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GENERAL STUDIES (P) 2016

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Full Length Mock test - 22

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1. Which of the following statements are correct related to Ganga Task Force?

1. It will be responsible for plantation of trees in upper reaches and banks of Ganga.

2. It will be responsible for monitoring the pollution through ex-servicemen living along River Ganga.

3. It will provide protection to tourists visiting the Ganga ghats in different cities.

Codes:

(A) Only 3

(B) 1 and 2

(C) 2 and 3

(D) All

2. Which of the following infrastructure schemes with their objective is/are incorrectly matched?

1. SetuBharatam: To provide infrastru-cture to transport goods to and from ports quickly.

2. Bharat Mala: Road network all along the borders and coastal areas.

3. Sagarmala project: Building bridges and rail over bridges (ROBs) on national highways.

Codes:

(A) 1 and 3

(B) 2 and 3

(C) Only 1

(D) None

3. The field of horticulture is divided into different categories. Which of the following categories

is/are incorrectly matched?

1. Pomology includes the culture of all fruits and nuts.

2. Olericulture deals with the cultivation of herbaceous flowering plants and houseplants.

3. Ornamental horticulture covers the growth of trees and shrubs for use in landscape design.

Codes:

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 2

(C) Only 3

(D) None

4. Consider the following statements related to the alluvial soil in India:

1. Alluvial soil covers the vast valley areas of the Sutlej, Ganga and Brahmaputra and the fringes of

the southern peninsula.

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2. The soils vary from sandy loam to clay in texture and are rich in potash, nitrogen and organic

matter.

3. These soil are formed from deposits of silt and sand brought down by the rivers flowing from the

Himalayas and the Great Indian plateau.

4. Being young, alluvial soil lacks profile development.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(A) 1, 2 and 4

(B) 1, 3 and 4

(C) 1, 2 and 3

(D) All

5. Which of the following provision related to labour is not enshrined in the Directive Principles of

State Policy of Indian Constitution?

(A)To secure just and humane conditions of work and maternity relief.

(B)To secure living wage and decent standard of life.

(C)To provide payment of compensation to the workmen on account of closure or lay off or

retrenchment.

(D)Participation of workers in the management of the industries.

6. The Agreement on Agriculture has three pillars-domestic support, market access, and export

subsidies. Consider the following statements related to the provision of Market Access:

1. Market Access refers to the reduction of tariff or non-tariff barriers to trade by WTO members.

2. This is applicable equally to all the nations whether developed or developing.

3. This provision includes the reduction in Amber, Blue and Green Box subsidy.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 2

(C) 2 and 3

(D) All

7. Which of the following initiatives have been proposed under Ujjwal DISCOM Assurance Yojna

(UDAY)?

1. Improving operational efficiencies of Discoms.

2. Reduction of cost of power by switching 100% to renewable energy sources.

3. Enforcing financial discipline on discoms through alignment with state finances.

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Codes:

(A) 1 and 2

(B) 2 and 3

(C) 1 and 3

(D) All

8. Consider the following statements about Dry Deciduous Forests in India:

1. Regions of India receiving 50-100 cm of rainfall annually, with high temperature have this type of

forest.

2. Sal is the most significant tree found in the Dry Deciduous forests.

3. They represent a transitional type; on the wetter side, they give way to Moist Deciduous and on

the drier side they degenerate into Thorn forests.


(A) 1 and 2

(B) 2 and 3

(C) 1 and 3

(D) All

9. Which of the following are the goals of organic farming?

1. To achieve sustainability in agricu-lture.

2. To add to the quality of cultivable land as it enhances degraded soils.

3. To help farmers maintain financial strength by improving the quality of soil.

Codes:

(A) 1 and 2

(B) Only 1

(C) 2 and 3

(D) All

10. Which of the following are the proposed benefits of Dedicated freight corridor in India?

1. It will follow the low carbon path hence decrease carbon footprints.

2. It will help in improving the total supply chain management of products.

3. It will lead to reduction in unit cost of transportation.

Codes:

(A) 1 and 2

(B) 2 and 3

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(C) 1 and 3

(D) All

11. Consider the following statements related to 'Inner Line Permit (ILP) System' in India:

1. It is an official travel document issued by the Government of India to grant inward travel toforeigners into a protected area for a limited period.

2. It is required for access to Nagaland, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh and Leh-Ladakh region.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 2

(C) Both

(D) None

12. Consider the following statements related to Energy Conservation Building Code in India:

1. It provides design norms for building envelope but does not include thermal performance

requirements for walls and roofs.

