answers to muslims objections about the bible - by abd al-massih

8/6/2019 Answers to Muslims Objections About the Bible - By Abd Al-Massih

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Answers To Muslims Objections

Q1: Why do the two genealogies of Jesus in Matthew and Luke [apparently] disagree?

If someone is declared to be the son of God, surely his credentials must beimpeccable, mustn't they? Two variant genealogies [allegedly] cast suspicion on the true

origin of this man, don't they?

A: Jesus had both a biological mother, Mary, and a legal (but not biological) father, Joseph.

Matthew records Jesus¶ genealogy of "law" (i.e. his adopted father, Joseph, and Luke records

the genealogy of "nature", i.e. biological genealogy of Mary. According to Eusebius¶

Ecclesiastical History book 6 chapter 31, Julius Africanus, (200-245 A.D.) was one who

reconciled this alleged contradiction in his Letter to Aristides. For a longer explanation,

consult Eusebius¶ Ecclesiastical History Book 1 chapter 7 The Complete Book of Bible

Answers p.97-98, Bible Difficulties & Seeming Contradictions p.170-171, and When Critics

Ask p.385-386.

As for Jesus¶ credentials, you miss a key point here. In the Jews eyes Jesus did NOT haveimpeccable credentials, but not due to genealogy. They thought he was illegitimate, because

they would not accept that He was born of a virgin. Not only that, but who would imagine a

King and Messiah being born of such a poor family, in a stable of all things. Those who

really wanted to follow Jesus would do so because of Him and His message, not because it

was politically correct or popular.

Q2: Why does the genealogy in Matthew 1 show that Jesus [non-biologically] descended

through a cursed line? (see Matthew 1:11-12 + Jeremiah 22:28-30 and 1 Chronicles 3:16

+ Jeremiah 36:30 versus Luke 1:32. . Jeconiah (Jehoiachin) and his father Jehoiakim

were both cursed by God himself, who said that neither of these men would have any

descendent on the throne of David. How could Jesus possibly be the Messiah, destined

to rule forever on the throne of David, if he descended through either of these men?A: Luke, with the genealogy of Mary shows that Jesus was NOT biologically descended from

Jeconiah and Jehoiakim, because Mary¶s ancestors diverged from the kingly line. Jesus waslegally (not biologically) form Jeconiah and Jehoiakim through Joseph. The quote in Luke

1:32 simply says Jesus would sit on David¶s throne. Looking back, we can see that David andSolomon were given slightly different promises. Only Joseph was descended from Solomon,

and both Joseph and Mary were descended from David.

Q3: If the genealogy in Luke is that of Mary and not Joseph, then why does it list

Joseph in the line rather than Mary? Why is no other genealogy of a woman recorded

anywhere else in scripture? And if this is Mary's genealogy, then Jesus descended

through Nathan, not Solomon, making the prophecies in 2 Samuel 7:12 -16 and 1

Chronicles 22:10 false. A: In Jewish culture they typically did not record the genealogies of women, since for legal

purposes they inherited from the father. The genealogy in Luke too records only fathers,

recording the father of Mary (Heli), not the mother. That was it says "as was supposed" the

son of Joseph. By the way, the Greek phrase for "as was supposed", (wz enomi zeto) is in the

early Greek manuscript p4, dated probably c.150-175 A.D according to The Text of the

earliest Greek Manuscripts p.43.



2 Samuel 7:12-16 and 1 Chronicles 22:10 refer to Solomon reigning after David, though of course Jesus was a "son" of Solomon legally through Joseph. It was Solomon who built

God¶s temple, not Jesus. As to someone from David¶s own body [descendant] who wouldrule for ever, remember that special promise was given to David, NOT Solomon.

Q4: If, using the genealogy in Luke, Jesus' claim to descent from David, of the tribe of Judah, is through Mary rather than Joseph then how can it be that Mary's cousin,

Elizabeth, was descended from the house of Aaron, of the tribe of Levi (Luke 1:5)? A: That is because people have two parents. Elizabeth and Mary need not be cousins on their

fathers¶ side but their mothers¶. You must be search very hard to see problems in the Bible to

overlook this simple point.

Q5: How can it be that Jesus [allegedly] contradicts the Old Testament (1 Samuel 21-

22), [allegedly] saying that Abiathar gave David the showbread instead of Ahimelech,

and saying that David had men with him, when he was actually alone (Mark 2:25-26)?

Does the church expect me to rely upon the teachings of a "son of God" who is

demonstrably mistaken about what God¶s Word says?

A: I agree it is hard to rely on what people think are the teachings of the Bible when people

say false things about it. Let¶s fix up the error in this question before we answer it. Mark

2:25-26 never said who gave David the showbread. Both Abiathar and Ahimelech were alive

then, though Abiathar's father Ahimelech was killed shortly thereafter. David was alone when

he was with Ahimelech; Mark 2:25-26 merely says David gave some of the bread to his

companions, who were probably camped close by.

Q6: Why does Jesus quote a non-existent verse of Old Testament scripture (John 7:3? Is

it possible that he considered other non-canonical writings also to be God's Word?

A: Jesus did not quote any non-existent verse of the Old Testament. Actually in John 7:3 it isJesus¶ brothers who are speaking, and they are not quoting anything either. Perhaps you

meant some other verse. Jesus validated the scripture that came before Him. Specifically Hedid this in Luke 11:51; 24:27,44; and Matthew 23:35. He defended Himself against Satan by

quoting God¶s word as "It is written«" in Matthew 4:4,7,10, Luke 4:4,8,12. Jesus stated thatscripture cannot be broken in John 10:35, and scripture was "the commands of God" in Mark

4:8-9. His entire life was spent quoting, living, and fulfilling scripture as all the gospels show.

Jesus rebuked the Sadducees, who only accepted the Torah (Law) as the Word of God. Matt

22:29 says, Jesus replied, "You are in error because you do not know the Scriptures or the

power of God." Jesus said the following people wrote their books:

Moses in Mark 10:3,5; Luke 20:37

David in Matt 22:43-5; Mark 12:36-7; Luke 20:42-4

Isaiah in Matthew 15:7

Daniel in Matthew 24:15



Jesus was silent on any need for correcting, adding to, or taking away from the scripture thatwas accepted in Judea at that time. The Old Testament that was good enough for Jesus is

good enough for me.

Q7: Why would Jesus deliberately obscure the gospel by speaking in parables so that

people would not understand, turn, and be forgiven (Mark 4:11 -12)? Did he not comethat all men might be saved? A: Jesus was referring to Isaiah 6:9,10. Jesus spoke in parables to be merciful! Here are four

points to the answer.

1) God wants all to be saved (2 Peter 3:9; Ezekiel 17:23).

2) But some have chosen to reject God¶s word and there are consequences for that in this life.These kind of people become hardened in their hearing, hardening their hearts. (Exodus

8:15,32; 9:17,34;Pr28:14; Romans 1:18-20; Hebrews 3:12-15;Zc7:12)

3) For people who reject God, it is better for them not to know truth than to know the truth

and turn their backs on it, according to 2 Peter 2:20-22.

4) A parable is appropriate because those who want to follow God can be guided to know its

meaning, and a parable will be not be understood by those who do not want to follow God.

If someone has already rejected the truth they know of God, God is not obligated to give

them more truth.

Q8: Why was Jesus in the tomb for only two and a half days at the most, when he said

he would be there three days and three nights (Matthew 12:40)? Surely the son of God

would say precisely what he means, wouldn't he?

A: Since Luke 24:21 says that the day of resurrection was the third day. Jesus died Friday

afternoon, and rose Sunday around dawn. After three days was a known Hebrew idiom

meaning part or all of three days. Here are three examples of the "three-day idiom". Since

English rendering differ, all these quotes are taken from Green's Literal translation.

1. Rehoboam in 2 Chronicles 10:5 told the people "three days return to me". Yet in 2

Chronicles 10:12, the people returned "on the third day, as the king commanded".

2. In referring to Christ's death and resurrection, Jesus himself said in Matthew 12:40 says"three days and three nights", Mark 8:31 says "the third day he will rise up", Mark 14:58 says

"through three days", John 2:19 says "in three days", and Luke 24:21 says "This third daycomes today".

3. In Esther 4:16 Esther says to fast for her, "for three days, night and day" and she would do

the same. Yet Esther 5:1 says it happened "on the third day" Esther had a banquet, so this is

an equivalent time.

In summary, we have proven this Hebrew idiom can mean within three days, and thisexpression was recognizable from the time of Rehoboam to the time of Jesus. See 1001 Bible



Questions Answered p.192, Hard Sayings of the Bible p.380-381, and Bible Difficulties &Seeming Contradictions p.176-177 for more info.

Q9: Why would Jesus prophesy that his kingdom would come in glory before some of those listening to him died, but the kingdom still has not come (Matthew 16:18,

Matthew 10:23, Mark 9:1, Luke 21:31-32)? Surely the son of God could not havespoken a false prophecy, could he? A: No, these verses refer to different things. Here is the meaning of each verse.

Matthew 10:23 says they will not have gone through all the towns of Israel before the Son of

Man comes. Christians witnessing for Christ have not gone through all the towns of Israel

yet. By the way, in Israel today there is a law against converting people from Judaism to

Christianity.

Mark 9:1 says some there will not taste death until they see the kingdom of God present with power. Many of the listeners were witnesses of Jesus after His resurrection. Jesus appeared to

over 500 people in 1 Corinthians 15:6.

Luke 21:31-31 says that when you see the signs in Luke 21 happening, know that this

"generation" will not pass away until all these things take place. This refers to the end times.

The Greek word "generation" can mean race of people as well as a generation.

Matthew 16:18 "upon this rock I will build my church" refers to Christ calling Peter

"rock/pebble", and building Christ¶s church on the "rock/boulder" of the confession Peter

gave.

Q10: Why was Jesus disrespectful of his mother? (see Matthew 12:46-50, Mark 3:31-35,

Luke 8:19-21, John 2:4) In John 2:4, Jesus uses the same words with his mother thatdemons use when they meet Jesus. (Compare John 2:4 with Matthew 8:29, Mark 5:7,

Luke 4:34, and Luke 8:28 in literal translation ). Surely the son of God knew that Mary

had the blessing of the Father, didn't he, not to mention that the son of God would never

be rude? A: Jesus was not disrespectful of His mother, and we should not be either. However, if God

commands us to do something or not do something, God¶s command is a higher priority than

our parents. Likewise in Matthew 12:46-50, Mark 3:31-35, Luke 8:19-21, Jesus¶ mother and

brothers were outside when Jesus was speaking. When Jesus was told, He did God¶s will and

finished speaking. Jesus said that those closest in God¶s family were not the people

biologically closest to Jesus, but those who did God¶s will.

In John 2:4 Jesus was telling His mother that His time was not yet come.

Perhaps the questioner did not understand. In Matthew 8:29; Mark 5:7; Luke 4:34; it is the

demons, not Jesus, who are speaking. It Luke 8:28 it is the demon-possessed man who is

speaking. I looked in Green¶s literal translation, I did not see anything relevant to the

question.



Q11: Why did Jesus lie to his brothers about going to Jerusalem (John 7:8 -10)? Did

God the Father send a lying spirit, as he did in 1 Kings? Like Father, like Son? (The

"yet" inserted in some modern translations is not found in the earliest extant

manuscripts. This is an example of modern emendation of holy scripture. The more

honest translations, like the King James Version, print "yet" in italics, indicating that

the word has been added in translation. The New American Standard Bible does not

insert the word, remaining true to the critical Greek text. But the New InternationalVersion inserts "yet" in normal typeset, relegating the explanation of its dubious

character to a footnote, where many uncritical readers will miss

it. ) A: You mention three points which I will take in a different order.

a) Did Jesus in the Bible lie?

b) Did Jesus lie like God in the Bible lied?

c) Are translations of Holy books dishonest in their translation?

I want to first answer each part relating to the Bible, and then contrast this with Allah in theQur¶an and hadiths, and comparison of honesty in translating the Qur¶an.

Christianity-A) Jesus did not lie, because Jesus did NOT say He was never going to

Jerusalem ever again, but that He was not going to Jerusalem at that time, and so he was not

going with them. Later He did not. "Yet" after not IS in the earliest Greek manuscripts, but

we will deal with that later.

Islam-A) In the Qur¶an Sura 3:54 Allah is called the best of schemers/deceivers. The Arabicword is the one used for a deceiver or liar, though it can also mean schemer. The Iraqi

information minister quoted this verse of the Qur¶an, and the way he gave out informationshowed how he interpreted it. Islam teaches that God deceives (not just schemes but

deceives) His very own people in at least two ways. In the end time judgment Allah will ask

the Jews [who allegedly worshipped Ezra as the son of God] what they want, and they will

ask for a drink. Allah will present Hell to them appearing as a mirage, tell them to drink, and

by Allah¶s lie they will be fooled into going to the mirage and falling down into Hell. The

same will be for Christians. Then Allah will appear to His own people (both obedient and

mischievous) in a deceiving shape. Then the prophet will say they will be able to recognize

Allah by his "shin" (i.e. the lower leg bone). So Allah will uncover His shin, and then they

will see that it is Allah. You can read all of this in Bukhari 9:532 p.396.

Christianity-B) God does not lie (Numbers 23:19; 1 Samuel 15:29, Hebrews 6:18). In 1

Kings God did not lie, but He had a lying demon put lies in the mouths of false prophets. God

allows evil, and He even uses evil people and evil demons for His purposes.

Islam-B) Islam teaches that Allah allows his faithful followers to be deceived, and misled

into practicing "shirk" (or idolatry and joining partners with God). They teach that Jesus did

not really die on the cross; someone else died instead. Now I do not see a problem with God

fooling the evil Romans and Jewish authorities. But I see a big problem with Islam¶s thesis

that Allah let all of the followers of Jesus be deceived. So for almost 600 years Allah let all

Christians believe that Jesus really died when Allah did a supernatural miracle to fool them,

and never told anybody. Furthermore, the Old Testament from before the time to Christ and



the Gospels all teach that God is a Father. Now if that were wrong, that could not be such aserious sin as the Qur¶an says to believe that, because Allah allowed all who wanted to follow

Him believe that for centuries. Either there was one big lie prior to Mohammed, or elseMohammed invented a big lie. It has to be one or the other.

Christianity-C) I hope you did not get this question from a web site, because this question is

using a lie to make a strong accusation. "Not yet" (oupo in Greek, Strong¶s 3768) is in theearliest extant Greek manuscripts, notably p66 and p75. Rather than just taking the word of

Aland et al. I looked it up and it is clearly in both. There are no gaps or holes in the

manuscripts here.

