PATHOPHYSIOLOGY

PATHOPHYSIOLOGY

1. Which of the following classes of medications maximizes cardiac performance in clients with heart failure by increasing ventricular contractility?

a. Beta-adrenergic blockers

c. Diuretics

b. Calcium channel blockers

d. Inotropic agents

2. Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system produces which of the following responses?

a. Bradycardia

c. Hypotension

b. Tachycardia

d. Decreased myocardial contractility

3. Which of the following conditions is most closely associated with weight gain, nausea, and a decrease in urine output?

a. Angina pectoris

c. Left-sided heart failure

b. Cardiomyopathy

d. Right-sided heart failure

4. What is the most common cause of an abdominal aortic aneurysm?

a. Atherosclerosis

c. Hypertension

b. Diabetes mellitus

d. Syphilis

5. In which of the following areas is an abdominal aortic aneurysm most commonly located?

a. Distal to the iliac arteries

c. Adjacent to the aortic arch

b. Distal to the renal arteries

d. Proximal to the renal arteries

6. A pulsating abdominal mass usually indicates which of the following conditions?

a. Abdominal aortic aneurysm

c. Gastric distention

b. Enlarged spleen

d. Gastritis

7. What is the most common symptom in a client with abdominal aortic aneurysm?

a. Abdominal pain

c. Headache

b. Diaphoresis

d. Upper back pain

8. Which of the following symptoms usually signifies rapid expansion and impending rupture of an abdominal aortic aneurysm?

a. Abdominal pain

c. Angina

b. Absent pedal pulses

d. Lower back pain

9. What is the definitive test used to diagnose an abdominal aortic aneurysm?

a. Abdominal X-ray

c. Computed tomography (CT)scan

b. Arteriogram

d. Ultrasound

10. Which of the following complications is of greatest concern when caring for a preoperative abdominal aortic aneurysm client?

a. Hypertension

c. Cardiac arrhythmias

b. Aneurysm rupture

d. Diminished pedal pulses

11. Which of the following blood vessel layers may be damaged in a client with an aneurysm?

a. Externa

c. Media

b. Interna

d. Internal and media

12. When assessing a client for an abdominal aortic aneurysm, which area of the abdomen is most commonly palpated?

a. Right upper quadrant

b. Directly over the umbilicus

c. Middle lower abdomen to the left of the midline

d. Middle lower abdomen to the right of the midline

13. Which of the following conditions is linked to more than 50% of clients with abdominal aortic aneurysms?

a. Diabetes mellitus

c. Peripheral vascular disease

b. Hypertension

d. Syphilis

14. Which of the following sound sis distinctly heard on auscultation over the abdominal region of an abdominal aortic aneurysm client?

a. Bruit

c. Dullness

b. Crackles

d. Friction rubs

15. Which of the following groups of symptoms indicates a ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm?

a. Lower back pain, increased blood pressure, decreased red blood cell (RBC)

b. Severe lower back pain, decreased blood pressure, decreased RBC count, increased WBC count

c. Severe lower back pain, decreased blood pressure, decreased RBC count, decreased WBC count

d. Intermittent lower back pain, decrease blood pressure, decreased RBC count, increase WBC count

16. Which of the following complications of an abdominal aortic repair is indicated by detection of a hematoma in the perineal area?

a. Hernia

b. Stage 1 pressure ulcer

c. Retroperitoneal rupture at the repair site

d. Rapid expansion of the aneurysm

17. Which hereditary disease is most closely linked to aneurysm?

a. Cystic fibrosis

c. Marfans syndrome

b. Lupus erythematosus

d. Myocardial infarction

18. Which of the following treatments is the definitive one for a ruptured aneurysm?

a. Antihypertensive medication administration

b. Aortogram

c. Beta-adrenergic blocker administration

d. Surgical intervention

19. Which of the following heart muscle diseases is unrelated to other cardiovascular disease?

a. Cardiomyopathy

c. Myocardial infarction

b. Coronary artery disease

d. Pericardial effusion

20. Which of the following types of cardiomyopathy can be associated with childbirth?

a. Dilated

c. Myocarditis

b. Hypertrophic

d. Restrictive

21. Which of the following symptoms are considered signs of a fracture?

a. Tingling, coolness, loss of pulses

b. Loss of sensation, redness, coolness

c. Coolness, redness, new site of pain

d. Redness, warmth, pain at the site of injury

22. Which of the following areas would be included in a neurovascular assessment?

a. Orientation, movement, pulses, warmth

b. Capillary refill, movement, pulses, warmth

c. Orientation, papillary response, temperature, pulses

d. Respiratory pattern, orientation, pulses, temperature

23. Which of the following methods is the correct way to assess limb circumference?

a. Use a measuring tape

b. Visually compare limbs bilaterally

c. Check the clients medical history

d. Follow the standardized chart for limb circumference

24. If pulses arent palpable which of the following interventions should be performed first?

a. Check again in 1 hour

b. Alert the nurse in charge immediately

c. Verify the findings with Dopler ultrasonography

d. Alert the physician immediately

25. A client describes a foul from this cast. Which of the following responses or interventions would be the most appropriately?

a. Assess further because this may be a sign of infection

b. Teach him proper cast care, including hygiene measures

c. This is normal, especially when a cast is in place for a few weeks

d. Assess further because this may be a sign of neurovascular compromise.

26. To reduce the roughness of a cast, which of the following measures should be used?

a. Petal the edges

c. Break off the rough area

b. Elevate the limb

d. Distribute pressure evenly

27. Elevating a limb with a cast will prevent swelling. Which of the following actions best describes how this is done?

a. Place the limb with the cast close to the body

b. Place the limb with the cast at the level of the heart

c. Place the limb with the cast below the level of the heart

d. Place the limb with the cast above the level of the heart

28. A client asks why a cast cant get wet. Which of the following responses would be the most appropriate?

a. A wet cast can cause a foul odor

b. A wet cat will weaken or be destroyed

c. A wet cast is heavy and difficult to maneuver

d. Its all right to get the cast wet, just use a hair dryer to dry it off

29. A client comes to the emergency department complaining of dull, deep bone pain unrelated to movement. Which of the following statements is correct to help decide if the bone pain is caused by a fracture?

a. These are classic symptoms of a fracture

b. Fracture pain is sharp and related to movement

c. Fracture pain is sharp and unrelated to movement

d. Fracture pain is dull and deep related to movement

30. Which of the following fractures is classic for occurring from trauma?

a. Brachial and clavicle

c. Hemerus and clavicle

b. Brachial and humerus

d. Occipital and humerus

31. Which of the following characteristics applies to a closed fracture?

a. Extensive tissue damage

c. Same as for a compound fracture

b. Increased risk of infection

d. Intact skin over the fracture site

32. A client is put in traction before surgery. Which of the following reasons for the traction is correct?

a. Prevents skin breakdown

c. Helps the client become active

b. Aids in turning the client

d. Prevents trauma and overcomes muscle spasms

33. When the fracture line is straight across the bone, the fracture is known as which of the following types?

a. Linear

c. Oblique

b. Longtitudinal

d. Transverse

34. Which of the following fractures commonly occurs with such bone diseases as osteomalacia and Pagets disease?

a. Linear

c. Oblique

b. Longtitudinal

d. Transverse

35. Which of the following fractures is commonly seen in the upper extremities and is related to physical abuse?

a. Longtitudinal

c. Spiral

b. Oblique

d. Transverse

36. Which of the following mechanisms or conditions causes healing of a fracture?

a. Scar tissue

c. Necrotic tissue formation

b. Displacement

d. Formation of new bone tissue

37. Which of the following conditions is a serious complication of a femoral shaft fracture?

a. Constipation

c. Hemorrhage

b. Decreased urine output

d. Pain

38. Which of the following serious complications can occur with long bone fractures?

a. Bone emboli

c. Platelet emboli

b. Fat emboli

d. Serous emboli

39. Which of the following signs and symptoms can occur with fat emboli?

a. Tachypnea, tachycardia, shortness of breath, paresthesia

b. Paresthesia, bradypnea, bradycardia, petechial rash on chest and neck

c. Bradypnea, bradycardia, shortness of breath, petechial rah on chest and neck

d. Tahypnea, tachycardia, shortness of breath, petechial rash on chest and neck

40. Treatment of a fat embolus may include which of the following therapies?

a. Albuterol, oxygen, I.V. fluids steroids

b. Oxygen, I.V. fluids, steroids, antibiotics

c. Morphine, oxygen, I.V. fluids antibiotics

d. Theophylline, morphine, oxygen, I.V. fluids

41. Which of the following terms describes involuntary, jerking, rhythmic movements of the eyes?

a. Diplopia

c. Nystagmus

b. Exophthalmos

d. Increased protein levels

42. Which of the following nursing interventions takes priority for the client having a tonic-clonic seizure?

a. Maintaining a patent airway

b. Timing the duration of the seizure

c. Inserting the origin of seizure activity

d. Inserting a padded tongue blade to prevent the client from biting his tongue

43. A client recalls smelling an unpleasant odor before his seizure. Which of the following terms describes to this?

a. Atonic seizure

c. Icterus

b. Aura

d. Postictal experience

44. A client with new-onset seizures of unknown cause is started on phenytoin (Dilantin), 750 mg I.V. now and 100 mg P.O. t.i.d. Which of the following statements best describes the purpose of the loading dose?

