all india prelims test series - 2020...2 aipts 2020 (s&t - 17) (e) answer key byju’s classes:...
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1 AIPTS 2020 (S&T - 17) (E) Answer Key Byju’s Classes: 9873643487
ALL INDIA PRELIMS TEST SERIES - 2020 SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY +
CURRENT AFFAIRS OF JANUARY 2020
ANSWER KEY
1. Ans: (d) Explanation: Global navigation satellite
system (GNSS) is a general term describing
any satellite constellation that provides
positioning, navigation, and timing (PNT)
services on a global or regional basis. While
GPS is the most prevalent GNSS, below are some of the other significant global and
regional navigation systems-
Pair 1 is correctly matched: BeiDou, or
BDS, is a regional GNSS owned and operated
by the People's Republic of China. China is currently expanding the system to provide
global coverage with 35 satellites by 2020.
BDS was previously called Compass.
Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: Galileo is a
global GNSS owned and operated by the
European Union. The EU declared the start of Galileo Initial Services in 2016 and plans to
complete the system of 24+ satellites by
2020.
Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: GLONASS
(Globalnaya Navigazionnaya Sputnikovaya Sistema, or Global Navigation Satellite
System) is a global GNSS owned and operated
by Russia. The fully operational system
consists of 24+ satellites.
Pair 4 is incorrectly matched: Quasi-Zenith
Satellite System (QZSS) is a regional GNSS owned by the Government of Japan and
operated by QZS System Service Inc. (QSS).
QZSS complements GPS to improve coverage
in East Asia and Oceania.
2. Ans: (b)
Explanation: Betelgeuse, a reddish star
that's one of the brightest in the night sky,
has been noticeably "fainting," or getting
dimmer. The approximately 8.5 million-year-old star, which is part of the Orion
constellation, has been one of the most
recognizable stars in the sky because of its
brightness and coloration. But the recent,
dramatic fading has prompted scientists to
suggest that the star might be entering a pre-supernova phase, dimming before it collapses
and "dies" in a fiery supernova explosion.
3. Ans: (a) Explanation:
Option (a) is incorrect: No methane hydrates
are found in marginal seas and shelf areas
because the pressure at the seafloor is not
sufficient to stabilize the hydrates. At the
bottom of the expansive ocean basins, scarcely any hydrates are found because
there is insufficient organic matter. Methane
hydrates occur mainly near the continental
margins because enough organic material is
deposited there, and the temperature and pressure conditions are favourable.
Option (b) is correct: Methane gas is primarily formed by microorganisms that live
in the deep sediment layers and slowly
convert organic substances to methane.
These organic materials are the remains of
plankton that lived in the ocean long ago, sank to the ocean floor, and were finally
incorporated into the sediments.
Option (c) is correct: The total global
amount of methane carbon bound up in these
hydrate deposits is about 100 to 500 times
more carbon than is released annually into the atmosphere by the burning of fossil fuels.
At low temperatures the methane hydrates on
the seafloor are stable, but if the water and
the sea floor become warmer, then the
hydrates can break down, because microorganisms then oxidize the resulting
methane gas to form the greenhouse gas
carbon dioxide (CO2). Methane hydrates have
recently become a topic of intense discussion
within the context of climate change.
Methane, which itself acts as a strong greenhouse gas, does not escape directly out
2 AIPTS 2020 (S&T - 17) (E) Answer Key Byju’s Classes: 9873643487
of the sea as methane because it is transformed into CO2. But the formation and
release of carbon dioxide are considerable
leading to further greenhouse effects.
Option (d) is correct: Methane hydrates are
only stable under pressures in excess of 35 bar and at low temperatures. The seafloor is
thus an ideal location for their formation: the
bottom waters of the oceans and the deep
seabed are almost uniformly cold, with
temperatures from 0 to 4 degrees Celsius. In
addition, below a water depth of about 350 metres, the pressure is sufficient to stabilize
the hydrates.
4. Ans: (c) Explanation: In October 2018, the Supreme
Court had ordered that green crackers would
be allowed to be sold, purchased and used. In
October, 2019, the central government
launched environment-friendly firecrackers.
These green firecrackers are developed by the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research
(CSIR) laboratories. Green crackers don't
contain banned chemicals such as lithium,
arsenic, barium and lead.
'Green' crackers have a small shell size compared to traditional crackers. They are
made with the reduction in the size of shell,
reduced usage of raw materials, dust
suppressants. Green crackers strictly do not
contain elements such as mercury, lithium,
arsenic, and lead, etc. They have permissible sound limits as well as low emission.
Statement 1 is correct: Green crackers are
designed to have 30% less particulate matter
pollution. They release water vapour and
don't allow the dust particles to rise. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Supreme
Court had banned barium nitrate, which is
an important raw material for producing
crackers. Thus, the CSIR-NEERI chose to use
potassium nitrate and zeolite instead.
Statement 3 is correct: Safe Water Releaser (SWAS), Safe Thermite Cracker (STAR) and
Safe Minimal Aluminium (SAFAL) are forms of
the green crackers.
5. Ans: (a) Explanation:
Option (a) is incorrect: Starlink is the name
of a satellite network that the private
spaceflight company SpaceX is developing to
provide low-cost internet to remote locations. It is not being developed by NASA.
Option (b) is correct: The U.S. Federal
Communications Commission (FCC) has
granted SpaceX permission to fly 12,000
satellites and perhaps as many as 30,000
eventually under the Starlink project. SpaceX
launched its first two Starlink test craft, named TinTinA and TinTinB, in 2018. Then,
the first 60 Starlink satellites were launched
on May 23, 2019, aboard a SpaceX Falcon 9
rocket.
Option (c) is correct: Currently satellite internet works using large spacecraft that
orbit 22,236 miles (35,786 km) above a
particular spot on the Earth, which is also
known as high earth or geosynchronous
orbit. However, the fleet of starlink satellites
is operating at lower altitudes of 340 miles (550 kilometers), which comes under low
earth orbit. It is also low enough to pull the
satellites down to Earth by atmospheric drag
in a few years so that they don't become
space junk once they die. Option (d) is correct: Usually to reach far
flung areas internet signals are sent through
physically laid down electric cables. However,
satellite internet works by beaming
information through the vacuum of space,
where it travels 47% faster than in fiber-optic cable. Moreover, from the satellites in high
earth orbit, there are generally significant
time delays in sending and receiving data,
but Starlink satellites being closer to earth
and networking together, will carry large amounts of information rapidly to any point
on Earth, even over the oceans and in
extremely hard-to-reach places. Thus, the
information sent through startlink (Satellite
internet) will travel faster than in fiber-optic
cable.
6. Ans: (b)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Neutrinos are tiny, neutral, elementary particles which
interact with matter via the weak force. These
neutrinos are most abundant in the universe
(they are not rare). The Sun, and all other
stars, produce neutrinos copiously due to
nuclear fusion and decay processes within their core. Neutrino has a very tiny mass. The
first results from the Karlsruhe Tritium
Neutrino (KATRIN) experiment in Germany
reveal that neutrinos weigh at most 1.1
electron volts (eV). Statement 2 is incorrect: Neutrinos are
notoriously difficult to detect in a laboratory
because of their extremely weak interaction
with matter. The background from cosmic
rays and natural radioactivity will make it
almost impossible to detect them on the surface of the Earth. This is the reason most
neutrino observatories are located deep inside
the Earth‘s surface.
3 AIPTS 2020 (S&T - 17) (E) Answer Key Byju’s Classes: 9873643487
Statement 3 is correct: One of the earliest laboratories created to detect neutrinos
underground in the world was located more
than 2000 m deep at the Kolar Gold Field
(KGF) mines in India. The first atmospheric
neutrinos were detected at this laboratory in 1965.
7. Ans: (b)
Explanation: The Super-efficient Equipment
and Appliance Deployment (SEAD) of Clean Energy Ministerial (CEM) is a voluntary
collaboration among governments to promote
use of energy efficient appliances worldwide.
At its core, SEAD is about governments
saving energy, turning knowledge into action, and advancing global markets to encompass
energy efficient products. CEM is a high-level
global forum to promote policies and
programs that advance clean energy
technology and to encourage the transition to
a global clean energy economy.
8. Ans: (b)
Explanation: Reflection of sound waves
involves bouncing back of the waves from the
surface of solid or liquid. Whereas, the bending of a sound wave owing to changes in
the wave‘s speed is called refraction.
Statement 1 is incorrect: A sonic boom is a
thunder-like noise a person on the ground
hears when an aircraft or other type of aerospace vehicle flies overhead faster than
the speed of sound, or ―supersonic.‖ Air
reacts like fluid to supersonic objects. As
those objects travel through the air,
molecules are pushed aside with great force
and this forms a shock wave, much like a boat creates a wake in water. This formation
of shock waves, result in Sonic Boom.
Statement 2 is correct: Working of a
stethoscope is based on reflection of sound.
In a stethoscope, the sound of the patient‘s heartbeat reaches the doctor‘s ear by multiple
reflections of sound through a long tube.
Statement 3 is correct: Reflection of sound
is used to measure the distance and speed of
underwater objects. This method is known as
SONAR.
9. Ans: (b)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: IRNSS/NavIC is an independent regional navigation satellite
system being developed by India. It is
designed to provide accurate position
information service to users in India as well
as the region extending up to 1500 km from
its boundary, which is its primary service area.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The IRNSS System
is expected to provide a position accuracy of
better than 20 m in the primary service area.
While the GPS is claimed to provide a position accuracy of better than 4 m.
Statement 3 is correct: In NavIC, three
satellites are located in suitable orbital slots
in the geostationary orbit and the remaining
four are located in geosynchronous orbits
with the required inclination and equatorial crossings in two different planes.
10. Ans: (c)
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: The child does not
have an equal proportion of DNA from each
parent. Rather, the majority of the child‘s
DNA is from his parents, with only a small
fraction coming from the mitochondria of the
donor egg or third parent. Statement 2 is correct: When the mother
has damaged mitochondrial DNA, she will
pass this on to all of her children causing
disease of a varied severity depending on the
proportion of healthy and damaged mitochondria the child randomly inherits.
Three parent babies were developed to avoid
this transmission.
Statement 3 is correct: Mitochondria
contains a very small amount of DNA, making
them the only organelle other than the nucleus to house genetic information.
11. Ans: (a)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: DNA replicates on its own, thus it is self-replicating. But RNA
does not replicate on its own. It is synthesized
from DNA when required.
Statement 2 is correct: DNA is located in
the nucleus of a cell and in the mitochondria. Whereas, RNA is found in the cytoplasm,
nucleus, and in the ribosome.
Statement 3 is incorrect: DNA‘s function is
the transmission of genetic information. It
forms as a media for long-term storage.
Whereas , RNA‘s function is the transmission of the genetic code that is necessary for the
protein creation from the nucleus to the
ribosome.