"Not yet" is found in p66, p75, Vaticanus, Byzantine Lectionary, some Syriac, Sahidic

Coptic, and later manuscripts.

"Not (ouk in Greek) is present in Sinaiticus, Bezae Cantabrigiensis, Bohairic Coptic, some

Syriac, Armenian, Ethiopic, Georgian, Diatessaron, Chrysostom, and later manuscripts.

So there is much evidence for both views, and the NIV actually handles this the best by

putting yet in the text and putting in a footnote.

Islam-C) Yusuf µAli put in a few manuscript variations in the Qur¶an in his translation. I

understand that they later burned His Qur¶anic translation in Saudi Arabia. The latest I have

seen from Saudi Arabia has not manuscript variations whatsoever. So on one hand you can

(incorrectly) criticize the NIV because it mentions something is a manuscript variation. On

the other hand, you do not criticize total lack of manuscript variations for the Qur¶an. For

example, µUbai¶s copy of the Qur¶an did not contain some suras that are in the Qur¶an today.

The Muslims scholar Baidawi mentions variants on Suras 3:100; 6:91; 19:35; 28:48; 33:6 and

others.

Should Sura 33:6 says "The prophet is closer to the believers than their own selves, and his

wives are their mothers." as µUthman¶s standardized text reads?

Or should it say "The prophet is closer to the believers than their own selves, and he is a

father to them, and his wives are their mothers." As the text of µUbai b. Ka¶b reads?

You can read more of this in The Qur¶an and the Bible by William F. Campbell p.123.

Q11: Why did Jesus say the ruler's daughter was not dead? (Matthew 9:18-25; Luke

8:41-56) Either Jesus lied, or he performed no miracle, but the context clearly shows

that it was understood to be a miracle.

A: There are two possibilities. First Jesus could have been using a metaphor. Even in theQur¶an it says that Allah disdains not to use metaphors in Sura 2:26. However, there is a

simpler explanation. Jesus never said she was dead, it was Jairus and the people who said she

was dead. Either she was actually in a regular coma, or some other way in which her spirit

had not left the body.



Q12: Why was the doctrine of the Trinity [allegedly] unknown to the church until the

fourth century? Why was the doctrine [allegedly] established by vote instead of by

revelation? Why was the membership of the voting council [allegedly] loaded with

Athanasians? Why was belief in this [allegedly] then-new doctrine made a condition for

membership in the church? Why were Arians exiled and executed? A: It seems common for people to make up false things about the Trinity. The doctrines of

the Trinity are in both the Bible and early Christian writings. Even in the actual word"Trinity" has framed a lie as a question and is off by over a hundred years. hundreds of years.

The first reference to the Trinity is by:

bishop Theophilus of Antioch (168-181/188 A.D.) in his Letter to Autolycus 2:15.

Here are other references that use the word "Trinity"

Tertullian (200-220 A.D.) was the second we have record of using the term "Trinity", in his

letter Against Praxeus.

Novatian (210-280 A.D.) from Rome wrote a 32-chapter book, Treatise on the Trinity.

Clement of Alexandria (wrote 193-217/220 A.D.) also spoke of "the Holy Trinity" in

Stromata 5:14.

Origen (230-254 A.D.) mentions the Trinity in de Principiis Book 1 3:7.

There are many, many more early references showing that people believed Jesus was Godand other key aspects of the trinity. Here is a partial listing.

Leader References Statements and Beliefs

Ignatius: discipleof John the

Apostle died107/116 A.D.

17 places: Letter to Polycarp chapter 3

Ephesians 7

"Jesus is God""God Incarnate"

Diognetus 130

A.D.

To Mathetes Christ sent as King, God, man, and

savior

Justin Martyr:

110/114-165 A.D.

Dialogue with Trypho ch.

55-56,59,61-64,66,74-78

"Deserving to be worshipped as God

and Christ." Erred in thinking a time

before Christ existed.

Theophilus of Antioch 115-181

A.D.

To Autolycus 2:22 what else is this voice [in the Gardenof Eden] but the Word of God, who

is also His Son? (He was the first to

use the term Trinity

Tertullian 200-

220/240 A.D.

Entire book Against

Praxeus

Second to use the term Trinity.



Irenaeus: disciple

of John the

Apostle. 120-202

A.D.

Against Heresies 3:19:2 "Jesus is Himself in His own right,

...God, & Lord, ..."

Clement of

Alexandria 153-220 A.D.

Stromata 5:14,

The Instructor

"the Holy Trinity" Hymn in praise of

Jesus: "Lord of all time and space;Jesus Savior of our race;"

Hippolytusdisciple of

Irenaeus 225-236A.D.

Against the Heresy of One Noetus

"Son of God who, being God became man."

Origen of Alexandria 184-

254 A.D.

de Principis 1.3.8Origen was very

controversial in his time, but his views on the

Trinity were notquestioned.

"the power of the Trinity is one andthe same."

Novatian 210-280A.D.

Treatise on the Trinity enough said.

Athanasius died296-373

Sermon on Luke 10:22 United without confusion,distinguished without separation,

Indivisible without degrees

Basil of

Cappadocia 357-

379 A.D.

Letter 8 to the

Caesareans, On the Spirit

The Father is God, the Son is God,

the Spirit is God. Discusses Arian

controversy

Gregory of Nyssa

335-394 A.D.

On Not Three Gods,

Against Eunomius

nature of the Father & Son is the

same

Hilary 353-368

A.D.

Wrote a book on The

Trinity

Enough said

Ambrose of Milan

340-397 A.D.

On the Christian Faith Holy, Holy, Holy in Rev 4:8 referred

to the Trinity.

John Chrysostom

370-407 A.D.

Homily 3 on John 1:1 Word¶s eternity as a person;

uncreated

Augustine of

Hippo 354-430A.D.

Book: On the Trinity Did not accept any difference in rank

Nestorius: Council

of Ephesus 431

Started Nestorianism His belief that Jesus was God was

never criticized



A.D.

Cyril of

Alexandria 431-

444 A.D.

Nestorius¶ main opponent

at the Council of Ephesus

Started emphasis on Mary the

mother of God. (unfortunately)

Patrick of Ireland

389-461 A.D.

did not write much famous cloverleaf analogy

Arians were exiled, but I am not aware of any Arians that were executed.

Since the questioner tells falsehoods, it is not unreasonable to see that he has told lies aboutthe other parts. One wonders if he has read the records of the Nicene Council [as I have].

Many, perhaps most of the people there were not clear about the nature of the controversy atthe beginning. No substantial conclusions were reached until an Arian clearly elucidated the

Arian doctrine. Then the action of Christians was a foregone conclusion.

The doctrine of the Trinity was established by revelation: it was by past revelation, alreadyrevealed in the New Testament.

Now let¶s look at Islam and what they had instead of councils to settle their differences.

The Battle of the Camel: A¶isha, wife of Mohammed and her two generals, both promised paradise by Mohammed, unsuccessfully fought against µAli. The two generals [apparently]

gained martyrdom [because Mohammed promised them paradise], fighting against the caliph.

The Battle of Siffin: Mu¶awiya and his army from Syria fought µAli¶s army.

µAli wiped out the Khairjites, who had formerly supported him prior to Siffin.

The Mu¶tzalites were violently persecuted, in part because they taught that the Qur¶an was

created.

The Sufi¶s were often persecuted and killed.

Or does perhaps the questioner think a council should not settle things by consensus or vote,

but by killing of the opposition in traditional Muslim style.



Q13: Why is Jesus so similar to the other suffering saviors of mythology? Why don't

Christians believe any of the other virgin births and savior stories recorded in ancient

literature? How is it that the ritual of Christian communion [allegedly] existed in the

prior pagan ceremonies of eating the body and drinking the blood of their gods? How is

it that the Christian ritual of baptism also existed in the prior pagan cults? Weren't the

very defining doctrines of Christianity actually assimilated from the endemic pagan

cults? Likewise, why are Easter, Christmas, the Lenten season, rogation days, andothers, derived from pagan holidays. Didn't Christianity have any legitimate calendar

of commemorations of its own?

A: Let¶s first look at this question applied to Christianity and then to Islam. While Satan can

provide counterfeits, the fact is the prophecy of the suffering servant in Isaiah 53 preceded all

Roman, most Greek, and all Norse literature. Why do Muslims believe the Qur¶an when it

says Jesus was born of a virgin, and why do agree with the Qur¶an that says Jesus is the

Messiah?

Q14: If Father and Son are co-equal persons, why did Jesus pray to the Father?

(Matthew 11:25). Can God pray to God?A: This is a good question and there are two issues here: submission and communication.

Submission: Before coming to earth, Jesus voluntarily emptied Himself (Philippians 2:6-8),

becoming like us (Hebrews 2:17)

On earth, Jesus submitted to God the Father (Hebrews 5:7)

As He was leaving, Jesus asked the Father to restore to Him the glory He had before the

world began (John 17:5).

Communication:Even in Heaven, there is complete communication between the Father,

Son, and Spirit. God can communicate with God, since God is a tri-personal being.

Q15: How can there be an eternal Son when the Bible speaks of the begotten Son,

clearly indicating that the Son had a beginning? (John 3:16; Hebrews 1:5 -6). That's why

the word "Begotten" was omitted from any new version dated after 1971!!! A: I am not sure what the questioner is talking about. I am not sure the questioner knows

what he is talking about. One of the two most popular adult Bibles today is the New King

James Bible (New Testament copyright 1979). It has begotten for both verses.

Jay P. Green¶s Interlinear Translation of the Bible (original copyright 1976) has the word

begotten in both places.

It is true that other translation say "only" son, but that still means "uniquely-begotten" or as

the Wuest translation says, or one-and-only.

It sounds like the questioner is thinking that if the Son came from the Father, then the son had

to have a beginning point where He was created. May I remind the Muslim reader that almost

all Muslims (Mut¶zalites and a few others excepted) that Muslims believe the Qur¶an was

uncreated, yet the Qur¶an came from Allah.



Q16: If Jesus is on the throne, how can He sit on the right hand of God? (Mark 16:19).

Does He sit or stand on the right hand of God? (Acts 7:55). Or is He in the Father's

bosom? (John 1:1)

A: In Christianity He can be at the right hand of God in a roughly similar way as in Islam

Allah can have a throne, - both are metaphors. Since Sura 2:26 says Allah disdains not to use

the similitude of things, do you think God ever used similtudes when He gave the Torah andgospels?

Q17: Who raised Jesus from the dead? Did the Father (Ephesians 1:20), or Jesus (John

2:19-21), or the Spirit? (Romans 8:11).A: That is an easy one: they all participated.

Q18: If Son and Holy Ghost are co-equal persons in the Godhead, why is blasphemy of

the Holy Ghost unforgivable but blasphemy of the Son is not? (Luke 12:10).

A: Equal does not mean identical or not-distinct. The three are equal in nature and other

ways, but differ in role and rank. The Holy Spirit is the member of the Trinity that works in people¶s hearts to bring them to salvation. If they deliberately and finally reject the Holy

Spirit there is no hope. If they die rejecting the real Jesus they go to Hell too, but if they rejectJesus, the Holy Spirit can work in them to change their heart and mind.

Q19: If the Holy Ghost is a co-equal member of the Trinity, why does the Bible always

speak of Him being sent from the Father or from Jesus? (John 14:26; 15:26). A: They are equal in nature but differ in role and rank. Jesus was sent by the Father too. The

Father was never sent by anyone. There is no restriction we can place on God on what role

each member of the Trinity is somehow "forced" to have. Rather, we can simply learn what

the Bible tells us about how the parts of the Trinity work together.

Q20: According to Matthew, Jesus was born during the reign of Herod the Great

(Matthew 2:1). According to Luke, Jesus was born during the first census in Israel,

while Quirinius was governor of Syria (Luke 2:2). This is impossible because Herod

died in March of 4 BC and the census took place in 6 and 7 AD, about 10 years after

Herod's death.

A: No there were multiple censuses. First we will discuss the censuses, and then Quirinius.

The censuses: Josephus mentions a census by "Cyrenius" about 6/7 A.D. ( Antiquities of the

Jews 17.13:5 written about 93-94 A.D.).

According to the Wycliffe Bible Dictionary p.319,414 Papyrus Oxyrynchus 225 (in Milligan,Greek Papyri p.44-47) says that a census was taken every 14 years. Suetonius and Tacitus

show that Augustus had three censuses for example, the second of which was 8-4 B.C.

Quirinius: An inscription shows that Quirinius was governor of Syria starting in 6 A.D.(which is too late for Jesus¶ birth). However, this was Quirinius¶ second time as a governor.

The first time was between 12 and 6 B.C., when he led a campaign against the



Homanadensians in Anatolia. However, we do not know which province Quirinius wasgovernor of the first time. There are two views:

Sir William Ramsay advocates that Quirinius was governor of Syria the first time. (Syria is

adjacent to the mountains of Anatolia). While we have a complete record of the governors of

Syria during this time and Quirinius is not mentioned until 6 A.D., Quirinius might have been

a special, additional governor for this military campaign.

F.F. Bruce advocates that Quirinius was governor of probably Galatia. Galatia is in Anatolia.

In his The New Testament Documents : Are They Reliable?, (IVP) p.86-87 F.F. Bruce

mentions that many grammarians translate Luke 2:2 as "before" Quirinius was governor of

Syria, not "while".

Tertullian (200-240 A.D.) in Against Marcion 4:19 says that the name "Quirinius" wassubstituted for "Saturninus". Historically, we know that Saturninus was governor of Syria

from 8 to 6 B.C.

As a side note, there is much about the ancient world we cannot prove. For example,

Damascus coins are silent about Roman occupation of Damascus between 34 to 62 A.D. Yet,we are certain that the Romans ruled Damascus then.

See The New Testament Documents : Are They Reliable? by F.F. Bruce (p.86-87) for a

discussion of all these views, and Encyclopedia of Bible Difficulties p.365-366 and When

Critics Ask p.383-385 for more info.

Q21: John baptized for repentance (Matthew 3:11). Since Jesus was supposedly withoutsin, he had nothing to repent of. The fact that he was baptized by John has always been

[actually never been] an embarrassment to the church. The gospels offer no explanation

for Jesus' baptism, apart from the [allegedly] meaningless explanation given inMatthew 3:14-15 "to fulfill all righteousness." Other passages, which indicate that Jesus

did not consider himself sinless, are also [allegedly] an embarrassment to the church

(Mark 10:18, Luke 18:19).A: First let¶s talk about Christianity, and then in Islam the embarrassment of the "sinless"

prophet who had to repeatedly ask for forgiveness and cleansing for his sin.