a. To ensure that the drug reaches the cerebrospinal fluid

b. To prevent the need for surgical excision of the epileptic focus

c. To reduce secretions in case another seizure occurs

d. To more quickly attain therapeutic levels

45. Which of the following adverse effects may occur during phenytoin (Dilantin) therapy?

a. Dry mouth

c. Somnolence

b. Furry tongue

d. Tachycardia

46. Which of the following symptoms may occur with a phenytoin level of 32 mg/dl?

a. Ataxia and confusion

c. tonic-clonic seizure

b. Sodium depletion

d. Urinary incontinence

47. Which of the following precautions must be taken when giving phenytoin (Dilantin) to a client with a nasogastric (NG) tube for feeding?

a. Check the phenytoin level after giving the drug to check for toxicity

b. Elevate the head of the bed before giving phenytoin through the NG tube

c. Give phenytoin 1 hour before or 2 hours after NG tube feedings to ensure absorption

d. Verify proper placement of the NG tube by placing the end of the tube in a glass of water and observing for bubbles

48. Whats the most important concern for clients who drink alcohol while taking phenytoin?

a. Alcohol increases phenytoin activity

b. Alcohol raises the seizure threshold

c. Alcohol impairs judgment and coordination

d. Alcohol decreases the effectives of phenytoin

49. When assessing vital signs in a client with a seizure disorder, which of the following measures is used?

a. Checking for a pulse deficit

b. Checking for pulse paradoxus

c. Taking an axillary instead of oral temperature

d. Checking the blood pressure for an auscultatory gap

50. A client in status epilepticus arrives at the emergency department. The family is interviewed to determine the cause of this problem. Which of the following events may have predisposed the client to this condition?

a. Abruptly stopping anticonvulsant therapy

b. Airplane travel

c. Exposure to sunlight

d. Recent upper respiratory infection

51. A client comes to the emergency department after hitting head in a motor vehicle accident. Hes alert and oriented. Which of the following nursing interventions should be done first?

a. Assess full range of motion (ROM) to determine the extent of injuries

b. Call for an immediate chest X-ray

c. Immobilize the clients head and neck

d. Open the airway with the head-tilt- chin-lift maneuver

52. A client with a C6 spinal injury would most likely have which of the following symptoms?

a. Aphasia

c. Paraplegia

b. Hemiparesis

d. Tetraplegia

53. A client with damage to the hippocampus, amygdale, and fornix would have dysfunction in which of the following areas?

a. Emotions

c. Muscle synergy

b. Higher thought levels

d. Vital functions

54. A 30-year-old client is admitted to the progressive care unit with a C5 fracture from a motorcycle accident. Which of the following assessments would take priority?

a. Bladder distention

c. Pulse oximetry readings

b. Neurologic deficit

d. The clients feelings about the injury

55. While in the emergency department, a client with C8 quadriplegia develops a blood pressure of 80/44 mm Hg, pulse of 48 beats/ minute and respiratory rate of 18 breaths/minute. The nurse suspects which of the following conditions?

a. Autonomic dysreflexia

c. Neurogenic shock

b. Hemorrhagic shock

d. Pulmonary embolism

56. A client is admitted with a spinal cord injury at the level of T12. He has limited movement of his upper extremities. Which of the following medications would be used to control edema of the spinal cord?

a. Acetazolamide (Diamox)

c. Methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol)

b. Furosemide (Lasix)

d. Sodium bicarbonate

57. A 22-year-old client with quadriplegia is apprehensive and flushed, with a blood pressure of 210/100 mm Hg and heart rate of 50 beats/minute. Which of the following nursing interventions should be done first?

a. Place the client flat in bed

b. Assess patency of the indwelling urinary catheter

c. Give one sublingual nitroglycerin tablet

d. Raise the head of the bed immediately to 90 degrees

58. A client with paraplegia from a T10 injury is getting ready to transfer to a rehabilitation hospital. When a nurse offers to assist him, the client throws his suitcase on the floor and says, You dont want to help me Which of the following responses would be the most appropriate for the nurse to give?

a. You know I want to help you, I offered

b. Ill pick these things up for you and come back later

c. You seem angry today. Going to rehab may be scary

d. When you get to rehab, they wont let you behave like a spoiled brat

59. A client with a cervical spine injury has Garnder-Wells tongs inserted for hwihc of the following reasons?

a. To hasten wound healing

b. To immobilize the surgical spine

c. To prevent autonomic dysreflexia

d. To hold bony fragments of the skull together

60. When a client with a halo vest is discharged from the hospital, which of the following instructions should the nurse give the client and family?

a. Dont use the wheelchair while the halo vest in place

b. Clean the pin sites with povidone-iodine and apply water-soluble lubricant

c. Keep the wrench that opens the vest attached to the client at all times

d. Perform range-of-motion exercises to the neck and shoulders four times daily

61. Which of the following factors may place a surgical client at risk for urinary retention?

a. Dehydration

c. Duration of surgery

b. History of smoking

d. Anticholinergic medication before surgery

62. Which type of catheter is generally used for the client with urine retention?

a. Coude

c. Straight

b. Indwelling urinary

d. Three-way

63. An 80-year old reports urine retention. Which of the following factors may contribute to this clients problems?

a. Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)

c. Diet

b. Diabetes

d. Hypertension

64. Serum creatinine levels provide the most accurate picture of renal function for which of the following reasons?

a. Serum creatinine is rapidly reabsorbed by the renal tubules

b. A slow urine flow through the kidneys increases creatinine level

c. Serum creatinine levels indicate a decrease in glomerular filtration

d. Serum creatinine levels are related to the rate of urine flow through the kidneys

65. A urologic client undergoes excretory urography to evaluate which of the following areas?

a. Kidney function

c. Abnormalities of the lower urinary tract

b. Kidneys, ureters, and bladderd. Abnormalities of the upper urinary tract

66. A client is injected with radiographic contrast medium and immediately shows signs of dyspnea, flushing, and pruritus. Which of the following interventions should take priority?

a. Check vital signs

c. Apply a cold pack to the I.V. site

b. Make sure the airway is patent d. Call the physician

67. Which of the following instructions is given to clients with chronic pyelonephritis?

a. Stay on bed rest for up to 2 weeks

b. Use analgesia on a regular basis for up to 6 months

c. Have a urine culture every 2 weeks for up to 6 months

d. You may antibiotic treatment for several weeks or months

68. Which of the following factors causes the nausea associated with renal failure?

a. Oliguria

c. Electrolyte imbalance

b. Gastric ulcers

d. Accumulation of metabolic wastes

69. Which of the following clients is at greatest risk for developing acute renal failure?

a. A dialysis client who gets influenza

b. A teenager who has an appendectomy

c. A pregnant woman who has a fractured femur

d. A client with diabetes who has a heart catheterization

70. Which of the following interventions would be done for a client with urinary calculus?

a. Save any calculi larger than 0.25 cm

b. Strain the urine, limit oral fluids, give pain medications

c. Encourage fluid intake, strain the urine, give pain medications

d. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter, check intake and output, give pain medications

71. A client has passed a renal calculus. The nurse sends the specimen to the laboratory so it can be analyzed for which of the following factors?

a. Antibodies

c. Composition of calculus

b. Type of infection

d. Size and number of calculi

72. Which of the following symptoms indicate acute rejection of a transplanted kidney?

a. Edema, nausea

c. Weight gain, pain at graft site

b. Fever, anorexia

d. Increased white blood cell count, pain with voiding

73. Adverse reactions of prednisone therapy include which of the following conditions?

a. Acne and bleeding gums

b. Sodium retention and constipation

c. Mood swings and increased temperature

d. Increased blood glucose levels and decreased wound healing

74. The nurse suspects that a client with polyuria is experiencing water diuresis. Which laboratory value suggests water diuresis?

a. High urine specific gravity

c. Normal to low urine specific gravity

b. High urine osmolarity

d. Elevated urine pH

75. A client is diagnosed with prostate cancer. Which test is used to monitor progression of this disease?

a. Serum creatinine

c. Prostate specific antigen (PSA)

b. Complete blood count (CBC)d. Serum potassium

76. A client presents with a possible urinary tract infection. Which of the following should the nurse assess first?

a. Urine clarity

c. Urine acetone

b. Urine specific gravity

d. Urine odor

77. Which medication is most likely to be prescribed for a client with gonorrhea?

a. Penicillin (Penicillin G)

c. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)

b. Azithromycin (Zithromax)

d. Trichloroacetic acid

78. In a client with renal failure, which assessment findings may indicate hypocalcemia?

a. Headache

c. Increased blood coagulation

b. Serum calcium level of 5 mEq/Ld. Diarrhea

79. When teaching a client how to prevent recurrences of acute glomerulonephritis, which instruction should the nurse include?

a. Avoid physical activity

c. Seek early treatment for respiratory infection

b. Strain all urine

d. Monitor urine specific gravity every day

80. When providing discharge teaching for a client with uric acid calculi, the nurse should include an instruction to avoid which type of diet?

a. Low- calcium

c. High - oxalate

b. Low- oxalate

d. High purine

81. The thyroid gland produces which of the following groups of hormones?

A. Amylase, lipase and trypsin

B. Triiodothyronine (T3), thyroxine (T4) and calcitoninc

C. Glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and androgens

D. Vasopressin, oxytocin and thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)

82. Secretion of thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) by which of the following glands controls the rate at which thyroid hormone is released?

