) 6 (4) 4

21. A parallel beam of light is falling axially

on a thin converging lens of focal length15 cm. The emergent light falls on a

screen placed at 25 cm beyond the

lens. An opaque plate with a circular

aperture of radius 1 cm is placed in

contact with the lens. What is the

diameter of the image of the circular

aperture on the screen when the screen

is moved farther by 10 cm from its initial

position?

(1) 3.67 cm (2) 4.63 cm

(3)2.67 cm (4) 0.67 cm

22. A dam is 1270 m long and 160 m high.

The electrical power output from the

generators at the box is approximately

2000 MW. What rate of water flow is

necessary to produce this amount of

power? = 2[g 10 ms ]. Express your

answer in units of 6 110 kgs

(1) 4.25 (2)6.25

(3)2.25 (4) 1.25

23. A student attempts to measure the radius

of a steel ball to measure 4 identical

balls in a row. The student estimates the

position on the scale to be as follows,

after gently removing ball numbered 3.

( )x 2.0 0.3 cm=

( )y 7.0 0.3 cm=

If the radius of the ball that is removed is

found to be ( )0.83 0.3 cm, what is the

radius of each ball?


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(1) ( )0.6 0.3 cm

(2) ( )0.56 0.3 cm

(3) ( )0.7 0.3 cm

(4) ( )0.48 0.3 cm

24. A vessel containing a liquid of density

is placed in a lift moving with an upwardacceleration a. The hydrostatic pressureat a depth h below the free surface ofthe liquid will be

(1) h g (2) ( ) +h g a

(3) ( ) h g a (4) ( ) 1

2 2 2h g a

25. Figure below shows a bridge rectifierwith a sinusoidal alternating voltageapplied to it, the output terminals P andQ being joined together by a loadresistor. If the diode x were removedleaving a break in the circuit, whichtrace would be seen on a cathode-rayoscillograph across PQ?

A

B C

x

P Q

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

26. Which of the following is not correct?

(1) = +A B A B

(2) + = A B A B

(3) + = +A B A B AB AB

(4) + =T T 1

27. The gas in a vessel is subjected to a

pressure of 20 atm at a temperature of

27C. What is the pressure of the gas in

the vessel after one half of the mass of

the gas is released from the vessel and

the gas is heated so that its pressure

becomes 11.7 atm. What is the rise in

temperature of the gas?

(1)76C (2)62C

(3)51C (4) 46C


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28. A sinusoidal carrier wave of amplitude

10 mV is modulated by a sinusoidalaudio signal of frequency sf . If the upper

side band frequency is 10.009 MHz and

the lower side band frequency is 9.991

MHz what is the amplitude of the signal

wave if amplitude of LSB is 2 mV?

(1) 8 mV (2) 6 mV

(3) 2 mV (4) 4 mV

29. A one kg solid sphere rolls without

slipping on a rough horizontal surface

under the influence of a force F acting

tangentially at the highest point of the

sphere towards right. If the value offrictional force is 3 N, what is F?

(1) 7 N (2)5 N

(3)8 N (4) 10 N

30. Two planets A and B have their radii as

Ar and Br and average densities as A

and B. Then the ratio of ( )A Bg / g , if Ar

and B are doubled,

(1)will increase

(2) will decrease

(3)will remain the same

(4) will be independent of their periods

of rotation.


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31. If a, b, c are the sides of a triangle, then

the range of+ +

+ +2 2 2ab bc ca

a b cis

(1) )1, 2 (2)

1,1

2

(3)

1, 2

2 (4)

1, 2

2

32. A mapping f : R R is defined by

f(x) = (x 1) (x 2) (x 3). The mapping is

(1) both one-one and onto

(2) one-to one but not onto

(3) onto but not one-to-one

(4) neither one-to-one nor onto

33. A sequence 1 2 3a , a , a , ...... na of real

numbers is such that = = +1 2 1a 0, a a 1 ,

= + = +3 2 n n 1a a 1 , ... , a a 1 . Then the

least value of the arithmetic mean of

1 2 na , a , ..., a is

(1) 0 (2)1

(3)1

2 (4)

1

2

34. If , are the roots of the equation

( ) + =2x p x 1 c 0, then the value of

+ + + ++

+ + + +

2 2

2 2

2 1 2 1

2 c 2 cis

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 1 (4) 0

35. If , , are the roots of + + =3x px q 0,

then

=

(1)0 (2)p (3) q (4) 2p 2q

36.