When one dismisses part of scripture as "meaningless" and then says there is no meaning,

perhaps it is simply that one does not wish to understand the meaning.

Jesus was baptized as an example for us, and as an identification with us. If the questioner

can understand why Jesus was present at the last supper, when partaking the bread and wine

signified the remembrance the Jesus¶ body and blood, then the questioner might understandwhy Jesus was baptized.

Let¶s ask a simple question: did Allah grant of deny Mohammed¶s repeated request? When

Mohammed prayed to have his sins forgiven, when Mohammed prayed to be cleansed, and

when Mohammed was fearful of the torment of the grave [not Hell but the grave] did Allah

tell Mohammed "stop misleading these people. I cannot forgive your sins because you have

none to forgive". Did Allah say, "Yes I forgive you of your wicked sins", or did Allah not say

anything? See Sura 40:55; 48:1-2; Bukhari 1:711 p.398; 1:7,19,781; 6:3; 8:319, 8:407 prior.



Did Mohammed lie here? Mohammed prayed, "I wronged myself and make a confession of my sin. Forgive all my sins,«" Bukhari, 1:7,19,711, 781; 6:3; 8:319, and 8:407 prior also

mention Mohammed¶s sins. Specific things mentioned in the Bukhari 1:234 8:794, 795include cutting off people¶s limbs, burning out their eyes, and making them die of thirst. See

Bukhari 9:117; 6:198 prior, as well as Fiqh us-Sunnah v.1 p.133.

Mohammed prayed for Allah to forgive his past and future sins. Bukhari 8:407 p.269.Mohammed was forgiven of his past and future sins. Abu Dawud 3:4945 p.1380

Bukhari 9:532 (p.400) says that Jesus in heaven said Mohammed¶s past and future sins were

forgiven by Allah. Does a Muslim think Jesus lied here, because Allah did not need to forgive

anything?

Bukhari 6:236 p.201 says that Mohammed¶s sins were forgiven in Heaven, but conspicuouslyabsent is any mention was made of forgiveness of any sin of Jesus. He never had to ask

forgiveness for sin, while Mohammed did.

Mohammed trembled at the thought of his torment in the grave. Sahih Muslim 1:1214 p.290.

Perhaps Mohammed¶s followers should too. See also Sunan Nasa¶i 2:1479 p.281-282.

Q22: In Matthew, Mark and Luke the last supper takes place on the first day of the

Passover [actually not but the Feast of Unleavened Bread] (Matthew 26:17, Mark 14:12,

Luke 22:7). In John's gospel it [allegedly] takes place a day earlier and Jesus is crucified

on the first day of the Passover [actually not but the Day of Preparation of the Passover]

(John 19:14). A: Matthew 26:17, Mark 14:12, and Luke 22:7 do NOT say the first day of the Passover, the

rather the first day of the Feast of Unleavened bread. That was Thursday, the day the

Passover was killed, not Friday when the Passover was eaten. Jesus was not crucified on the

Day of Passover, rather John 19:14 says he was on the cross on the Preparation Day of the

Passover. As to the last supper and the crucifixion, when does a day start? For the Jews it

started with sundown, and the Last supper and crucifixion are on the same day.

Q23: When did David bring the Ark of the Covenant to Jerusalem? Before defeating

the Philistines or after? (a) After (2 Samuel 5 and 6). (b) Before (1 Chronicles 13 and

14). A: The ark had two stages of its journey, and the real issue is whether the first stage was

before fighting the Philistines, after, at the same time, or not specified. There is no problem

once you realize the passages do not have to be in chronological order. Unless a passage

transitions with "then" or "afterwards" or something similar, they can be at the same time or

in either order.

First stage of the journey: David brought the ark from Kiriath Jearim, but after Uzza was

killed he left the ark in the house of Obed-Edom the Gittite. (1 Chronicles 13; 2 Samuel 6:1-11)

Fighting: The Philistines mobilized against David and fought at Baal Perazim and then valley

of Rephaim. (1 Chronicles 14; 2 Samuel 5:20-25



Second stage of the journey: David brought the ark from the house of Obed-Edom toJerusalem 1 Chronicles 15:1-29; 2 Samuel 6:12-18

2 Samuel 6:1 has the word "again" in it, but the "again" does not necessarily mean after the

fighting. There also is not time-order word in 1 Chronicles.

Q24: What was the name of King Abijah¶s mother? (a) Michaiah, daughter of Uriel of

Gibeah (2 Chronicles 13:2). (b) Maachah, daughter of Absalom (2 Chronicles 11:20).

But Absalom had only one daughter whose name was Tamar A: While 2 Chronicles 11:20 does not specifically say this Absalom was the same as the son

of David, it most likely was the same person.

7 35 Baffling Bible Questions Answered p.137 says that the Hebrew word for daughter, bet ,can mean descendant, and Maacah might have been Absalom's granddaughter. Hard Sayings

of the Bible p.245 also mentions that Genesis 46:15 is an example where the "sons of Leah"mean the descendants of Leah.

There are at least three simple possible solutions not involving any copyist errors.

Absalom->Uriel->Maacah Absalom had a son, Uriel who lived in Gibeah, who had a

daughter Maacah.

Uriel->daughter+Absalom->MaacahUriel who lived in Gibeah had a daughter who

married Absalom. They had a daughter named Maacah.

Absalom->daughter+Uriel->MaacahAbsalom had a daughter, who married Uriel wholived in Gibeah, and they had a daughter named Maacah.

Q25: Did Joshua and the Israelites capture Jerusalem? (a) Yes (Joshua 10:23, 40). (b)

No (Joshua 15:63).

A: It is not enough to read the Bible; you have to read it carefully. It is an error to claim

Joshua 10:23,40 says they captured Jerusalem. The Israelites defeated the armies in a battle,

they captured five Canaanite kings from a cave, and they subdued the land, but there is no

verse in Joshua that claims they captured Jerusalem.

Q26: Who was the father of Joseph, husband of Mary? (a) Jacob (Matthew 1:16). (b)

Heli (Luke 3:23). A: Jacob was the father of Joseph, and Heli was the closest biological ancestor, the father of

Mary. Luke 3:23 says that Jesus was the son, so it was thought, of Joseph. This is in theGreek, and the questioner already asked as similar question in Question 3.

Q27: Jesus descended from which son of David? (a) Solomon (Matthew 1:6). (b) Nathan

(Luke 3:31).

A: Biologically Jesus was descended from Nathan. Legally, Jesus had the right of Davidic

line as the legal (not biological) son of Joseph, descendant of Solomon.



Q28: Who was the father of Shealtiel? (a) Jechoniah [Jeconiah] (Matthew 1:12). (b) Neri

(Luke 3:27).

A: These were multiple people named Shealtiel and Zerubbabel.

In Matthew 1:12 it goes Josiah (grandfather)->Jeconiah->Shealtiel->Zerubbabel->Abiud->Eliakim

Luke 3:26-27 goes Melchi->Neri->Shealtiel->Zerubbabel->Rhesa->Joannas->Judah->Joseph

In 1 Chronicles 3:15-17 the genealogy goes Josiah->Jehoiakim->Jeconiah->Shealtiel andPedaiah. Shealtiel has no children mentioned, but the next in the royal line is Pedaiah¶s son

Zerubabel.

The genealogies of Mary and Joseph were the same until David, and then diverged. There isno similarity in either ancestor or descendant after that. Perhaps the Shealtiel and Zerubabel

in Luke were named in honor of the governors mentioned in 1 Chronicles 3:15-17 and

Matthew 1:12. Not also that Luke 3:26-27 mentions Judah and Joseph, but these were

different people than Judah Jacob¶s son, Joseph Jacob¶s son, and Joseph Mary¶s husband.

Q29: Which son of Zerubbabel was an ancestor of Jesus Christ? (a) Abiud (Matthew1:13). (b) Rhesa (Luke 3:27). But the seven sons of Zerubbabel are as follows: i.

Meshullam, ii. Hananiah, iii. Hashubah, iv. Ohel, v. Berechiah, vi. H asadiah, viii.Jushabhesed (1 Chronicles 3:19, 20). The names Abiud and Rhesa do not fit in

anywhere.A: Both because as the previous answer shows, there were two men named Zerubbabel, so

Rhesa should not be expected to appear in 1 Chronicles 3:19,20, since the sons in 1Chronicles 3:19 were the sons of the governor Zerubbabel. The name Abiud should match, so

it could be either a scribal error in the Greek, or a scribal error in the Hebrew. Looking at the

Dead Sea scrolls should show us which it is, except the only part of 1 Chronicles preserved in

the Dead Sea scrolls is 1 Chronicles 7:24.

Q30: Who was the father of Uzziah? (a) Joram (Matthew 1). (b) Amaziah (2 Chronicles

26:1).

A: Matthew did not include every generation but skipped some, which he could do since

"father" also means ancestor in Greek and Hebrew. 2 Chronicles 22:1; 22:11; 24:27; and 26:1

show the genealogy goes Jehoram/Joram->Ahaziah->Joash->Amaziah->Uzziah. Again,

father and mean ancestor, and Joram was the forefather of Uzziah.

Q31: Who as the father of Jechoniah? (a) Josiah (Matthew 1:11). (b) Jehoiakim (1

Chronicles 3:16

A: The word "father" often means ancestor, just as the word son often means descendant,

such as Jesus the son of David. 1 Chronicles shows us that the good king Josiah was the

grandfather of Jeconiah, and the evil Jehoiakim was his father.



Q32: How many generations were there from the Babylonian exile until Christ?

(a) Matthew says fourteen (Matthew 1:17).

(b) But a careful count of the generations reveals only thirteen (see Matthew 1:12-16).

A: There are three sets of 14 names, but they are not additive, as the first list is Abraham up

through and including David, and the second list is including David to the exile. Now we

might have a problem if Matthew had claimed there were 42 generations, but Matthew never said the sum was 42. Matthew presumably mentioned in passing three sets of 14 names as a

memory device.

Q33: Who was the father of Shelah? (a) Cainan (Luke 3:35-36). (b) Arphaxad (Genesis

11:12).A: The is almost the same answer as that to Q31. Father can mean ancestor and son can be

descendent.

Arphaxad was the father/ancestor of Shelah in Genesis 10:24.

Luke shows that Shelah was a son/descendent of Cainan, who was a son/descendent of Arphaxad.

Q34: Jesus rode into Jerusalem on how many animals?

(a) One - a colt (Mark 11:7; cf. Luke 19:35). "And they brought the colt to Jesus and

threw their garments on it; and he sat upon it."

(b) Two - a colt and an ass (Matthew 21:7). "They brought the ass and the colt and put

their garments on them and he sat thereon." A: There were two animals present, a donkey and her colt/offspring as Matthew 21:2-6 says.

Both Mark 11:7 and Luke 19:35 say Jesus sat on the colt/offspring. As an aside, the first

person known to have answered this alleged contradiction is Justin Martyr in Dialogue withTrypho the Jew chapter 53, written about 138-165 A.D.. )

Q35: How did Simon Peter find out that Jesus was the Christ? (a) By a revelation from

heaven (Matthew 16:17). (b) His brother Andrew told him (John 1:41).

A: Peter heard that Jesus was the Christ on the (little) authority of his Andrew in John 1:41, but it was only later in Matthew 16:17 that Peter knew for sure Jesus was the Christ from the

Holy Spirit¶s promptings.

Q36: Did Jesus allow his disciples to keep a staff on their journey? (a) Yes (Mark 6.) (b)

No (Matthew 10:9; Luke 9:3). A: Jesus could have given different directions for different journeys. On the other hand, itcould likely just be a scribal error, where the copies we have of Mark substituted "only"

instead of "not". In Greek the difference between "only" and "not" is the addition of the two-letter Greek word ei.



Q37: Did Herod think that Jesus was John the Baptist? (a) Yes (Matthew 14:2; Mark

6:16). (b) No (Luke 9:9)

A: Herod was perplexed according to Luke 9:7, so he did not know what to think. Luke 9:7-9says, "Now Herod the tetrarch heard about all that was going on. And he was perplexed,

because some were saying that John had been raised from the dead, others that Elijah had

appeared, and still others that one of the prophets of long ago had come back to life. But

Herod said, µI beheaded John. Who, then, is this I hear such things about?¶ And he tried to seehim."

In Matthew 14:2 Herod says to his attendants, "This is John the Baptist; he was risen from the

dead!". Mark 6:16 says similar: "John, the man I beheaded, has been raised from the dead!"

Bear in mind that punctuation was not present in the Greek. What is shown here as an

exclamation point could have been a question mark.

Q38: Did John the Baptist recognize Jesus before his baptism? (a) Yes (Matthew 3:13-

14). (b) No (John 1:32, 33). A: Remember, John the Baptist and Jesus were cousins, so John already knew Jesus.

However the spirit confirmed that Jesus was the Messiah during baptism, at the very momentwhen Jesus came up out of the water (Matthew 3:13-14). John would not have seen the

confirmation unless He had seen the spirit alight on Jesus as a dove. John 1:32,33 is notrecording when John saw the Spirit alight on Jesus. Rather, it is recording John telling others

that he had seen the Spirit alight on Jesus as a dove. Since the gospel of John does not specifywhen Jesus was baptized, so it is false to say John says this was after His baptism.

Q39: Did John the Baptist recognize Jesus after his baptism? (a) Yes (John 1:32, 33). (b)

[allegedly] No (Matthew 11:2).A: Matthew 11:2 does not say John no longer recognized Jesus. Rather John was in a period

of doubt, and was challenging Jesus to prove to the world who He was.

Q40: According to the Gospel of John, what did Jesus say about bearing his own

witness? (a) "If I bear witness to myself, my testimony is not true" (John 5:31).

(b) "Even if I do bear witness to myself, my testimony is true" (John 8:14).

A: In John 5:31 Jesus meant that if someone, including himself, was the only witness tohimself, the testimony would not be considered valid in an impartial court of law. It is absurd

to think Jesus is saying He refuses to claim He is the Messiah or the Son of God.

Likewise in John 8:14 Jesus says that while he is a witness, he is not the only witness for

Him; the Father is a witness for Him also. This witness was confirmed by Jesus¶ miracles.

