1. tests cs. an osteon is -...

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OSTEOLOGY

1. TESTS

1. CS. An osteon is:

A. Bony blades located around the diaphysis

B. Bony blades located around the canal nutrient

C. Bony blades located around the spinal canal

D. Bony blades located around the canal Havers

E. Bony blades located around the metaphysis

2. CS.Bone growth in thickness occurs due to:

A. Hyaline cartilage

B. Fibrous cartilage

C. Periosteum

D. Metaphysis

E. Fascia

3. CS.Bone growth in length occurs due to:

A. Endosteum

B. Periosteum

C. Articular cartilage

D. Metaepiphyseal cartilage

E. Perichondrium

4. CS. Primary ossification points appear:

A. In the first half of intrauterine period

B. Immediately after birth

C. During the second half intrauterine period

D.By the age of 8

E. After the age of 10

5. CS. Secundary ossification points appear:




D.By the age of 8


6. CS. Auxiliary points of ossification appear :




D.By the age of 8


7. CS.Bones protecting the viscera are:

A. Tubular bones

B. Spongy bones

C. Flat bones

D. Mixed bones

E. Pneumatic bones

8. CS.Carpal and tarsal bones are:

A. Tubular

B. Spongy

C. Flat

D. Mixed

E. Pneumatic

9. CS.Bones that form cavities of the trunk are:

A. Tubular

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B. Spongy

C. Flat

D. Mixted

E. Pneumatic

10. CS.Bones that perform functions of the levers:

A. Tubular

B. Spongy

C. Flat

D. Mixted

E. Pneumatic

11. CS. Diplöe is:

A. Spongy substance of the epiphyses

B. Spongy substance of the carpal bones

C. Spongy substance of the skull bones

D. Spongy substance of the sternum

E. Spongy substance of the vertebrae

12. CS. Structures located near the joints or inside the muscular tendons:

A. Bones of fontanelles

B. Flat bones

C. Sutural bones

D. Short spongy bones

E. Sesamoid bones

13. CS.Structures located inside the tendons:

A. Long tubular bones

B. Flat bones

C. Sutural bones


E. Sesamoid bones

14. CS.Bones that perform function of the speed levers:


B. Flat bones

C. Sutural bones


E. Sesamoid bones

15. CS. Bohes that have diaphysis are:


B. Flat bones

C. Sutural bones


E. Sesamoid bones

16. CS. Structures modeled in relation to the bones that contact are:

A. Articular surfaces

B. Protrusions of the bones

C. Fossae and grooves

D. Orifices and canals

E. Diaphyses

17. CS.Which of the cervical vertebrae does not have spinous process?

A. C 3

B. C 2

C. C 6

D. C 1

E. C 7

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18. CS. Rudimentary vertebrae are:

A. Thoracic vertebrae

B. Cervical vertebrae

C. Lumbar vertebrae

D. Sacral vertebrae

E. Coccygeal vertebrae

19. CS.Vertebrae that have bean-shaped massive body:



C. Lumbar vertebrae

D. Sacral vertebrae


20. CS. Small rounded vertebrae:



C. Lumbar vertebrae

D. Sacral vertebrae


21. CS.Vertebrae forming a single bone in adolescence:



C. Lumbar vertebrae

D. Sacral vertebrae


22. CS.Vertebrae with bifid spinous processes are:



C. Lumbar vertebrae

D. Sacral vertebrae


23. CS.Vertebrae with long transverse cvazifrontal processes:



C. Lumbar vertebrae

D. Sacral vertebrae


24. CS.Vertebrae with articular surfaces located in the sagittal plane:

A. Atlas

B. Axis

C. VI-th cervical

D. I-st thoracic

E. I-st lumbar

25. CS.Vertebrae that have carotid tubercle:

A. Atlas

B. Axis

C. VI-th cervical

D. I-st thoracic

E. Lumbar vertebrae

26. CS.Vertebrae that have superior and inferior costal hemifossae

A. Atlas

B. Axis

C. VI-th cervical

D. I-st thoracic

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E. II-nd lumbar

27. CS.Vertebrae that have superior articular surfaces located on the body of vertebra:

A. Atlas

B. Axis

C. VI-th cervical

D. I-st thoracic

E. I-st lumbar

28. CS.Vertebra without the body is:

A. Atlas

B. Axis

C. VI-th cervical

D. I-st thoracic

E. V-th lumbar

29. CS. Vertebra that has only half of costal fossa on its body is:

A. Th 1

B. Th 12

C. T 11

D. Th 10

E. Th 8

30. CS. Promontorium is formed by the:

A. The last cervical and Th1 vertebrae

B. The last thoracic and first lumbar vertebrae

C. The last lumbar and first sacral vertebrae

D. The last sacral and Co1 vertebrae

E. The Th6 and Th7

31. CS.One of functions of the spinal curvatures is:

A. Shock absorption

B. Consolidation of the vertebrae

C. Support

D. Fixation of the limb

E. Protection

32. CS.Which spinal curvature occurs at the age of 2-3 months of postnatal development?

A. Cervical lordosis

B. Thoracic scoliosis

C. Lumbar lordosis

D. Sacral kyphosis

E. Thoracic kyphosis

33. CS. Cartilage of which rib has two articular surfaces:

A. First

B. Fifth

C. Eleventh

D. Second

E. Twelve

34. CS. Rib that can not be palpated on alive person:

A. XI

B. IX

C. II

D. I

E. XII

35. CS.The thorax is flat:

A. In athletes

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B. In brachimorphs

C. In senile people

D. In mesomorphs

E. In dolichomorphs

36. CS. Structure containing superior and inferior apertures:

A. Vertebral column

B. Sternum

C. Thoracic cage

D. Sacrum

E. Ribs

37. CS.Structure that has the base and apex:

A. Vertebral column

B. Sternum

C. Thoracic cage

D. Sacrum

E. XII-th ribs

38. CS.Structure that consists of the manubrium, body and xiphoid process:

A. Vertebral column

B. Sternum

C. Thoracic cage

D. Sacrum

E. XII-th ribs

39. CS.The intertubercular grove is located on the:

A. Scapula

B. Clavicle

C. Humerus

D. Radius

E. Ulna

40. CS. Coracoid process is located on the:

A. Scapula

B. Clavicle

C. Humerus

D. Radius

E. Ulna

41. CS. Conoid tubercle is placed on the:

A. Scapula

B. Clavicle

C. Humerus

D. Radius

E. Ulna

42. CS. Trapezoid line passes on the:

A. Scapula

B. Clavicle

C. Humerus

D. Radius

E. Ulna

43. CS. Trochlear notch is located on the :

A. Scapula

B. Clavicle

C. Humerus

D. Radius

E. Ulna

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44. CS. Acromion is a part of:

A. Scapula

B. Clavicle

C. Humerus

D. Radius

E. Ulna

45. CS.Groove of the ulnar nerve is located on the:

A. Scapula

B. Clavicle

C. Humerus

D. Radius

E. Ulna

46. CS. Ulnar notch is related to the :

A. Scapula

B. Clavicle

C. Humerus

D. Radius

E. Ulna

47. CS.Which are the sesamoid bones of the lower limb?

A. Talus

B. Patella

C. Cuboid bone

D. Medial cuneiform bone

E. Navicular bone

48. CS. What anatomical structure separates the sciatic notches?

A. Sciatic tuber

B. Pubic tubercle

C. Inferior posterior iliac spine

D. Sciatic spine

E. Gluteal tuberosity

49. CS. Descriptive elements of the femur:

A.Gluteal tuberosity

B.Medial lip

C. Pectineal line

D. Lateral lip

E. All above mentioned

50. CS. Sphenoid bone takes part in formation of the orifice:

A. Jugular

B. Occipital

C. Lacerate

D. Infraorbitar

E. Mastoid

51. CS.Anatomical structures located on the lateral parts of the occipital bone:

A. Jugul notch

B. Groove of the sigmoid sinus

C. Occipital condyles

D. Hypoglossal canal

E. All above mentioned

52. CS.All statements regarding the temporal pyramid are correct, except:

A. The groove of superior petrosal sinus passes on the superior border of pyramid

B. Jugular fossa is located on its posterior surface

C. Trigeminal impression is located near the apex of pyramid

D. External orifice of the carotid canal is located near the jugular fossa

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E. Styloid process is located laterally to the jugular fossa