+ + + =

1Lt n1 2 n

n 1 1 .... 1n n n

(1)e (2)1

e

(3)4

e (4)

8

e

37. The integrating factor of the differential

equation =2 3 4dy

x y x y cos xdx

is

(1) 3x (2) 3x

(3) 4y (4) 4y

PART B : MATHEMATICS


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38. A circle touches the xaxis and also

touches the circle with centre at (0, 3)and radius 2. The locus of the centre of

the circle is

(1) an ellipse (2) a circle

(3) a hyperbola (4) a parabola

39. If A(1, 2, 3), B(4, 5, 6) are two points, then

the foot of the perpendicular drawn

from the point B to the line joining the

origin and point A is

(1) (2, 5, 7) (2) (5, 9, 6)

(3) (1, 2, 3) (4)

16 32 48, ,

7 7 7

40. If S is the circumcentre, O is the ortho-

centre of ABC, then

+ + =OA OB OC

(1)

SO (2)

2 SO

(3)

OS (4)

2 O S

41. A student appears for tests I, II and III.

The student is successful if he passes

either in tests I and II or in tests I and III.

The probabilities of the student passing

in tests I, II and III are p, q and1

2

respectively. If the probability that the

student is successful is1

2, then

(1) p = q = 1 (2) = =

1

p q 2

(3) = =1

p 1, q2

(4) none of these

42. If sin , sin , sin are in A.P and

cos , cos , cos are in G.P then

2 2cos cos 4 cos cos

1 sin sin

+ =

(1) 2 (2) 1 (3) 0 (4) 2

43. If ( )1

sin B sin 2A B ,5

= + then( )tan A B

tan A

+

is equal to

(1)5

3 (2)

2

3

(3)3

2 (4)

3

5

44. The contrapositive of 'p q' is

(1) p q (2) q p

(3) p q (4) q p

45. If A is a square matrix, and3 2A 3A 3A 0,+ + = then 2A 2A+ + is

equal to

(1) ( )1

A

+ (2) 0

(3) (4) none of these


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46. The number of ways in which ten

candidates 1 2 10A , A , ..., A can beranked so that 1A is always above 2A is

(1)10!

2 (2)10! (3) 9! (4)

8!

2

47. The value of ( )1 1cos 2 cos x sin x + at1

x5

= is

(1)2 6

5 (2) 2 6

(3)6

5 (4)

2 6

5

48. If ( ) ( ) ( )x a b y b c z c a = + +

and

=

1a b c ,

8then x + y + z =

(1) ( ) + +

8 . a b c (2) ( ) + +

. a b c

(3) ( )+ +

8 a b c (4) ( ) + + 1

. a b c8

49. The number of solutions of the system

of equations x y 1,+ = 2 2 2x y a ,+ =

1 a 1,2

< < is

(1) (2) 8 (3) 4 (4) 2

50. If the natural numbers are divided into

groups of {1}, {2, 3}, {4, 5, 6}, {7, 8, 9, 10}, then the sum of 50 thgroup is

(1) 65, 225 (2)56, 255

(3) 62, 525 (4) 55,625

51. The constant c of Langranges mean

value theorem for f(x) = 2 sin x + sin 2 x in

0, is

(1)6

(2)

4

(3)3

(4)

2

52.

( )

n

on

o

x dx

x dx

=

(1)1

n 1 (2)

1

n

(3) n (4) n 1

53. The average mark of boys in a class is 52

and that of girls is 42. The average marks

of boys and girls combined is 50. The

percentage of boys in the class is(1) 40 (2)80

(3) 20 (4) 60


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54. First 2n positive integers are assigned

probability proportional to their loga-rithms. One of these integers is selected

at random. It is being known that the

selected integer is even. Probability of its

being 2 is

(1)2

nlog 2 log n+

(2)log 2

nlog 2 log n+

(3)log 2

nlog 2 log n

(4)( )

log 2

nlog 2 log n!+

55. If is a non-real root of 6x 1,= then

5 3

2

1

1

+ + +=

+

(1) 2 (2)0 (3) 2 (4)

56. Ifz

w and w 1,1

z i3

= =

then z lies on

(1) an ellipse (2)a straight line

(3) a circle (4) a parabola

57. The number of rational terms in

( )+ +6

31 2 3 is

(1) 6 (2)7 (3) 5 (4)8

58. If x is real, the maximum value of2

2

3x 9x 17

3x 9x 7

+ +

+ +is

(1) 1 (2)17

7 (3)

1

4 (4) 41

59. Locus of the centroid of triangle whosevertices are (a cos t, a sin t), (b sin t, bcos t) and (1, 0), where t is a pararmeter,is

(1) ( ) ( )2 2 2 23x 1 3y a b + =

(2) ( ) ( )2 2 2 23x 1 3y a b + = +

(3) ( ) ( )2 2 2 23x 1 3y a b+ + = +

(4) ( ) ( )2 2 2 23x 1 3y a b+ + =

60. The sum of squares of the perpen-diculars on any tangent to the ellipse

2 2

2 2

x y1

a b+ = from two points on the minor

axis at a distance 2 2a b from the

centre is(1) 22a (2) 22b

(3)2 2a b+ (4) 2 2a b


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61. The number of significant figures in eachof the following numbers 653, 0.368 and0.0300 are respectively

(1) 3, 3, 4 (2) 3, 4, 3

(3) 3, 2, 3 (4) 3, 3, 3

62. Which of the following statement is/are

correct?