Q41: When Jesus entered Jerusalem did he cleanse the temple that same day?

(a) Yes (Matthew 21:12).

(b) No. He went into the temple and looked around, but since it was very late he did

nothing. Instead, he went to Bethany to spend the night and returned the next morning

to cleanse the temple (Mark 11:1-17).

A: Jesus went to Jerusalem with the Triumphal entry, then spent the night. The next day Jesusentered Jerusalem again, and then drove the moneychangers out of the Temple. Matthew



21:11-12 omits the time spending the night and re-entering Jerusalem, but omitting details isnot an error.

Q42: The Gospels say that Jesus cursed a fig tree. Did the tree wither at once?(a) Yes. (Matthew 21:19).

(b) No. It withered overnight (Mark 11:20).(Till now I didn't understand why Jesus cursed the fig tree in the middle

of the spring?????) A: Mark 13:28-29 shows that the fig tree represented the Jewish nation, and no fruit

represents the lack of acceptance most of the Jews would have towards Jesus.

Jesus likely cursed the fig tree twice. He cursed it in the morning one day [Monday or

Tuesday] in Mark 11:12-14, and then the next day in Matthew 21:18-19a. While it does not

say when the dying process started, It was withered immediately after being cursed a second

time in Matthew 21:19b-22. (also Mark 11:20-25). That is what happened to the Jews. The

nation was under a curse for rejecting Jesus at Calvary, but you did not see any immediate

results. After that though was a period of agitation against the Romans and Jewish

persecution of the church. Later the Jews rebelled against the Romans and Jerusalem wasdestroyed in 70 A.D.

The fig tree was cursed because it was a sign of the people of Israel, but there is more

information here. Hard Sayings of the Bible p.441-442, taking information from an article

called "The Barren Fig Tree" by W.M. Christie, provides more details. It says that toward the

end of the month of March leaves begin to appear on fig trees, and small knobs called taqsh

in Palestinian Arabic, the size of green almonds, grow. These drop off, as they are not real

figs, but peasants still eat these when they are hungry. However, if the fig leaves appear with

no taqsh, then there will be no figs.

Q43: When Paul was on the road to Damascus he saw a light and heard a voice. Did

those who were with him hear the voice? (a) Yes (Acts 9:7). (b) No (Acts 22:9). A: In Acts 9:7 the men with Saul/Paul heard only a sound/voice (Acts 9:7). However, unlike

Acts 22:9, they did not hear His voice speaking to Saul/Paul. People can hear an audiblesound but not understand any words.

Q44: When Paul saw the light he fell to the ground. Did his traveling companions also

fall to the ground? (a) Yes (Acts 26:14). (b) No (Acts 9:7).

A: People can fall to the ground, and then get back up and stand speechless.

Q45: Did the voice spell out on the spot what Paul¶s duties were to be? (a) Yes (Acts

26:16-18.

(b) No. The voice commanded Paul to go into the city of Damascus and there he will be

told what he must do. (Acts 9:7; 22:10).

A: There is no conflict between these verses: First here are the verses mentioned.

Acts 9:7 "The men traveling with Saul stood there speechless; they heard the sound but didnot see anyone."



In Acts 26:16-18 Jesus is speaking to Saul. "Now get up and stand on your feet. I haveappeared to you to appoint you as a servant and as a witness of what you have seen of me and

what I will show you. I will rescue you from your own people and from the Gentiles. I amsending you to open their eyes and turn them from darkness to light, and from the power of

Satan to God, so that they may receive forgiveness of sins and a place among those who are

sanctified by faith in me."

Acts 22:10 "Get up¶, the Lord said, µand go into Damascus. There you will be told all that

you have been assigned to do.¶

Acts 26:16-18 is such a broad outline of who Saul of Tarsus will be. There are no details on

what Saul is to do, except that somehow he will open their eyes and turn them from darkness

to light. No, it would take not only learning in Damascus, but seven years of learning in

Arabia before Paul would know exactly what to do and how to do it.

Q46: What did Judas do with the blood money he received for betraying Jesus?

(a) He bought a field (Acts 1:1)

(b) He threw all of it into the temple and went away. The priests could not put the blood

money into the temple treasury, so they used it to buy a field to bury strangers

(Matthew 27:5). A: Both though the first is indirectly. Judas threw the money into the temple. The priests used

the money to buy the field in Judas¶ name.

Q47: How did Judas die?

(a) After he threw the money into the temple he went away and hanged himself

(Matthew 27:5).

(b) After he bought the field with the price of his evil deed he fell headlong and burst

open in the middle and all his bowels gushed out (Acts 1:1).

A: Permit me to ask a gruesome question. After a person hangs himself, and if nobody takes

down the body, and no animals take it away as it is suspended from a tree, what happens tothe body. Do you think it stays intact forever? -of course not.

It is also possible that Judas tried to hang himself over a cliff, but he failed because the rope

broke.

Q48: Why is the field called "Field of Blood"?

(a) [Allegedly] because the priests bought it with the blood money (Matthew 27:7 -8).

(b) Because of the bloody death of Judas therein (Acts 1:19).

A: There is no conflict with the two passages.

Matthew 27:7-8 does not say it was for the sole reason that the priests bought it with blood

money. Matthew 27 says, a) Judas hanged himself, b) it was bought with blood money, and c)it was a place to bury foreigners.

Acts 1:19 only says the people of Jerusalem heard about a) Judas dying, b) it was bought with

blood money, and so they called it the field of blood.



Q49: Did Herod want to kill John the Baptist? (a) Yes (Matthew 14:5).

(b) No. It was Herodias, the wife of Herod who wanted to kill him.

But Herod [feared John and] knew that he was a righteous man and kept him safe

(Mark 6:20). A: Herod was double-minded here. Herod wanted John killed, but Herod did not want to

appear to be the one who wanted him killed. Herod may have feared John for two reasons. If Herod had simply had a capriciously-looking execution, the people who not have respected

Herod at all. But also after Herod had put John in prison to have him killed, Herod might

have had second thoughts. If John really was a prophet, how would Herod stand before God?

Herodias solved all of Herod¶s problems and hesitation though, by having her daughter make

Herod promise to kill John the Baptist. That is, at least Herodias solved Herod¶s problems in

this life.

Q50: Who was the tenth disciple of Jesus in the list of twelve?

a) Thaddaeus (Matthew 10:1-4; Mark 3:13-19).

(b) Judas son of James is the corresponding name in Luke¶s gospel (Luke 6:12 -16).

A: Thaddaeus is the same as Judas the son of James in Luke 6:16 and Acts 1:13, similar toPeter and Simon being the same person. Perhaps after the crucifixion Thaddaeus did not what

to be called Judas, because of potential confusion with Judas Iscariot. Judas is a Hebrewname. Some Greek manuscripts say Thaddaeus, some say "Lebbaeus", and some says

"Lebbaeus called/surnamed Thaddaeus" Asimov's Guide to the Bible p.908 says "Lebbaeus"is the Greek form of "Levi".

Q51: When Jesus entered Capernaum he healed the slave of a centurion. Did the

centurion come personally to request Jesus for this? (a) Yes (Matthew 8:5).

(b) No. He sent some elders of the Jews and his friends (Luke 7:3, 6). A: The centurion sent the Jewish intermediaries; Matthew probably skipped the detail of the

intermediaries because Matthew did not want to blur the fact that Jesus was helping a non-

Jew, according to The Expositor¶s Bible Commentary vol.8 p.200. The NIV Study Bible

p.1453 adds that likewise when Pilate flogged Jesus in Matthew 27:26, Matthew is NOT

saying Pilate personally flogged Jesus, but had Jesus flogged.

Q52: Apart from Jesus did anyone else ascend to heaven? (a) No (John 3:13).

(b) Yes. "And Elijah went up by a whirlwind into heaven" (2 Kings 2:11). A: This answer requires a thorough understanding of Christian theology. After the lives of

Old Testament believers on earth were over, they went to live with God in Paradise, also

called Abraham¶s bosom in Luke 16:22. However, no one went to the Heaven where Jesus

now is until Jesus died and rose again. That is why Jesus told the thief on his right, "todayyou will be with me in Paradise."

Q53: To whom did the Midianites sell Joseph? (a) "To the Ishmaelites" (Genesis 37:2).

(b) "To Potiphar, an officer of Pharaoh" (Genesis 37:36). A: The answer should be obvious. The Jacob¶s other sons did not travel down to Egypt,

where Potiphar lived, at this time. They sold Joseph directly to the Ishmaelites, who sold him



to Potiphar. The Ishmaelites did not want Joseph as a slave; they were merely the transporterswho traded him to Potiphar.

Q54: Who brought Joseph to Egypt?(a) The Ishmaelites bought Joseph and then "took Joseph to Egypt" (Genesis 37:25,27).

(b) "The Midianites had sold him in Egypt" (Genesis 37:36).(c) Joseph said to his brothers "I am your brother, Joseph, whom you

sold into Egypt" (Genesis 45:4). A: While either "Midianites" or "Ishmaelites" could be a scribal error, there is another

explanation. The Midianites and Ishmaelites were not separated from each other, and the two

terms were used interchangeably. Even today Arabs came from cousins of the Canaanites

living in Bahrain and other Semitic and Hamitic peoples, and other ancestors not descended

from Ishmael. When Arabs say they came from Ishmael, there is some truth to that too,

because these peoples all intermarried. Also, Abraham had seven other sons through Keturah,

and some of these were Midian, Sheba, and Dedan.

As for c) Joseph¶s brothers sold him to Egypt indirectly, through the Arab traders.

Q55: Who killed Goliath? (a) David (1 Samuel 17:23, 50). (b) Elhanan (2 Samuel 21:19). A: Our preserved versions of 2 Samuel 21:19 apparently have a copyist error, where they left

out the phrase "Lahmi the brother of"

1 Chronicles 20:5 says that Elhanan killed Lahmi, the brother of Goliath.

This copyist error is easy to trace, according to Hard Sayings of the Bible p.212-213, which

gives a full Hebrew analysis.

Q56: Who killed Saul? (a) "Saul took his own sword and fell upon it. . . . Thus Saul

died..." (1 Samuel 31:4-6). (b) An Amalekite slew him (2 Samuel 1:1-16). A: Saul killed himself. 2 Samuel 1:1-16 does not say an Amalekite killed Saul. Rather, it

shows an Amalekite claimed that he killed Saul to David. The Amalekite lied, expecting a

reward, but David had him executed instead.

Q57: Why does the Old Testament [allegedly] teach that there is no Hell, while the New

Testament teaches that there is? The idea of "progressive revelation" does not explain

the conflicts in the biblical texts. A: The Old Testament does teach Hell, though not as clearly.

"Yet you shall be brought down to Sheol, to the lowest depths of the Pit." Isaiah 14:15

"Who among us shall dwell with the devouring fire? Who among us shall dwell with

everlasting burnings?" Isaiah 33:14

The pit: Job 33:24; Psalm 30:9



Ezekiel 32:18-31 is a long description of those in the pit. It says of Pharaoh, already in the pit, that he shall see the others there and be comforted over his multitude.

Isaiah 66:24 says the worm does not die and the fire is not quenched for those who fought

against God.

Finally, how long will Hell last? The fire God has kindled against those who hate Him will burn forever. (Jeremiah 17:4)

Q58: Why does most of the Old Testament teach that there is no afterlife (see

Ecclesiastes 9:5-6, for example), while later Old Testament writings and the NewTestament do?

A: It does not teach an afterlife in the grave like Islam does, but it does teach there is anafterlife.

"And many of those who sleep in the dust of the earth shall awake, Some to everlasting life,

Some to shame and everlasting contempt." Dan 12:2

"But God will redeem my soul from the power of the grave, For He shall receive me." Ps

49:15

"The way of life winds upward for the wise, That he may turn away from hell [Sheol] below"Proverbs 15:24

Job 19:26-27 - "and after my skin is destroyed, this I know, That in my flesh I shall see God.

Whom I shall see for myself, and my eyes shall behold, and not another. How my heart yearswithin me!"

There is a place for those in the afterlife, Job 26:6; Psalm 139:8

In 2 Samuel 12:23 When David said he would go to his dead son, but his son will not come

back to him, David assumed the son still existed but was not annihilated.

David said He will dwell in the House of the Lord forever in Psalm 23:6

David prophesied God would not leave his [the Holy One¶s] soul in Sheol in Psalm 16:10.

Even though the righteous servant would be killed, he would see his posterity in Isaiah 53:10-

11:

(quotes are from the NKJV)

Though the Old Testament is not as clear as the New Testament, absent in both the Old

Testament and New is another concept, torment of people who are still in their decomposing

bodies in the graveyard, according to Muslim theology. Apologies for the length of the

following section, but this is necessarily to adequately establish this in Muslim theology.

The torment of the grave is a fact. Sunan Nasa¶i 2:1311 p.199



People are first in the grave. Then they go to Heaven or Hell. Ibn-i-Majah 5:4268 p.500,501

All Muslims except martyrs are tried in their graves. Sunan Nasa¶i 2:2057 p.533;

Bukhari 1:184 p.126

There is some torment for Muslims in their graves. Sunan Nasa¶i 2:2066 p.536

The bodies of the prophets are alive in their graves, and they can hear. Abu Dawud

vol.1 footnote 514 p.269

One night Mohammed saw that Moses was praying in his grave. Sunan Nasa¶i 2:1637 p.1640

Muslims in their graves hear the sound of people walking. Sunan Nasa¶i 2:2054-2055

p.531-532

Unbelievers are punished in their graves if their families weep over them. Sunan

Nasa¶i 2:1851-1862 p.477-451

Mohammed heard two dead people being tormented in their graves.Sunan Nasa¶i

2:2072A, 2:2072B p.539

A Jewish woman died, and Mohammed said her relatives¶ lamenting was tormenting

her in her grave. Ibn-i-Majah 2:1595 p.446

The Jews are being tortured in their graves. Sunan Nasa¶i 2:2063 p.535

A Jewess allegedly said people were tortured in the grave due to soiling themselves

with urine. Sunan Nasa¶i 2:1348 p.217

A person was tortured in their grave for soiling themselves with urine. Bukhari

1:215,217 p.141,142; Ibn-i-Majah 1:347-349 p.198-199

A Jew who forbade the other Jews to cut themselves where urine fell was punished inthe grave. Abu Dawud 1:22 p.6

Mohammed putting a fresh twig on a grave can benefit the unbelieving dead Sahih

Muslim vol.1 no.575,576 and footnote 496 p.171-172

Even Mohammed sought refuge from the torment of the grave. Sunan Nasa¶i 2:2065

p.535; 2:2069 p.537; 2:2071 p.538

"«she had heard the Prophet seeking refuge with Allah from the punishment in thegrave." Bukhari 2:458 p.258.