2. It provides design norms for lighting system, including daylighting and lamps.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 2

(C) Both

(D) None

13. For promoting sustainable development Bio-CNG has been proposed in the road transport

sector. What is Bio-CNG?

(A) Bio CNG is the purified form of Biogas where all the unwanted gases are removed to produce

more than 95% pure methane gas.

(B) Bio CNG is the purified form of Natural gas where all the unwanted gases are removed to

produce ethanol.

(C) Bio CNG is the purified form of petroleum product having fewer pollutants.

(D) Bio CNG is the purified form of LPG which can be used as transport fuel.

14. Which of the following are the advantages of the National Grid (One nation-one grid)?

1. It will augment inter-regional power transfer capacity of the states and reduce tariff in southern

states.

2. It will help in optimal utilization of scarce natural resources by transfer of power from resource

centric regions to load centric regions.

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Codes:

(A) 1 and 2

(B) 2 and 3

(C) Only 2

(D) All

18. Due to the rising demand for groundwater from agriculture, rapid urbanization and

industrialization, over-exploitation of groundwater is occurring. The over- exploitation of

groundwater leads to:

1. It helps in removing the contamination of ground water from geogenic factors as pumping depth

increases.

2. It reduces essential base flow to rivers and streams.

3. It increases salinity ingress mainly in coastal regions.

Which of the above stated consequences is/are correct?

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 3

(C) 2 and 3

(D) All

19. Urea is an important supplier of nitrogen, which is necessary for the development of plants.

Which of the following is the benefit of using Neem Coated Urea over normal urea?

(A) It slows down the process of nitrate formation and hence excess nitrate is not available for

denitrification.

(B) It increases the process of nitrate formation and hence excess nitrate is not available for

denitrification.

(C) It increases the process of ammonium carbamate formation hence leads to higher yield.

(D) Nitrates are not leached into the underground water.

20. Which of the following statements related to vermi-composting is/are correct?

1. In vermi-composting biodegradable organic wastes or crop residues is converted into

homogeneous humus by the action of microbes only.

2. The organic fertilizer produced by vermi-composting is easy for plants to absorb.

3. It increases the water holding capacity of the soil.

Codes:

(A) Only 1

(B) 1 and 3

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(C) 2 and 3

(D) All

21. Which of the following are the ideal conditions for generation of hydro-electricity?

1. Existence of rapids and waterfalls.

2. Low stream gradient to stabilise the flow.

3. Geological stability for construction of dams.

4. Silt-free water.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Codes:

(A) 1, 2 and 3

(B) 1, 3 and 4

(C) 2 and 3

(D) 1 and 4

22. ICAR has decoded the genome of wheat first in the world. The benefits of decoding the genome

are:

1. It will help in highlighting natural genetic variation between wheat types which can help in

improving breeding programmes.

2. It will help in making the climate resilient wheat crop.

3. It will help in improving the fertility of soil with improved seeds.

Which of the above stated benefits are correct?

(A) 1 and 2

(B) 2 and 3

(C) 1 and 3

(D) All

23. Which of the following is the objective of Green Highways Policy launched by Government of

India?

(A) The objective is to reduce the impacts of air pollution and dust as trees and shrubs along the

Highways act as natural sink for air pollutants.

(B) The objective is to build the road from recycled asphalt for the sustainable construction of roads.

(C) The objective is to build highways without cross-cutting the agricultural land.

(D) The objective is to use solar panels for lightening the highways.

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24. Which of the following are the enviro-nmental concerns related to tidal energy?

1. The creation of EMF and acoustic outputs during the process may affect marine organisms.

2. It may lead to changes in sedimentation processes due to inhibiting of the flow of water.

3. The process releases H2S gas which causes air pollution.

Codes:

(A) 1 and 2

(B) 2 and 3

(C) 1 and 3

(D) All

25. Which of the following are not the features of Soil Health Card?

1. The card will contain crucial information on macro nutrients, secondary nutrients, micro nutrients,

and physical parameters in the soil.

2. Soil Testing Laboratories for issuing Soil Health Cards to farmers will be established by the state

government as agriculture is in State list.

3. The card will carry crop wise recommendations of nutrients/fertilizers required for farms.


Codes:

(A) 1 and 2

(B) 2 and 3

(C) 1 and 3

(D) All

26. To encourage economic activities of cooperatives for rural development, 97th Amendment Act

has been introduced. Which of the following Articles of Indian Constitution are linked to

Cooperatives in India?