A. Adrenal gland

C. Pituitary gland

B. Parathyroid gland

D. Thyroid gland

83. Which of the following treatments can be used for hyperthyroidism?

A. Cholelithotomy

B. Irradiation of the thyroid

C. Administration of oral thyroid hormones

D. Whipple procedure

84. Which of the following groups of symptoms of hyperthyroidism is most commonly found in elderly clients?

A. Depression, apathy and weight loss

B. Palpitations, irritability and heat intolerance

C. Cold intolerance, weight gain, and thinning hair

D. Numbness, tingling, and cramping of extremities

85. Which of the following forms of severe hyperthyroidism is life threatening and produces high fever extreme tachycardia and altered mental status?

A. Hepatic coma

B. Thyroid storm

C. Myxedema coma

D. Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS)

86. Hyperthyroidism is commonly known as which of the following disorders?

A. Addisons disease

C. Cushings syndrome

B. Buergers disease

D. Graves disease

87. Excessive output of thyroid hormone from abnormal stimulation of the thyroid gland is the etiology of which condition?

A. Hyperparathyroidism

C. Hyperthyroidism

B. Hypoparathyroidism

D. Hypothyroidism

88. A client presents with flushes skin, bulging eyes, and perspiration, and states that he has been irritable and having palpitations. This client is presenting with symptoms of which disorder?

A. Hyperthyroidism

C. Pancreatitis

B. Myocardial infarction (IM)

D. Type 1 diabetes mellitus

89. Which of the following hormones is secreted by the anterior pituitary gland?

A. Corticotrophin

C. Cortisol

B. Antiduretic hormone

D. Oxytocin

90. A client is brought into the emergency department with a brain stem contusion. Two days after admission, the client has a large amount of urine and a serum sodium level of 155 mEq/dl. Which of the following conditions may be developing?

A. Myxedema coma C. Type 1 diabetes mellitus

B. Diabetes insipidus

D. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion

91. Which of the following conditions could be diagnosed in a client with serum ketones and a serum glucose level above 300 mg/dl?

A. Diabetes insipidus

C. Hypoglycemia

B. Diabetic ketoacidosis

D. Somogyi phenomenon

92. Objectives for treating diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) include administration of which of the following treatments?

A. Glucagon

C. Glucocorticoids

B. Blood products

D. Insulin and I.V. fluids

93. Which of the following methods of insulin administration would be used in the initial treatment of hyperglycemia in a client with diabetic ketoacidosis?

A. Subcutaneous

C. I.V. bolus only

B. Intramuscular

D. I.V. bolus, followed by continuous infusion

94. Which of the following causes of hyperosmolar hyperglycemia nonketotic syndrome (HHNS) is most common?

A. Insulin overdose

B. Removal of the adrenal gland

C. Undiagnosed, untreated hyperpituitarism

D. Undiagnosed, untreated diabetes mellitus

95. What would be the diagnosis for a client presenting with a temperature of 103F (39.4C), hypotension, dry mucous membranes and a body glucose level of 590 mg/dl?

A. Diabetes mellitus

C. Diabetic ketoacidosis

B. Diabetes insipidus

D. Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome

96. Which of the following conditions is characterized by osteopenia and renal calculi?

A. Hyperparathyroidism

C. Hypopituitarism

B. Hypoparathyroidism

D. Hypothyroidism

97. Renal calculus formation in clients with hyperparathyroidism is caused by an excess of which of the following electrolytes?

A. Calcium and magnesium

C. Potassium and magnesium

B. Calcium and phosphorus

D. Potassium and phosphorus

98. Which of the following laboratory results supports a diagnosis of primary hyperparathyroidism?

A. High parathyroidism hormone and high calcium levels

B. High magnesium and high thyroid hormone levels

C. Low parathyroid hormone and low potassium levels

D. Low thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and high phosphorus levels

99. Which of the following types of medications is contraindicated in the treatment of clients with hyperparathyroidism?

A. Acetaminophen

C. Potassium wasting diuretics

B. Aspirin

D. Thiazine diurectics

100. In a client with hyperparathyroidism which of the following calcium levels would be considered an acute hypercalcemic crisis?

A. 2 mg/dl

C. 10.5 mg/dl

B. 4 mg/dl

D. 15 mg/dl

BATTERY EXAM REVIEW IN CHN

Situation: The following questions pertain to nursing interventions for a child with diarrhea.

1. It is utilized in the extensive case management of diarrhea to reduce mortality rate in children?

a Oral dehydration solution

c. Proper waste disposal

b Oral rehydration therapy

d. Improved wearing practices

2. What is the primary objective of the CDD advocated by DOH?

a To reduce mortality from diarrhea

b Environmental sanitation

c Maternal and child health

d Promote breastfeeding

3. What is the primary prevention for CDD advocated by DOH that is effective and affordable?

a Fluid replacement

c. Oral dehydration therapy

b Breastfeeding

d. Measles immunization

4. Home made Oresol is composed of:

a Water, sugar and salt

c. Water and little sugar

b Electrolyte

d. Electrolytes and sugar

5. What type of immunoglobulin is passed to the baby during breastfeeding?

a Ig G

c. Ig A

b Ig M

d. Ig E

6. The lifespan of vaccine in a regional hospital usually lasts for how many months?a 6 months

c. 1 monthb 3 months

d. 5 days 7. City hospitals and District hospitals is in what level of the health care delivery system?a Tertiary

c. Primaryb Secondary

d. NOTA8. Rural Health units is in what level of the health care delivery system?a Tertiary

c. Primary

b Secondary

d. NOTA

9. What is the legal basis of primary health care in the Philippines?a LOI 949

c. LOI 959b LOI 646

d. LOI 64910. The following are some diarrhea-preventive interventions found to be both effective and affordable except:

a Breast feeding

c. Minimizing use of water

b Hand washing

d. Measles immunization

11. The nurse is assigned in a certain barrio where there is no Botika. What will you give to a dehydrated infant who is having diarrhea to prevent further dehydration?

a Give am every hour

c. Pounded guava leaves q 1hr

b Give cola to drink

d. Give milk as usual

12. It is the tool making use of public health bag to which the nurse can performed in her home visit with simplicity and skill :

a Home visit

c. Public Health Bagb Bag technique

d. NOTASituation: There are other important basic knowledge in the performance of our task as Community Health Nurse in relation to IMMUNIZATION, these include:

13. To ensure universal, adequate and regular supply of potent vaccines for implementing units the DOH has institutionalized a Vaccine Independence Initiative with the assistance of which international agency?

a WHO

c. UNICEF

b World Bank

d. Research Institute for Tropical Medicine (RITM)

14. The Philippines was declared polio free in what year?

a 2000

c. 2004

b 2002

d. 2006

15. The greatest protection of individuals from acquiring Hepatitis B infection that may develop into a chronic liver disease is:

a Save sex practice

c. Hepatitis B immunization

b Avoidance of alcohol

d. Proper nutrition

16. Mrs. De Vera is due to bring her baby back to the health center for the third dose of immunization three weeks from now but she came today with her baby and requested that her baby be immunized because they are going abroad and will return only to the country after 4 weeks. The nurse tells Mrs. De Vera that:

a It is alright for the third immunization to be delayed for a week anyway lengthening the interval between doses of vaccines leads to higher antibody levels

b It is good that she brought her baby for immunization because delaying the last dose will reduce its effectivity

c It is alright not to immunize her child today anyway they can always restart immunization to ensure complete protection from diphtheria, tetanus and pertusis once they are back

d The health center cannot give immunization that is not scheduled but they can always go to a private practitioner for immunization anytime

17. All of the following are phases of COPAR except a Pre entry phase

c. Organization and Building phase

b Entry phase

d. Ground work18. This vaccine content is derived from RNA recombinants:

a Tetanus toxoids

c. DPT

b Hepatitis B vaccines

d. Measles

19. All of the following are principles of Home visits excepta Should have a purpose b Should have acceptance of servicec Should have a thorough plan d Should use available resources20. This is the vaccine needed before a child reaches one (1) year in order form him/her to qualify as a fully immunized child.

a Measles

c. Hepatitis B

b DPT

d. BCG

21. Mrs. Arevalo brought her 6 month old baby Kyle to the clinic for immunization. She told the nurse that Kyle has already received BCG and a first dose of DPT when she was 8 weeks old. Mrs. Arevalo was not able to bring Kyle to the clinic for her next DPT immunization because they went to the province. She is asking the nurse if Kyle can still receive her DPT immunization. The nurses reply is that:

a They will have to start her DPT immunization all over again because the interval is more than 2 months already.

b Kyle will be given her 2nd dose of DPT and Mrs. Arevalo should bring her back to the clinic after four weeks to complete her DPT immunization

c Kyle will receive two injections of DPT today to make sure that the vaccine will take effect on her

d Kyle can no longer receive DPT immunization because she is more than five months

22. Which is not true of measles vaccine?

a It can be given at the same time as DPT

b It should be given at nine months because it provides higher protection than if it is given at 12 months

c It is given subcutaneously

d Its is alright to give Measles vaccine to a child with diarrhea and low grade fever

23. Which of the following dose of tetanus toxoid is given to the mother to protect her infant from neonatal tetanus and likewise provide 10 years protection for the mother?