12. Ans: (a) Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: NetSCoFAN is a
network of research and academic
institutions working in the area of food and
nutrition. The NetSCoFAN would comprise of
4 AIPTS 2020 (S&T - 17) (E) Answer Key Byju’s Classes: 9873643487
eight groups of institutions working in different areas viz. biological, chemical,
nutrition & labelling, food of animal origin,
food of plant origin, water & beverages, food
testing, and safer & sustainable packaging.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare has launched
NetSCoFAN (Network for Scientific Co-
operation for Food Safety and Applied
Nutrition).
13. Ans: (a) Explanation: Optical mining is an approach
for excavating an asteroid and extracting
water and other volatiles into an inflatable
bag. In Optical Mining, excavating and processing asteroid materials is accomplished
by highly concentrated sunlight which can be
used to drill holes, excavate, disrupt, and
shape an asteroid while the asteroid is
enclosed in a containment bag.
14. Ans: (b)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Augmented
Reality integrates text, graphics, audio and
adds value to the users‘ interaction with the real world while virtual reality replaces the
actual world environment with 3D digital
elements. Augmented Reality combines both
real-world and virtual.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Augmented Reality uses transparent screens for the
projections. But virtual reality uses opaque
screens for the projections. A game like
Pokemon is an application of augmented
reality.
Statement 3 is correct: Augmented Reality combines both real-world and virtual spaces.
Users of AR are still able to sense the real
world around them. This makes the
application more immersive and interactive
among users.
15. Ans: (b)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Worms infect entire
networks of devices either local or across the internet, by using network interfaces. It uses
each consecutively infected machine to infect
others.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Botnets are
networks of infected computers that are made to work together under the control of an
attacker. They are usually engaged in the
distributed denial of service attacks.
Statement 3 is incorrect: A logic bomb is a
malicious program that uses a trigger to
activate the malicious code. The logic bomb
remains non-functioning until that trigger event happens. Once triggered, a logic bomb
implements a malicious code that causes
harm to a computer. Keylogger records
everything the user types on his/her
computer system to obtain passwords and other sensitive information and send them to
the source of the keylogging program.
16. Ans: (a)
Explanation:
The number of deaths in the US caused due to the mysterious respiratory illness
linked to vaping and e-cigarettes rose to
55, Reuters reported. As of December 27,
the Centers for Disease Control and
Prevention (CDC), a US federal agency, has reported 2,561 cases across the
country who have suffered from the
illness. The CDC is tentatively referring to
the disease as EVALI (e-cigarette, or
vaping, product use associated lung
injury).
E-cigarettes, also called ‗vapes‘ or ‗electronic nicotine delivery systems
(ENDS)‘, are battery-run devices that were
originally marketed as a safer alternative
to smoking traditional cigarettes. In
recent years, there has been a deadly rise
in nicotine addiction in the US, allegedly due to aggressive marketing by
manufacturers.
17. Ans: (d) Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Union Commerce
minister has inaugurated the NSE Knowledge
Hub. The ‗NSE Knowledge Hub‘ is an Artificial
Intelligence (AI) powered learning ecosystem.
Statement 2 is correct: The platform has been developed by NSE Academy, a wholly-
owned subsidiary of the National Stock
Exchange (NSE). This platform seeks to assist
the banking, financial, securities and
insurance (BFSI) sector in enhancing skills for their employees. It also aims to help the
academic institutions in preparing future-
ready talent skilled for the financial services
industry.
18. Ans: (a) Explanation: Recently, ISRO discovered that
Geotail is helping Chandrayaan-2 mission in
studying the moon surface.
Statement 1 is correct: Due to interaction of
Earth‘s magnetosphere with Solar wind plasma, Earth‘s magnetosphere is
compressed on the side facing the Sun, and is
stretched into a long tail, on the opposite
5 AIPTS 2020 (S&T - 17) (E) Answer Key Byju’s Classes: 9873643487
side. This long tail is known as Geotail. The Geotail is also a region in space that allows
the best observations.
Statement 2 is correct: The charged
particles in the solar wind are embedded in the extended magnetic field of the Sun. Earth
obstructs the solar wind plasma with its
magnetic field. This interaction results in the
formation of a magnetic envelope around
Earth, forming Geotail. Hence, any change in the magnetic field of earth can change the
shape of the ―Geo tail‖.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The region exists
as a result of the interactions between the
Sun and Earth.
19. Ans: (b)
Explanation: SnowEx is a five year program
initiated and funded by NASA Terrestrial
Hydrology Program (THP) to address the most
important gaps in snow remote sensing knowledge. It focuses on airborne campaigns
and field work, and on comparing the various
sensing technologies, from the mature to the
more experimental, in globally-representative
types of snow. The goal is to address the most important gaps in our snow remote sensing
knowledge, and thus lay the groundwork for a
future snow satellite mission.
20. Ans: (b) Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: India successfully
test-fired its first Subsonic cruise missile,
Nirbhay. It is a long range, all-weather,
subsonic cruise missile designed and
developed in India by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO). The
missile is capable of carrying warheads of up
to 300kg with a speed of 0.6 to 0.7 Mach
(subsonic). Subsonic conditions occur for
Mach numbers less than one, M < 1. Supersonic conditions occur for Mach
numbers greater than one, 1 < M < 3.
Statement 2 is correct: Nirbhay is India's first indigenously designed and developed
long-range state-of-the-art cruise missile,
which can be deployed from multiple
platforms and is capable of carrying
conventional and nuclear warheads. It is a two-stage missile powered by a Solid rocket
motor booster.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Nirbhay has a
range of 800-1000 km and can fly very low to
the ground to avoid detection by enemy radar
called terrain hugging capability. The Nirbhay cruise missile is an Indian version of the
American Tomahawk.
21. Ans: (c) Explanation: Solar Orbiter is a mission
dedicated to solar and heliospheric physics.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The mission is a
joint collaboration between NASA and the
European Space Agency.
Statement 2 is correct: This is the first mission that will provide images of the sun's
north and south poles using a suite of six
instruments on board that will capture the
spacecraft's view. Having a visual
understanding of the sun's poles is important because it can provide more insight about the
sun's powerful magnetic field and how it
affects Earth.
Statement 3 is correct: The mission will
work in tandem with NASA's Parker Solar
Probe, which is currently orbiting the sun on a seven-year mission and just completed its
fourth close approach of the star. It was
launched in August 2018 and will eventually
come within four million miles of the sun --
the closest a spacecraft has ever flown by our star.
22. Ans: (a)
Explanation: NEONs are computationally
created virtual humans — the word derives from NEO (new) + humaN. The first project
of Star Labs, NEONs, is being called the
world‘s first artificial humans. They look and
behave like real humans, and could one day
develop memories and emotions — though
from behind a 4K display. It is a humanoid AI chatbot. It aims to deliver a personalised
experience with an AI. It has the ability to
show emotions and intelligence. It is capable
of conversing and sympathising like real
human beings. The AI also understands Hindi, Spanish and other languages. Under
the hood, Neon runs on a proprietary
technology platform, Core R3, where R3
stands for Reality, Realtime, and
Responsiveness. It is the brainchild of Pranav
Mistry, President, and CEO of Star Labs.
6 AIPTS 2020 (S&T - 17) (E) Answer Key Byju’s Classes: 9873643487
Neon aims to deliver a deeply personalised experience with an AI.
23. Ans: (d)
Explanation: The Aditya-L1 project will enable a comprehensive understanding of the
dynamical processes of the sun and address
some of the outstanding problems in solar
physics.
Statement 1 is correct: It will be ISRO‘s
first mission to the Sun. Statement 2 is correct: The Indian Space
Research Organisation (ISRO) is preparing to
send its first scientific expedition to study the
Sun. Named Aditya-L1, the mission, expected
to be launched early next year, will observe the Sun from a close distance, and try to
obtain information about its atmosphere and
magnetic field.
Statement 3 is correct: L1 refers to
Lagrangian/Lagrange Point 1, one of five
points in the orbital plane of the Earth-Sun system. Lagrange Points, named after Italian-
French mathematician Joseph-Louis
Lagrange, are positions in space where the
gravitational forces of a two-body system (like
the Sun and the Earth) produce enhanced regions of attraction and repulsion. These can
be used by spacecraft to reduce fuel
consumption needed to remain in position. A
Satellite placed in the halo orbit around the
Lagrangian point 1 (L1) of the Sun-Earth
system has the major advantage of continuously viewing the Sun without any
occultation/ eclipses.
24. Ans: (b)
Explanation: Recently, messaging platform WhatsApp‘s revealed that Indian journalists
and human rights activists were among
some 1,400 people globally spied upon using
surveillance technology developed by Israel-
based NSO Group. In this case, a malicious code, named Pegasus, exploited a bug in the
call function of WhatsApp to make its way
into the phones of those select users, where it
would potentially have had access to every bit
of information.
The code is transmitted by calling the target phone on WhatsApp. The code enters the
phone even if the call is not answered. Once
installed, Pegasus can send the target‘s
contacts, calendar events, phone calls on and
messages on communication apps like WhatsApp and Telegram to the spyware‘s
controller. It could steal messages from even
services that offer encryption because it was
taking the messages before the encryption
process, according to anti-malware service
Kaspersky. The controller can also turn the
phone into a spying device by switching on its camera or microphone.
25. Ans: (c)
Explanation: Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) recently launched the
Polarimetry Doppler Weather Radar at Satish
Dhawan Space Centre, Sriharikota.
Statement 1 is correct: The Polarimetry
Doppler Weather Radar provides advanced
information, enhances the lead-time essential for saving lives and property in the event of a
natural disaster associated with severe
weather.
Statement 2 is correct: The severity of the
weather systems can be quantitatively estimated more accurately and more precise
advanced warnings can be generated for
saving human lives and property. While
conventional radars are able to track and
predict cyclones, the Doppler Weather Radar
provides detailed information on a storm‗s internal wind flow and structure.
26. Ans: (d)
Explanation: India is playing an enormous
interest in establishing a relationship with various countries around the globe.
Integration of the military exercises is an
unavoidable obligation for the contemporary
combat zone. The joint military is essential
for the cooperation of countries apart from economic cooperation and the prevailing hard
situation. The most significant benefit of joint
military exercises is ‗strategic signaling‘
Pair 1 is correctly matched: SURYA KIRAN
with Nepal is an important exercise of India
in terms of the security challenges faced by both the nations in the realm of changing
facets of global terrorism.
Pair 2 is correctly matched: The eighth
edition of the joint India-China military
training exercise Hand-in-Hand 2019 was conducted in Meghalaya.
Pair 3 is correctly matched: The joint
military exercise between India and
Seychelles is named 'Lamitye' which means
friendship in Creole (local dialect of
Seychelles). Pair 4 is correctly matched: Ninth edition of
India-Bangladesh joint military exercise
Sampriti, was commenced at Umroi,
Meghalaya, February 2020.
27. Ans: (a)
Explanation:
Option (a) is correct: Recently, EMISAT
satellite was launched by the Indian Space
Research Organisation (ISRO) to enhance
7 AIPTS 2020 (S&T - 17) (E) Answer Key Byju’s Classes: 9873643487
India's surgical warfare capacity. EMISAT has been developed under DRDO's Project
Kautilya which aims to boost India's space
surveillance capacity. The project is named
after the ancient Indian economist who
emphasised the importance of spying for a king to protect his kingdom.