1. Article 14: Right to equality.

2. Article 19: Right to freedom.

3. Article 48: Organisation of agriculture and animal husbandry .

Codes:

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 2

(C) 2 and 3

(D) 1 and 2

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27. Which of the following statements is/are correct with respect to soil profile?

1. The O-horizon is the top layer in all the soils.

2. E-Horizon lies between the top soil and the less fertile layers in all the soils.

3. R-Horizon is the lowest layer of the soil.

Codes:

(A) 1 and 2

(B) 2 and 3

(C) Only 3

(D) Only 1

28. Consider the following statements related to tribunal under Inter-state Water Dispute Act:

1. The Tribunal has the same powers as are vested in a Civil Court.

2. The Supreme Court is empowered to constitute a Tribunal, on a complaint received from a State

Government that a water dispute has arisen or is likely to arise.

3.The decision of the Tribunal is final and binding on the parties, no appeal lies to Supreme Court.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(A) 1 and 2

(B) 2 and 3

(C) 1 and 3

(D) All

29. Match the following:

Mineral Largest Production Country

A. Copper 1. Australia

B. Bauxite 2. China

C. Tungsten 3. Chile

Codes:

(A) A-3; B-1; C-2

(B) A-2; B-1; C-3

(C) A-3; B-2; C-1

(D) A-2; B-3; C-1

30. Which is the correct sequence of Indian industries in terms of coal consumption?

(A) Thermal Power, Cement, Iron & Steel, Textile.

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(B) Iron & Steel, Thermal Power, Cement, Textile.

(C) Thermal Power, Iron & Steel, Cement, Textile.

(D) Thermal Power, Iron & Steel, Textile, Cement.

31. The geographical factors required for commercial fishing are:

1. Broken coastal lines.

2. Presence of mangroves.

3. Tropical climate is more suitable than Temperate.

4. Convergence of cold and warm ocean current.

Which of the above stated factors are correct?

(A) 1, 2 and 3

(B) 2, 3 and 4

(C) 1, 2 and 4

(D) All

32. Which of the following are the benefits of rainwater harvesting?

1. It improves the quality of groundwater through dilution, mainly of fluoride, nitrate and salinity.

2. It prevents flooding, especially in the urban areas.

3. It checks the declining water table.


Codes:

(A) 1 and 2

(B) 2 and 3

(C) 1 and 3

(D) All

33. Consider the following statements about the National Land Records Modernization Programme(NLRMP):

1. The main objective of the NLRMP is to develop a modern, comprehensive and transparent land

records management system in the country with the aim to implement the conclusive land-titling

system with title guarantee.

2. The major components of the programme are computerization of all land records including

mutations, digitization of maps and integration of textual and spatial data.

3. It also focuses on development of core Geospatial Information System (GIS) and capacity building.


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(A) 1 and 2

(B) 1 and 3

(C) 2 and 3

(D) All

34. Consider the following statements about the coal deposits in India:

1. Coal is mainly found in the Gondwana and Tertiary coal fields.

2. Gondwana coal fields contribute 98% and the rest 2% is produced by tertiary coal fields.

3. Tertiary coalfields mainly occur in the extra-peninsular areas.

4. The bulk of lignite reserves are found in and around Neyveli in Tamil Nadu.


(A) 1 and 2

(B) 1, 2 and 3

(C) 1, 3 and 4

(D) All

35. Consider the following statements about the issues and challenges faced by the Mining Sector in

India:

1. Sector suffers from low investment in exploration, development of tech-nology and

implementation of best practices.

2. The current mechanism of royalty and taxes fails to equitably distribute the wind fall profits made

by companies.

3. Most mining areas suffer from devastating environmental degra-dation and high levels of

pollution.

Which of the above stated issues are correct?

(A) 1 and 2

(B) 2 and 3

(C) 1 and 3

(D) All

36. Which of the following physical factors determine the extent and severity of soil erosion?

1. Erosivity of rainfall and erodibility of soil.

2. Length and steepness of the slope.

3. Nature of land use and methods of cultivation.

Codes:

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(A) 1 and 2

(B) 1 and 3

(C) 2 and 3

(D) All

37. Consider the following statements about the Eastern Himalayan broadleaf forests:

1. It is a temperate broadleaf forest eco-region found in the middle elevations of the eastern

Himalayas.