(A) Vapour of a substance condenses

to a liquid by applying pressure.

(B) To liquefy a gas it must be cooled to

its critical temperature and pressuremust be applied

(C) At critical state, there is no dis-

tinction between liquid and vapour

state, hence density of the liquid is

nearly equal to the density of the

vapour

(D) The critical temperature 2CO gas is

304.10 K gaseous ammonia liquefies

first when a mixture of ammonia and

2CO gases are cooled

(1) A, C and D (2) C and D

(3) A, B and C (4) A, B, C and D63. During the adsorption of a gas on the

surface of a solid, which of the following

is/are true?

(1) < > <


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66. The common property among the

species CN , CO and +NO are

(1) Isoelectronic and weak field ligands

(2) Isoelectronic and with bond order of

three

(3) Bond order two and are acceptor

(4) Bond order three and weak field

ligands

67. The wrong statement about interstitial

compound is

(1) they are chemically inert and retain

metallic conductivity

(2) they are very hard

(3) their bonds are neither ionic nor

covalent

(4) their melting points are lower than

those of pure metals

68. A decinormal aqueous solution of a

weak electrolyte has a limiting

equivalent conductance of 2400 S cm

gram 1equivalent at 298 K is 2%

ionised. The resistance of this solution (in

ohms) in an electrolytic cell of cell

constant 10.4cm at 298 is

(1) 300 (2) 400 (3) 500 (4) 600

69. In the estimation of sulphur by Carius

method 0.480 g of an organic compoundgave 0.699 g of 4BaSO . The percentage

of sulphur in the compound is (Atomic

masses : Ba = 137, S = 32, O = 16)

(1) 15% (2) 20% (3) 30% (4) 35%

70. Which one of the following is the correct

statement?

(1) Glycine is optically active amino

acid on L configuration.

(2) Alanine is optically inactive amino

acid.

(3) Racemic lactic acid is optically

active, it cannot be resolved.

(4) Synthetic lactic acid from ethanal

with HCN is optically inactive.

71. In a cubic packed structure of mixed

oxides, the lattice is made up of oxide

ions, 1/5 of tetrahedral voids are

occupied by divalent ( )+2X ions, while1/2 of octahedral voids are occupied by

trivalent ions ( )+3Y , then the formula ofthe oxide is

(1) 2 4XY O (2) 2 4X YO

(3) 4 5 10X Y O (4) 10XYO


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72. The enthalpy of vaporization of benzene

is + 135.3 kJmol at its boiling point 80C.

The entropy change in the transition of

the vapour to liquid at its boiling point

1 1in JK mol is

(1) +441 (2) +220.5

(3) +100 (4) 100

73. The empirical formula of a non

electrolyte is 2CH O . A solution con-

taining 6 g of the compound exert the

same osmotic pressure as that of 0.05 M

aqueous glucose at the same

temperature. The molecular formula ofthe compound is

(1) 2 4 2C H O (2) 3 6 3C H O

(3) 5 10 5C H O (4) 4 8 4C H O

74. Peroxide ion .

(A) has five completely filled anti-

bonding molecular orbitals

(B) is diamagnetic

(C) has bond order one

(D) is isoelectronic with neon

Which of these is/are correct?(1) C and D (2) A, B and D

(3)A, B and C (4) B and C

75. Which of the following statements is

wrong?

(1) Liquid tends to rise or fall in a

capillary tube.

(2) Liquid has minimum molecules at

the surface with minimum surface

area

(3) Surface tension and viscosity of

liquid increase with increase of

temperature

(4) AgC is insoluble in water but

soluble in 4NH OH and in KCN(aq).

76. HBr and HI reduce 2 4H SO . HC can

reduce 4KMnO and HF can reduce

(1) 2 4H SO (2) 4KMnO

(3) 2 2 7K Cr O (4)none of these

77. RNA and DNA are chiral molecules, their

chirality is due to

(1) Chiral base

(2) Chiral phosphate ester

(3) D-sugar component

(4) L sugar component


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17



78. Which of the following statements is in-

correct about the lanthanoidcontraction?

(1) Lanthanoid contraction is the accu-

milation of successive shrinkage of

Ln and +nLn ions

(2) As a result of lanthanoid contrac-

tion, the properties of 4d series of

transition elements have no similarity

with 5d series of elements.