a Tetanus toxoid 3

c. Tetanus toxoid 5

b Tetanus toxoid 2

d. Tetanus toxoid 4

24. The goal of the governments EPI program is to eliminate which diseases by year 2008:

a Poliomyelitis and tetanus

c. Poliomyelitis and rabies

b Tetanus and measles

d. Hepatitis B and poliomyelitis

25. Hepatitis vaccine is given subcutaneously a dose of 0.5 ml. It can be given as early as:

a Nine months

c. At birth

b Six months

d. School entrance

26. BCG provides protection from the following infections except:

a Leprosy

c. Meningitis

b Tuberculosis

d. Pneumonia

27. The vaccines most sensitive to heat are:

a DPT and Hepa B

c. OPV and measles

b BCG and TT

d. BCG and measles

28. The temperature of the refrigerator where vaccines are stored should be checked how many times a day?

a Two times a day, in the morning and afternoon before going home

b Three time a day, in the morning at 12 nn and at 5 pm

c Once a day as long as the refrigerator is not frequently opened to keep temperature inside it stable

d It is not needed to monitor to temperature because the refrigerators thermostat is maintained at the desired temperature

29. In Biostatistics in indicates the east by which a communicable disease can be transmitted from one host to another a Urban Rural indexb Crowding indexc Population densityd Swaroops index30. If the child spits the OPV vaccine administered, the nurse:

a Should ask the mother to return the child after two days to be given another dose

b Should give the child another dose immediately

c Should not give another dose because OPV Vaccine is absorbed by the glands in the tongue immediately after giving it

d Should ask the child if he swallowed the medication before giving another dose

31. The following two vaccines are easily damaged by heat but not destroyed by freezing:

a DPT and BCG

c. Tetanus toxoid and BCG

b BCG and Hepatitis B

d. Polio and measles vaccine

32. Kochs phenomenon is a side effect of a DPT

c. OPVb Hepa V

d. BCG33. The correct temperature to store vaccines in a refrigerator is:

a Between 2 deg C and +8 deg C

c. Between -8 deg C and 0 deg C

b Between -4 deg C and +8 deg C

d. Between -8 deg C and +4 deg C

34. You should see to it that measles vaccine is administered as follows:

a. 0.1 ml intradermally

c. 0.5 ml subcutaneously

b. 0.5 ml intramuscularly

d. two drops orally

35. What age group is targeted by the DOH health teams during immunization days?

a. 0-24 months

c. 0-12 months

b. 0-59 months

d. 1-5 year olds

36. In order for a children to be classified as Fully Immunized Child (FIC), he should have received the following immunizations before he reaches the age of one:

a. 3 doses DPT, single dose Measles, 5 doses TT, single dose BCG, 3 doses OPV, 3 doses Hepa B

b. Single dose BCG; 3 doses each of DPT, OPV, Measles Vaccine and Hepa B

c. Single dose BCG, 3 doses OPV, one dose Measles Vaccine, three doses Hepa B, 3 doses DPT

d. Three doses OPV, one dose BCG, 3 doses Measles Vaccine, three doses PT, single dose Hepa B

37. Measles is given subcutaneously on a dose of 0.5 ml. At what age is this done?

a. Nine months

c. 4 weeks to 6 weeks: DPT and OPV

b. At birth: BCG

d. 6 months

38. Lerie took of sister at San Lazaro Hospital. She was exposed to viral Hepatitis. Hence she was given an injection of gamma globulin by her physician. This is:

1. Natural immunity

2. Active immunity

3. Artificial immunity

4. Passive immunity

a 1 and 4

c. 1 and 2

b 2 and 3

d. 3 and 4

Situation: You are in-charge of the Rural Health Unit. For your immunization activities, you see to it that you have adequate supply of vaccines. This year, 300 infants are due for DPT and measles immunization.

39. Mrs. Sevilla asked the rural health midwife about the immunization schedule. The correct response of the midwife is that immunization is:

a Conducted once a month in the barangay health station usually at Wednesdays

b Conducted everyday in the barangay health center

c Conducted only when there are more than 100 children to be immunized

d All immunization is to be conducted at the health center and hospitals OPD starting 2008

40. The correct technique of preparing the measles vaccine is:

a Aspirate 2 ml of saline solution and empty the saline from the syringe into the vial containing the measles vaccine

b Always use 5 ml sterile syringe to withdraw diluent to be mixed with measles vaccine

c Thoroughly mix the diluent and vaccine by shaking it gently until the mixture is clear

d Wrap vials of reconstituted measles vaccine with aluminum foil

41. Which of the following is sensitive to freezing a DPT and Hepa- B

c. AMV and OPVb AMV and DPT

d. OPV and Hepa - B42. If measles is given at nine months, what is the percentage that measles can be prevented?

a 75%

b. 85%

c. 95%

d. 100%

43. How many doses should DPT be given with a interval of four weeks?

a 4

b. 3

c. 5

d. 6

44. If the woman has completed the 3 DPT when she was a child, she will just receivea 2 TT

c. 4 TTb 3 TT

d. 5 TT45. What is the causative agent of schistosomiasis?a Hansens bacillus

c. S. japonicumb T- pallidum

d. P. falcifarum 46. What is the vector for sleeping sickness?

a Crabs

c. A poecilusb Tsetse fly

d. A egypti47. Which PD provided the legal basis for the compulsory basic immunization for infants and children below eight (8) years of age?

a President proclamation no 6

c. PD No 996

b RA 7846

d. Presidential proclamation no 773

48. What is the EPI based on?

a Research studies on communicable diseases

b Scenario of the community affected

c Epidemiological situation

d Report of basic health service

49. The grandmother of a 3 year old asks to give immunization on another day because they are going on a vacation. What will you do?

a Give immunization anyway and tell her it is not possible to delay

b Tell her to bring the card to the center of the place where they are going to

c Instruct the grandmother to return the next day for immunization

d Tell her that it is alright if immunization is given after vacation

50. What is the immunization that they should have before reaching one year?

a Measles

c. OPV

b DPT

d. BCG

MICROBIOLOGY

1. What do you call the outside coat of protein possessed by viruses?

a. Cytopsid

c. Guaneri layer

b. Capsid

d. Mosaic bodies

2. All of the ff. are kinds of Shapes of viruses except:

a. Helical

c. Cylinder

b. Sphere

d. Diamond

3. Which of the following is the causative agent of rabies?

a. Formido Inexorabilis

c. Borrioleta

b. Legio Debilitans

d. Legio Erebea

4. Ricketsia Ricketsii causes:

a. Jail fever

c. Nine-mile fever

b. Tick fever

d. European typhus

5. Which of the following causes, psittacosis, lymphogranuloma venerum and trachoma?

a. Chlamydiae

c. Marbili

b. Ricketsiae

d. Coryne bacterium

6. Who is known as the Father of Bacteriology?

a. Leeuwenhoek

c. Edward Jenner

b. Pasteur

d. Ehrlich

7. Which bacteriologist discovered an antitoxin against diphtheria organism?

a. Walter Reed

c. Howard Florey

b. Elie Metchnikoff

d. Emil Von Behring

8. In pasteurization, milk is heated at exactly:

a. 100

c. 110

b. 145

d. 200

9. Who is known as the father of Bacteriological Techniques?

a. Joseph Lister

c. Robert Koch

b. Walter Reed

d. Edward Jenner

10. Which of the ff. discovered sulfanilamide?

a. Domagk

c. Ehrlich

b. Waksman

d. Reed

11. Which of the ff. is non-filterable?

a. Protozoan

c. Bacteria

b. Fungi

d. Virus

12. Protococcus, Nostoc and Anabaena are all types of:

a. Algae

c. Virus

b. Ricketsiae

d. Protozoan

13. It is an association of algae and fungi that is a primary source of food for reindeers and caribou?

Volvox

c. Lichens

Chlorophytes

d. Chlorella

14. What is the term for membrane bound organelles that hold the pigments in algae?

a. Plastids

c. Chlorosomes

b. Mesosomes

d. Centrioles

15. It is the tem used for the thread or filaments of the mycelium composed of cylindric shaped cells arranged end to end.