2. This region is a biodiversity hotspot for rhododendrons and oaks.

3. The primary threat to this eco-region's natural biodiversity is forest clearing for agriculture,

plantations, and settlements.


(A) 1 and 2

(B) 1 and 3

(C) 2 and 3

(D) All

38. Consider the following statements about National Offshore Wind Energy Policy:

1. It focuses on encouraging indigeni-zation of the Offshore Wind Energy Technology.

2. Environment Impact Assessment (EIA) study of proposed Offshore Wind Farms regarding aquaticlife, fishing, etc is essential components of the policy.

3. The major objective of the policy is to explore and promote deployment of Offshore wind farms

only in Indian territorial waters, which generally extended up to 12 nautical miles (nm) from the

baseline.


(A) 1 and 2

(B) 2 and 3

(C) 1 and 3

(D) All

39. Consider the following statements about Torrefied biomass:

1. Torrefied biomass is a renewable, carbon-neutral energy source that is less energy dense than

wood.

2. Torrefied biomass can immediately and practically substitute coal, enabling power plants to

generate clean energy.

3. Torrefied biomass is produced through torrefaction, a process that modifies the chemicalproperties of waste wood and biomass.

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A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. None

43. How is the Lok Sabha speaker chosen?

A. Nominated by a collegium of Prime Minister, Leader of Opposition and Minister for Parliamentary

affairs

B. Nominated by the party/coalition in majority in Lok Sabha

C. Elected by the house from a body of eminent citizens specially selected for this purpose

D. Elected by the house from amongst its members

44. Before entering upon his office, the President has to make and subscribe to an oath oraffirmation. Which of the following is/are part of the oath or affirmation made by the President?

1. To preserve, protect and defend the Constitution and the law

2. To uphold the sovereignty and integrity of India

3. Perform the duties of the office without fear or favour

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

45. Consider the following about the terms of the Office of the Governor.

1. The Governor can resign at any time by addressing a resignation letter to the Chief Minister of the

State

2. The Constitution does not lay down the grounds upon which a governor may be removed by the

President.

Which of the above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. None

46. How is the Governor of a state appointed?

A. Indirectly elected by the State Legislative Assembly

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B. Nominated by the President

C. Elected by a collegium consisting of the heads of all local bodies of the concerned State

D. Nominated by the State Government subject to the approval of the Union Government

47. The constitutional validity of a legislative enactment or an executive order can be challenged inthe Supreme Court on which of the following grounds?

1. If it infringes the Fundamental Rights

2. If it is repugnant to the constitutional provisions

3. If it is outside the competence of the authority which has framed it


A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

48. The Supreme Court enjoys appellate jurisdiction in

1. Civil matters

2. Criminal matters

3. Constitutional matters


A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

49. A dispute between two or more states will fall under Supreme Court's

A. Exclusive Original Jurisdiction

B. Appellate Jurisdiction

C. Writ Jurisdiction

D. Advisory Jurisdiction

50. Consider the following statements.

1. Assertion (A): The single system of courts that enforces both Central laws as well as the state laws

has been adopted in India from the Government of India Act of 1935.

2. Reason (R): The Government of India Act of 1935 established the Federal Court of India with

original, appellate and advisory jurisdiction.

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In the context of the above, which of these is correct?

A. A is correct, and R can be an appropriate explanation of A.

B. A is correct, but R cannot be an appropriate explanation of A.

C. A is correct, but R is incorrect.

D. A is incorrect, but R is correct.

51. Consider the following statements about a certain Parliamentary Committee.

1. The Rajya Sabha has no representation in this committee.

2. The committee examine the estimates included in the budget and suggest 'economies' in public

expenditure.

3. The committee works throughout the financial year and reports to the House as its examination

proceeds.

The above refer to?