53. CS.Which canal is not placed inside of temporal pyramid?

A. Carotid canal

B. Canal of the facial nerve

C. Tympanic canalicle

D. Canal of hypoglossal nerve

E. Canal of the greater petrosal nerve

54. CS.All statements regarding the temporal bone are correct, except:

A. Orifices of the facial and vestibulocochlear nerves and blood vessels are located on the floor of the internal

acoustic meatus

B. External aperture of the cochlear canal is placed on the posterior surface of pyramid

C. Groove of the occipital artery is placed medially to the mastoid notch

D. Mastoid antrum communicates with the tympanic cavity

E. Timpanosquamous fissure divides into 2 fissures: petrosquamous and petrotympanic

55. CS.Which canal is inferior continuation of the pterygopalatine fossa?

A. Infraorbitar

B. Greater palatine

C. Lesser palatine

D. Condylar

E. Carotid

56. CS. Orbit communicates with the pterygopalatine fossa through the:

A. Round foramen

B. Greater palatine

C. Inferior orbital fissure

D. Superior orbital fissure

E. Pterygoid canal

57. CS. Pterygopalatine fossa communicates with the orbit through the:

A. Superior orbital fissure

B. Inferior orbital fissure

C. Optic canal

D. Pterygomaxillary fissure

E. Petrosquamousfissure

58. CS.What are fontanelles?

A. Cartilaginous parts of the calvaria

B. Membranous parts of the calvaria

C. Sutures of the calvaria

D. Disorders of osteogenesis

E. Fissuresof the calvaria

59. CS.Bone that develops by desmal and chondral osteogenesis is:

A. Maxilla

B. Nasal bone

C. Temporal bone

D. Ethmoid bone

E. Inferior nasal concha

60. CS. Impressions of Pacchionian granulations are related to the:

A. Temporal bone

B. Occipital bone

C. Sphenoid bone

D. Frontal bone

E. Parietal bone

61. CS. Oval foramen is located on the:

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A. Temporal bone.

B. Occipital bone

C. Sphenoid bone

D. Frontal bone

E. Parietal bone

62. CS. Ethmoid notch is related to the:

A. Temporal bone

B. Occipital bone

C. Sphenoid bone

D. Frontal bone

E. Parietal bone

63. CS. Pterygoid canal is related to the:

A. Parietal bone

B. Temporal bone

C. Frontal bone

D. Sphenoid bone

E. Occipital bone

64. CS. Optic canal passes through the:

A. Parietal bone

B. Temporal bone

C. Frontal bone

D. Sphenoid bone

E. Occipital bone

65. CS.Groove of the inferior petrosal sinus is associated to the:

A. Parietal bone

B. Temporal bone

C. Frontal bone

D. Sphenoid bone

E. Ethmoid bone

66. CS.Structure located on the apex of the temporal is:

A.External carotid foramen

B.Internal acoustic porus

C. Internal carotid foramen

D.Pterygoid canal

E. Hypoglossal canal

67. CS.Frontal angle is related to the:

A. Parietal bone

B. Temporal bone

C. Frontal bone

D. Sphenoid bone

E. Occipital bone

68. CS.Facial canal opens into the external environment by:

A. Hiatus of the greater petrosal nerve canal

B. Internal acoustic porus

C. Stylomastoid foramen

D. Petrosquamous fissure

E. Spinous foramen

69. CS. Hypoglossal canal passes through the:

A. Parietal bone

B. Temporal bone

C. Frontal bone

D. Sphenoid bone

E. Occipital bone

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70. CS. Contents of the fossula petrosa :

A. Facial nerve

B. Inferior orifice of the tympanic canalicle

C. Cranial nerves VII and VIII

D. Chorda tympani

E. Auricular branch of the vagus nerve

71. CS. Tympanic part is associated with the:

A. Temporal bone

B. Occipital bone

C. Sphenoid bone

D. Frontal bone

E. Parietal bone

72. CS. Structure located on the apex of the orbit is:

A. Zygomatic bone

B. Fossa of the lacrimal sac

C. Infraorbitar groove

D. Optic canal

E. Trochlear fossa

73. CS.Narrow space between the lateral and inferior orbital wall is called:

A. Incisive canal

B. Piriform aperture

C. Mastoid antrum

D. Inferior orbital fissure

E. All above mentioned are wrong

74. CS.Structure located on the base of the pterygoid process is:

A. Incisive canal


C. Mastoid antrum


E. All above mentioned foramen are wrong

75. CS. Orifice delimited by the nasal notch of the maxilla is called:

A. Incisive canal


C. Mastoid antrum



76. CS. Structure located on the anterior end of the median palatine groove is:

A. Incisive canal


C. Mastoid antrum



77. CS. From jugular fossa starts:

A. Mastoid canalicle

B. Musculotubal canal

C. Canalicle of the chorda tympani

D. Tympanic canalicle


78. CS.Structure starting from the fossula petrosa is:



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C. Canal of the chorda tympani