a. Hyphae

c. Blastomycerium

b. Chitin

d. Mucor

16. It is a plant parasite that attacks rye and other grains and produces the toxic substance ergot?

a. Claviceps purpura

c. Ryzophus

b. Saprolegnia

d. Mucor

17. Which of the ff. is employed by brewers in the production of malt, beverages, beer and ale?

a. Saccharomyces cerevisiae

c. Saccharomyces Alternaria

b. Saccharomyces ellipsaides

d. Saccharomyces Negrensis

18. Which of the ff. is used in the ripening process of blue cheeses?

a. Penicillium Notatum

c. Penicillium Camemberti

b. Penicillium Cheddarii

d. Penicillium Edamii

19. Which of the ff. is used in the fermentive action in sugar and fruit juices resulting to a far better tasting wine?

a. S. Cerevisiae

c. S. Alternaria

b. S. Ellipsoides

d. S. Negrensis

20. All of the ff. causes Malarai except:

a. P. Falcifarum

c. P. Anophelii

b. P. Vivax

d. P. Ovale

21. It is the technical term for acid-fast stain?

a. NIGROSIN STAIN

c. ZIEHL-NEILSEN STAIN

b. FEULGEN STAIN

d. GRAY METHOD

22. Which of the following retains it crystal violent dye color when a decolorizer is applied?

a. Gram Negative

c. All of the above

b. Gram Positive

d. None of the above

23. Which of the ff. exhibits a red color when a counter stain (Safranin) is applied?

a. Gram negative

c. All of the above

b. Gram positive

d. NOTA

24. Which of the ff. serves as a Mordant (a chemical that forms an insoluble complex with dyes (CV-1 Complex)

a. Iodine

c. Alcohol

b. Crystal violet

d. Safranin

25. It is a sterilization method which uses a cylindrical chamber which is closed during sterilization?

a. Autoclave

c. Object sterilization

b. Dry air oven

d. Steradian sterilization

26. Which of the ff. is not involved in the process of inoculation?

a. Pressing the bateria to the mediumc. Use of sterile inoculating needle

b. Adding a small quantity of liquidd. Non-exposure of culture to air

27. Fractional sterilization (used for materials that cannot be subjected to temp. above 100C) is the other term for:

a. Pasteurization

c. Autoclaving

b. Tyndallization

d. Arnold sterilization

28. It is the term for slow drying that kills more bacteria than quick drying?

a. Pasteurization

c. Dessication

b. Tyndallization

d. Autoclaving

29. Which of the ff. is described as ellipsoidal in shape?

a. Cocci

c. Spirilli

b. Bacilli

d. NOTA

30. All of the ff. are rod-shaped (bacilli) in form except:

a. Diptheriae

c. Neisseria

b. Anthracis

d. F. Fusoforme

31. It is the type of flagellation (bacteria) in which several flagella are on one pole?

a. Monotrichous

c. Amphitrichous

b. Lophotrichous

d. Pseudotrichous

32. The stracture called pili or fimbriae is found only in what type of bacteria?

a. Gram positive

c. Gram Neutral

b. Gram negative

d. NOTA

33. Tylers method in staining bacterial capsule uses:

a. Iodine

c. India ink

b. Safronine

d. Crystal Violet

34. Which membrane is the one responsible for high fevers during Gram (-) infections?

a. Teichoic Layer

c. Flagellates Layer

b. Slime Layer

d. Endotoxin Layer

35. What type of parasites grow only on living matter and completely dependent on the host?

a. Obligate

c. Dissimilative

b. Facultative

d. NOTA

36. What type of parasites can live on either living or dead organic matter?

a. Obligate

c. Dissimilative

b. Facultative

d. NOTA

37. It is the time required for one organism to divide into 2 or double?

a. Loyarithmic time

c. Generation time

b. Fragmentation time

d. Binary time

38. What type of bacteria obtains food from non living or decaying organic matter like dead leaves, trees or animals?

a. Facultative

c. Parasites

b. Obligate

d. Saprophytes

39. What type of bacteria grows at lower temperature (below 20C) and involved in spoilage of refrigerated food?

a. Neutrophiles

c. Mesophiles

b. Psychrophiles

d. Thermophiles

40. What type of bacteria grows best at very high temperature between 25C and 40 C and is considered as the largest group?

a. Neutrophiles

c. Mesophiles

b. Psychrophiles

d. Thermophiles

41. In the stages of bacterial growth, it is the initial phase characterized by increase in size but not in number.

a. Log phase

c. Lag phase

b. Stationary phase

d. Decline phase

42. In the stages of bacterial growth, it is the exponential logarithmic multiplication phase?

Log phase

c. Lag phase

Stationary phase

d. Decline phase

43. The protein portion of an enzyme is called:

Apoenzyme

c. Holoenzyme

Coenzyme

d. NOTA

44. It is a microbial interaction wherein two organisms produce a substance which neither can produce alone.

a. Antibiosis

c. Commensalism

b. Symbiosis

d. Synergism

45. It is a microbial interaction where one organism benefits while the other remains unaffected by the relationship.

a. Antibiotics

c. Commensalism

b. Symbiosis

d. Synergism

46. It is an antibody type characterized by attachment to bacteria (combine with certain substances in bacterial cells), thus paralyzing it and prepares it for ingestion by phagocytic cells.

a. Antitoxins

c. Opsonins

b. Agglutinins

d. Precipitins

47. It is an antibody type that causes bacteria to settle so that it can be easily filtered out in lymph nodes, spleen and other organs.