Option (b) is incorrect: Project Sashakt aims
to address the bad loans problem in the
financial sector of India's economy.
Option (c) is incorrect: Project Insights is
related to monitoring high value transactions and detecting tax evasions.
Option (d) is incorrect: Project Mausam is
related to foreign policy initiative to
reestablish India‘s ties with its ancient trade
partners.
28. Ans: (a)
Statements 1 is correct: An electric motor is
highly efficient in converting energy stored in
the battery to making the car move: it is typically 60-80 percent efficient. The
efficiency of an internal combustion engine in
converting the energy stored in gasoline to
making the car move is typically 15 percent.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Gasoline is about 100 times more energy dense than a lithium
ion battery. However, this difference in
energy density is partially mitigated by the
very high efficiency of an electric motor in
converting energy stored in the battery to
making the car move.
29. Ans: (a)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The government in
its budget 2020 has announced a National Mission on Quantum Technologies &
Applications (NM-QTA) with a total budget
outlay of Rs 8000 Crore for a period of five
years to be implemented by the Department
of Science & Technology (DST). Statement 2 is incorrect: Quantum
Artificial Intelligence Laboratory (QuAIL) is
NASA‘s initiative. It aims to demonstrate that
quantum computing and quantum algorithms
may someday dramatically improve the
agency‘s ability to address difficult optimization and machine learning problems
arising in NASA's aeronautics, Earth and
space sciences, and space exploration
missions.
DST launched Quantum Information Science and Technology (QuEST), a programme
wherein the government will invest ₹80 crore
in the next three years to fund research
directed to build quantum computers,
channels for quantum communication and
cryptography, among other things.
30. Ans: (a) Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: General Conference
on Weights and Measures (CGPM) is the
highest international body of the world for accurate and precise measurements. The
International Bureau of Weights and
Measures (BIPM), the main executive body of
CGPM, which has the responsibility of
defining the International System of Units
(SI). Statement 2 is incorrect: The new definition
of kg involves accurate weighing machines
called 'Kibble balance', which uses Planck's
Constant to measure the mass of an object
using a precisely measured electromagnetic force. Kilograms were earlier defined by the
weight of a platinum-based ingot called ―Le
Grand K‖, which had been at the forefront of
the international system of measuring
weights since 1889.
31. Ans: (a)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The IAU serves as
the internationally recognized authority for
assigning designations to celestial bodies and surface features on them. India is one of the
members of this organisation. Its mission is
to promote and safeguard the science of
astronomy in all its aspects, including
research, communication, education and development, through international
cooperation.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The International
Astronomical Union (IAU) was founded in
1919. In 2019, it celebrated its 100th
anniversary. To commemorate this milestone, the IAU is organising a year-long celebration
to increase awareness of a century of
astronomical discoveries as well as to support
and improve the use of astronomy as a tool
for education, development and diplomacy under the central theme "Under One Sky". On
the other hand, 2009 was declared as the
International Year of Astronomy. It was a
year-long celebration of astronomy that took
place in 2009 to coincide with the 400th
anniversary of the first recorded astronomical observations with a telescope by Galileo
Galilei and the publication of Johannes
Kepler's Astronomia nova in the 17th
century.
32. Ans: (c)
Explanation: Blockchain technology is most
simply defined as a decentralized, distributed
ledger that records the provenance of a digital
asset. When a block stores new data it is
8 AIPTS 2020 (S&T - 17) (E) Answer Key Byju’s Classes: 9873643487
added to the blockchain. Blockchain, as its name suggests, consists of multiple blocks
strung together. In order for a block to be
added to the blockchain, however, four things
must happen:
1. A transaction must occur 2. That transaction must be verified
3. That transaction must be stored in a
block. After your transaction has been
verified as accurate, it gets the green light
4. That block must be given a unique,
identifying code called hash
Statement 1 is correct: Distributed Ledger
Technology refers to a novel and fast-evolving
approach to recording and sharing data
across multiple data stores (or ledgers). This technology allows for transactions and data
to be recorded, shared, and synchronized
across a distributed network of different
network participants. Blockchain, is a type of
Distributed Ledger Technology (DLT), which
makes the history of any digital asset unalterable and transparent through the use
of decentralization and cryptographic
hashing.
Statement 2 is correct: Blockchain enables
direct transfers of digital value or tokens between two counterparties and decentralized
record-keeping, removing the need for an
intermediary or central authority who
controls the ledger.
33. Ans: (a) Explanation: DME (CH3OCH3) is the
simplest ether compound that can be
produced from methanol or directly from
syngas. DME(Dimethyl Ether) is a product of catalytic dehydration of methanol, which can
be blended with LPG and can be an excellent
substitute for diesel in Large buses and
trucks. To adopt Methanol as a transport
fuel, it requires minimal infrastructure
modifications and capital both in vehicles and in terminal and distribution infrastructure.
Additional Information
CNG (Compressed Natural Gas) is a mixture of hydrocarbons consisting of
approximately 80 to 90 percent methane
in gaseous form. It is an odorless, tasteless gas that is naturally created by
the decomposition of organic matter over
time. When CNG fuel combusts,its
byproduct is CO2 and H2O or carbon
dioxide and water.
Producer gas is fuel gas that is manufactured from material such as coal,
as opposed to natural gas. A combustible
mixture of nitrogen, carbon monoxide, and hydrogen, generated by passing air
with steam over burning coke or coal in a
furnace and used as fuel. It is also called
air gas.
DME (Dimethyl Ethanol) is not a gaseous version of Ethanol, it is a gaseous version of Methanol. Ethanol is a clear, colorless
liquid which is widely used as a solvent
and preservative in pharmaceutical
preparations as well as serving as the
primary ingredient in alcoholic beverages.
34. Ans: (a)
Explanation: U.S.A launched project Blue
Dot, the multi-stakeholder initiative to set up
high quality infrastructure pegged to global standards, which already has the support of
Japan and Australia. The Blue Dot Network
(BDN), which came into being in November at
the Indo-Pacific Business Forum in Bangkok,
seeks to set up a globally recognised
certification system for infrastructure projects to boost transparency and sustainability. The
BDN would reportedly bring together
governments, the private sector and civil
society to gainfully promote roads, ports,
bridges etc, with a special emphasis on the Indo-Pacific region.
35. Ans: (a)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: A fuel cell is a device that converts chemical potential energy into
electrical energy. It supplies electrical energy
in the form of direct current. The products of
the reaction in the cell are water, electricity,
and heat.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The hydrogen fuel cells do not store solid oxidisers. Oxygen is
taken from the air and hydrogen is generally
made from the decomposition of a
hydrocarbon source. Oxygen reacts with
hydrogen to form water. This is a redox process in which electrons are transferred,
the trick of a fuel cell is to use the electrons
generated during the reaction to perform
work.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Fuel cells are
often referred to as continuously operating batteries. They exploit electrolysis reactions
in a similar manner to traditional batteries
however the reagents are constantly
resupplied to the cell and hence they do not
become discharged like traditional batteries.
36. Ans: (b)
Explanation: The World Health Organization
has endorsed TrueNat, an indigenous
9 AIPTS 2020 (S&T - 17) (E) Answer Key Byju’s Classes: 9873643487
molecular diagnostic tool for tuberculosis (TB) diagnosis. The disease remains a threat to
public health and is the top infectious cause
of death globally. The Truenat TB test can
diagnose TB in one hour as well as testing for
resistance to the drug rifampicin. The test has been developed by the Indian firm MolBio
Diagnostics. The test works by rapid
detection of TB bacteria using the polymerase
chain reaction (PCR) technique.
37. Ans: (a) Explanation:
Pair 1 is correctly matched: Bunchy top of
banana disease is caused by the banana
bunchy top virus (BBTV). Initially, dark green streaks appear in the veins of the lower
portion of the leaf midrib and the leaf stem of
banana plants. They appear to be ―bunched‖
at the top of the plant, the symptom for which
this disease is named. Severely infected
banana plants will not fruit usually. Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: Panama
disease is a wilting disease caused by the
fungus Fusarium oxysporum. It kills plants
by clogging their vascular system. In a long-
feared development, an extremely damaging banana disease has apparently reached Latin
America. Already widespread in Asia, the
disease can wipe out entire plantations.
Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: Blight of rice
disease is caused by the Bacteria
Xanthomonas oryzae. The disease is most likely to develop in areas that have weeds and
stubbles of infected plants. It can occur in
both tropical and temperate environments,
particularly in irrigated and rainfed lowland
areas.
38. Ans: (c)
Explanation:
Option (a) is incorrect: The Doomsday Clock
is a symbol that represents the likelihood of a man-made global catastrophe.
Option (b) is incorrect: The WHO Strategic
Health Operations Centre (SHOC) monitors
global public health events around the clock,
and facilitates international collaboration
during public health emergencies and daily operations. Epigenetic clock is not related to
Monitoring global public health events.
Option (c) is correct: A small clinical study
in California has suggested for the first time
that it might be possible to reverse the body‘s epigenetic clock, which measures a person‘s
biological age. The epigenetic clock relies on
the body‘s epigenome, which comprises
chemical modifications, such as methyl
groups, that tag DNA. The pattern of these
tags changes during the course of life, and
tracks a person‘s biological age, which can lag behind or exceed chronological age.
Option (d) is incorrect: Genetic clock is
referred to the technique of calculation of
mutation rate, which is used for calculation
of prehistoric life forms. By calculating the rate of mutation, we may conclude the history
of divergence of life forms from a point. In this
technique, the sequences of nucleotides,
amino acids etc., are calculated.
39. Ans: (c) Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The belched out C02
(greenhouse gas emission) both from using
Methanol and while producing Methanol can be tapped back to produce Methanol. Thus, a
seamless loop of CO2 sequestration cycle is
created to perpetually burn fuels without
polluting the environment at all. C02 from
steel plants, Thermal Power plants, Cement
Plants etc. can be tapped in large quantities to produce Methanol.
Statement 2 is correct: Methanol, although
slightly lower in energy content than petrol
and diesel, can replace both petrol and diesel
in transport sector (road, rail and marine), energy sector (comprising of DG sets, boilers,
process heating modules, tractors and
commercial vehicles) and retail cooking
replacing LPG (partially), Kerosene and wood
charcoal. Blending of 15% methanol in
gasoline can result in at least 15% reduction in import of gasoline/ crude.
Statement 3 is correct: Methanol burns
efficiently in all internal combustion engines,
produces no particulate matter, no soot,
almost nil SOX and NOX emissions (NEAR ZERO POLLUTION).
Statement 4 is incorrect: Methanol is a
scalable and sustainable fuel that can be
produced from a variety of feedstocks like
Natural Gas, Coal (Indian High Ash Coal),
Biomass, Municipal Solid waste and most importantly from CO2.