A Jewess told either Mohammed or a Muslim man they would be put to trial in the

grave. Sunan Nasa¶i 2:2068 p.537



A Jewish woman told Mohammed "May Allah protect you from the torment of thegrave. After that, Mohammed prayed for refuge from the torment of the grave. Sunan

Nasa¶i 2:1479 p.281-282

Mohammed trembled at the thought of his torment in the grave. Sahih Muslim 1:1214

p.290

May Allah protect you from the torment of the grave. Sahih Muslim 2:1973 p.428

At Banu al-Najjar the Muslims took over the land and dug up the graves of unbelievers looking for treasure. Abu Dawud 1:454 p.118

Polytheist graves were dug up and the site used for a mosque. Sunan Nasa¶i vol.1

no.705 p.444-445

Alleged miracle of Mohammed telling which grave to dig up to get treasure. Also, itis OK for Muslims to dig up the graves of non-Muslims if they will get some benefit

by it. Abu Dawud 2:3082 and footnote 2556 p.878

Q59: Why does the church say that God is not the author of confusion (1 Corinthians

14:33), when many biblical passages flatly contradict this? See Genesis 11:9; Exodus

14:24 and 23:27; Deuteronomy 7:23 and 28:20,28; Joshua 10:10. A: While the Greek word in 1 Corinthians 14:33 does not have the same range of meaning as

the Old Testament word, there is a much simpler explanation. You have to look at the contextof the verse, which at a minimum, means reading a couple of verses before and after the

verses in question. 1 Corinthians 14:33 is speaking of church assemblies of believers. This isnot applicable to those who defied God at the tower of Babel, the Egyptian army pursuing

Moses, and the enemies of the Israelites.

Q60: Was God known by the name Yahweh prior to Moses (Exodus 6:3), or was he not

(Genesis 4:26, 5:29, 9:24, 22:14, 27:20, 27:27, 28:20-21)? A: First an observation that is not a part of the answer, and then the answer. On one hand,

Since Moses wrote Genesis in his time, not Jacob¶s, Moses could use whatever name he

wished. For example, people correctly write that Columbus discovered America, even though

Columbus did not know the name "America." See When Critics Ask p.68-69 for more info.

This alone explains all but 53 places, which are direct quotes or similar.

The answer is that Exodus 6:3 does not say they were not known to Abraham, Isaac, and

Jacob.

Second, (This eliminates 5 of the 53 passages.)

Exodus does not say they were unaware of God¶s divine name. It only says, "I appeared «

but by my name Yahweh I never made myself known to them." While God spoke or appeared

to Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob at least (8, 1, 6) 15 times, God never appeared to these men in a

special way associated with His divine name as God appeared to Moses. In fact, when Jacob

asked for a name after wrestling in Genesis 32:29, Jacob pointedly was not answered.



Q61: Was the Law given by Yahweh perfect (Psalm 19:7), or wasn't it (Hebrews 8:6-?

A: David said the law of God was perfect because it was good and what God wanted.Hebrews 8:6- does NOT say there was anything lacking in what the law said to do (and not

do). Rather, Hebrews shows the law was lacking in power to change the heart of the person.

It was good that the priests offered sacrifices, but the powerlessness of the law was

symbolized by them having to offer the sacrifices over and over again.

Q62: Why can't the six accounts of the resurrection [allegedly] be reconciled? (see

Matthew 28, Mark 16, Luke 24, John 20-21, Acts 1:3-12, 1 Corinthians 15:3-8. ) Paul

says that without the resurrection, the Christian faith is in vain (1 Corinthians 15:14).

How could the biblical accounts possibly disagree on such an important narrative? A: They do not need to be "reconciled" because they fit together just fine.

A: Here is a sequence for these 25 events. Numbers refers to events that must have in order,

and letters such as a,b,c refer to events that could happen in any order. The bold words

indicate markers of time, order, and location.

After Jesus Rose from the Dead: Mt 28, Mk 16, Lk 24, Jn 20-21

� � � � � � � � � � � � � � � � � � � �

R1a. When the Sabbath was over, Mary Magdalene, the other Mary [the mother of

James], Salome, and the women start to travel to the tomb. Mt 281b; Mk 16:1-3; Lk 24:1; Jn 20:1

R2a. There was an earthquake as the angel hurled away the stone. The guards became

like dead men. Mt 28:2-4

R2b. The angel hurled away the stone. Mk 16:4; Lk 24:2

R1b. No body found, and two "men" speak to the women. Lk 24:3-8; Jn 20:2

R3. The morning that Jesus rose, an angel appears to the women and tells them to

tell the disciples to go to Galilee. Mt 28:5-7; Mk 16:5-8

R4a. While the women were hurrying back , Jesus also appears to the women and

tells them to tell the disciples to go to Galilee. Mt 28:8-10

R4b1. When the women returned from the tomb, the disciples do not believe the

women. Lk 24:9-11

R4b2. Peter and John run to the tomb, John gets there first. Lk 24:12; Jn 20:3-9

R4b3. Then the disciples return to their homes [in Jerusalem]. Jn 20:10

R4c. The guards tell the priests; priests bribe them. Mt 28:11-15



R4d. As Mary wept, two men, and then Jesus, appear to Mary Magdalene. Mk 16:9-11; Jn 20:11-18

R5. The same day on the road to Emmaus, Jesus appears to two disciples (not of

the eleven disciples). He stays with them until evening. Mk 16:12; Lk 24:13-29

R6. Immediately the two disciples rushed back to Jerusalem (7 miles away) and tellsthe 11 disciples. Mk 16:13; Lk 24:33-35

R7. In Jerusalem, the evening of the same day that Jesus rose, while the two aretalking to the disciples, Jesus appears, 1st time, to ten disciples. Jn 20:19-23

R8. Other disciples tell Thomas they have seen Jesus. Jn 20:25

R9. Eight days later, Jesus appears, 2nd time, to the eleven disciples including

Thomas. Mk 16:14; Jn 20:19,26-31

R10. Jesus appears to them (3rd time), by the Sea of Tiberias [Galilee]. They

catch 153 fish. Mt 28:19-20; Jn 21:1-14.

R11. Three times, Jesus asks Peter if Peter loves Him. Jn 21:15-23

R12. In Galilee Jesus appears to the disciples and gives great commission. Mt 28:16-

20; Mk 16:15-18

R13. They return to Jerusalem, either staying there or at Bethany, a suburb.

R14. While they are eating, Jesus commands them to remain in Jerusalem until they

received power from on high. (Lk 24:49; Acts 1:4). They obey this command. Lk

24:52

R15. Jesus leads them to Bethany, a suburb of Jerusalem on slope of the Mount of

Olives. Lk 24:50

R16. Forty days after the resurrection (Acts 1:3), Jesus ascends to Heaven in theclouds. Mk 16:19; Lk 24:50-51; Acts 1:9-11

R17a1. Returning to Jerusalem, the apostles remain in the temple. Lk 24:52-53

R17b. The 11 apostles choose Matthias to replace Judas. Acts 1:15-26

R18. In Jerusalem on Pentecost (50 days after the Passover), the apostles are filledwith the Holy Spirit. Acts 2

R19. After this, the apostles travel freely. Mk 16:20



Q63: Why were the disciples surprised by Jesus' resurrection after Jesus had told them

repeatedly to expect it? (see Matthew 16:21, 17:22-23, 20:17-19, Mark 9:31, 10:34, Luke

9:22, 18:33. ). An angel even reminded the women that Jesus had told them of his

impending resurrection (Luke 24:6-7). How is it that the women remembered his words

(Luke 24, but the disciples didn't (John 20:9, Luke 24:12)? Even Jesus's enemies

remembered that he had foretold that he would rise again (Matthew 27:63).

A: If I were a disciple who had been told, I definitely would still not be nonchalant to seeJesus rise from the dead. Wouldn¶t you be amazed too?

Q64: Why does Jesus [allegedly] teach salvation by works in the synoptic gospels, but

John portrays him teaching salvation by faith?A: Luke does the exact OPPOSITE of teaching salvation by works in the parable of the

prodigal son in Luke 15:11-32. Matthew not only teaches it is God¶s generosity, not our work

in Matthew 20:1-16 (parable of the workers in the vineyard). Jesus also does something more

subtle in Matthew. In Matthew 5-6 Jesus says if you were going to live perfectly, this is what

you must do. After the disciples ask "who, then can be saved", does Jesus show salvationthrough God¶s forgiveness. Matthew teaches salvation by grace in Matthew 9:12; 18:23-35,

etc. Since "the Son of Man did not come to be served, but to serve and to give his life as aransom for many", that cannot be salvation for those who deserve it, since Jesus has to

ransom us.

As in the next answer, John 14:15-24 teaches the those who really love God will obey Him.However, neither John nor the other gospels say that our obedience or works are a source or

cause of our salvation.

Q65: Why does John not teach in his gospel that it is necessary to repent of our sins,

since he states that his gospel was written specifically for the purpose of showing people

how to be saved (John 20:31)?A: Even more than the other gospels, the Gospel of John teaches that if you really love God

you will obey Him. He who does not love God will not obey Him. (John 14:15-24). Differentwriters could use different words to get the point across.

Q66: Why is the nature and practice of the two sacraments - baptism and the

Lord's Supper - left ambiguous in the Bible, and a cause of discord among

churches? A: I suppose it is sort of like when I read Muslim commentators says female circumcision,

times of prayer, conditions for divorce, being topics of debate among schools of Sunni Islam

because they are undefined in the Qur¶an.

Baptism is clear once you understand the meaning behind it. Baptism occurs when a person isa part of the family of God. Some people think a person is a part of the family of God by birth

to human parents. Others (including myself) say it is evidenced when people believe. Thosein the first category have an inherent contradiction though. They have to distinguish between

those who believe and are a part of God¶s family, the invisible church, and those who do not believe and are in some strange way a part of God¶s family, the invisible church. The Lord¶s

Supper is done in remembrance of Jesus and His sacrifice, according to Jesus. The Catholic

Church also taught that the bread and wine actually become the body and blood (and



Lutheranism has carried this belief over in modified form). By not understanding Jesus¶metaphor, they have to believe at the original Last Supper Jesus had two different bodies in

the same room at the same time. Thus it is clear to those who do not have extra presuppositions.

Q67: Why did the writers of the New Testament feel free to misquote and misinterpretthe Old Testament and conflate verses? (see Matthew 3:3 versus Isaiah 40:3; Matthew

12:17-21 versus Isaiah 42:1-4; Matthew 13:35 versus Psalm 78:1-3; Acts 2:16-21 versus

Joel 2:28-32; Acts 7:43 versus Amos 5:25-27; Romans 3:4 versus Psalm 51:4; Romans

9:33 versus Isaiah 28:16 and 8:14; Romans 10:6-8 versus Deuteronomy 30:12-14;

Romans 11:9-10 versus Psalm 69:22-23; Romans 11:26-27 versus Isaiah 59:20-21; 1

Corinthians 2:9 versus Isaiah 64:4; 1 Corinthians 3:20 versus Psalm 94:11; 1

Corinthians 15:54-55 versus Isaiah 25:8 and Hosea 13:14. ).A: Paraphrasing is not misquoting. Sometimes it might have been their practice to string

verses together and just reference the most well-known source. This was not just their

practice, but a "Midrashic" practice of the Jews. Matthew¶s gospel was probably written to primarily a Jewish audience, and Matthew was using their literary styles that they would be

comfortable with. Other writers used Jewish literary styles to a lesser extent, and of coursePaul was trained as a Pharisee.

Q68: Why did the gospel writers use the Septuagint, an inferior translation of t he Old

Testament? (Matthew 3:3; Luke 4:17-21; Acts 7:43; Acts 15:17; Romans 10:11) Did the

Holy Spirit fail to inspire them with the more accurate Hebrew text, the one accepted

today?

A: The Dead Sea scrolls have shown that sometimes the Septuagint was closer to the ancient

text than the Massoretic text, though the Massoretic text was closer in a majority of cases.

The rest of the books were written in Greek, and the writers often used the Greek Septuagint.

However, it is the meaning that is important, not the exact words. By the way, we do not

blindly accept the Massoretic text today. Even though it is pretty good, we would give greater

weight to the Dead Sea scrolls. It is just that in most cases there is no significant difference.

Q69: Why did Matthew and Peter take Old Testament passages out of context to make

them into prophecies, when they were never indicated to be prophetic by the OldTestament author (Acts 1:20 versus Psalm 69:25, for example)?

A: Acts 1:20 refers to one who betrayed and persecuted God¶s chosen one. Psalm 69:25 can

be a general reference to all who persecute God¶s people. So Psalm 69:25 can apply to many

who persecute God¶s people.

Q70: Why did Mark [allegedly] misreference an Old Testament prophet (Mark 1:2)?

(see

This misreference is found in the critical text, but not in the Textus Receptus,

illustrating that the early church was willing to emend the holy scriptures to remove

difficulties. ). How can we rely on Mark to explain Old Testament prophecies to us if he

is even mistaken about the source?

A: On one hand, Mark 1:2-3 is actually from two prophets, Malachi 3:1 and Isaiah 40:3, and

only the more prominent prophet is mentioned, and it is from Isaiah.



On the other hand, this is not a "Textus Receptus" issue, because though many earlymanuscripts mention Isaiah by name others do not. In particular, the Byzantine family of

manuscripts, as well as Alexandrinus, original Bohairic Coptic, Ethiopic, Armenian, andothers do not have Isaiah mentioned.

Q71: Why does Jude quote the non-canonical Book of Enoch as prophecy (Jude14-15)? Did the Holy Spirit fail to inspire Jude with the fact that the Book of Enoch

would not be accepted into the canon? A: Jude did not say he was quoting the Book of Enoch; rather he said he was quoting the man

Enoch. The Book of Enoch is a mixture of truth and error. It is also a composite book, with at

least five parts put together. This quote is from the first and oldest part of the book. If Enoch

did actually say this, having this quote in a composite book does not take away the truth of

the prophecy.

Q72: Why does Matthew 2:23 quote a non-existent Old Testament prophecy? Was

Matthew using non-canonical writings, too?