a. Antitoxins

c. Opsonins

b. Agglutinins

d. Precipitins

48. What disease is also known as galloping consumption?

a. Tuverculosis

c. Diphtheria

b. Influenza

d. Pneumonia

49. All of the ff. are causative agent of schistosomiasis except:

a. S. Mansoni

c. S. haematobium

b. S. japonicum

d. S. nilodini

50. In Schistosomiasis, eggs are carried to the exterior through the feces and hatch into ciliated larvae called:

a. Merozoites

c. Cercaria

b. Miracidium

d. NOTA

ANATOMY

1. Which of the following cell structure is capable of self-generated movement?

a. Endoplasmic

c. Cilia

b. Mitochondria

d. Golgi apparatus

2. Slender extension of the plasma membrane that increased the surface area for absorption

a. Mitochondria

c. Microfilaments

b. Microtubules

d. Microvili

3. The random movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of lower concentration is called

a. Diffusion

c. Facilitated

b. Exocytosis

d. Active transport

4. The centrosome contains

a. Endoplasmic reticulum

c. Centrioles

b. Cilia

d. Flagella

5. Within a cell, the flexible lattice supports organelles and is involved in movement is called the

a. Endoplasmic reticulum

c. Golgi appratus

b. Cytoskeleton

d. Spindle

6. The major bone at the posterior part of the base of the skull is the

a. Sphenoid

c. Temporal

b. Occipital

d. Lacrimal

7. Which of the following is not a component of the axial skeleton?

a. Sacrum

c. Sternum

b. Patella

d. Vertebra

8. A prominent ridge or border on the surface of a bone is a

a. Condyle

c. Head

b. Crest

d. Line

9. Unlike other vertebrae, thoracic vertebrae have

a. Facets for rib attachment

c. Tuberosity

b. Pedicles

d. Transverse processes

10. The hard palate is made up of the

a. Lacrimal bone

c. Zygomatic bone

b. Ethmoid bone

d. Maxillae and palatine bones

11. The period after a contraction when a muscle fiber cannot respond to a stimulus

a. Depolarization period

c. Refractory period

b. Isotonic period

d. Relaxation phase

12. Energy to move myosin heads during muscle contraction comes directly from

a. ATP

c. Glucose

b. DNA

d. Lactic

13. The ions that bind to the troponin complex during muscle contraction are:

a. Sodium ions

c. Magnesium ions

b. Potassium ions

d. ATPase

14. During muscle contraction, the

a. A bands shorten

c. Z lines shortens

b. I bands lengthen

d. A bands lengthen

15. The type of muscle contraction in which the muscle develops tension but does not change length

a. Trepan

c. Isotonic contraction

b. Isometric contraction

d. Titanic contraction

16. Which of the following is/ are not part of the peripheral nervous system?

a. Cranial nerves

c. Ganglia

b. Spinal nerves

d. Spinal cord

17. A progressive degeneration of myelin sheaths in neutrons of the brain and spinal cord is called

a. Myasthenia gravis

c. Parkinsons disease

b. Multiple sclerosis

d. Huntingtons disease

18. The simplest neuronal circuit is the

a. Feedback circuit

c. Two-neuron circuit

b. Parallel circuit

d. Three-neuron circuit

19. The major functions of the spinal cord include

a. Linking the brain with most of the body

b. Its involvement in spinal reflex actions

c. Its autonomic motor functions

d. A and B

20. The spinal cord and the roots of its nerves are protected by

a. The flexible body vertebral column

b. The ligamentum flavum and the posterior longitudinal ligament

c. The spinal meninges

d. All of the above

21. Which of the following body parts have No pain receptors?

a. Lungs

c. Intestines

b. Brain

d. B and C

22. Which of the following help the body deal with changes in position and acceleration?

a. Utricle

c. Semicircular ducts

b. Saccute

d. All of the above

23. Which of the following is NOT a skeletal muscle of the eye?

a. Ciliary muscle

c. Lalteral rectus

b. Medial rectus

d. Superior oblique

24. Gustatory cells are

a. Bipolar neurons

c. Unipolar neurons

b. Multipolar neurons

d. Epithelial cells

25. Alkaloids excite gustatory hairs at the

a. Tip of the tongue

c. Circumvallate papillae

b. Back of the tongue

d. Fungiform papillae

26. The kidneys function in all of the following ways except

a. Acid base balance

c. By removing metabolic wastes

b. As endocrine organs

d. By removing excess carbon dioxide

27. A glomerulus is

a. The same as the renal corpuscle

b. The same as the uriniferous tubule

c. The same as the nephron

d. Capillaries

28. Approximately what percentage of the cardiac output goes to the kidneys?

a. 5 percent

c. 20 percent

b. 10 percent

d. 30 percent

29. Renin is a (n)

a. Enzyme

c. Polypeptide

b. Hormone

d. A and B

30. The rate of glomerular filtration depends on

a. The effective filtration pressure

b. The total surface area available for filtration

c. The capillary permeability

d. A and B

31. Which of the following is NOT a type of granulocyte?

a. Basophile

c. Neutrophil

b. Eosinophil

d. Polymorph

32. Erythrocytes are derived form bone marrow stem cells called

a. Hemocytoblasts

c. Promyelocytes

b. Megakaryoblasts

d. Granulocytes

33. A person with blood type A can safely receive

a. Type A blood

c. Type AB blood

b. Type O blood

d. A and B

34. The short life span of erythrocytes is due to their

a. Shape

b. Large surface area for gas diffusion

c. Lack of nucleus and many organelles such as mitochondria

d. Ability to divide by mitosis

35. Which would lead to increased erythropoiesis?

a. Chronic bleeding ulcer

b. Reduction in respiratory ventilation

c. Decreased level of physical activity

d. Reduced blood flow to the kidneys

36. The outermost layer of the heart is called the

a. Endocardium

c. Myocardium

b. Epicardium

d. Visceral pericardium

37. The part of the serous pericardium that lines the outer portion of the pericardial sac is called the

a. Endocardium

c. Myocardium

b. Epicardium

d. Visceral pericardium

38. Freshly oxygenated blood is first received by the

a. Right ventricle

c. Right atrium

b. Left ventricle

d. Left atrium

39. Which of the following valves allows deoxygenated blood to enter the pulmonary artery?

a. Atrioventricular

c. Pulmonary semilunar valve

b. Aortic semilunar

d. Tricuspid valve

40. Which of the following depolarizes next after the AV node?

a. Atrial myocardium

c. Bundle branches

b. Ventricular myocardium

d. AV bundle

41. In comparing a parallel artery and vein, you would find that

a. The artery wall is thicker

c. The artery lumen is smaller

b. The artery diameter is greater

d. The artery endothelium is thicker

42. The great arteries that emerge from the heart are often called

a. Major arteries

c. Trunks

b. Aortas

d. Arterioles

43. Which of the following tunicas contain connective tissue and smooth muscle cells?

a. Tunica intima

c. Tunica adventitia

b. Tunica media

d. A and B

44. Which type of capillary has walls made up of one continuous endothelial cells?

a. Sinusoids

c. Fenestrated

b. Continuous

d. Arteriole

45. Veins that do NOT carry deoxynated blood are

a. Pulmonary veins

c. Hypophyseal veins

b. Hepatic veins

d. A and B

46. The major hormone affecting the metabolic rate is

a. Thyroxine

c. Calcitonin

b. Parathormone

d. TSH

47. The release of hormones from the adenohypophysis is controlled by secretions of the

a. Adrenal medulla

c. Hypothalamus

b. Kidneys

d. Posterior pituitary

48. The part of the pituitary that contains secretory cells is the

a. Anterior lobe

c. Posterior lobe

b. Infundibulum

d. Hypothalamic-hypophyseal portal system

49. Epinephrine and norepinephrine are secreted by the

a. Adrenal cortex

c. Adrenal medulla

b. Pancreatic islets

d. Anterior pituitary

50. Which of the following is not secreted by the adenohypophysis?

a. ACTH

c. MSH

b. ADH

d. FSH

BASIC CONCEPTS IN NURSING1. During a neurosensory assessment, the nurse observes that a patient has a slightly dilated pupil in his right eye. The nurse understands that this can be explained by noncon0duction of the:

a. Second cranial nerve (optic)

c. Fourth cranial nerve (trochlear)

b. Third cranial nerve (oculomotor)d. Seventh cranial nerve (facial)

2. Immediately following a motor vehicle accident, a teenager is diagnosed as a quadriplegic. Shes placed on a tilt table for half an hour while the head of the table is elevated to a 30-degree angle. Each day the angle is increased, and the time spent on the table is also increased. The nurse explains to the patient that this procedure is intended to:

a. Improve circulation to the extremities

b. Prevent hypotension

c. Prevent loss of calcium from the bones

d. Prevent pressure sores

3. A 35-year-old male patient complaining of chronic progressive chorea and mental deterioration is admitted to the unit. The nurse recognizes that these characteristics indicate a disease that results in degeneration of the basal ganglia and cerebral cortex. The disease is called:

a. Guillain-Barre syndrome

c. Multiple sclerosis (MS)

b. Huntingtons disease

d. Myasthenia gravis

4. In caring for a patient recovering from an acute head injury, the nurse understands that the onset of seizures most likely will occur:

a. 6 months to 2 years after the head injury

b. 3 to 5 years after the head injury

c. Within the first 6 months after the head injury

d. Within the first weeks posttrauma

5. A patient is admitted to the rehabilitation unit with a diagnosis of quadriplegia. Planning nursing care for a quadriplegic patient is based on the nurses knowledge that quadriplegia results from injuries to what level of the spinal cord?

a. Cervical spine levels C1 to C4

c. Cervicothoracic spine levels C3 to R4

b. Cervical spine levels C1 to C5

d. Thoracolumbar spine levels T1 to T4

6. A patient is diagnosed with an upper motor neuron lesion. The nurse expects that the patient will experience which of the following conditions?

a. Excessive parasympathetic stimulation

b. Flaccid paralysid

c. Spastic paralysis

d. Temporary paralysis

7. The nurse understands that normal physiological changes in the eye associated with aging include:

a. Decrease elasticity of the lens and a slower papillary light reflex

b. Decreased strabismus and decreased tearing

c. Increased elasticity of the lens and slower papillary light reflex

d. Increased strabismus and decreased tearing

8. The nurse understands that physical changes associated with aging include:

a. Decreased physical strength and endurance

b. Increased muscular coordination

c. Increased tolerance to cold

d. A tendency to gain weight

9. Psychogenic pain is best defined as pain:

a. Due to a lesion in the central nervous system

b. Due to emotional factors without anatomic or physiologic explanation

c. Originating in the internal organs

d. Due to an amputation

10. When preparing a nursing plan of care for an elderly patient, the nurse understands that major fears of elderly people include:

a. Fear of acute illness

c. Fear of physical and economic dependency

b. Fear of economic dependency

d fear of physical dependency

Situation: Mike Hilario has suffered a cerebrovascular accident in the left hemisphere of his brain.

Questions 11 to 14 refer to this situation.

11. The nurse anticipates that Mr. Hilario will have paresis on the:

a. Four extremities of his body

c. Right side of his body

b. Left side of his body

d. Right-side of his body and the left side of his

Face

12. Mr. Hilario has difficulty speaking, but he can communicate through gestures. The term that best describes this condition is:

a. Acephalia

c. Akathisia

b. Accoucheur

d. Aphasia

13. As part of the long-term planning for Mr. Hilario, the nurse should:

a. Begin associating words with physical objects

b. Ask the patient questions and wait as long as it takes for him to verbally respond

c. Consult with the patients doctor concerning a speech therapy program

d. Help the patient accept this disability as permanent

14. The action most helpful in communicating with Mr. Hilario is:

a. Conversing in a rapid manner

b. Giving directions on a two-at-a-time basis

c. Speaking in a louder-than-usual tone of voice

d. Using gestures to accompany the spoken word

Situation: Richard Clipton is admitted to the hospital with a disease characterized by the rapid development of symmetrical weakness and lower motor neuron flaccid paralysis that ascends to the upper extremities.

Questions 15 to 17 refer to this situation.

15. The nurse recognizes that Mr. Cliptons symptoms are characteristics of which of the following diseases?

a. Guillain-Barre syndrome

c. Multiple sclerosis (MS)

b. Huntingtons disease

d. Myasthenia gravis

16. The nurse anticipates that the doctor will order which of the following treatments for Mr. Cliptons?

a. High-dose steroid therapy

b. I.V. wide-spectrum antibiotic therapy

c. The monitoring of respiratory vital capacity every 2 hours

d. Pyridostigmine bromide (Mestinon)

17. Mr. Clipton deteriorates, suffering respiratory failure and requiring transfer to the intensive care unit for continuing care. Based on her knowledge of the disease, the nurse knows which of the following facts about Mr. Cliptons prognosis?

a. Death usually occurs in 1 to 2 months

b. Prognosis is poor or variable and may progress rapidly or slowly

c. Recovery is complete and spontaneous in about 95% of all patients

d. The patient will most likely have severe residual lower extremity weakness requiring long-term supportive care

Situation: Junior Antonio is a 67 year old man whos admitted with a diagnosis of a brain aneurysm.

Questions 18 to 20 refer to this situation.

18. Based on the diagnosis of a brain aneurysm, the nurse anticipates which of the following orders from the doctor?

a. Ambulate the patient the length of the hallway three times a day.

b. Administer hydralazine, prednisone, and diazepam around the clock

c. Administer I.V. phenytoin and phenobarbitol

d. Administer subcutaneous terbutaline alternating with beta-agonist inhalers every 2 hours

19. The nurse understands that brain aneurysms are the result of:

a. An autoimmune process

b. Damage to the seventh cranial nerve (facial)

c. Dilation of a cerebral artery

d. Otitis media or tooth abscess

20. A diagnosis of a brain aneurysm was based on which of the following symptoms demonstrated by Mr. Antonio?

a. A headache, nuchal rigidity and a stiff back and legs

b. Insidious mental deterioration

c. Severe hypertension, bradycardia, and a pounding headache

d. Unilateral weakness or paralysis

Situation: Nelson Lajera is a 16 year old high school student admitted to the pediatric unit with a diagnosis of epilepsy.

Questions 21 to 24 refer to this situation.

21. The nurse anticipates immediate implementation of which intervention if Nelson experiences a seizure?

a. Administration of phenytoin (Dilantin) and diazepam (Valium) by mouth

b. Emergency intubation and mechanical ventilation

c. Ensuring side-lying positioning with padded side rails

d. Placement of a bite block and physical restraints

22. Almond is ordered to receive 300 mg of phenytoin (Dilantin) by mouth every evening. The nurses teaching plan for Almond includes meticulous oral hygiene because phenytoin:

a. May cause needing of the gums

b. May cause hypertrophy of the gums

c. May increase bacterial growth

d. May increase plaque, which increases cavities.

23. Almond tells the nurse that hes experiencing a generalized tingling sensation and is smelling roses. The nurse understands that Almond is probably experiencing:

a. Acute alcohol withdrawal

b. An acute cerebrovascular accident (CVA)

c. An aura

d. An olfactory hallucination.