40. Ans: (d)
Explanation: As the light emitted by distant
galaxies passes by massive objects in the universe, the gravitational pull from these
objects can distort or bend the light. This is
called gravitational lensing. A gravitational
lens can occur when a huge amount of
matter, like a cluster of galaxies, creates a gravitational field that distorts and magnifies
the light from distant galaxies that are behind
it but in the same line of sight. The effect is
like looking through a giant magnifying glass.
It allows researchers to study the details of
10 AIPTS 2020 (S&T - 17) (E) Answer Key Byju’s Classes: 9873643487
early galaxies too far away to be seen with current technology and telescopes.
Applications of Gravitational Lensing are-
Study the galaxies, which are very far away
Observe invisible things in the Universe like dark matter
Understand formation of stars
Understand the past Universe
41. Ans: (d)
Explanation:
Option (a) is incorrect: Maanav is India‘s
first 3D-printed humanoid robot Weighing 2kg, Manav which means man in Sanskrit
has in-built vision and sound processing
capability, which will allow it to talk and act
exactly like a human. It is not part of the
Gaganyaan mission.
Option (b) incorrect: Ai-da is the world‘s first ultra-realistic AI robot artist. She can draw,
and is a performance artist. It is not part of
the Gaganyaan mission.
Option (c) is incorrect: FEDOR or Final
Experimental Demonstration Object Research, was built to assist space station
astronauts. It is built by Russia. It is not part
of the Gaganyaan mission.
Option (d) is correct: Recently, Indian Space
Research Organisation (ISRO) unveiled its
first ‗woman‘ astronaut, named Vyom Mitra who will ride to space in the first test flight of
the human space mission, Gaganyaan. It is a
half-humanoid with no legs and capable of
switching panel operations, performing
Environment Control and Life Support Systems (ECLSS) functions, conversations
with the astronauts, recognising them and
solving their queries. The humanoid has been
developed by the ISRO Inertial Systems Unit,
Thiruvananthapuram.
42. Ans: (d)
Explanation:
Pair 1 is correctly matched: Heavy Water is
used as moderator in the nuclear reactors.
Heavy Water(D2O) or deuterium oxide is made up of two atoms of deuterium and one
atom of oxygen. Moderator is required in a
Nuclear reactor to slow down the neutrons
produced during the fission reaction so that
the chain reaction can be sustained. Heavy Water is an excellent moderator due to its
high moderating ratio and low absorption
cross section for neutrons.
Pair 2 is correctly matched: Hydrogen
peroxide is used in water pollution control
treatment. For example Hydrogen peroxide is
used for pollution control treatment of domestic and industrial effluents, oxidation of
cyanides, restoration of aerobic conditions to
sewage wastes, etc. Nowadays it is also used
in Environmental Chemistry.
Pair 3 is correctly matched: Washing soda is used in removal of hardness of water.
Permanent hardness is due to the presence of
soluble salts of magnesium and calcium in
the form of chlorides and sulphates in water.
43. Ans: (a) Explanation: Indian Railways has
commissioned the country's first government
Waste to Energy Plant, having capacity of 500
Kg waste per day, in Mancheswar Carriage Repair Workshop at Bhubaneswar in East
Coast Railway. This Waste to Energy Plant
has been constructed in three months. The
plant installed converts waste collected from
the garbage disposal units into carbon
powder, diesel and gas using Polycrack Technology.
This Waste to Energy Plant, a patented
technology called POLYCRACK, is first-of-its-
kind in Indian Railways and fourth in India.
It is the world's first patented heterogeneous catalytic process which converts multiple feed
stocks into hydrocarbon liquid fuels, gas,
carbon and water. Polycrack Plant can be fed
with all types of Plastic, Petroleum sludge,
Un-segregated MSW (Municipal Solid Waste)
with moisture up to 50%, E–Waste, Automobile fluff, Organic waste including
bamboo, garden waste etc., and Jatropha
fruit and palm bunch. Waste generated from
Mancheswar Carriage Repair Workshop,
Coaching Depot and Bhubaneswar Railway Station will be feeder material for this plant.
44. Ans: (a)
Explanation: ASTRA is a Beyond Visual
Range (BVR) class of Air-to-Air Missile (AAM) system designed to be mounted on fighter
aircraft. The missile is designed to engage
and destroy highly manoeuvring supersonic
aircraft. The missile has all weather day and
night capability. The missile is being
developed in multiple variants to meet specific requirements. The ASTRA Mk-I
Weapon System integrated with SU-30 Mk-I
aircraft is being inducted into the Indian Air
Force (IAF). It has been Indigenously designed
by DRDO.
45. Ans: (b)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: India‘s first Super
Fab Lab was inaugurated in Kerala. The
11 AIPTS 2020 (S&T - 17) (E) Answer Key Byju’s Classes: 9873643487
country's first Super Fab Lab, which will give a major push to the hardware industry in the
country and was launched at the Integrated
Startup Complex of the Kerala Startup
Mission (KSUM). The Super Fab Lab will
function in collaboration with the Massachusetts Institute of Technology (MIT).
Statement 2 is correct: Fab Labs are
fabrication laboratories that offer digital
fabrication and computation. The Fab Labs
programme was set up by the state
government to encourage startups in printed electronics and related fields.
46. Ans: (a)
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: ISRO has initiated
‗Project NETRA‘ – an early warning system in
space to detect debris and other hazards to
Indian satellites. Under the project, the ISRO
plans to put up many observational facilities:
connected radars, telescopes; data processing units and a control centre. They can, among
others, spot, track and catalogue objects as
small as 10 cm, up to a range of 3,400 km
and equal to a space orbit of around 2,000
km. Statement 2 is incorrect: Project Netra is
totally indigenous. The project will give India
its own capability in space situational
awareness (SSA) like the other space powers
— which is used to ‗predict‘ threats from
debris to Indian satellites.
47. Ans: (c)
Explanation:
Pair 1 is incorrectly matched: The
European Space Agency (ESA) has approved the budget of Hera, the European component
of the mission to slam a spacecraft into an
asteroid. Hera is the European contribution
to an international double-spacecraft
collaboration. The project aims to study the effectiveness of an impact to ward off an
impending asteroid threat.
Pair 2 is correctly matched: European
Space Agency (ESA) and the Japan Aerospace
Exploration Agency (JAXA) successfully sent
two probes on a joint mission to Mercury. European and Japanese space agencies said
an Ariane 5 rocket successfully lifted a
spacecraft carrying two probes into orbit for a
joint mission to Mercury, the closest planet to
the sun. When it arrives, BepiColombo will release two probes — Bepi and Mio — that
will independently investigate the surface and
magnetic field of Mercury.
Pair 3 is correctly matched: InSight is part
of NASA‘s Discovery Program, managed by
the agency‗s Marshall Space Flight Center in
Huntsville, Alabama. It will be the first mission to peer deep beneath the Martian
surface, studying the planet‗s interior by
measuring its heat output and listening for
marsquakes, which are seismic events similar
to earthquakes on Earth.
48. Ans: (a)
Explanation:
Option (a) is correct: India successfully test-
fired the 3,500 km strike range nuclear-capable K-4 submarine-launched ballistic
missile (SLBM) off the coast of Andhra
Pradesh. The missile is one of the two
underwater missiles that are being developed
by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO). The other underwater
missile being developed is K5, a 5,000 km
range SLBM.
Option (b) is incorrect: Iron Dome is Israel's
anti missile system.
Option (c) is incorrect: Khordad 15 is Iran‘s air defense system.
Option (d) is incorrect: Saudi Arabia boasts
an arsenal of sophisticated and expensive air
defense equipment. They have the American-
made Patriot missile defense system, German-made Skyguard air defense cannons
and France‘s Shahine mobile anti-aircraft
system.
49. Ans: (a) Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Meteors do
not revolve around the Sun in an elliptical
orbit. A meteor is usually a small object that
occasionally enters the earth‘s atmosphere.
At that time it has a very high speed. The friction due to the atmosphere heats it up. It
glows and evaporates quickly.
Statement 2 is correct: There is a large gap
in between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter.
This gap is occupied by a large number of small objects that revolve around the Sun.
These are called asteroids.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Sun and the
celestial bodies which revolve around it form
the solar system. It consists of a large
number of bodies such as planets, comets, asteroids and meteors. A Constellation does
not form part of the Solar system.
50. Ans: (c) Explanation: The Outer Space Treaty, to
which India and most nations are party,
stipulates that outer space and celestial
bodies must be used ―exclusively for peaceful
purposes,‖ and prohibits testing of weapons
and conduct of military manoeuvres
12 AIPTS 2020 (S&T - 17) (E) Answer Key Byju’s Classes: 9873643487
Statement 1 is correct: The Outer Space Treaty prohibits only weapons of mass
destruction in outer space, not ordinary
weapons.
Statement 2 is correct: India is a signatory
to this treaty, and ratified it in 1982. Statement 3 is incorrect: India is not in
violation of any international law or Treaty.
ASAT weapons are not expressly included
within the purview of the Outer Space Treaty
which, under Article IV, only bans states from
―placing in orbit around the Earth any objects carrying nuclear weapons or any other kinds
of weapons of mass destruction, installing
such weapons on celestial bodies, or
stationing such weapons in outer space in
any other manner.‖ This provision would not apply to ASAT weapons, since they only travel
through outer space and are not fixed in a
particular position. Additionally, they are not
nuclear weapons, or weapons of mass
destruction.
51. Ans: (b)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Amoebic Dysentery
is caused by protozoan parasite Entamoeba histolytica.
Statement 2 is correct: Malaria is a
protozoan infection of the red blood cells,
transmitted by the bite of anopheles
mosquito. Malaria is caused by the protozoa
of the genus Plasmodium. Statement 3 is incorrect: Typhoid fever is
caused by Salmonella typhi bacteria.
Statement 4 and 5 are incorrect:
Chickenpox is a contagious disease caused by
the varicella-zoster virus and Hepatitis A is a liver disease caused by the hepatitis A virus
(HAV).
52. Ans: (c)
Explanation: Reusable Launch Vehicle – Technology Demonstrator (RLV-TD) is one of
the most technologically challenging
endeavors of ISRO towards developing
essential technologies for a fully reusable
launch vehicle to enable low cost access to
space. The configuration of RLV-TD is similar to that of an aircraft and combines the
complexity of both launch vehicles and
aircraft. The winged RLV-TD has been
configured to act as a flying test bed to
evaluate various technologies, namely, hypersonic flight, autonomous landing and
powered cruise flight. In future, this vehicle
will be scaled up to become the first stage of
India‘s reusable two stage orbital launch
vehicle.
53. Ans: (d) Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The Indian remote
sensing satellite (IRS) programme which was
started in 1988 with the launch of IRS-1A, is a major step forward in the overall
programme for using space technology for
defined applications in India. The Cartosat
series of satellites has been the flag-bearer of
the Indian Remote Sensing (IRS) system.