E. Craniopharyngeal canal

79. CS. Posterior opening of the nasal cavity is:



C. Canal of the chorda tympani


E. Choanae

80. CS. Canals starting from the facial nerve canal are:





E. Semicanal of auditory tube

81. CS.Orifices open on the superior border of temporal pyramid are:





E. Condylar canal

82. CS. Structures formed by three bones: sphenoid, maxilla and palatine are:

A. Lacerate foramen

B. Canal of hypoglossal nerve

C. Round foramen

D. Jugular foramen


83. CS. Apex of temporal pyramid is limited in front by:

A. Lacerate foramen


C. Round foramen

D. Jugular foramen

E. Pterygopalatine canal

84. CS. On the base of occipital condyle are located:

A. Lacerate foramen


C. Round foramen

D. Jugular foramen


85. CS.On the maxillary surface of the greater wing of sphenoid bone are open:

A. Lacerate foramen


C. Round foramen

D. Jugular foramen


86. CS.Temporal and occipital bones delimit:

A. Lacerate foramen


C. Round foramen

D. Jugular foramen


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87. CS. Ethmoid bulla bulges into:

A. Inferior nasal meatus

B. On the medial wall of the orbit

C. On the base of zygomatic process

D. On the pyramid of temporal bone

E. In middle nasal meatus

88. CS. Nasolacrimal canal opens into:


B. Medial wall of the orbit

C. Base of zygomatic process

D. Pyramid of temporal bone

E. Middle nasal meatus

89. CS. Ethmoid orifices are associated with:






90. CS. Aperture of the sphenoid sinus opens into:

A.Middle nasal meatus

B.Sphenoethmoid recess

C. Pterygopalatine fossa

D.Middle cranial fossa

E. All above mentioned are right

91. CS. Mandibular fossa is associated with:

A. Maxilla

B. Temporal pyramid


D. Squama and tympanic part of the temporal bone

E. Zygomatic arch

92. CS. Groove of superior petrosal sinus relates to the:

A. inferior nasal meatus





93. CS.Structure containing a separating plate (lamina) is:


B. Incisive canal

C. Musculotubal canal


E. Carotid canal

94. CS. Laterally to the sphenoid body is open:


B. Incisive canal



E. Carotid canal

95. CS.Canals open into the tympanomastoid fissure are:


B. Incisive canal



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E. Carotid canal

96. CS.Nasal cavity communicates with the oral one through the:


B. Incisive canal



E. Carotid canal

97. CS. Pterygopalatine fossa communicates with the nasal cavity through the:

A. Round foramen

B. Sphenopalatine foramen

C. Foramen ovale

D. Pterygomaxillariy fissure

E. Pterygoid canal

98. CS. Pterygopalatine fossa communicates with the oral cavity through the:

A. Sphenopalatine foramen

B. Pterygoid canal

C. Round foramen

D. Greater palatine foramen

E. Condylar canal

99. CS.Nasal cavity communicates with pterygopalatine fossa through the: A. Sphenopalatine foramen

B. Greater palatine foramen

C. Pterygoid canal

D. Round foramen

E. Posterior ethmoid canal

100. CS.Bones forming the inferior orbital wall are: A. Maxilla

B. Palatine bone

C. Os sphenoidale

D. Os lacrimale

E. Os incisivum

101. CS.Structure passing through the tympanic cavity is:


B. Incisive canal



E. Carotid canal

102. CS. Frankfurt line refers to:

A. Thoracic cage

B. Skull

C. Pelvis

D. Vertebral column

E. Upper limb

103. CS. Angle of Camper refers to:

A. Thoracic cage

B. Skull

C. Pelvis

D. Vertebral column

E. Upper limb

104. CS. Line of Schoemacker refers to:

A. Thoracic cage

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B. Skull

C. Pelvis

D. Vertebral column

E. Lower limb