A. Committee on Public Undertakings

B. Departmental Standing Committees

C. Committee on Government Finances

D. Estimates Committee

52. In 2014, Supreme court of India setup a Committee under NR Madhava Menon to frame

guidelines for

A. Allowing new mining operations in left wing extremism affected areas

B. Government advertisements in print and media

C. Regulation of economic activities in Ecologically Sensitive Zones (ESZs)

D. Improving the socio-economic status of the Transgender

53. Which of the following is the authority to create or abolish the state legislative councils?

A. President of India

B. Union Council of Ministers

C. Parliament

D. Governor of the Concerned State

54. Which of the following statements with reference to the Public Account of India is CORRECT?

A. It is operated by executive action.

B. All taxes collected by the Government of India are submitted to this account.

C. It is used to fund contingencies and disaster management.

D. It is an extra-constitutional fund.

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55. 'Vote on account' provision is related to

A. Any grant made in advance by the Lok Sabha to the executive before the passing of appropriation

bill

B. Excess grant awarded by the Parliament to the executive that had been appropriated in the

annual budget

C. Grant made before the 'March Rush' by the Lok Sabha to the executive

D. Grant sanctioned by Parliament to executive for meeting an unexpected demand upon the

resources of India.

56. The budget goes through six stages in the Parliament. Arrange the following in the correct order

of proceeding in Parliament.

1. Presentation of budget.

2. Scrutiny by departmental committees.

3. General discussion.

4. Passing of finance bill

5. Passing of appropriation bill.

6. Voting on demands for grants.


A. 132564

B. 312654

C. 312456

D. 132654

57.The expenditure 'charged' upon the Consolidated Fund of India

1. Cannot be discussed by Parliament

2. Is non-votable by the Rajya Sabha, but votable by Lok Sabha

3. Does not require Presidential assent


A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. None of the above

58. A joint sitting to resolve the Parliamentary deadlock applies to which of the following types of

bills apart from ordinary bills?

1. Appropriation Bill as a part of Annual Budget

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2. Constitutional Amendment Bills

3. Financial Bills


A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 3 only

D. 1 only

59. Advanced countries, in particular EU countries and Japan, have been witnessing a decline in the

energy intensity of GDP due to which of the following factors possibly?

1. Technological improvement

2. Shift in the structure of their economies towards services


A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. None

60. Article 110 of the Constitution deals with the definition of money bills. It states that a bill is

deemed to be a money bill if it contains 'only' provisions dealing with all or any of which of thefollowing matters?

1. Abolition of a tax

2. Regulation of the borrowing of money by the Union government

3. Appropriation of money out of the Consolidated Fund of India


A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

61. Which of the following statements about Public Bills is INCORRECT?

1. It is introduced in the Parliament by a minister.

2. It can be introduced without any prior notice in the house.


A. 1 only

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B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. None.

62. The Financial Stability Board (FSB) that promotes international financial stability throughenhanced information exchange and international cooperation in financial market supervision was

established by

A. The G-8 finance ministers and central bank governors

B. G-20 major economies

C. United Nations Economic and Social Council (UNECOSOC)

D. A resolution of all members of the UN General Assembly

63. Which of the following correctly point out the difference(s) between Censure Motion and No

Confidence Motion?

1. No-confidence motion should state the reasons for its adoption in the Lok Sabha, Censure motion

need not.

2. No-confidence motion can only be moved against the entire council of ministers, Censure motion

can be moved only against individual ministers.


A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. None.

64. Which of the following statements about the Zero Hour in Parliament is INCORRECT?

A. The zero hour is not mentioned in the Rules of Procedure of the house.

B. Matters can be raised by members without prior notice.

C. The zero hour starts before the question hour after which the agenda for the day is taken up.

D. It is an Indian innovation in the field of parliamentary procedures and has been in existence since

1962.

65. A starred question in Parliament, distinguished by an asterisk

A. Requires an oral answer and hence supplementary questions can follow

B. Requires a written answer and hence supplementary questions can follow

C. Any question to which Ministers alone are answerable

D. One that is asked by giving a notice of less than ten days and answered orally

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66. When the Lok Sabha is dissolved, all business including bills, motions, resolutions, notices,

petitions and so on pending before it or its committees lapse. However, certain bills do not lapse on

the dissolution of the Lok Sabha. They are?

1. A bill passed by the Lok Sabha but pending in the Rajya Sabha

2. A bill pending in the Rajya Sabha but not passed by the Lok Sabha

3. A bill passed by both Houses but pending assent of the president


A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3 only

67. Which of the following correctly point out the difference(s) between Adjournment and

Prorogation of a house?

1. Unlike Prorogation, Adjournment only terminates a sitting and not a session of the House.

2. Unlike Adjournment, Prorogation leads to lapse of all the bills or any other business pending

before the House.


A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. None.