Statement 2 is correct: The Cartosat satellites are a series of Indian optical earth
observation satellites. They are built and
operated by ISRO. They are used for Earth‘s
resource management, defence services and
monitoring. The Department of Space (DoS) had launched and managed the IRS series of
remote sensing satellites. Considering
increased demand for large scale and
topographic mapping data, the DoS launched
the expanded Cartosat series.
Statement 3 is correct: ISRO launched CARTOSAT 3, which is the latest in this
series. History of Cartosat series:
CARTOSAT–1: It is the first Indian Remote Sensing Satellite capable of providing in-
orbit stereo images. It was launched in
May 2005 by PSLV- C6. The images were used for Cartographic applications
meeting the global requirements. Cameras
of this satellite had a resolution of 2.5m.
CARTOSAT–2: It is an advanced remote sensing satellite with a single
panchromatic camera (PAN) capable of
providing scene-specific spot imageries for cartographic applications. The camera is
designed to provide imagery with better
than one meter spatial resolution.
CARTOSAT-3: ISRO launched advanced earth imaging and mapping satellite
CARTOSAT-3 along with 13 other
commercial nano-satellites for the US using PSLV-C47 on November 27, 2019. It
is the most advanced earth observation
satellite built by ISRO. CARTOSAT-3 is
the ninth in the series, which is a third-
generation agile satellite with high-resolution imaging capabilities. It has an
overall mass of over 1,600 kilograms with
a mission life of about five years.
Cartosat-3 will address the increased
user‘s demands for: large scale urban
planning, rural resource and infrastructure development, coastal land
use and land cover, cartography (map-
making applications), road-network
monitoring, changing detection in
bringing out geographical and man-made features.
13 AIPTS 2020 (S&T - 17) (E) Answer Key Byju’s Classes: 9873643487
54. Ans: (a) Explanation: Nuclear Fuel Complex under
Department of Atomic Energy has developed
a material to be used in ISRO planned moon
mission called Inconel 718. Option (a) is correct: It is considered as a
refractory super-alloy since it can be used
permanently above 600°C. The alloy
associates good creep and rupture strength
with a high resistance to fatigue.
Option (b) is incorrect: It is not a cryogenic fuel with very low density.
Option (c) is incorrect: Inconel 718
accounts for up to 50% of the weight of
aircraft turbojet engines, being the main
component for discs, blades and casing of the high pressure section of the compressor and
discs as well as some blades of the turbine
section. It also finds several applications in
rocket engines and cryogenic environments
due to its good toughness at low temperature
(preserving parts from a brittle fracture). It is not used for space suits of astronauts.
Option (d) is incorrect: It possesses long
time strength and toughness at higher
temperature along with confinement of
corrosion resistance up to high temperature. This alloy has excellent weldability when
compared to the nickel-base superalloys
hardened by aluminum and titanium.
55. Ans: (b) Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Blood is a special
connective tissue consisting of a fluid matrix,
plasma, and formed elements.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Erythrocytes (Red
blood cells) are the most abundant of all the cells in blood. A healthy adult man has, on
average, 5 million to 5.5 million of RBCs mm3
of blood. RBCs are formed in the red bone
marrow in adults.
Statement 3 is correct: Leukocytes are also known as white blood cells (WBC) as they are
colourless due to the lack of haemoglobin.
They are nucleated and are relatively lesser in
number which averages 6000-8000 mm3 of
blood. Leukocytes are generally short lived.
56. Ans: (c)
Explanation:
Option (a) is incorrect: Kerala Floods:
‗‗Operation Madad and Sahyog‘: were rescue operations conducted by Navy and Army
during Kerala Floods
Option (b) is incorrect: Yemen Evacuation:
Operation Raahat was an operation of the
Indian Armed Forces to evacuate Indian
citizens and foreign nationals from Yemen.
Option (c) is correct: The code name given to Balakot Air Strike was Operation Bandar.
Option (d) is incorrect: Nepal Earthquake:
Operation Maitri (Operation Amity) was a
rescue and relief operation in Nepal by the
government of India and Indian armed forces in the aftermath of the April 2015 Nepal
earthquake.
57. Ans: (b)
Explanation: Option (a) is incorrect: Carbon nanotubes
are cylindrical carbon molecules with the
properties that make them potentially useful
in a variety of applications in nanotechnology,
electronics, optics and other fields of materials science. The Vikram Sarabhai
Space Centre has not developed indigenous
technology to manufacture this type of high-
power batteries for automobiles and e-
vehicles.
Option (b) is correct: The government has asked Indian Space Research Organisation
(ISRO) to allow manufacturers interested in
producing indigenous lithium-ion batteries.
This includes those from the private sector, to
obtain the technology for its mass production. The Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre under
ISRO has developed indigenous technology to
manufacture such high-power batteries for
automobiles and e-vehicles and their
feasibility tests in vehicles have been
successful. Over half a dozen major automobile companies, battery
manufacturers and public sector
undertakings have already approached ISRO.
At present, these batteries are imported in
India. These batteries have high-power, they weigh less and their volume is much less as
well in comparison to conventional batteries.
Option (c) is incorrect: Hydrogen powered
Tata Starbus fuel cell bus is a zero-emission
vehicle best suited for inter-city
transportation for the masses and has been developed in a partnership with ISRO (Indian
Space Research Organisation).
Option (d) is incorrect: Biological
Photovoltaic Cells (BPV) offer an exciting
opportunity to use algae to harvest sunlight and generate electricity. Advantages
compared to conventional solar panels, these
are cheap, green, long lasting,
environmentally friendly, and easy to
manufacture. Tesla not ISRO is doing
research on these cells.
14 AIPTS 2020 (S&T - 17) (E) Answer Key Byju’s Classes: 9873643487
58. Ans: (d) Explanation: A new 30 MHz radar system,
Gadanki Ionospheric Radar Interferometer
(GIRI), has been established at National
Atmospheric Research Laboratory (NARL). Option (a) is correct: The Indian Space
Research Organisation (ISRO) has installed
the Gadanki Ionospheric Radar
Interferometer (GIRI) Radar System near
Tirupati, Andhra Pradesh.
Option (b) is correct: It has been established for ionospheric, meteor and space weather
research in a comprehensive way.
Option (c) is correct: GIRI has been
designed with the following objectives:
to carry out unattended observations towards studying the forcing from the sun (e.g.,
variation in solar flux, solar flare, magnetic
storm) and from the underneath atmosphere
(e.g., waves generated by weather
phenomena) on the ionospheric irregularities.
Option (d) is incorrect: It has been developed by ISRO, India, but not in
collaboration with Israel.
59. Ans: (c)
Explanation: A cell is defined as the smallest, basic unit of life that is responsible for all of
life‘s processes.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Animal cells do
not have cell walls. Cell wall forms an outer
covering for the plasma membrane of fungi and plants. Algae have cell walls, made of
cellulose, galactans, mannans and minerals
like calcium carbonate, while in other plants
it consists of cellulose, hemicellulose, pectins
and proteins.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Ribosomes are the protein synthesisers of the cell. Lysosomes
protect the cell by engulfing the foreign
bodies entering the cell and helps in cell
renewal. Therefore, it is known as the cell‘s
suicide bags. Statement 3 is correct: Mitochondria are
the sites of aerobic respiration. They produce
cellular energy in the form of ATP, hence they
are called ‗power houses‘ of the cell.
60. Ans: (a) Explanation:
Option (a) is correct: Cramps are defined as
painful involuntary skeletal muscle
contractions. It can be caused-
When a muscle is not able to relax
properly (such as from a deficiency of magnesium or potassium in your diet)
When muscles become irritated by a buildup of lactic acid (which can happen
if you don't rest your muscle after it has exercised a lot).
Reduced blood flow to the muscles also can cause cramps
Option (b) is incorrect: Dopamine: It is
known as the feel-good neurotransmitter—a chemical that ferries information between
neurons.
Option (c) is incorrect: Glucose: Most of the
cells in your body use glucose along with
amino acids (the building blocks of protein)
and fats for energy, but it's the main source of fuel for your brain.
Option (d) is incorrect: Serotonin: It is a
neurotransmitter known to play a key role in
a number of functions ranging from sleep to
social behaviour. Recently, Indian scientists have discovered that serotonin boosts energy
production in brain cells and helps them
survive under stress. This new knowledge can
potentially be used to develop anti-stress
drugs in future.
61. Ans: (a)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Irradiation is the
method of using radioactive waves to kill harmful pathogens and control of spoilages in
food materials. It increases the shelf life of
the food materials like meat, vegetables and
spices. It is similar to pasteurization of milk
but the source of the energy used differs in
irradiation. Statement 2 is incorrect: Irradiation will not
have any impact on the nature of the food
materials treated. The consumers can not be
able to find any distinct odor, flavour, taste or
feel in the irradiated food materials.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Irradiation of food materials in India is not banned, but
governed by the Atomic Energy (Radiation
Processing of Food and Allied Products) Rules
2012. The Bhabha Atomic Research Centre
operates a Food Irradiation Processing Laboratory for the development of the
required technologies and its
commercialisation.
62. Ans: (c) Explanation: ITER is one of the most
ambitious energy projects in the world today.
It aims to create a reactor that will be a
carbon-free source of energy .The ITER will be
the first fusion device to produce net energy. ITER will be the first fusion device to
maintain fusion for long periods of time.
Statement 1 is incorrect: ITER uses the
vessel called tokamak to sustain the fusion
15 AIPTS 2020 (S&T - 17) (E) Answer Key Byju’s Classes: 9873643487
reaction (not fission) for a longer time period. The tokamak comes from Russian acronym
that stands for toroidal chamber with
magnetic coils. It is a magnetic fusion device
that has been designed to prove the feasibility
of fusion at a large-scale. Statement 2 is correct: The main fuels used
in nuclear fusion are deuterium and tritium,
both are heavy isotopes of hydrogen.
Deuterium constitutes a tiny fraction of
natural hydrogen, only 0,0153%, and can be
extracted inexpensively from seawater. Tritium can be made from lithium, which is
also abundant in nature.
Statement 3 is correct: ITER was first
established in 1985. The ITER Members are—
China, the European Union, India, Japan, Korea, Russia and the United States.
European Union being the host party
contributes 45% of the budget cost while the
rest of the parties contribute 9% each. Hence,
India is the only country from South Asia to
be a member of the ITER research project.
63. Ans: (b)
Explanation: Robotic Process Automation is
the technology that allows anyone today to configure computer software, or a ―robot‖ to
emulate and integrate the actions of a human
interacting within digital systems to execute
any process. It provides best quality customer
service.
Pair 1 is correctly matched: Probots are bots that follow simple, repeatable rules to
process data. They are the basic bots that
follow simple rules to process information
Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: Knowbots are
used to find out and collect and save the information from the web. They are not used
to feed personal information into them and
retrieve it later.
Pair 3 is correctly matched: Chatbots are
virtual agents who can respond to customer
queries in real time.