105. CS. Tubercle of Chassaignac is associated with:

A. Ribs

B. Skull

C. Pelvis

D. Vertebral column

E. Upper limb

106. CS. Tubercle of Lisfranc is reffered to:

A. Thoracic cage

B. Skull

C. Pelvis

D. Vertebral column

E. Lower limb

107. CS. Line of Lange refers to:

A. Thoracic cage

B. Skull

C. Pelvis

D. Vertebral column

E. Lower limb

108. CS. Sphenoethmoid recess has openings of the:

A. Incisive foramen

B. Aperture of sphenoid sinus

C. Ethmoid infundibulum

D. Posterior cells of ethmoid bone

E. Nasolacrimal canal

109. CS. Angle of Louis is located on:

A. Thoracic cage

B. Skull

C. Pelvis

D. Vertebral column

E. Upper limb

110. CM. Bone functions are:

A.Hematopoiesis

B.Support

C. Protection

D. Locomotion

E. Lymphopoiesis

111. CM.Anatomical terms concerning to the morphofunctional unit of bone tissue are:

A. Ossein

B. Osteon

C. Red bony marrow

D. Osteocyte

E. Haversian system

112. CM.Notions related to the bony system are: A. Miotom

B. Osteon

C. Periostium

D. Red bony marrow

E. Ectoderm

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113. CM. Biological functions of the bone as an organ are:

A. Growth

B. Hematopoiesis

C. Locomotion

D. Regeneration

E. Protection

114. CM. Portions of a long tubular bone in adult:

A. Metaphysis

B. Apophysis

C. Diaphysis

D. Cortex

E. Epiphysis

115. CM.Types of points (centers)of ossification are:

A. Tubercular

B. Secondary

C. Epicondylar

D. Primary

E. Auxilliary

116. CM.Spongy bony tissue is present inside:

A. Skull bones

B. Tarsal bones

C. Sternum

D. Diaphyses of tubular bones

E. Epiphysesof tubular bones

117. CM. In structure of the bone in adults may be revealed osteons as the follows:

A. In development

B. Fragmented

C. Mature

D. Deformed

E. In the state of resorption

118. CM.Structural elements of the bone are:

A. Cambial layer

B. Layer of osteons

C. Pericondrium

D. Endostium

E. Periostium

119. CM. Periosteum in children consists of the following layers:

A. Cambial

B. Endosteal

C. Adventitinal

D. Endochondral

E. Fibroelastic

120. CM.Position of osseous trabeculae corresponds to:

A. Axis of bone

B. Direction of muscular fibers

C. Direction of lines of pressure

D. Axes of movements in joint

E. Direction of lines oftraction

121. CM.There are the following types of osteogenesis:

A. Enchondral

B. Perichondral

C. Periosteal

D. Medullary

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E. Desmal

122. CM.Axial skeleton consists of:

A. Skull

B. Bones of shoulder girdle

C. Ribs

D. Pelvis

E. Vertebral column

123. E

CM.Concerning long tubular bones:

A. Consist of body and two epiphyses

B. Take part in formation of body cavities

C. Contain cavities lining by mucosa

D. Have articular covered by cartilage

E. Play functions of the levers

124. CM.Primary bones are:

A. Vertebrae

B. Parietal bone

C. Mandible

D. Frontal bone (Squama)

E. Sternum

125. CM. Bones related to the skull are:

A. Tubular

B. Spongy

C. Flat

D. Mixted

E. Pneumatic

126. CM.Bones that consist of some parts different by their shape and structure:

A. Tubular bones

B. Spongy bones

C. Flat bones

D. Mixted bones

E. Pneumatic bones

127. CM. Small, flat and inconstant bones are:

A. Fontanel bones

B. Flat bones

C. Intrasutural bones (Wormian bones)


E. Sesamoid bones

128. CM. Structures determed by exerted muscular traction:


B. Bony projections



E. Extremities

129. CM.Structures that serve for insertion of the tendons or ligaments, and as passage for tendons, vessels and

nerves:


B. Bony projections



E. Extremities

130. CM.Structures that serve for passage of blood vessels:

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B. Bony projections

C. Grooves


E. Proximal and distal extremities

131. CM.Highlight morphological elements of the vertebrae

A. Articular processes of the vertebrae

B. Vertebral arch

C.Coronoid process

D.Body of vertebra

E. Styloid process

132. CM.The main elements of a vertebra are:

A. Arch

B. Styloid process

C. Body

D. Intervertebral foramen

E. Pedicles

133. CM.Choose the terms applied for vertebral processes

A.Styloid process

B. Spinous process

C.Superior articular process

D.Transverse process

E. Pyramidal process

134. CM. Typical cervical vertebrae are distinguished by:

A. Oval body

B. Round vertebral foramen

C. Presence of transverse foramina

D. Costotransversal processes

E. Long spinous processes

135. CM.Highlight the distinctive characters of the cervical vertebrae

A. Foramen of process transverse process

B. Lateral masses

C.Bifid spinous process

D.Mamillary processes

E. Grooves forspinalnerves

136. CM.Terms applied for structure of the first cervical vertebra

A. Lateral masses

B.Accessory process

C. Fovea dentis

D.Posterior arch

E. Carotid groove

137. CM.Distinctive characters of the axis:

A. Anterior arch

B. Apex dentis

C. Dens

D. Anteriorarticular surface

E.Superiorarticular surfaces

138. CM. Spinous processes are forked (bifid) in vertebrae:

A. C 1

B. C 2

C. C 3

D. C 5

E. C 7

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139. CM.Distinctive characters of typical thoracic vertebrae are:

A.Superiorand inferiorcostal fossae

B.Costotransversal process

C.Costalfoveae of transverse process

D. Accessory process

E. Nutritinal foramen

140. CM.Vertebrae without orifice in transverse process:



C. Lumbar vertebrae

D. Sacral vertebrae

E. Coccigeal vertebrae

141. CM.Fused vertebrae forming a single bone are:



C. Lumbar vertebrae

D. Sacral vertebrae


142. CM.Thoracic vertebrae with complet costal fossae on the body:

A.First ( I)

B.Tenth (X)

C.Eleventh (XI)