A: Matthew says "And he will be called a Nazarene". The Old Testament (like the Qur¶an)was originally written without consonants, and the words "Nazarene" and "branch" are

identical in Hebrew without the vowels. Jesus was prophesied as the branch in the OldTestament in Isaiah 11:1, Jeremiah 23:5, 33:5; and probably Zechariah 6:12. Zechariah 3:8 is

also very interesting.

Q73: Why does Matthew attribute a quote about the potter's field to Jeremiah, when

Jeremiah has no such passage, and the closest one in the Old Testament is Zechariah

(Matthew 27:9-10; Zechariah 11:12)?A: First what the verses say and then a couple of answers.

Matthew 27:9-10 says a) 30 pieces of silver, b) set by the people of Israel, c) used the silver

to buy the potter¶s field, d) as the Lord commanded me.

Zech 11:12-13 mentions a) 30 pieces of silver), b) set by those who paid him, c) thrown to the potter. There is no mention of field, or as the Lord commanded him.

Jeremiah 32:6-8 mentions buying the field, as the Lord commanded him.

Christians have at least four answers.

Copyist error for Zechariah - It might have been a scribal error for Zechariah. (John Calvin

thought this.) In fact, though Calvin would not have known this in his time, some Greek manuscripts do say Zechariah instead of Jeremiah, and in some neither name appears.

Translation error: Papias, a disciple of John the Apostle, records that Matthew originally

wrote his gospel in Hebrew. If this is true, and it was translated into Greek, this detail might

have been changed then.



An unrecorded prophecy of Jeremiah. Zechariah 1:4 itself quotes Jeremiah 18:11.Zechariah 7:7 mentions he is saying words from former prophets. Difficulties in the Bible

p.139 mentions this.

A testimonia chain: One Midrashic practice was to quote different prophecies and relate

them together. Not only could this be what is termed a "testimonia chain", it is not

unprecedented, as Mark 1:1 likely also is a testimonia chain.

Q74: Why wasn't Tyre destroyed by Nebuchadnezzar as prophesied by Ezekiel

(Ezekiel 26)? When it was destroyed by Alexander the Great, why didn't it remain

desolate as prophesied by Ezekiel?(see Ezekiel 26:14, 27:36, 28:19; Wallace B. Fleming,

The History of Tyre, Columbia University Press, 1915, p.

64. ). A: The mainland city of Tyre was completely demolished by Nebuchadnezzar. However, in

the 13 year siege, the people of Tyre and rebuilt the city on an island across from the

mainland. That is why the paradox occurred that even though Nebuchadnezzar would

conquer the city, Ezekiel 29:17-18 says Nebuchadnezzar would get no reward from the

plunder.

The island city was destroyed by Alexander the Great later, and the city was never rebuilt.

Fishnets were spread on it, and in fact even later the island disappeared, being replaced by a

peninsula whose basis was the causeway Alexander had built.

Q75: How can it be that Isaiah prophesied a temporary destruction of Tyre, while

Ezekiel prophesied a permanent destruction (Ezekiel 26:14,21; 27:36; 28:19 versus

Isaiah 23:13-1? A: Because there was more than one destruction of Tyre, and ultimately there were two

locations of Tyre. In Isaiah it was prophesied (and fulfilled) that the

Temporary destruction of the mainland city of Tyre under Nebuchadnezzar. Note the detailsof Isaiah 28:19.

Ezekiel 26:3-14 is has a chiastic structures, with some exceptions. In a perfect chiasm, each

thought is put in parallel in symmetric form. The changes in pronouns in the Hebrew are

important here.

Ezek 26:3 Many nations will come against Tyre

..Ezek 26:4 They will destroy Tyre's walls and towers.

«.Ezek 26:4,5 I [God] will make Tyre a bare rock, a place to spread fishnets.

««Ezek 26:6 Her mainland settlements will be sacked.

««..Ezek 26:7 Nebuchadnezzar of Babylon, will come against Tyre

««Ezek 26:8 He [Nebuchadnezzar] will sack your mainland settlements.



..Ezek 26:8,9 He will demolish the walls and towers

..Ezek 26:10,11 His horses will enter Tyre's gates and kill some of the people.

Ezek 26:12 They will plunder the wealth and loot. They will break down your walls andthrow the rubble into the sea.

Ezek 26:13 I [God] will put an end to their songs.

«.Ezek 26:14 I [God] will make Tyre bare rock, a place to spread fishnets.

As a side note, the Septuagint preserved the pronouns correctly until verse 12. Thereafter, itused "he" where it should have used "they" two times and "I" [God] one time.

2. What was prophesied:

There are three parts to the prophecy: many nations (they), God (I), and Nebuchadnezzar

(he).

Many nations will come, loot Tyre, destroy Tyre's walls, and throw the rubble into the sea.

God will make Tyre a bare rock, a place to spread fishnets, and end their songs (Tyrianculture).

Nebuchadnezzar will come, sack the mainland city, and destroy the walls and towers, and

kill some of the people.

3. What was not prophesied:

It never mentions that Nebuchadnezzar will do anything to the island, or which nation Godwill use to make the island a place for spreading fishnets. It was the many nations "they" thatgot the plunder, while Nebuchadnezzar only got the mainland settlements.

4. What happened:

The Assyrians, prior to Ezekiel's prophecy, unsuccessfully tried to capture the mainland city

in 726/724 B.C. for five years. They tried again, and failed in 664 B.C.

Nebuchadnezzar King of Babylon besieged Tyre for 13 years from 586/585 to 573 B.C.

They successfully demolished the mainland city. However the Tyrians in Old Tyre moved to

the pre-existing New Tyre on the island (700-750 meters wide) across from the Mainland

city. The Tyrian fleet kept the Babylonians from attacking the island city.

Alexander the Macedonian captured the mainland city, and he used the rubble to build a200 foot (60 meter) wide causeway (artificial land-bridge) half a mile long (600-750 meters)

connecting to the island city, and after seven months, he captured the island city in 332 B.C.The Encyclopedia Britannica mentions that in capturing Tyre he used ships from many

nations: Sidon, Cyprus, Rhodes, Mallus, Soli, Lycia, and of course, Macedonia. Alexander'sarmy killed 8,000 people at first, 2,000 crucified later, and enslaved the remaining 30,000.



(The Anchor Bible Dictionary vol. 6 p.687 says 6,000 were killed at first, 2,000 crucifiedlater, 30,000 sold into slavery, and 15,000 rescued by the Sidonians.

See Encyclopedia of Bible Difficulties p.276-278 and The Bible Knowledge Commentary :

Old Testament p.1279 for more on the he/they showing the two-phase destruction. 7 35

Baffling Bible Questions Answered p.187 reminds us that the time element of the two-phase

was not specified. See also When Critics Ask p.287 for more info.

Q76: Why wasn't there a 40-year period in Egypt's history when the whole land was

devoid of people and animals, as prophesied in Ezekiel 29:11 -12? A: Ezekiel 29:11-12 only said the Egypt from Migdol to Aswan opposite Elephantine Island

and (bordering Cush) would be desolate for 40 years. Migdol is probably in the Nile Delta.

We do not have documents from Egypt from the period of the Babylonian conquest (568

B.C.) until after the Persians conquered Babylon in 539 B.C. Generally the Persians allowed

exiled peoples to return to their lands. See The Expositor¶s Bible Commentary vol.6 p.891-

892.

Q77: When Adam and Eve ate the forbidden fruit, why did God lie about what the

outcome would be (Genesis 2:17),( Some modern translations soften Yahweh's

statement that Adam would die "in that day," and so disguise the problem.) while the

serpent told the truth (Genesis 3:5,22)? A: When did the sentence and death process start? It started in that day, when they ate of the

forbidden fruit. By the way, orthodox Sunni Muslim theology also says that Ada m and Eve

did not die on that day, but their sin had long term effects on them and their children.

"What turned ye out from the Paradise was the sin of your father Adam." Sahih

Muslim 1:380 p.132

Original sin based on Adam, mentioning worshipping others besides Allah and

murder. Bukhari 4:551-552 p.347-348

Adam shared responsibility for every soul that is wrongfully killed. al-Tabari vol.1

p.315

Eve was originally intelligent, Allah made her stupid after the fall. al-Tabari vol.1

p.280,281

On the other hand, in heaven Adam argued with Moses that he was not to blame for

the fall of man, because God had foreordained. So in heaven Adam was blaming God!

Bukhari 8:611 p.399; 9:606 p.448-4499; Sahih Muslim 4:6411,6412 p.1396; Ibn-i- Majah 1:80 p.47-48; Abu Dawud 3:4684-4686 p.1317-1318

Adam disobeyed God and ate from the tree. Bukhari 6:236 p.199; al-Tabari vol.1

p.275

Adam¶s repentance was accepted though. Sunan Nasa¶i 2:1433 p.259



Q78: Why wasn't Lot condemned for giving his daughters to be abuse d by the men of

Sodom (Genesis 19:8 The Bible actually calls him righteous (2 Peter 2:7)!

A: Lot had lived in Sodom for a long time, and Lot probably knew there was no way the men

would want his daughters (who were already married to people from Sodom). Lot was

probably trying to stall them. However, that still does not justify his offer. I believe he was adesperate man then, and his feeling of desperation caused him to sin instead of trusting God

then. Lot was not sinless, but he in general lived a righteous life, and I believe he repented

and was forgiven of this.

The Bible does not condone Lot¶s action here; it merely records it. If the Bible were merely

"propaganda", you would expect it to record every positive thing and never mention anything

negative. However, the Bible is not propaganda, but God¶s true word, and it honestly talks

about people¶s lives, warts and all.

Q79: How can Christians say that the First Amendment guarantee of freedom of

religion is based on Judeo-Christian ethics when Deuteronomy 13:6-10 and 17:2-7 flatly

contradict this? A: You might have a valid point here. Deuteronomy 13:6-10 and 17:2-7 were under the

theocracy of the Old Testament. The New Testament shows no compulsion, but it is notaccurate to say this particular guarantee is a Judeo-Christian ethic.

Q80: How can being mauled by a bear possibly be a just punishment for name-calling (2

Kings 2:23-24)? Doesn't this contradict God's own edict of "an eye for an eye, and a

tooth for a tooth?" A: No, Elisha did not contradict God¶s edit, because Elisha did not kill anybody. It was God

who killed the gang of youths who confronted the prophet, not Elisha. God judges people¶s

hearts and gives life and kills as He wishes. Since you mentioned murder, you might wantlook at the story of al-Khidr/Khadr in Sura 18:63-82. He is the murderer who was wiser than

Moses, also mentioned in Bukhari 1:124 p.92 and Abu Dawud 3:4688-4690 p.1319.

Q81: Why do Moses, Ezra, Jesus, and Paul all disagree on marriage and divorce? Moses

allowed divorce, Jesus disallowed it and also allowed it, Paul allowed it, and Ezra

actually commanded it to appease God (Ezra 10). How is an honest Christian supposed

to know what to do in this area? A: Let me ask a very similar question in terms Muslims understand, and then answer the

question pertaining to the Bible. Why did Mohammed disagree with Mohammed on

temporary marriage (mu¶tah)? Mohammed allowed temporary marriage, meaning a marriage

that would automatically be ended after a particular time, such as a week, month, etc. ThenMohammed (in apparently a not very clear way), prohibited temporary marriage at Khaibar.

( Bukhari 5:527 p.372; 7:50,52 p.36,37; Ibn-i-Majah 3:1961,1963 p.180,182). This apparently

was not very clear because Shi¶ites and some Sunnis still believe temporary marriage is OK

today.

As for the Bible, why ask questions Jesus has already answered? Jesus forbade divorce

(except for grounds of infidelity), and Jesus said this was changed from the Old Testament.

The reason it was allowed in the Old Testament was because people¶s hearts were hard



(Matthew 19:7-9). Ezra commanded the Jewish men to divorce pagan women they werenever to have been married to in the first place. Simply put, when Jesus abrogates and adds

something to the Old Testament, honest Christians follow Jesus.

If divorce is a concern of yours, perhaps you could explain the following:

A man in Islam can divorce his wife for any reason. Bukhari 3:859 (p.534) says a man candivorce for "something unpleasant about his wife, such as old age or the like."

µUmar commanded his son µAbd Allah to divorce his wife, but he refused because he lovedher. So µUmar went to Mohammed, and Mohammed ordered him to divorce her. Abu Dawud

3:5119 p.1422

Mohammed ordered his adopted son Zaid to divorce Zainab, and then Mohammed marriedZainab. Zaid had no choice, because Mohammed recited Sura 33:36-38. Muslims believe the

Qur¶an is uncreated and inscribed on a tablet in heaven, but Sura 33:36-38 mentions Zaid byname saying he was not to have any choice in divorcing Zainab. Later Zainab bint Jahsh

"used to boast before the other wives of the Prophet and used to say, µAllah married me (to

the Prophet) in the Heavens.¶" Bukhari 9:517 p.382. Also 9:516,518 p.381-383.

µUmar said Mohammed divorced Hafsah (revocable divorce) and then took her back. Abu

Dawud 2:2276 p.619

A man must divorce his wife, if his father commands it. Ibn-i-Majah 3:2088-2089 p.259-260

Two Muslim men were good friends, so one man asked the other which wife he should

divorce so that the other could marry her. Bukhari 5:125 p.82

A man had a wife for many years, who bore him many children. He intended to "exchange

her" (Majah¶s choice of words) but he kept here when she agreed to give up her turn withhim. Ibn-i-Majah 3:1914 p.188.

Q82: Why does the Bible teach that the sky is a solid dome of transparent material with

water above it? (The water poured through the "windows of heaven" to cause Noah's

flood, and then presumably poured off the edge of the disk -shaped earth into the abyss.) A: It does not. Why do you falsely say the Bible is a solid dome of transparent material? At

the time of Noah¶s flood, (which you apparently deny though it is in the Qur¶an too), Godsomehow had a great deal of water down to the earth.

Q83: Why does the Bible teach that goats will have striped offspring if they see stripeswhen they drink at the watering trough, when this has been discredited by modern

genetics? A: The Bible teaches that God can do miracles. Even though Jacob the schemer thought this

would work naturally, God made Jacob prosperous supernaturally.



Q84: Why does the Bible record scientifically impossible events as factual? For

example, the creation narrative, Noah's deluge, a solid dome over the sky, Earth

supported by a foundation. Why has the evangelical church produced "Creation

Science" explanations that are complete nonsense? Why is it that none of the more

rational reconciliations of science and the Bible survives scrutiny?