64. Ans: (c)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Helium hydride ion
(HeH+) was the first molecule formed when, almost 14 billion years ago, falling
temperatures in the young universe allowed
recombination of the light elements produced
in the Big Bang. Helium atoms combined with
hydrogen protons to form helium hydride ion HeH+, the universe‘s first molecular bond.
Statement 2 is correct: Scientists
discovered Helium Hydride signature for the
first time in our own galaxy using the world‘s
largest airborne observatory, NASA‘s
Stratospheric Observatory for Infrared
Astronomy, or SOFIA, as the aircraft flew high above the Earth‘s surface and pointed
its sensitive instruments out into the cosmos.
65. Ans: (b) Explanation:
Statement 1 and 2 are
correct: Thermosetting plastics are plastics
which when moulded once, can not be
softened by heating. These plastics are
polymers that irreversibly become rigid when heated. They have high melting points and
tensile strength. Bakelite and melamine are
examples of thermosetting plastics.
Statement 3 and 4 are incorrect: Plastic
which gets deformed easily on heating and can be bent easily are known as
thermoplastics. Polythene and PVC are
examples of thermoplastics. These are used
for manufacturing toys, combs and various
types of containers.
66. Ans: (b)
Explanation: The transmission of audio and
video signals in optical fibres is possible
because of the phenomenon of Total Internal
Reflection. Total internal reflection is a complete reflection of a ray of light within a
medium such as optical fibre from the
surrounding surfaces back into the medium.
The phenomenon occurs if the angle of
incidence is greater than a certain limiting angle, called the critical angle.
67. Ans: (b)
Explanation:
Option (a) is incorrect: Washing soda is a chemical compound used to remove stubborn
stains from laundry. It is a salt of carbonic
acid. It is not used in fire extinguishers.
Option (b) is correct: Baking Soda is also
known as Sodium hydrogencarbonate. It decomposes on heating to generate bubbles of
carbon dioxide (leaving holes in cakes or
pastries and making them light and fluffy). It
is used as a mild antiseptic for skin
infections. It is used in fire extinguishers.
Option (c) is incorrect: Caustic soda is one of the common names for sodium hydroxide
(NaOH). Its common name derives from its
chemical identity as a sodium hydrate and
because it is caustic or corrosive, it is not
used in fire extinguishers. Option (d) is incorrect: Borax or sodium
borate, is an alkaline mineral salt with a
powdery white appearance. It is used as a
cleaning product. It is also used as Fungicide,
Herbicide and Insect killer, particularly in
16 AIPTS 2020 (S&T - 17) (E) Answer Key Byju’s Classes: 9873643487
roach killing products. It is not used in fire extinguishers.
68. Ans: (a)
Explanation: Option (a) is correct: Speech 2 Face model is
MIT‘s Deep Neural Network that reconstructs
faces using only voice. It has trained a deep
neural network — a type of multilayered
artificial neural network that mimics the non-
linear architecture of the human brain — using millions of Internet videos featuring
over 100,000 talking heads. It is from these
videos that the Speech2Face AI is able to
―learn‖ the correlations between someone‘s
facial features and the sounds these features will most likely produce.
Option (b) is incorrect: Deep face
recognition model is used for imperfect face
images that often come from CCTV cameras.
In this model we explore the question that
surrounds the idea of face recognition using partial facial data.
Option (c) is incorrect: Speech2Face has
been built using VGG-Face, an existing face
recognition model, that has been developed
by University of oxford, that has been pre-trained on a large dataset of faces. It does not
do voice to face recognition.
Option (d) is incorrect: Dlib is a toolkit for
making real world machine learning and data
analysis applications. It is majorly used for
face detection and facial landmark detection. It does not include speech 2 face recognition.
69. Ans: (d)
Explanations:
Statement 1 is correct: Tuberculosis (TB) is an infectious disease caused by
Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Tuberculosis
commonly affects the lungs, but can also
affect other parts of the body.
Statement 2 is correct: It spreads from person to person through the air, when
people who are infected with TB infection
cough, sneeze or otherwise transmit
respiratory fluids through the air. Hence, it is
a communicable disease.
Statement 3 is correct: India has launched Nikshay poshan yojana for TB patients.
Under the scheme, for encouraging good
nutrition during treatment period financial
incentive of Rs.500/- per month is provided
as a nutritional support to each notified TB patient for duration for which the patient is
on anti-TB treatment. Incentives are delivered
through direct benefit transfer (DBT) scheme
to bank accounts of beneficiaries.
70. Ans: (c) Explanations: Biofortification refers to
breeding crops with higher levels of vitamins
and minerals, or higher protein and healthier
fats – is the most practical means to improve public health. Breeding for improved
nutritional quality is undertaken with the
objectives of improving –
Protein content and quality;
Oil content and quality;
Vitamin content;
Micro-nutrient and mineral content.
71. Ans: (a)
Explanation: Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor (PFBR) is a new generation of reactor, which
is capable of producing more fissile material
or fuel than what it consumes. Bharatiya
Nabhikiya Vidyut Nigam (Bhavini), a public
sector company under DAE, has been given the responsibility to build the fast breeder
reactors in India.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The fast breeder
reactor uses fast neutrons to generate more
nuclear fuels (not liquid sodium) than they
consume while generating power, dramatically enhancing the efficiency of the
use of resources. Liquid sodium is used as a
coolant in fast breeder reactors on account of
its excellent heat transfer properties
Statement 2 is correct: Under appropriate operating conditions, the neutrons given off
by fission reactions can "breed" more fuel
from otherwise non-fissionable isotopes. The
most common breeding reaction is that of
plutonium-239 from non-fissionable
uranium-238. The term "fast breeder" refers to the types of configurations which can
actually produce more fissionable fuel than
they use. This scenario is possible because
the non-fissionable uranium-238 is 140 times
more abundant than the fissionable U-235 and can be efficiently converted into Pu-239
by the neutrons from a fission chain reaction.
Statement 3 is correct: The indigenously
designed industrial scale prototype FBR of
500 MWe capacity is in an advanced stage of
commissioning at Kalpakkam. The development of FBR is part of India‘s three
stage nuclear programme devised by indian
government in 1954. The Kalpakkam PFBR is
using Uranium-238 not thorium, to breed
new fissile material, in a sodium-cooled fast reactor design.
17 AIPTS 2020 (S&T - 17) (E) Answer Key Byju’s Classes: 9873643487
72. Ans: (c) Explanation:
Pair 1 is incorrectly matched: Parth is the
world‘s cheapest gun shot locator developed
by Indian Army with a private firm. It can locate the exact location of the bullet from a
distance of 400 meters which will help to
locate and neutralise terrorists faster. It
doesn't have engines powered by Indian bio
jet fuel.
Pair 2 is correctly matched: The Sagarika/K-15 missile is the SLBM
(Submarine Launched Ballistic Missile)
version of the land-based Shaurya missile.
Medium range K-15 ballistic missile has a
range between 700km to 1,500 km with varying payload.
Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: AN32 is not a
gunshot locator, but an aircraft of Indian Air
Force, whose engines are powered by Indian
bio jet fuel. The fuel is developed from non
edible ‗Tree Borne Oils‘. It will reduce carbon footprint and crude oil imports dependency.It
was developed by CSIR-IIP.
Pair 4 is correctly matched: Tejas is India‘s
Light Combat Aircraft (LCA) together with its
variants, is the smallest and lightest Multi-Role Supersonic Fighter Aircraft of its class
developed by Aeronautical Development
Agency (ADA) and Hindustan Aeronautics
Limited (HAL).
73. Ans: (a) Explanation: The Government has recently
set up a National Startup Advisory Council to
advise the Centre on measures needed to
build a strong ecosystem for nurturing
innovation and start-ups in the country. Statement 1 is correct: The Council will be
chaired by the Minister for Commerce &
Industry. Joint secretary of Department for
Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade will
be the convener of the body. Statement 2 is incorrect: The National
Startup Advisory Council will advise the
Government on measures needed to build a
strong ecosystem for nurturing innovation
and startups in the country to drive
sustainable economic growth and generate large scale employment opportunities.
Startup Incubators (not the National Start-up
Advisory Council) advises Startups on
funding, regulatory compliance, Intellectual
property rights among other things.
74. Ans: (c)
Explanation: The Forest Advisory Committee
has approved a scheme ‗Green Credit
Scheme‘ that could allow ―forests‖ to be traded as a commodity.
Statement 1 is correct: It will allow private
agencies like private companies, village forest
communities to create tree plantations on
private / non-forest land, to be used as Compensatory Afforestation for projects
involving forest diversion.
Statement 2 is correct: ‗Green Credit
Scheme‘ would allow agencies like private
companies and village forest communities to
identify land and grow plantations. After a period of three years, they would be eligible to
be considered as compensatory forest land if
they met the criteria set by the Forest
Department. An industry in need of forest
land could then pay for these patches of forest land, and this would then be
transferred to the Forest Department.
75. Ans: (b)
Explanation: Kalapani is a 372-sq km area at the China-Nepal-India tri-junction. India
claims Kalapani as a part of Uttarakhand
while Nepal depicts the area in its map. The
border dispute flared up again recently after
India released its new political map, following the reorganisation of J&K, showing the area
as its own.
According to the Sugauli treaty signed by
Nepal and British India in 1816, the Mahakali
river that runs through the Kalapani area is
the boundary between the two countries. Strategically, Lipulekh Pass in Kalapani
serves as an important vantage point for
India to keep an eye on Chinese movements.
Statement 1 is correct: With the recent
release of political map of India, after the bifurcation of the state of Jammu and
Kashmir (J&K) into the Union Territories of
J&K and Ladakh, the Kalapani
territory became the bone of contention
between India and Nepal.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Kalapani is located at an altitude of 3600m on the
Kailash Manasarovar route. It borders
Uttarakhand in India and Sudurpaschim
Pradesh in Nepal. It is not part of Uttar
Pradesh.
76. Ans: (a)
Explanation: In quantum computing,
quantum supremacy is the goal of
demonstrating that a programmable quantum device can solve a problem that classical
computers practically cannot (irrespective of
the usefulness of the problem). Though
classical computers can solve the problems, it
will take them more than 1000 years to
18 AIPTS 2020 (S&T - 17) (E) Answer Key Byju’s Classes: 9873643487
complete it. so it is referred to classical computers practically cannot solve it.
Quantum computers work differently from
the classical computers we work on today.
Exploiting the principles of quantum
mechanics, they can easily tackle computational problems that may be tough
for the classical computer as the size of the
numbers and number of inputs involved
grows bigger. Quantum computers do not
look like desktops or laptops that we
associate the word ‗computer‘ with. Instead (and there are only a handful of them) they
resemble the air-conditioned server rooms of
many offices or the stacks of central
processing units from desktops of yore that
are connected by ungainly tangled wires and heaped in freezing rooms. Quantum
supremacy refers to quantum computers
being able to solve a problem that a classical
computer practically cannot.
77. Ans: (d) Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Chandrayaan-2 is
an Indian lunar mission that will boldly go
where no country has ever gone before the Moon's south polar region. The Vikram lander
was designed to execute the mission‘s soft
landing on the lunar surface.