68. Each House of Parliament has separate secretarial staff of its own. The secretariat of each House

is headed by a secretary-general. He is a permanent officer and is appointed by the

A. Leader of the House

B. Presiding Officer of the House

C. President of India

D. The Department of Personnel & Training

69. In reverse repos

A. The banks and financial institutions purchase Government securities from the RBI

B. Banks and the financial institutions borrow money from the RBI for the short-term

C. RBI buys commercial papers from the public


70. The institutions of Speaker and Deputy Speaker originated in India in 1921 under

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A. A Charter issued by the British crown for improving legislative business in British India

B. Provisions of the Government of India Act of 1919 (Montague-Chelmsford Reforms)

C. An order issued by the then Governor-General of India to manage the Central Legislative

Assembly better

D. Amendments made to the Charter Act of 1891 that created the office of President and Vice-

President of Legislative assemblies.

71. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha derives his powers and duties from the Constitution of India, the

Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business of Lok Sabha, and Parliamentary Conventions.

Accordingly, she exercises which of the following powers?

1. She is the final interpreter of the provisions of the Constitution of India for any matter relating to

the Parliament.

2. She has the final power in matters of decorum, order and business in the house.

3. She decides whether a bill is a money bill or not.

4. She appoints the chairman of all the parliamentary committees of the Lok Sabha and supervises

their functioning.


A. 2 and 3 only

B. 2, 3 and 4 only

C. 1, 2 and 3 only

D. 1 and 4 only

72. The governor can reserve a bill passed by the State Legislature for the consideration of the

President in which of the following cases?

1. If it is against the provisions of the Constitution.

2. If it is opposed to the Directive Principles of State Policy.

3. If it is against the larger interest of the country or of grave national importance.

4. If it endangers the position of the State High Court


A. 1 and 4 only

B. 1, 2 and 3 only

C. 2, 3 and 4 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

73. Which of the following is/are recognized as classical dance forms in India?

1. Odissi

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2. Manipuri

3. Sattriya

4. Mohiniyattam


A. 2, 3 and 4 only

B. 1, 2 and 3 only

C. 3 and 4 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4.

74. Consider the following about Rajya Sabha.

1. It is a permanent body and not subject to dissolution.

2. The retiring members of Rajya Sabha are eligible for re-election and re-nomination any number of

times.

3. The Constitution fixes the term of the members of the Rajya Sabha.

4. The President can curtail the term of a Rajya Sabha member any time based on the

recommendation of the Union cabinet.


A. 2, 3 and 4 only

B. 1 and 4 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1 and 2 only

75. Sevottam is related to

A. Citizen's charter in public organizations

B. Grievance redressal programmes within the most vulnerable communities

C. Reform of Public Sector Banks (PSBs)

D. Providing support to first generation entrepreneurs under 'Make in India' programmes

76. Consider the following about the Delimitation Commission of India.

1. It is a statutory body.

2. It redraws the boundaries of both assembly and Lok Sabha constituencies.

3. Its orders cannot be challenged in a court of law.

4. The Lok Sabha cannot modify its orders.

5. It is setup every five years.


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A. 1, 2 and 5 only

B. 3, 4 and 5 only

C. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

D. 1, 4 and 5 only

77. The Constitution has empowered the Parliament to prescribe the manner of choosing the

representatives of the union territories in the Lok Sabha. Members of Lok Sabha from the Union

Territories are

A. Chosen by direct election

B. Nominated by the Administrator/Lieutenant Governor of the UT

C. Recommended by the Union Cabinet and chosen by the President

D. Chosen by indirect elections by the local bodies of the UTs

78. The Union Cabinet has given its approval for India to accede to the Ashgabat Agreement. It

establishes international transport and transit corridor between

A. Central Asia and the Persian Gulf countries

B. South-east Asia to European Countries

C. West-African countries to South Asian countries

D. Oil producing Gulf countries and littoral states of Indian Ocean

79. Consider the following statements about Rajya Sabha.

1. The representatives of states in the Rajya Sabha are elected by the elected members of state

legislative assemblies.

2. The election to Rajya Sabha is held in accordance with the system of proportional representation

by means of the single transferable vote.

3. The seats are allotted to the states in the Rajya Sabha on the basis of population.


A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3 only

80. The parliamentary form of government emphasises on the

A. Separation of powers between the legislature and executive

B. System of Universal Adult Franchise

C. Interdependence between the legislative and executive organs

D. Democratic election system administered by an independent body

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council of ministers does not immediately cease to hold office. How does it help the political system

and administration in India?