A: First I will through this question back at Muslims, and then give an answer for bothMuslims and Christians. If you are a Muslim who believes Noah¶s flood was a myth, then

you should publicly acknowledge that the Qur¶an is not all true; it has myths too. The Qur¶an

specifically teaches Noah¶s deluge (not just Noah) in Suras 7:64; 10:71-73; 11:44; 19:58

(those carried with Noah); 21:76-77; 23:27; 26:105-120; 29:14 (950yrs); 54:9-17

The Qur¶an says the world was made in eight days (Sura 41:9-12) So how would a Muslim

answer that? Ignoring problem of sequence, they would answer that a day here is a long

period of time. Well, the Bible (not just Christians) says the same thing. All Christians do not

necessary believe the earth was only 1,000¶s of years old, especially since Psalm 90:4 and 2

Peter 3:8 show that a 1,000 years with the Lord is as a day or a watch in the night.

Q85: How can the doctrine of the Trinity possibly be true? Any attempt to make sense

of it leads to contradictions. If it is so important, why isn't it clearly taught in the Bible?

Why shouldn't an objective student of the doctrine conclude that it was created by the

church to hide biblical inconsistencies about the nature of Christ behind a shroud of

mystery?

A: The doctrine of the Trinity is true, and it is not contradictory.

God is Almighty, and nothing restricts God from having two, three, four, or five parts. It is

not respectful to ask how God has to be to fit our opinion; rather let¶s only ask, how has God

revealed Himself.

God has revealed Himself as one inseparable God, with three distinct parts. If something as

simple as a mountain can have three peaks and one base, how can we presupposed havingthree parts is impossible for the Almighty God.

There can be a "pluralness" to the One God without there being separate gods. Even in the

Qur¶an, when Allah speaks, the word "we" ( Nahnu), and "I" is used.

The Trinity has not perfect analogy to anything on earth, but that should not be unexpected.

Here is the clear Biblical evidence for the Trinity.

There is a threeness in Scripture: Matthew 28:19; 1 Peter 1:2; Ephesians 2:18; Revelation

4:8; 2 Corinthians 13:14; John 15:26.

There is only One God. Deuteronomy 4:35-39; 6:4; Isaiah 43: 10-2; 44:6,8; 45:5-6,14,21;

46:9; 1 Timothy 1:17;6:15-16.

Three distinct persons: Matthew 3:16-17; Luke 3:21-22; John 1:1;6:38;14:31;15:26; 16:28;

17:5; Acts 5:31-32; Mark 10:38-40



Jesus is God. John 1:3; Colossians 1:16-17; Hebrews 1:6-9; John 9:38; 2 Corinthians 11:3;John 20:28-29; Revelation 5:8-9;22:20

The Spirit is God. Romans 8:9-16; Luke 1:35; 1 John 4:12-16; 1 Corinthians 3:16 vs. 1

Corinthians 6:19; Acts 5:4;

They are equal in nature, glory, and honor. John 5:18; 5:23; Colossians 2:9-10; (Isaiah44:6; Revelation 1:8 vs. Revelation 1:17-18; 22:13)

They differ in role and rank. 1 Corinthians 11:3; 1 Corinthians 15:25-28; Matthew 12:18;Ephesians 1:3,17; John 1:33; 14:16,26,28; Romans 8:26-27.

By the way, Jesus being in the Trinity does not mean Jesus is one-third God, any more than

the height of a table is one-third of the table.

Q86: Why does the church say God did not create evil, when he himself claims that he

did in Isaiah 45:7, Lamentations 3:38, and Amos 3:6? (Despite the renderings in the

modern translations, this is the same Hebrew word translated "evil" in numerous other

passages. However, even with the modern renderings, how can the Christian explain

God¶s taking credit for "calamity" (NASB) or "woe" (NRSV) or "disaster" (NIV)?

A: First let me throw the question back at Muslims, and then I will give an answer that

satisfies Muslims, Christians, and Jews. Why would Mohammed let Muslims do "evil" in

Bukhari 3:56 p.35; 4:534 p.337; 6:454,456 p.426,427 -428. "We ran to kill it [a snake] but itescaped quickly. The Prophet said, µIt has escaped your evil and you too have escaped its

evil." If Allah created everything, why would He [allegedly] create the evil eye.

"The evil eye is a fact." Bukhari 7:636 p.427, 7:827 p.538.

The answer is in two parts:

a) The word evil, whether in Hebrew, Arabic, or modern languages has two meanings: moral

evil, and physical calamity. God in the Bible does not do moral evil, and Mohammed was not

letting Muslims do what he considered moral evil either. God did directly cause "physical

evil" of disaster, and the Muslims were trying to do "physical evil" to the snake.

b) Analogies to moral evil are a shadow, a hole, or other deficiency. These things do not haveindependent existence, but parasitic existence. A shadow does not have any weight, matter,

energy, or spirit, yet it still exists; plants die in the shadows. God created everything. Godcreated light, but a shadow parasitically exists where the light does not reach. God only

created the light, He did not directly create the darkness, but there is no other creator whocreated the darkness either. Darkness was created as a byproduct of creating the light, where

the light does not reach. God created everything good; He is not the author of evil. But there

was no other creator who created evil. Rather evil was created as a byproduct of creating the

good, where the good was blocked, twisted, and perverted.



Q87: Why does the church worship on Sunday, when the seventh day was established

forever? There is no biblical support for Sunday worship; it is a tradition of the

Catholic Church which Protestants accept. A: There is both Biblical support for freedom of days and the practice of meeting on Sunday

and the example of the early church.

Biblical support:

Hebrews 4:11 indicates we have a different and better rest today. We should devote every day

of the week to being in God¶s rest.

In Colossians 2:16, Paul chastises the Colossians for continuing to keep the Sabbath day.Romans 14:5 speaks, without disapproval, of Christians who take all days alike.

In 1 Corinthians 16:2 they stored up collections on Sunday.

Examples of the followers of the apostles

First Apology of Justin Martyr (wrote about 138-165 A.D.) chapter 68.

Letter of Barnabas (100 A.D.)

Ignatius disciple of John the Apostle (110-117 A.D.)

Apostolic Constitutions (2nd century)

Dionysius of Corinth (175 A.D.)

Melitio of Sardis (175 A.D.)

Clement of Alexandria (183-217 A.D.)

Bardesanes (180 A.D.)

Tertullian¶s Apologeticus (200 A.D.)

However, let me give a second, complementary answer that relates to Islam.

Why did Mohammed have Muslims worship on Friday and not the Sabbath. You cannot say

Mohammed was ignorant of this, of that it was the Jews and not God who started the

Sabbath, because Mohammed affirmed that Allah gave the Jews Saturday, the Christians

Sunday, and the Muslims Friday. Sunan Nasa¶i 2:1371 p.232. When you can answer howMuslims could claim to worship God though breaking the law of the Sabbath, then you can

understand how Christians can claim to worship God, since the law of the Sabbath wasabrogated.



Answers To Muslims Objections

Q1: Did Judas kiss Jesus the night of his arrest?

(a) Yes (Matthew 26:48-50). (b) No. Judas could not get close enough to Jesus to kisshim (John 18:3-12).

A: Yes, Judas kissed Jesus. John 18:3-12 does not say Judas did not kiss Jesus or could not

get close enough. Remember Jesus came forward in John 18:4

Q2: What did Jesus say about Peter¶s denial?

(a) "The cock will not crow till you have denied me three times" (John

13:38).

(b) "Before the cock crows twice you will deny me three times" (Mark

14:30). When the cock crowed once, the three denials were not yet complete

(see Mark 14:72). Therefore prediction (a) failed.

A: Matthew 26:34, Luke 22:34, and John 13:38 say that before the cock/rooster crowed (anunnamed number of times) Peter would deny Jesus 3 times. Mark 14:30 says that before the

cock crowed 2 times, Peter would deny Jesus 3 times.

1. The first denial is in Matthew 26:70, Mark 14:68, and Luke 22:57.

2. The second denial is in Matthew 26:72, Mark 14:70, and Luke 22:58

3. The third denial is in Matthew 26:74, Mark 14:71, and Luke 22:60.

The cock crowed a second time in Matthew 26:75, Mark 14:72, and Luke 22:60. Scripture

does not specify if the cock crowed both times after Peter denied the third time, or if the cock

crowed once earlier, and the second time after Peter's third denial. In any case, it does notreally matter.

Q3: Did Jesus bear his own cross? (a) Yes (John 19:17). (b) No (Matthew 27:31-32).

A: Yes, Jesus bore his own cross much of the way. However, Jesus could not bear it all the

way, so Simon of Cyrene bore it part of the way (Matthew 27:32; Mark 15:21; Luke 23:26)

Q4: Did Jesus die before the curtain of the temple was torn? (a) Yes (Matthew 27:50-51;

Mark 15:37-3. (b) No. After the curtain was torn, then Jesus crying with a loud voice,said, "Father, into thy hands I commit my spirit!" And having said this he

breathed his last (Luke 23:45-46).A: Matthew 27:50-51

Q5: Where was Jesus at the sixth hour on the day of the crucifixion? (a) On the cross

(Mark 15:23). (b) In Pilate¶s court (John 19:14).

A: Mark used the Jewish day which began at 6:00 am., so Jesus was on the cross at 12 p.m.

John, writing primarily to Gentile readers, used the Roman day in John 1:39; 4:6; 19:14),



which started at midnight, and Jesus was still in Pilate¶s court at 6:00 am. See Encyclopediaof Bible Difficulties p.363-364 and When Critics Ask p.376 for more info.

Q6: The gospels say that two thieves were crucified along with Jesus. Did both thievesmock Jesus? (a) Yes (Mark 15:32). (b) No. One of them mocked Jesus, the other

defended Jesus (Luke 23:43).A: Both thieves initially mocked Jesus. However, the thief on the right later defended him.

Q7: Did Jesus ascend to Paradise the same day of the crucifixion?

(a) Yes. He said to the thief who defended him, "Today you will be with me in Paradise"

(Luke 23:43).

(b) No. He said to Mary Magdalene two days later, "I have not yet ascended to the

Father" (John 20:17).

A: You have to understand Christian theology to answer this. Paradise and Heaven are

different places. Apocryphal literature shows that the audience Jesus spoke to, the Jews,

understood there to be two compartments in the afterlife: prison and paradise. Paradise, also

called Abraham¶s bosom in Luke 16:22, is where the godly people went prior to Jesus¶ timeuntil Jesus rose from the dead. After Jesus descended and declared victory over Satan, He

ascended to heaven leading captives [of death] in His train (Ephesians 4:8), and all the peoplewho followed God in times prior to Jesus went to Heaven with Jesus.

Q8: What was the exact wording on the cross?

(a) "This is Jesus the King of the Jews" (Matthew 27:37).

(b) "The King of the Jews" (Mark 15:26)

(c) "This is the King of the Jews" (Luke 23:3).

(d) "Jesus of Nazareth, the King of the Jews" (John 19:19).A: John 19:20 gives us the answer by saying the sign was written in three languages: Latin,

Hebrew, and Greek. The gospel writers said:

Matthew 27:37 says ³This is Jesus, the king of the Jews.

Mark 15:26 The king of the Jews.

Luke 23:38. This is the king of the Jews.

John 19:19 ³Jesus of Nazareth, the King of the Jews´

Ancient writers often paraphrased their words. What we have here is accurate, but not precise. So for example, if one writer said ³This is Jesus, the king of the Jews´ and another

said ³the king of the Jews´, both could be recording the same statement. The first writer

simply recorded more of the statement than the second one.



Papias, a disciple of John the Apostle, records that Matthew was originally written in thelanguage of the Hebrews (Aramaic?) and then translated into Greek. The other writers wrote

in Greek. Thus there is a translation between the sayings and what the Gospel writers wrote.

Regardless of the differences of the three signs, Mark seems to simply record what is

common among all of them.

Q9: Was Jesus crucified on the daytime before the Passover meal or the daytime after?

(a) After (Mark 14:12-17) [also Matthew 26:17].

(b) Before. Before the feast of the Passover (John 13:1) Judas went out at

night (John 13:30). The other disciples thought he was going out to buy

supplies to prepare for the Passover meal (John 13:29). When Jesus was

arrested, the Jews did not enter Pilate¶s judgment hall because they wanted

to stay clean to eat the Passover (John 18:28). When the judgment was

pronounced against Jesus, it was about the sixth hour on the day of

Preparation for the Passover (John 19:14).

A: It was before the Sabbath when the Passover was usually celebrated, but after the Last

Supper, which was a Passover meal a day early. Four points to the answer.

1. All four gospels agree Jesus was crucified on a Friday just before the real Passover started

(Matthew 27:62; Mark 15:42; Luke 23:%4; John 18:28).

2. The Last Supper was the day before Passover on Friday. It was actually a Passover meal

(Mark 15:16-17; Luke 22:15). However, either a) Jesus was celebrating the Passover

unusually early because He would be ³unavailable´ the next day, or b) many other Jews also

celebrated the Passover early so that there would be enough rooms for everyone. Either way,

Jesus ³eagerly desired to eat this Passover with you before I suffer.´ In Luke 22:15

3.The term ³the first day of the Feast of Unleavened Bread´ in Mark 14:12

The NIV Study Bible p.1522 says, ³´the first day of the Feast of Unleavened bead.´ Ordinarily

this would mean the 15th of Nisan, the day after Passover (see note on v.1). However, the

added phrase ³When it was customary to sacrifice the Passover lamb,´ makes it clear that the

14th of Nisan is meant because Passover lambs were killed on that day (Ex 12:6). The entire

eight-day celebration was sometimes referred to as the Feast of Unleavened Bread, and there

is evidence that the 14thof Nisan may have been loosely referred to as the ³First day of

Unleavened Bread.´

4. Here are the Bible verses that show Jesus was crucified on Friday.

Matthew 27:62 says it was the Day after Preparation Day [i.e. the Sabbath] when a guardwas assigned to the tomb. Matthew 28:1 says the day after that was ³after the Sabbath´.

Mark 15:42 and Luke 23:54 both say that when Jesus died it was the Preparation Day before

the Sabbath. In other words, it was before sundown Friday.

John 13:1 does not prove the point here. While I actually agree with the questioner that John

13:1 0+ hours before the Last Supper and 24+ hours before the Passover, someone else

could interpret John 13:1 to be 0+ hours before the Passover.



John 13:29-30 is not relevant here because it does not specify which feast, and the feat of unleavened bread lasted a week.