Statement 2 is correct: Chandrayaan-2
orbiter utilizes X-rays emitted by the Sun in a
clever way to study elements on the lunar surface. Solar X-rays excite atoms of
constituent elements on the lunar surface.
These atoms when de-excited emit their
characteristic X-rays (a fingerprint of each
atom). By detecting these characteristic X-rays, it becomes possible to identify various
major elements of the lunar surface.
Statement 3 is correct: Moon provides the
best linkage to Earth‘s early history. It offers
an undisturbed historical record of the inner
Solar system environment. The Lunar South pole is especially interesting because the
lunar surface area that remains in shadow is
much larger than that at the North Pole.
There could be a possibility of presence of
water in permanently shadowed areas around it. In addition, the South Pole region has
craters that are cold traps and contain a
fossil record of the early Solar System.
78. Ans: (c) Explanation: SWAYAM (Study Webs of
Active–Learning for Young Aspiring Minds) is
a programme initiated by Government of
India and designed to achieve the three
cardinal principles of Education Policy viz.,
access, equity and quality. SWAYAM seeks to
bridge the digital divide for students who have hitherto remained untouched by the
digital revolution and have not been able to
join the mainstream of the knowledge
economy.
Statement 1 is incorrect: SWAYAM platform is developed by the Ministry of Human
Resource Development (MHRD) and NPTEL,
IIT Madras with the help of Google Inc. and
Persistent Systems Ltd. It would be ultimately
capable of hosting 2000 courses and 80000
hours of learning: covering school, under-graduate, post-graduate, engineering, law
and other professional courses.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Courses delivered
through SWAYAM are available free of cost to
the learners, however learners wanting a SWAYAM certificate should register for the
final proctored exams that come at a fee and
attend in-person at designated centres on
specified dates. Hence, the SWAYAM course
is free of cost. Fees are only levied if the
learner requires a certificate. Statement 3 is correct: The SWAYAM
platform facilitates hosting of all the courses,
taught in classrooms from Class 9 till post-
graduation to be accessed by anyone,
anywhere at any time. All the courses are interactive, prepared by the best teachers in
the country and are available, free of cost to
any learner. More than 1,000 specially
chosen faculty and teachers from across the
country have participated in preparing these
courses.
79. Ans: (d)
Explanation: Vigyan Samagam is a multi-
venue mega-science exhibition that brings several collaborative mega-science projects
under one roof.
Statement 1 is incorrect: It is a national
level exhibition. Vigyan Samagam is the first
ever mega science exhibition in India. Vigyan
Samagam exhibition is showcasing India‘s contribution to international collaborations
on fundamental science and research and
providing a common interactive platform for
mega-science projects, industry, academia
and institutions. Statement 2 is incorrect: Vigyan Samagam
does not aim to secure funds to promote
scientific and industrial research in India. To
secure and manage funds and endowments
for the promotion and management of science
is one of the several objectives of Indian Science Congress.
Statement 3 is incorrect: It is not part of
the 100th birth anniversary celebration of
Vikram Sarabhai. It is an exhibition to usher
19 AIPTS 2020 (S&T - 17) (E) Answer Key Byju’s Classes: 9873643487
fundamental science and research as a strong career option for youngsters.
80. Ans: (c)
Explanation: INDIGO is an initiative to set up advanced experimental facilities for a
multi-institutional observatory project in
gravitational-wave astronomy located near
Aundha Nagnath, Hingoli District,
Maharashtra.
Statement 1 is incorrect: INDIGO or IndIGO (Indian Initiative in Gravitational-wave
Observations) is a consortium of Indian
gravitational-wave physicists. The three lead
institutions in the IndIGO consortium are:
Institute of Plasma Research (IPR), Inter-University Centre for Astronomy and
Astrophysics (IUCAA), and Raja Ramanna
Centre for Advanced Technology
(RRCAT). IndIGO has currently over 70
member scientists.
Statement 2 is correct: Since 2009, the IndIGO Consortium has been planning a
roadmap for gravitational-wave astronomy
and a phased strategy towards Indian
participation in realizing a gravitational-wave
observatory in the Asia-Pacific region. IndIGO is the Indian partner (along with the LIGO
Laboratory in US) in planning the LIGO-India
project. LIGO-India is a planned advanced
gravitational-wave detector to be located in
India, whose concept proposal is now under
active consideration by the science funding agencies in India and US.
Statement 3 is correct: IndiGO is a
member of the LIGO Scientific Collaboration.
The LIGO Scientific Collaboration (LSC) is a
scientific collaboration of international physics institutes and research groups
dedicated to the search for gravitational
waves.
81. Ans: (c) Explanations: Neglected tropical diseases
(NTDs) are a diverse group of communicable
diseases that prevail in tropical and
subtropical conditions in 149 countries. It
affects more than one billion people and costs
developing economies billions of dollars every year. Populations living in poverty, without
adequate sanitation and in close contact with
infectious vectors and domestic animals and
livestock are those worst affected. Some of the
neglected disease are Buruli ulcer, Chagas disease, Dengue and Chikungunya,
Dracunculiasis (guinea-worm disease),
Echinococcosis, Foodborne trematodiases,
Human African trypanosomiasis (sleeping
sickness), Leishmaniasis, Leprosy (Hansen's
disease), Lymphatic filariasis, Mycetoma,
chromoblastomycosis and other deep mycoses, Onchocerciasis (river blindness),
Rabies, Scabies and other ectoparasites,
Schistosomiasis, Soil-transmitted
helminthiases, Snakebite envenoming,
Taeniasis/Cysticercosis, Trachoma and Yaws (Endemic treponematoses).
Encephalitis has not been included in the list
of Neglected tropical diseases.
82. Ans: (d) Explanation: Nobel Prize in Physiology or
Medicine for 2019 was awarded to William G
Kaelin, Jr, Peter J Ratcliffe and Gregg L
Semenza.They received the award jointly for
their discoveries of "how cells sense and adapt to oxygen availability.‖ This discovery
has paved the way for promising new
strategies to fight anemia, cancer and many
other diseases. Their research established the
basis for the understanding of how oxygen
levels affect cellular metabolism and physiological functions.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The research of
Nobel Prize winners revealed that the oxygen
sensing mechanism is present in virtually all
tissues, and not only in the kidney cells. While the kidney releases Erythropoietin, the
rest of the cells adapt to hypoxia through a
protein complex named ‗hypoxia-inducible
factor‘ (HIF).
Statement 2 is correct: Oxygen travels in
our body through the Red Blood Cells(RBCs) to the different tissues. The mitochondria in
the cells then use oxygen to convert food into
energy. In situations, where there‘s a lack of
oxygen, our body suffers from hypoxia, a
condition where tissues are unable to perform bodily functions due to a lack of oxygen. Our
body‘s automatic response to hypoxia is to
increase the levels of the Erythropoietin
(EPO), a hormone produced by the kidneys.
Statement 3 is correct: Erythropoiesis is the
process which produces red blood cells, which is the development from erythropoietic
stem cell to mature red blood cell. It is
stimulated by decreased Oxygen in
circulation, which is detected by the kidneys,
which then secrete the hormone erythropoietin.
83. Ans: (d)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Muntra is India's first unmanned tank and is an acronym for
Mission Unmanned TRAcked. It was rolled by
DRDO in 2017.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Autonomous
Underwater Vehicle AUV-150 can be deployed
for seabed mapping, coastal surveillance,
20 AIPTS 2020 (S&T - 17) (E) Answer Key Byju’s Classes: 9873643487
oceanographic measurements during adverse weather conditions. Muntra cannot be
deployed for seabed mapping and coastal
surveillance.
Statement 3 is correct: There are three
variants of Muntra and they are deployed for unmanned surveillance (Muntra S), detecting
mines (Muntra M) and for reconnaissance in
areas with risk of nuclear radiation or bio
weapon (Muntra N).
84. Ans: (c) Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Stem cells are
special human cells that can develop into
many different types of cells, from muscle cells to brain cells. Stem cells are
undifferentiated cells of multicellular
organisms which are capable of giving rise to
indefinitely more cells (through mitosis) of the
same type and from which certain other
kinds of cell may be formed by the cellular differentiation. In some cases, they also have
the ability to repair damaged tissues.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Stem cells can be
derived from both mammals and non-
mammals. Induced pluripotent stem cells are derived from adult or mature cells.
Statement 3 is correct: Embryonic stem
cells come from human embryos that are
three to five days old. They are harvested
during a process called in-vitro fertilization.
They are known as pluripotent stem cells. These cells can give rise to virtually any other
type of cell in the body.
85. Ans: (c)
Explanation: The Global Mobility Report is the first-ever study released by Sustainable
Mobility for All (SuM4All) 2017 to assess the
global performance of the transport sector
and the progress made toward four main
objectives: universal access, efficiency, safety, and green mobility. The publication covers all
modes of transport, including road, air,
waterborne, and rail transport. According to
the report, the world is not on track to
achieving sustainable mobility. It states that
the transport sector, apart from being inaccessible to many of the world‘s most
vulnerable, is plagued by high fossil fuel use,
rising greenhouse gas emissions, air and
noise pollution, an alarming number of road
fatalities and a reluctance to embrace digitalization.
Additional Information about Sustainable
Mobility for All
In 2016, the World Bank proposed bringing
unity to the mobility sector by bringing
interested stakeholders under one umbrella, to support the implementation of the
Sustainable Development Goals and achieve
sustainable mobility. Out of this call for
action, Sustainable Mobility for All was born.
In January 2017, the initiative was formally established during the first Consortium
Meeting in Washington, DC. Sustainable
Mobility for All brings together a diverse and
influential group of transport stakeholders,
with a commitment to speak with one
coherent voice and act collectively to implement the Sustainable Development
Goals (SDG‘s) and transform the transport
sector.
86. Ans: (a) Explanation: WHO declared the outbreak of
nCoV as a Public Health Emergency of
International Concern.
Statement 1 is correct: Coronaviruses (CoV)
are a large family of viruses that cause illness ranging from the common cold to more severe
diseases such as Middle East Respiratory
Syndrome (MERS-CoV) and Severe Acute
Respiratory Syndrome (SARS-CoV). A novel
coronavirus (nCoV) is a new strain that has not been previously identified in humans.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The W.H.O. says
the global death rate of the novel coronavirus
is 3.4 percent. The Middle East Respiratory
Syndrome has a fatality rate of 34.4%
globally. So, currently nCoV clearly does not have the highest mortality rate among all
viral diseases.
87. Ans: (c)
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Gaganyaan is
India's first manned space mission which the
ISRO aims to launch by December 2021.
Gaganyaan will be the Indian crewed orbital
spacecraft intended to be the basis of Indian Human Space Flight Program. The target is to
launch it before the 75 year celebration of
India‘s independence.
Statement 2 is incorrect: GSLV Mk III, the
three-stage heavy lift launch vehicle, will be
used to launch Gaganyaan as it has the necessary payload capability. The mission will
have a payload of 7 ton. It will be launched by
India‘s biggest rocket GSLV Mk 3 from
Sriharikotta.