(3) Shielding power of 4f electrons is

quite weak

(4) There is a decrease in the radii ofthe atoms or ions as one proceeds

from La to Lu

79. Aluminium chloride exists as dimer in

solid state as well as in solution of

nonpolar solvents. When dissolved in

water, it gives.

(1) + + 3A 3C

(2) ( )

+ 3

6A OH 3HC

(3) ( )

+

+

3

2 6A H O 3C

(4) + 2 3A O 6HC

80. Which of the following is a chiral

molecule?

(1)

CH3

CH3

(2)

CH3

CH3

(3)

CH3

CH3

(4)

CH3

H3C


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18



81. Which one of the following is the most

readily be hydrated in acid solutions?

(1)

OH

(2)

OHO

(3)OH

O

(4)

OH

O

82. Phenol associates in benzene partially. A

solution containing 2 g phenol in 0.1 kg

of benzene, decreased the freezing

point by 0.69K, The percentage degree

of dissociation of phenol is

=

1f 6 6K of C H 5.12 K kg mol

(1) 50.1 (2) 42.3

(3) 25.1 (4) 73.32

83. -D glucopyranose and -gluco-

pyranose are

(1) epimers

(2)anomers

(3) diastereomers

(4) meso compounds

84. The brown ring test for 2NO and3NO

due to the formation of complex ion

with the structure is

(1) ( )2

26

Fe H O+

(2) ( )2

5FeNO CN

+

(3) ( )

++

+

21

12 5

Fe H O NO

(4) ( ) ( ) +

2

2 5Fe H O NO

85. In the dichromate dianion,

(1) 4 Cr O bonds are equivalent

(2) 6 Cr O bonds are equivalent

(3) All Cr O bonds are equivalent

(4) All Cr O bonds are non-equivalent


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86. Which of the following has both and

metal carbon bonds?

(1) Dibenzene chromium

(2) Grignard reagent(3) Lead tetraethyl

(4) Iron pentacarbonyl

87. Set of pollutants which is non biode-

gradable is

(1) 2 2 2CO , SO , NO

(2) BHC,DDT, heavy metals

(3) 3 4 4CHC , CC , CH

(4) Household rejects, sewage, plant

remains

88. PVC is a polymer of

(1) 2 2CH CH=

(2) 2CH CHC=

(3) 2 2C CH CH C

(4) C C CC

89. Which statement is wrong in regard to

ethanal and benzaldehyde?

(1) Both react with hydroxylamine to

form oxime.

(2) Both react with HCN to form

cyanohydrin

(3) Both react with NaOH to form

polymers

(4) Both react with hydrazine to form

hydrazones

90. When arene diazonium halide is treated

with fluoroboric acid, arene diazonium

fluoroborate is precipitated. It reacts

form

(A) on warming gives aryl fluoride

(B) with HBr gives aryl bromide

(C) with 2NaNO , Cu poser followed by

heating nitrobenzene

(D) on warming with dil acid solution

gives

(1) A, B, C and D (2) A, B and C

(3) C and D (4)A and C


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Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/BMAT7/PMC (MAIN) - 23

1. The candidates should fill in the required particulars on the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet(Side-1)with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen.

2. For writing/marking particulars on Side-2 of the Answer Sheet, use Blue/Black Ball PointPen only.

3. The candidates should not write their Roll Numbers anywhere else (except in the specifiedspace) on the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.

4. Out of the four options given for each question only one option is the correct answer.

5. For each incorrect response, one-fourth of the total marks allotted to the question would bededucted from the total score. No deduction from the total score, however, will be made if noresponse is indicated for an item in the Answer Sheet.

6. Handle the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet with care, as under no circumstances (except fordiscrepancy in Test Booklet Code and Answer Sheet Code) will another set be provided.

7. The candidates are not allowed to do any rough work or writing work on the Answer Sheet. Allcalculations/writing work are to be done in the space provided for this purpose in the TestBooklet itself, marked Space for Rough Work. This space is given at the bottom of each pageand in 3 pages at the end of the booklet.

8. On completion of the test, the candidates must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilatoron duty in the Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this TestBooklet with them.

9. Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admit Card to the Invigilator.

10. No candidate, without special permission of the Superintendent or Invigilator, should leavehis/her seat.

11. The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their AnswerSheet to the Invigilator on duty and sign the Attendance Sheet again. Cases where acandidate has not signed the Attendance Sheet a second time will be deemed not to havehanded over the Answer Sheet and dealt with as an unfair means case. The candidates are

also required to put their left hand THUMB impression in the space provided in theAttendance Sheet.

12. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator and any Electronic Item like mobile phone etc., isprohibited.

13. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the Board with regard to theirconduct in the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules andRegulations of the Board.

14. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances.

Candidates are not allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits ofpapers, pager, mobile phone, electronic device or any other material except the AdmitCard inside the examination hall/room.

b.mat full syllabus test vii main qns

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