A. It prevents the bureaucracy from usurping political power.

B. It ensures the accountability of the executive to the legislature.

C. The Council of Ministers get an opportunity to again prove their party majority on the house floor.

D. The president cannot exercise the executive power without the aid and advice of the council of

ministers, thus it helps him.


1. The President may require the Council of Ministers to reconsider advice tendered by it.

2. The advice tendered by Ministers to the President shall not be inquired into in any court.


A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. None

86. Exchange-Traded Fund (ETF) is

A. A basket of blue-chip company stocks

B. A basket of assets traded on stock market

C. FII that is received in India via the security markets

D. FDI in stock market companies operating in India

87. Consider the following about Earth Hour.

1. It is organized by the World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF).

2. The day organizes and encourages planting of at least one tree by every human being at a specific

time.

3. For India, the country-specific theme for 2016 was to encourage usage of solar energy.


A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

88. In his oath of secrecy, the Prime Minister swears that

1. All government proceedings will be kept secret.

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2. No matter handled by the Prime Minister's Office will be disclosed to other ministries.


A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. None


1. The Constitution does not contain any specific procedure for the selection and appointment of the

Prime Minister.

2. The Constitution does not require that a person must prove his majority in the Lok Sabha before

he is appointed as the Prime Minister.


A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. None

90. The Ghadar party was a revolutionary organization with the aim of securing India's independence

from British rule. Who among the following were associated with it?

1. Lala Har Dayal

2. Rashbehari Bose

3. Sohan Singh Bhakna


A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

91. It is said that the US-India Defense Technology and Partnership Act that proposes to amend the

'Arms Export Control Action' is of immense strategic significance to India. What can be the possible

reason(s)?

1. It seeks to formalise India's status as a major partner of equal status as US's NATO allies and

closest partners.

2. It will elevate India's status in export of defence articles from the United States to India.


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A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. None


1. Assertion (A): All doubts and disputes in connection with election of the President are inquired

into and decided by the Election Commission of India.

2. Reason (R): Election Commission of India is entrusted with the responsibility of conducting the

Presidential elections.


A. A is correct, and R is an appropriate explanation of A.

B. A is correct, but R is not an appropriate explanation of A.


D. A is incorrect, but R is correct

93. In case of a Parliamentary deadlock, the President summons a joint sitting of both houses to

resolve the issue. Who chairs the joint sitting?

A. President

B. Chairman, Rajya Sabha

C. Speaker, Lok Sabha

D. Leader of the House of People

94.Which of the following statements about the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) is INCORRECT?

A. It was established before independence.

B. It functions as an attached office of the Department of Culture.

C. Expeditions abroad' is one of the major activities of the organization.

D. ASI cannot take up conservation projects of sites outside India.

95. When a vacancy occurs in the office of the President due to his resignation, the VicePresiden

acts as the President until a new President is elected. Consider the following with

regard to when the office of Vice-President is vacant.

1. Assertion (A): Speaker, Lok Sabha acts as the President of India in such a case.

2. Reason (R): Speaker, Lok Sabha is ranked immediately below the Vice-President and Prime

Minister in the Table of Precedence.



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C. A is incorrect, but R is correct.

D. Both A and R are incorrect

96. Hannover Messe 2015 was a/an

A. Energy summit held under the aegis of Conference of Parties (COP) of UNFCCC

B. The cultural exchange programme between India and Europe organized by the Ministry of Culture

and Ministry of Tourism

C. An annual global exhibition held in Germany which provided a platform for India to gain entry to

international markets


97. Which of the following is/are the financial powers of the President of India?

1. Money bills can be introduced in the Parliament only with his prior recommendation.

2. He causes to be laid before the Parliament the Union Budget.

3. No demand for a grant can be made except on his recommendation.

4. He can make advances out of the contingency fund of India to meet any unforeseen expenditure.

5. He constitutes the Union finance commission to recommend the distribution of revenues between

the Centre and the states.


A. 3 and 5 only

B. 1, 2 and 5 only

C. 1, 2 and 4 only

D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

98. Remittances are an important source of financial flows for India. Which of the following factors

may lead to an increase in remittance inflows to India?

1. Higher oil prices in the Gulf countries

2. Depreciation of Rupee


A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. None

99. Consider the following statements about the All-India trends of inflation.

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1. Assertion (A): Urban inflation has always been more than rural Inflation in post independent India.

2. Reason (R): Urban India constitutes a larger share of India's GDP than rural areas.





D. A is incorrect, but R is correct.

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