Statement 3 is correct: It will circle Earth at a low-earth-orbit at an altitude of 300-400
km from earth for 5-7 days. Technically,
objects in low-Earth orbit are at an altitude of
between 160 to 2,000 km above the Earth‘s
surface. The mission will be placed in the Low
21 AIPTS 2020 (S&T - 17) (E) Answer Key Byju’s Classes: 9873643487
Earth orbit. The International Space Station (ISS) is also placed in this orbit.
Statement 4 is correct: With the successful
launch of Gaganyaan, India will become only
the 4th country after Russia, the USA and
China to send humans to space.
88. Ans: (b)
Explanation:
Option (a) is correct: If the surface area is
increased, the rate of evaporation increases. For example, while putting clothes for drying
up we spread them out. Evaporation is a
surface Phenomenon.
Option (b) is incorrect: Humidity is the
amount of water vapour present in air. The air around us cannot hold more than a
definite amount of water vapour at a given
temperature. If the amount of water vapour in
air is already high, the rate of evaporation
decreases.
Option (c) is correct: It is a common observation that clothes dry faster on a windy
day. With the increase in wind speed, the
particles of water vapour move away with the
wind, decreasing the amount of water vapour
in the surrounding. Option (d) is correct: With the increase of
temperature, more particles get enough
kinetic energy to go into the vapour state.
89. Ans: (a) Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Anodising is a
process of forming a thick oxide layer of
aluminium. Aluminium develops a thin oxide
layer when exposed to air. This aluminium
oxide coat makes it resistant to further corrosion. The resistance
can be improved further by making the oxide
layer thicker.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Aqua regia, is a
freshly prepared mixture of concentrated hydrochloric acid and concentrated nitric
acid (not sulphuric acid) in the ratio of 3:1. It
can dissolve gold, even though neither of
these acids can do so alone. Aqua regia is a
highly corrosive, fuming liquid. It is one of the
few reagents that is able to dissolve gold and platinum.
90. Ans: (a)
Explanation: The Miyawaki technique was pioneered by Japanese botanist Akira
Miyawaki. The Miyawaki method of
afforestation has revolutionised the concept
of urban afforestation. The Kerala
government is replicating the model across
Kerala, which has suffered floods and soil
erosion, as a part of the Rebuild Kerala initiative. This process will involve turning
backyards into mini-forests and it is to come
upon the government office premises,
residential complexes, school premises, and
puramboke land in Kerala state.
91. Ans: (b)
Explanation: Reang (aka Bru in Tripura and
Mizoram) are one of the 21 scheduled tribes
of the Indian state of Tripura. The Bru can be found all over the Tripura state in India.
However, they may also be found in Mizoram
and Assam. They speak the Reang dialect of
Bru language which is of Tibeto-Burmese
origin and is locally referred to as Kau Bru.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The recent
agreement related to ―Bru refugees is a four
party (or quadripartite) agreement among the
Centre, Mizoram Government, Tripura
Government and Mizoram Bru Displaced People‘s Forum (MBDPF) which sought to end
the 22-year-old Bru refugee crisis. This
agreement will bring a permanent solution for
the rehabilitation of thousands of Bru-Reang
people in Tripura. Statement 2 is correct: Union Home
Minister presided over the signing of a
quadripartite pact of MHA with the State
governments of Tripura, Mizoram and leaders
of Bru community to permanently settle
around 34,000 internally displaced people in Tripura.
92. Ans: (c)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: In order to utilise and harness the benefits of Cloud
Computing, Government of India has
embarked upon an ambitious initiative - "GI
Cloud" which has been named as 'MeghRaj'.
This initiative is to implement various components including governance
mechanism to ensure proliferation of Cloud in
the government.
Statement 2 is correct: Meghdoot is a
mobile app launched to assist farmers. It has
been developed by the Indian Meteorological Department and Indian Institute of Tropical
meteorology and the Indian Council of
Agricultural Research. The app provides
forecasts relating to temperature, rainfall,
humidity, and wind speed and direction which play critical roles in agricultural
operations and advisories to the farmers on
how to take care of their crops and livestock.
22 AIPTS 2020 (S&T - 17) (E) Answer Key Byju’s Classes: 9873643487
93. Ans: (b) Explanation: Zero-day vulnerability is a
computer-software vulnerability that is
unknown to, or unaddressed by, those who
should be interested in mitigating the vulnerability. Until the vulnerability is
mitigated, hackers can exploit it to adversely
affect computer programs, data, additional
computers or a network. An exploit directed
at a zero-day is called a zero-day exploit, or
zero-day attack.
94. Ans: (b)
Explanation: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
has chalked out an ambitious strategy for financial inclusion to create the necessary
infrastructure to move towards a less-cash
society by March 2022.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The strategy was
launched by the RBI (not NITI Aayog) for the
period 2019-2024. Statement 2 is correct: The strategy aims to
strengthen the ecosystem for various modes
of digital financial services in all Tier-II to Tier
VI centres to create the necessary
infrastructure to move towards a less-cash
society by March 2022. Statement 3 is correct: Under the strategy,
there is a plan to make the Public Credit
Registry (PCR) fully operational by March
2022 so that authorised financial entities
could leverage the same for assessing credit proposals from all citizens.
95. Ans: (c)
Explanations: Helminths (worms) which are
transmitted through soil contaminated with faecal matter are called soil-transmitted
helminths (Intestinal parasitic worms).
Statement 1 is correct: Roundworm (Ascaris
lumbricoides), whipworm (Trichuris trichiura)
and hookworms (Necator americanus and Ancylostoma duodenale) are worms that
infect people with Soil Transmitted
Helminths.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Soil-transmitted
helminths are transmitted by eggs that are
passed in the faeces of infected people. Adult worms live in the intestine where they
produce thousands of eggs each day. In areas
that lack adequate sanitation, these eggs
contaminate the soil. There is no direct
person-to-person transmission, or infection from fresh faeces, because eggs passed in
faeces need about 3 weeks to mature in the
soil before they become infectious.
Statement 3 is correct: To eradicate STH,
Indian government has launched a National
Deworming programme. It aims at eradicating
intestinal worms also known as Soil-Transmitted Helminths (STH), among
children in the age group of 1-19 years.
Under the programme, children and
adolescents are administered a single dose of
a safe medicine Albendazole across government, government-aided schools,
anganwadis, private schools and other
educational institutions.
96. Ans: (a) Explanation: A virtual private network, or
VPN, is an encrypted connection over the
Internet from a device to a network. The
encrypted connection helps ensure that
sensitive data is safely transmitted. It prevents unauthorized people from
eavesdropping on the traffic and allows the
user to conduct work remotely. VPN
technology is widely used in corporate
environments.
Statement 1 is correct: A VPN is a private network that uses a public network (usually
the internet) to connect remote sites or users
together. VPN technology was developed to
allow remote users and branch offices to
access corporate applications and resources. To ensure security, the private network
connection is established using an encrypted
layered tunneling protocol, and VPN users
use authentication methods, including
passwords or certificates, to gain access to
the VPN. Statement 2 is correct: The VPN uses
"virtual" connections routed through the
internet from the user's private network or a
third-party VPN service to the remote site or
person. VPNs mask the user's internet protocol (IP) address so their online actions
are virtually untraceable.
Statement 3 is incorrect: VPNs help ensure
security and privacy— anyone intercepting
the encrypted data can't read it.
97. Ans: (c)
Explanation: Mission Shakti demonstrated
the ―nation‘s capability to defend its assets in
the outer space,‖ besides vindicating the
technological competence of the Defence Research and Development Organisation
(DRDO), the exclusive research and
development (R&D) department of the
Ministry of Defence
Statement 1 is incorrect: The test was done in the Lower Earth Orbit to ensure that there
is no space debris. Whatever debris that is
generated will decay and fall back onto the
earth within weeks
23 AIPTS 2020 (S&T - 17) (E) Answer Key Byju’s Classes: 9873643487
Statement 2 is correct:. There are multiple ways to demonstrate ASAT capabilities such
as "fly-by tests‖ and Jamming. India used the
particular technology of Kinetic Kill- Direct
Ascent Kinetic Kill method as it was found
appropriate to achieve the objectives set out in the mission. In direct ascent kinetic kill,
ballistic missiles are used to put an
interceptor on a ballistic trajectory that
intersects with the target in orbit without the
interceptor entering orbit itself.
Other ways to demonstrate ASAT capability without causing debris would be to do a fly-
by test, where the ground-based direct ascent
missile will fly by the targeted satellite
without destroying it. Satellites can also be
sabotaged by jamming satellites using space-based lasers. These methods fall under the
category of ―soft-kill‖ methods and do not
create debris.
Statement 3 is correct: India emerged as
the fourth member of the exclusive club of
space powers (US, Russia and China) that have demonstrated ASAT capabilities.
98. Ans: (d)
Explanation: The latest Levels and Trends in Child Mortality: Report 2019 from UNICEF
and partners in the UN Inter-Agency Group
for Child Mortality Estimation (UN IGME),
shows the full scope of child mortality rates
across the world – from newborns to
adolescents – as well as the progress made toward meeting the SDG targets by 2030.
According to the report, half of all under-5
deaths in 2018 occurred in five countries:
India, Nigeria, Pakistan, the Democratic
Republic of the Congo and Ethiopia. India and Nigeria alone account for about a third of
these deaths.
Additional information
About UN Inter-Agency Group for Child
Mortality Estimation (UN IGME)
The United Nations Inter-agency Group for Child Mortality Estimation (UN IGME)
produces estimates of child and young adolescent mortality annually, reconciling the
differences across data sources and taking
into account the systematic biases associated
with the various types of data on child and
adolescent mortality. This report presents UN IGME‘s latest estimates of neonatal, infant
and under-five mortality as well as mortality
among children aged 5–14 years.
99. Ans: (b) Explanation: Recently, yellow rust has been
reported in a few villages of Ropar,
Hoshiarpur and Pathankot districts in Punjab
and villages of Panchkula, Yamunanagar and
Ambala districts in Haryana. Statement 1 is incorrect: Wheat crop is
more susceptible to Yellow rust disease. The
detection of yellow rust disease in the wheat
crop in sub-mountainous parts of Punjab and
Haryana has raised anxiety among farmers
about a drop in the crop's yield. Statement 2 is correct: Yellow rust is a
fungal disease.
Statement 3 is correct: Yellow rust turns
the crop's leaves into a yellowish colour and
stops photosynthesis activity, which eventually could result in a drop of wheat
crop productivity.
100. Ans: (d)
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: Classical smog
occurs in cool humid climates. It is a mixture
of smoke, fog and sulphur dioxide.
Chemically it is a reducing mixture and so it
is also called reducing smog.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Classical smog is formed as a result of interactions between
smoke, fog and sulphur dioxide.
Photochemical smog is formed primarily as a
result of interactions among nitrogen
oxides, reactive hydrocarbons, and sunlight.