24. The nurse sees that Nelson has glassy eyes, is starting, and is performing a chewing motion with his mouth. The nurse correctly assumes that hes experiencing a:

a. Generalized tonic-clonic seizure

c. Simple focal seizure

b. Partial complex seizure

d. Temporal lobe seizure

Situation: Theresa Felismino is a 17-year-old female whos admitted to the intensive care unit (ICU) with an acute spinal cord injury.

Questions 25 to 28 refer to this situation.

25. The nurse understands that the most common causes of spinal cord injury in patients of this age are:

a. Illnesses such as ankylosing spondylitis and rheumatoid arthritis

b. Motor vehicle accidents, falls, and diving accidents

c. Penetrating injuries such as gunshot wounds

d. Sports injuries

26. During the first 24 to 48 hours after the injury, the nurse anticipates orders from the doctor to administer:

a. Antihypertensive medications and diuretics

b. I.V. fluids and blood products

c. I.V. fluids and corticosteroids

d. I.V. mannitol

27. Theresa has been diagnosed with paraplegia. The nurse recognizes that one early problem of paraplegia is:

a. Diarrhea

c. Patient education

b. Learning to use mechanical aids

d. Relearning how to control ones bladder

28. Theresa develops spinal shock, which is manifested by which of the following signs and symptoms?

a. Hypertension and bradycardia

c. Ventricular arrhythmias and hypotension

b. Hypotension and tachycardia

d. Ventricular arrhythmias and tachypnea

Situation: Rod Gilbert is a 32 year old construction worker admitted to the emergency department with complete transaction of the spinal cord at the fifth thoracic level (TS).

Questions 29 to 33 refer to this situation.

29. The nurse anticipates which of the following assessment findings regarding Mr. Gilberts voluntary motor activity and sensation?

a. Complete loss of voluntary motor activity and sensation below the level of injury

b. Complete loss of voluntary motor activity below the level of injury, with variable sensory loss below the level of injury

c. Complete loss of voluntary motor activity on one side below the level of injury

d. Variable loss of voluntary motor activity and sensation below the level of injury.

30. Mr. Gilbert complains of a severe headache and is extremely anxious. The nurse checks his vital signs and finds him to have a heart rate of 55 beats/minute and a blood pressure of 250/108 mm Hg. The nurse should also assess for:

a. Fecal incontinence

c. Presence of bowel sounds

b. Presence of a Babinskis reflex

d. Urinary catheter patency

31. Three days later, Mr. Gilbert is informed that he will be a paraplegic. He asks the nurse if he will be able to have sexual intercourse. The most knowledgeable response to this question would be:

a. Its too early to make this assumption

b. No, I really dont think will ever have sexual intercourse again

c. This shouldnt be discussed this early in your recovery

d. You are a paraplegic and have lost motor control below your waist

32. Mr. Gilbert may develop the complication of urinary calculi. The major factor that contributes to this condition in paraplegia patients is:

a. Hypoparathyroidism

c. Increased intake of calcium

b. Inadequate renal function

d. Increased loss of calcium from the skeletal system33. When planning long-term care for Mr. Gilbert, the nurse should understand that rehabilitation:

a. Should begin as soon as the patient is admitted to the hospital

b. Should begin as soon as the patient is stabilized

c. Should be left up to the patient

d. Should not begin until the patient is transferred to a rehabilitation facility

Situation: Annette Mendador is a 72-year-old grandmother with a history of mild obesity; osteoporosis, and cataracts.

Questions 34 to 39 refer to this situation.

34. The nurse performs an assessment on Mrs. Mendador. The nurse should understand that which of the following symptoms is most characteristic of cataracts?

a. Decreased discrimination between green and blue

b. None most patients are asymptomatic

c. Painful, sudden bilateral vision loss

d. Painless, progressive vision loss in one eye or both eyes

35. Which of the following statements is true regarding the visual changes associated with cataracts?

a. Both eyes typically develop cataracts at the same rate

b. The loss of vision is experienced as a painless, gradual blurring

c. The patient is suddenly blind

d. The patient typically experiences a painful, sudden blurring of vision

36. Treatment of cataracts generally involves:

a. Application of lubricants to eyes four time a day

b. Application of miotic eyedrops twice a day

c. No treatment cataracts are a normal part of aging

d. Surgical removal of cataracts.

37. Mrs. Mendador is schedualed for outpatient surgical correction of her cataracts. Discharge teaching on this patient should be based on the nurse knowledge that:

a. Cataracts are usually removed with the patient receiving general anesthesia

b. Cataract surgery typically involves a 2-to 3-day hospital stay

c. Surgery can restore about 75% of vision loss by removing the cataract.

d. Surgery can restore about 95% of vision loss by removing the cataract.

38. The nurse should include which of the following instructions in Mrs. Mendadors discharge teaching?

a. Bed rest for 1 week

b. Limited alcohol and nicotine consumption

c. No behavior modifications are necessary

d. No bleeding, straining, lifting, or coughing.

39. Which of the following choices are complications of cataract surgery?

a. Intraocular infarction and uveitisc. Vitreous collapse and intraocular infection

b. Intraocular infection and uveitis

d. Vitreous prolapse and intraocular infarction

Situation: Anthony Balesteros is a 78-year-old retired mechanic whos admitted from home with severe vertigo and tinnitus. He has a history of prostatic hypertrophy and hard of hearing in his left ear.

Questions 40 to 42 refer to this situation.

40. The nurse expects which of the following characteristics to be true regarding normal physiologic changes to Mr. Ballesteros hearing?

a. Asymmetrical sensorineural hearing loss

b. Difficulty hearing high-frequency sounds symmetrically

c. Progressive hearing loss in the middle ear

d. Less distortion of sounds symmetrically

41. Mr. Ballesteros is displaying symptoms of:

a. Glaucoma

c. Mendels disease

b. Delirium

d. Menieres disease

42. Nursing interventions of Mr. Ballesteros should include:

a. Administration of narcotic agents during severe attacks

b. Encouragement of frequent independent activity

c. Encouragement of a high-sodium diet and intake of fluids

d. Frequent rest periods, with nursing assistance with activity

Situation: Margarita Saldom is a 75-year-old active female experiencing bout of urinary incontinence.

Questions 43 to 45 refer to this situation.

43. Mrs. Saldom may be increased risk of urinary incontinence because of:

a. Decreased bladder capacity

c. Diuretic use

b. A dilated urethra

d. Increased glomerular filtration rate

44. Mrs. Saldom is diagnosed with stress incontinence. Initial treatment of this bladder condition involves:

a. Abdominal wall exercises

c. Pelvic floor exercises (Kegel exercises)

b. Beta-adrenergic agonists

d. Temporary urinary catheter placement

45. Mrs. Saldoms incontinence places her at risk for which of the following problems?

a. Decreased mobility

c. Fecal incontinence

b. Falls

d. Social Isolation

Situation: Harold Espiritu is an 80-year-old man whos admitted with a diagnosis of dementia and malnutrition.

Questions 46 to 50 refer to this situation.

46. The doctor orders a series of laboratory tests to determine whether Mr. Espiritus dementia is treatable. The nurse understands that the most common cause of dementia in this patient population is:

a. Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)

b. Alzheimers disease

c. Brain tumors

d. Vascular disease

47. Mr. Espiritu is in the middle stage of dementia. Observable behaviors of this stage include:

a. Difficulty concentrating and learning new material

b. Easy distraction requiring constant supervision of patient

c. Getting lost easily in unfamiliar places

d. An inability to feed oneself and dependence on nonverbal communication.

48. The most likely treatment for Mr. Espiritu will include:

a. The implementation of specific diets and exercises

b. The treatment of symptoms as well as patient and family support

c. Treatment with lecithin and physostigmine

d. The use of physical restraints when the patient is left unsupervised

49. Nursing measures aimed at correcting Mr. Espiritus nutritional status include:

a. Providing excessive stimulation at mealtimes to stimulate hunger

b. Providing meals in calm surrounding without distractions

c. Providing meals with many choices

d. Strictly enforcing mealtimes

50. Measures to support Mr. Espiritus family should include:

a. Discouraging planning for the future because outcomes in this patient population are unpredictable

b. Encouraging planning for the future, including financial planning and nursing home application

c. Encouraging isolation and minimal patient activities

d. Encouraging as much patient stimulation and as many activities as possible

MATERNAL & CHILD NURSING1. Usually individual twins will grow appropriately and at the same rate as singletons until how many weeks gestation?

a. 16 to 18 weeks

c. 30 to 32 weeks

b. 18 to 22 weeks

d. 38 to 40 weeks

2. Which of the following classification applies to monozygotic twins for whom the cleavage of the fertilized ovum occurs more than 13 days after fertilization?

a. Conjoined twins

c. Diamniotic monochorionic twinsb. Diamniotic dichorionic twinsd. Monoamniotic monochorionic twins3. In twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome, the arterial circulation of one twin is in communication with the venous circulation of the other twin. One fetus is considered the donor twin and one becomes the recipient twin. Assessment of the recipient twin would most likely show which of the following conditions?

a. Anemia

c. Polycythemia

b. Oligohydramnios

d. Small fetus

4. A pregnant client who reports painless vaginal bleeding at 28 weeks gestation is diagnosed with placenta previa. The placental edge reaches the internal os. This type of placenta previa is known as which of the following types?

a. Low-lying placenta previa

c. Partial placenta previa

b. Marginal placenta previa

d. Total placenta previa

5. Expectant management of the client with a placenta previa includes which of the following procedures or treatments?

a. Stat culture and sensitivity

b. Antenatal steroids after 34 weeks gestation

c. Ultrasound examination every 2 to 3 weeks

d. Scheduled delivery of the fetus before fetal maturity in a hemodynamically stable mother