John 18:28 The night of Jesus arrest was the night before the Passover, because the Jews

wanted to stay ceremonially clean until the Passover. If they had gone in, they would have

considered themselves ceremonially unclean until the next nightfall. This means the arrest

had to be Thursday night, not Friday night or Wednesday night.

John 19:14 says the crucifixion was the day of preparation ( paraskeue) for the Passover. The

day of preparation for the Passover is sundown Thursday night to sundown Friday night.

i.e. includes most of Friday. As a side note, the Modern Greek word for Friday is

paraskeue.

See When Critics Ask p.375, Hard Sayings of the Bible p.448-449, and Encyclopedia of Bible Difficulties p.375 for more on why Jesus was crucified on a Friday.

Q10: Did Jesus pray to The Father to prevent the crucifixion?

(a) Yes. (Matthew 26:39; Mark 14:36; Luke 22:42).

(b) No. (John 12:27).

A: Jesus did not pray to stop the crucifixion. In the Garden of Gethsemane, Jesus prayed if it

be possible, let this cup pass from me; but let thy will, not mine be done. After praying

earnestly, Jesus realized the cup would not pass from Him, and as John 12:27 shows, Jesus

realized He came for this very hour.

Q11: In the gospels which say that Jesus prayed [if possible] to avoid the cross, how

many times did He move away from his disciples to pray?

(a) Three (Matthew 26:36-46 and Mark 14:32-42).

(b) One. No opening is left for another two times. (Luke 22:39-46).A: Jesus moved away to pray three times, and upon returning, Jesus found them sleeping all

three times as Matthew 26:36-46 and Mark 14:32-42 say. There is not problem with Luke, asit either records just the third time he prayed (and the third time they slept), or telescopes

them together, with either of the three times Jesus went out and the last time they slept.

Q12: Matthew and Mark agree that Jesus went away and prayed three times. What

were the words of the second prayer?

(a) Mark does not give the words but he says that the words were the same as the first

prayer (Mark 14:39).

(b) Matthew gives us the words, and we can see that they are not the same as in the first

(Matthew 26:42).A: While the gospel writers paraphrased and did not record every word, Mark is correct; thetwo times are the same in meaning.

First time praying:

Matthew 26:39 the first time says, ³My Father, if it is possible may this cup be taken from

me. Yet not as I will, but as you will.´



Mark 14:35-36 says, ³Going a little farther, he fell to the ground and prayed that if possiblethe hour might pass fro him, µAbba, Father¶, he said, µeverything is possible for you. Take

this cup from me. Yet not what I will, but what you will.¶´

Second time praying:

Matthew 26:42 ³My Father, if it is not possible for this cup to be taken away unless I drink it,may your will be done.´

Mark 14:39 says ³Once more he went away and prayed the same thing.´

One or more of the times praying:

Luke 22:42,44 says, ³Father, if you are willing, take this cup form me; yet not my will, but

yours be done.¶´ (44) And being in anguish, he prayed more earnestly,«´

Consider how long it would take to say one of these verses: perhaps 5 seconds. Do you reallythink Jesus withdrew a short distance, prayed for five seconds, and returned, to find all

disciples asleep. - obviously not. The Gospel writers wrote such that objective non-Muslim

readers would assume it was a summary of a longer period of time.

Muslim readers might assume differently, because for orthodox Muslims prayer is a very

different thing than in Christianity. Once after having a Bible study with a Muslim I prayed,

and at after the end of the prayer the Muslim looked at me strange. He said, ³It sounded likethat prayer was not written down.´ I said, ³of course not, I was praying what was on my heart

to God.´ He explained to me that they only pray prayers that are written down. Prayer to most(but not all) Muslims is a mechanical dictation of memorized prayers. The Muslim hadiths

have a lot to say about prayer. The Bukhari hadiths have 433 pages (815 hadiths) on prayer,Sahih Muslim has 263 pages (1505 hadiths) on prayer, and the Fiqh-us-Sunnah has 288 pages

on prayer. They have everything on the times, mechanics, body motions, when prayer isforbidden etc.. Yet no where in these dry pages is anything about praying to tell God how you

feel or what you desire.

Q13: What did the centurion say when Jesus dies?

(a) "Certainly this man was innocent" [or this man was a righteous man]. (Luke 23:47).

(b) "Truly this man was the Son of God" (Mark 15:39; Matthew 27:54).A: The centurion probably said both, and he could have said those two phrases in either

order. However I personally favor him saying Luke prior to Him realizing Jesus was the Son

of God.

Q14: When Jesus said "My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?" in whatlanguage did he speak?

(a) Hebrew: the words are "Eli, Eli . . . " (Matthew 27:46).

(b) Aramaic: the words are "Eloi, Eloi . . . " (Mark 15:34).

A: Mark, written in Greek, records the words in Aramaic, so it was probably Aramaic.

Matthew was originally written in Hebrew according to Papias. However, Matthew was

translated into Greek, but the Hebrew ³Eli, Eli«´ was left.



Q15: According to the gospels, what were the last words of Jesus before he died?

(a) "Father, into thy hands I commit my spirit!" (Luke 23:46).

(b) "It is finished" (John 19:30).

A: It is finished is the last words John recorded, though nothing precludes Him saying

something else between that and the final bowing of His head. Luke 23:46a says Jesus spoke

right before dying, so it probably is the last phrase. However, the language of both wouldallow for either way.

Note: the previous questions were nitpicky and insignificant. For the last three questions, it is

nice to finally see some meatier, significant ones.

Q16: Where is the justice in punishing us for Adam's sin? The Bible itself says that

children will not be punished for the parents' sins (Deuteronomy 24:16). Furthermore,

if God really created Adam not knowing either good or evil (Genesis 3:22), how could

such a harsh and enduring punishment as death for Adam and all his descendants

possibly be just? Our secular courts are more just than God when they show mercy on

people who cannot distinguish between right and wrong, such as children and thementally handicapped. And why isn't this doctrine of original sin found anywhere in the

Bible except in Paul's writings?A: This is really two questions in one: justice for Adam¶s descendants, and justice for Adam.

I. Justice for Adam¶s descendants

We are not punished for Adam¶s sin, but our own. We bear the consequences of Adam¶s sin,

including a sinful nature and death, but everyone dies for their own sin, not another¶s

(Ezekiel 18). By the way, even Mohammed in the hadiths and early Muslim history teaches

somewhat similar.

Original sin based on Adam, mentioning worshipping others besides Allah and murder.

Bukhari 4:551-552 p.347-348

Adam shared responsibility for every soul that is wrongfully killed. al-Tabari vol.1 p.315

The is an additional doctrine about women though: Eve was originally intelligent, Allah made

her stupid after the fall of Adam and Eve. al-Tabari vol.1 p.280,281

II. Justice for Adam

Adam did not know about being sinful, resisting the natural urge to do evil, or evil in general.

Adam and Eve were simply given a straightforward choice: obey or disobey. Likewise, withthe consequences of our disobedience, we cannot plead it was unfair because we did not

know all of the consequences if we disobeyed. God gives us choices, and we can obey or

disobey.



Q17: Where is the justice in punishing Jesus for our sins? If our courts of law were to

accept the punishment of someone else in the place of the criminal, we would not say

that justice has been done, but that injustice has been added to injustice. Would the

church have me believe that two wrongs make a right?

A: This question is really two questions: justice of Jesus, and justice for our disobedience.

Justice for Jesus: The question hits on the point precisely. There is no justice for Jesus inthis. Jesus did not deserve to die for our sins, He did not have to volunteer to die, and Jesus

was put to death by men unjustly, and had all the sins of the world placed on Him unjustly [to

Him]. Yet Jesus Himself chose this. Hebrews 12:2 says , ³Let us fix our eyes on Jesus, the

author and perfector of our faith, who for the joy set before him endured the cross, scorning

its shame, and sat down at the right hand of the throne of God.´ Being crucified was not fun

or a joy by any stretch of the imagination, but Jesus did that for the joyous outcome of saving

us.

Justice for our disobedience: Do you think God should call the guilty innocent, or say some

disobedience to Him does not matter? Imagine you live in a country where everyone else is a

different race. You are arrested for a crime you are actually guilty of, such as theft. You come

before a judge on the day that he hears all the theft cases. Every case before you, even thethieves who were caught red-handed, are freely pardoned by the judge. When your case

comes up, you have to pay a large fine and are thrown in jail for a long time. What would youthink: racism?, everybody else bribed the judge? Or the judge acted justly? - Probably not the

third choice. God is just, and He punishes sin justly. If God merely winked at the sins of some people, and threw other people into Hell for the same sins, how would that be just? For

a just God to punish some sins, He has to punish all sins. Here is a second example: ateenager was caught speeding, and went before the judge. The judge pronounced her guilty;

then the judge went out from behind the bench, took off his robes, took out his wallet, and

paid the fine. You see, the judge was the girl¶s father. The judge would not have been just to

call the guilty innocent or pardon her without paying the fine. Likewise, Jesus satisfied the

demands of God¶s justice by paying the fine for us. Jesus died for us, but because He was

sinlessly perfect, death had no hold on Him, and He rose on the third day.

Q18: How can sacrificing Jesus on behalf of the sinner atone for another's sin? Thiswould be like killing my child to reconcile for the misbehavior of my neighbor's child. I

have the capacity simply to forgive and forget without demanding compensation forsmall offenses. Why can't God do this? Does he simply want blood?

A: First an example, then God¶s precept on compensation, and finally the blood issue.

An Example: Try this some time. Invite two twins over to play with your child. Let¶s say the

twins break furniture and hurt your child, and they are equally guilty. Tell one twin they are

never invited in your house again, and tell the other one that is OK, they can keep on playing.Then see how much respect the twins, as well as your child have for your authority. Is this

what you ask God to do?

Compensation: No rebellion or disobedience is small against a being as great as God. Yes

God can forgive, but God set up ³the system´ where He taught there had to be compensationfor every sin. We can argue with God that He should have set up His universe more they way

we would like, but that is like an rat arguing with a homeowner that his house needs to be

more ³rodent-friendly´. God drilled this truth into the Jews, from the time of Moses till the



time of Christ. Islam has generally been totally blind to the foremost importance of all thesacrifices in the Old Testament. We have the Dead Sea scrolls and other manuscripts showing

this from before the time of Christ, and Christ confirmed the Torah before him. The Torahhas a tremendous amount of detail on the need for sacrifices and how to do them, so denying

this is separating between God¶s messengers. Anyway, Jesus volunteered for the ultimate

sacrifice, to satisfy the demands of justice for compensation for all sins against the Holy God.

Now, for those who accept the gift of Jesus¶ sacrifice, God does not demand compensation.

Blood: As Cain would ask, why blood, and not something else, like fruits and vegetables?

Why not money, or even chopping off hands? God said that a creature¶s life is in its blood

(Leviticus 17:11,14), and the bloody Old Testament sacrifices were a prelude to Christ¶s

great sacrifice. Beyond that, scripture does not say. Scripture is very clear though, that it had

to be blood. You might want to be disrespectful and tell God He should have told Moses and

the Israelites something else, but the fact is, the All-Knowing does not care for our

suggestions. We have to agree the evidence is overwhelming that God chose blood, and we

can either accept or reject His word.

Here are verses in the Torah showing it had to be blood, followed the Dead Sea Scroll

manuscripts from the time of Christ or before that have these verses.

Sacrificial Blood Verses Early Scroll Dates

Genesis 4:3-5 4QGen b

(=4Q2) 50-68 A.D. or possibly later

Exodus 12:7 4QpaleoGen-Exodl(=4Q11),

4QpaleoExodm

(=4Q22)

uncertain,

200-175 B.C.

Exodus 12:13,22 4QpaleoExodm

(=4Q22),

4QExodc (=4Q16)

200-175 B.C.,

uncertain

Exodus 12:23 4QExodc

(=4Q16) uncertain

Exodus 24:6, 8 4QpaleoGen-Exodl

(=4Q11) uncertainExodus 29:12, 16, 21 not preserved prior to Christ -

Exodus 29:20 4QpaleoExodm

(=4Q22) 200-175 B.C.

Exodus 30:10 4QpaleoExodm

(=4Q22) 200-175 B.C.

Leviticus 1:5 4QLevc (=4Q25) uncertain

Leviticus 1:11 4QLev b

(=4Q24);

pap4QLXXLevb

uncertain

Leviticus 1:15 4QLev b

(=4Q24); 4QExod-Levf

(+4Q17)

uncertain; ?

Leviticus 3:2,8 4QLeve

(=4Q26a)

Leviticus 3:13 pap4QLXXLev b; 4QLevc ?; uncertain

Leviticus 4:5 MasLeva

(Masada) before 73 A.D.Leviticus 4:6, 7 pap4QLXXLev

b; MasLev

a

(Masada)

?; before 73 A.D.

Leviticus 4:16, 17 not preserved prior to Christ -

Leviticus 4:18 pap4QLXXLev b

Leviticus 4:25 11QpaleoLeva


Leviticus 5:9 pap4QLXXLev b



Leviticus 6:30; 7:2, 14 not preserved prior to Christ -

Leviticus 8:15, 19, 23, 24,

30

not preserved prior to Christ -

Leviticus 9:9, 12 MasaLev b

(Masada) before 73 A.D.


Leviticus 14:17 4QpaleoLeva

Leviticus 14:25, 28, 51 4QLev-Numa (=4Q23) uncertain

Leviticus 14:52 11QpaleoLeva; 4QLev-Num

ac.200 B.C.; uncertain

Leviticus 16:14 not preserved prior to Christ -

Leviticus 16:15, 18, 19, 27 4QLev-Numa

(=4Q23) uncertain

Leviticus 17:11 QpaleoLeva; 4QLev

d(=4Q26)

Leviticus 17:6 4QLevd (=4Q26) uncertain

Leviticus 17:12, 13, 14 not preserved prior to Christ -

Numbers 18:17 not preserved prior to Christ -

Numbers 19:4 4QNum b

(=4Q27) 30 B.C. - 20 A.D.

Numbers 19:5 4QNum b

(=4Q27); 5/6HevNuma

(Nahal Hever)30 B.C. - 20 A.D.; probably1st century A.D.

Numbers 35:33 4QNum b (=4Q27) 30 B.C. - 20 A.D.

Deuteronomy 12:23, 27 not preserved prior to Christ -

Muslims generally think the Torah has been corrupted. But if even a few of these, from

before the time of Jesus, were confirmed by Jesus, then it is true that God requires blood for

sin.

All Bible quotes are from the NIV unless specified otherwise.