6. A client with painless vaginal bleeding has just been diagnosed as having a placenta previa. Which of the following procedures is usually performed to diagnose placenta previa?

a. Amniocentesis

b. Digital or speculum examination

c. External fetal monitoring

d. Ultrasound

7. Client with placenta previa are at increased risk for the placenta to form an abnormally firm attachment to the uterine wall, known as placenta accrete. Which of the following statements best describes this abnormal attachment?

a. The placenta invades the myometrium

b. The placenta covers the cervical os

c. The placenta penetrates the myometrium

d. The placenta attaches to the myometrium

8. Which of the following symptoms occurs with a hydatidiform mole?

a. Heavy-bright red bleeding every 21 days

b. Fetal cardiac motion after 6 weeks gestation

c. Benign tumors found in the smooth muscle of the uterus

d. Snowstorm pattern on ultrasound with no fetus or gestational sac

9. A 21-year-old client has just been diagnosed with having a hydatidiform mole. Which of the following factors is considered a risk factor for developing a hydatidiform mole?

a. Age in 20s or 30s

c. Primigravida

b. High socioeconomic status

d. Prior molar gestation

10. A 21-year-old client arrives at the emergency department with complaints of cramping abdominal pain and mild vaginal bleeding. Pelvic examination shows a left adnexal mass that is tender when palpated. Culdocentesis shows blood in the cul-de-sac. This client probably has which of the following conditions?

a. Abruption placentae

c. Hydatidiform mole

b. Ectopic pregnancy

d. Pelvic inflammatory disease

11. A client, 34 weeks pregnant, arrives at the emergency department with severe abdominal pain, uterine tenderness, and an increased uterine tone. The client denies vaginal bleeding. The external fetal monitor shows fetal distress with severe, variable decelerations. The client most likely has which of the following conditions?

a. Abruption placentae

c. Molar pregnancy

b. Ectopic pregnancy

d. Placenta previa

12. Before the placenta functions, the corpus luteum is the primary source for synthesis of which of the following hormonses?

a. Cortisol and thyroxine

b. Estrogen and progesterone

c. Luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle stimulating hormone

d. Thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3)

13. Which of the following changes in respiratory functioning during pregnancy is considered normal?

a. Increased tidal volume

c. Decreased inspiratory capacity

b. Increased expiratory volumed. Decreased oxygen consumption

14. Which of the following terms applies to the tiny, blanched, slightly raised end arterioles found on the face, neck, arms, and chest during pregnancy?

a. Epulis

c. Striae gravidarum

b. Linea nigra

d. Telangiectasias

15. Which of the following statement is true about dizygotic twins?

a. They occur most frequently in Asian women

b. Theres a decreased risk with increased parity

c. Theres an increased risk with increased maternal age

d. Theres no increased risk with the use of fertility drugs

16. Which of the following conditions is common in pregnant clients in the second trimester of pregnancy?

a. Mastitis

c. Physiologic anemia

b. Metabolic alkalosis

d. Respiratory acidosis

17. A 21-year-old client6 weeks pregnant, is diagnosed with hyperemesis gravidarum. This excessive vomiting during pregnancy will often result in which of the following conditions?

a. Bowel perforation

c. Miscarriage

b. Electrolyte imbalance

d. Pregnancy-induced hypertension

18. A client is being admitted to the antepartum unit for hypovolemia secondary to hyperemesis gravidarum. Which of the following factors predisposes a client to the development of this condition?

a. Trophoblastic disease

b. Maternal age older than 35 years

c. Malnourished or underweight clients

d. Low levels of human chorionic gonadotrophin (HCG)

19. Clients with gestational diabetes are usually managed by which of the following therapies?

a. Diet

c. Oral hypoglycemic drugs

b. Long-acting insulin

d. Oral hypoglycemic drugs and insulin

20. Magnesium sulfate is given to pregnant clients with preeclampsia to prevent which of the following conditions?

a. Hemorrhage

c. Hypomagnesemia

b. Hypertension

d. Seizures

21. A pregnant client has a negative contraction stress test (CST). Which of the following statements describes negative CST results?

a. Persistent late decelarations in fetal heartbeat occurred, with at least three contractions in a 10-minute window

b. Accelerations of fetal heartbeat occurred, with at least 15 beats/minute, lasting 15 to 30 seconds in a 20-minute period

c. Accelerationss of fetal heartbeat were absent or didnt increase by 15 beats/minute for 15 to 30 seconds in a 20 minute period

d. There was good fetal heart rate variability and no decelerations from contraction in a 10 minute period in which there were three contractions.

22. A pregnant client with sickle cell anemia is at an increased risk for having a sickle cell crisis during pregnancy. Aggressive management of a sickle cell crisis includes which of the following measures?

a. Antihypertensive agents

c. I.V. fluids

b. Diuretic agents

d. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) for pain

23. Which of the following cardiac conditions is normal during pregnancy?

a. Cardiac tamponade

c. Endocarditis

b. Heart failure

d. Systolic murmur

24. In a complete hydatidiform mole, which of the following karyotypes is typically found?

a. 46XX

c. 69XXX

b. 69XXY

d. 69XYY

25. Magnesium sulfate is given to clients with pregnancy induced hypertension to prevent seizure activity. Which of the following magnesium levels is therapeutic for clients with preeclampsia?

a. 4 to 7 mEq/L

c. 10 to 12 mEq/L

b. 8 to 10 mEq/L

d. Greater than 15 mEq/L

26. A client is receiving I.V. magnesium sulfate for severe preeclampsia. Which of the following adverse effects is associated with magnesium sulfate?

a. Anemia

c. Hyperreflexia

b. Decreased urine output

d. Increased respiratory rate

27. The antagonist for magnesium sulfate should be readily available to any client receiving I.V. magnesium. Which of the following drugs is the antidote for magnesium toxicity?

a. Calcium gluconate (Kalcinate)

b. Hydralazine (Apresoline)

c. Naloxone (Narcan)

d. Rh0 (D) immune globulin (RhoGAM)

28. A pregnant client is screened for tuberculosis during her first prenatal visit. An intradermal injection of purified protein derivative (PPD) of the tuberculin bacilli is given. The client is considered to have a positive test for which of the following results?

a. An indurated wheal under 10 mm in diameter appears in 6 to 12 hours

b. An indurated wheal over 10 mm in diameter appears in 48 to 72 hours

c. A flat circumcised are under 10 mm in diameter appears in 6 to 12 hours.

d. A flat circumcised area over 10 mm in diameter appears in 48 to 72 hours

29. A 23-year-old client who is 27 weeks pregnant arrives at her physicians office with complaints of fever, nausea, vomiting, malaise, unilateral flank pain and costovertebral angle tenderness. Which of the following diagnoses is the most likely?

a. Asymptomatic bacteriuria

c. Pyelonephritis

b. Bacterial vaginosis

d. Urinary tract infection (UTI)

30. Clients with which of the following conditions would be appropriate for a trial of labor after a prior cesarean delivery?

a. Complete placenta previa

c. Premature rupture of membranes

b. Invasive cervical cancer

d. Prior classical cesarean delivery

31. Rh isoimmunization in a pregnant client develops during which of the following conditions?

a. Rh-positive maternal blood crosses into fetal blood, stimulating fetal antibodies.

b. Rh-positive fetal blood crosses into maternal blood, stimulating maternal antibodies

c. Rh-negative fetal blood crosses into maternal blood, stimulating maternal antibodies.

d. Rh-negative maternal blood crosses into fetal blood, stimulating fetal antibodies

32. Which of the following doses of Rho (D) immune globulin (RhoGAM) is appropriate for a pregnant client at 28 weeks gestation?

a. 50 mcg in a sensitized client

b. 50 mcg in an unsensitized client

c. 300 mcg in a sensitized cleint

d. 300 mcg in an unsensitized client

33. A client hospitalized for premature labor tells the nurse shes having occasional contractions. Which of the following nursing interventions would be the most appropriate?

a. Teach the client the possible complications of premature birth

b. Tell the client to walk to see if she can get rid of the contractions

c. Encourage her to empty her bladder and drink plenty of fluids, and give I.V. fluids

d. Notify anesthesia for immediate epidural placement to relieve the pain associated with contractions

34. The phrase gravida 4, para 2 indicates which of the following prenatal histories?

a. A client has been pregnant four times and had two miscarriages

b. A client has been pregnant four times and had two live-born children

c. A client has been pregnant four times and had two cesarean deliveries

d. A client has been pregnant four times and had two spontaneous abortions

35. Which of the following factors would contribute to a high-risk pregnancy?

a. Blood type O positive

b. First pregnancy at age 33 years

c. History of allergy to honey bee pollen

d. History of insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus

36. Which of the following complications can be potentially life-threatening and can occur in a client receiving a tocolytic agent?

a. Diabetic ketoacidosis

c. Pulmonary edema

b. Hyperremesis gravidarum

d. Sickle cell anemia

37. Which of the following hormones would be administered for the stimulation of uterine contractions?

a. Estrogen

c. Oxytocin

b. Fetal cortisol

d. Progesterone

38. Which of the following answers best describes the stage of pregnancy in which maternal and fetal blood are exchanged?

a. Conception

b. 9 weeks gestation, when the fetal heart is well developed

c. 32 to 34 weeks gestation (third trim