D.Twelveth(XII

E. Ninth(IX)

143. CM. Highlight the specific terms used only for lumbar vertebrae.

A.Transverse process

B. Accessory process

C. Superior articular processes

D.Inferior articular processes

E. Mamillary process

144. CM. Highlight anatomic structures located on the dorsal surface of the sacrum

A. Median sacral crest

B.Transverse line

C.Sacral canal

D.Sacral hiatus

E. Inferior articular process

145. CM. What is appearance of anomaly „spina bifida aperta”?

A. Notch of the vertebral body

B. Notch of the vertebral arch

C. Notch of the vertebral arch, accompanied by infringement of integrity of soft tissue

D. Inconcrescence of the arch with vertebral body

E. Spinal hernia (meningomielocele)

146. CM. Highlight anomalies of transition of the vertebrae

A. Assimilation of the atlas

B. Spondylolysis

C. Sacralization

D. Lumbalization

E. All are right

147. CM.Vertebrae that do not have costal fossae /semifossae/ on their body are:



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C. Lumbar vertebrae

D. Sacral vertebrae


148. CM. Vertebrae that carry the mamillary process:

A. Cervical vertebrae

B. XII-th thoracic

C. Lumbar vertebrae

D. Sacral vertebrae


149. CM. Structures related to the Atlas are:

A. Lateral masses

B. Anterior and posterior arches

C. Groove of the vertebral artery

D. Superior and inferior articular surfaces

E. Spinous process

150. CM. Structures related to the epistrofeus are:

A. Odontoid process

B. Grooves of the vertebral artery

C. Anterior and posterior articular surfaces

D. Bifid spinous process

E. Anterior tubercle

151. CM.Costal fossae are missing on the transverse processes of the vertebrae:

A. Th I

B. Th V

C. Th XI

D. Th X

E. Th XII

152. CM.Formations characteristic only for the thoracic vertebrae:

A. Spinous processes

B. Articular processes

C. Costal foveae on the body

D. Orifices on the transverse processes

E. Costal foveae on the transverse processes

153. CM. Intervertebral holes are bounded by the:

A. Articular processes

B. Inferior vertebral notch

C. Transverse processes

D. Superior vertebral notch

E. Vertebral arch

154. CM.Vertebrae carring the articular foveae on their body are:

A. C 3

B. Th 1

C. L 3

D. C 7

E. Th 11

155. CM. Which of the vertebrae have a special name (term)?

A. Th 5

B. C 1

C. L 4

D. C 7

E. C 2

19

156. CM.The structures taking part in formation of the spinal canal are:

A. Articular processes

B. Transverse processes

C. Vertebral arch

D. Vertebral body

E. Vertebral pedicles

157. CM.Vertebral anomalies at the limitrophe regions between the divisions of the vertebral column:

A. Sacralization

B. Vertebral block

C. Asomia

D. Platyspondilia

E. Lumbalization

158. CM. Curvatures of the spine in the sagittal plane are:

A. Cervical lordosis

B. Thoracic scoliosis

C. Thoracic kyphosis

D. Lumbar lordosis

E. Cervical scoliosis

159. CM. Anomalies of the vertebrae are:

A. Spina bifida

B. Spondylolysis

C. Concrescence

D. Osteopoikilosis

E. Sirenomelia

160. CM.Highlight parts of the rib

A.Head of the rib

B.Neck of the rib

C.Body of the rib

D.Costal cartilage

E. Groove of the spinal nerve

161. CM.Location of the groove of subclavian artery on the first rib:

A. Posteriorly to the costal tubercle

B.Posteriorly to the tubercle of the anterior scalene muscle

C. Anteriorly to the tubercle of the anterior scalene muscle

D.On the costal tubercle

E. On the superior surface of the rib

162. CM.True ribs are:

A. VII-th rib

B. VIII-th rib

C. V-th rib

D. VI-th rib

E. IX-th rib

163. CM.False ribs are:

A. X-th rib

B. VI-th rib

C. VIII-th rib

D. XI-th rib

E. IX-th rib

164. CM.Head of which rib is missing the crest?

A. VII-th rib

B. X-th rib

C. I-st rib

D. XI-th rib

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E. XII-th rib

165. CM. Ribs carring a single articular surface on the head:

A. I-st rib

B. V-th rib

C. X-th rib

D. II-nd rib

E. XII-th rib

166. CM. Ribs without the costal tubercle are:

A. I-st rib

B. V-th rib

C. XI-th rib

D. II-nd rib

E. XII-th rib

167. CM. Ribs with 2 articular surfaces on the head:

A. I-st rib

B. V-th rib

C. X-th rib

D. II-nd rib

E. XII-th rib

168. CM.The first rib: A. It is atypic

B. It is the shortest one, wider and more curved

C. It is flattened in the superoinferior sense

D. Has one tubercle and 2 grooves on the inferior surface

E. Its anterior end is wider and thicker than the posterior one

169. CM. Articular surface is absent on the transverse process of the:

A. I-st rib

B. XI-th rib

C. X-th rib

D. XII-th rib

E. II-nd rib

170. CM. Sternal manubrium:

A. Is located at the level of the II-nd and III-rd thoracic vertebrae

B. Articular facet is located on its superior margin

C. Clavicular notches are located on its superolateral angles

D. 2 costal articular fossae are placed on its lateral margins

E. Inferior margin joins to the sternal body forming the sternal angle (Louis)

171. CM. Anatomical structures located on the sternal manubrium are:

A.Costal facets

B. Jugular notch

C. Clavicular notch

D. Costal notch

E. Clavicular facets

172. CM.Parts of the sternum are:

A. Sternal body

B. Styloid process

C. Sternal manubrium

D. Clavicular notch

E. Jugular notch

173. CM. Statements correctly applied to the sternal body:

A. Is the longest portion of the sternum

21

B. It locates at the level of the vertebrae Th5 - Th8 ½ Th9

C. Is formed by fusion of 4 sternebrae

D. Articular surfaces for the ribs II –VII are located on its lateral side

E. Forms the subcostal angle together with the xyphoid process

174. CM. Location of the sternal angle:

A. At fusion of the manubrium with the sternal body

B. In union of the sternal body with the xiphoid process

C. In the middle of sternal body

D. At the level of jugular notch

E. At the level of the II-nd costal notches

175. CM. Bones delimiting the upper thoracic aperture are:

A. Clavicle

B. The I-st rib

C. Sternal body

D. Sternal manubrium

E. The I-st thoracic vertebra

176. CM. Structures bordering the superior thoracic aperture are:

A. VI-th rib

B. Xiphoid process of the sternum

C. Costal arch

D. VIII-th and X-th ribs

E. Body of the Th X-th vertebra

177. CM. Shape and dimensions of the thorax depend on:

A. Shape of the sternum

B. Age

C. Costovertebral joints

D. Gender

E. Constitutional type

178. CM. Structures that have not lordoses and kyphoses:

A. Vertebral column

B. Sternum

C. Thoracic cage

D. Sacrum

E. Ribs

179. CM. Bones of the shoulder girdle:

A. Humerus

B. Clavicle

C. Sternum

D. Scapula

E. I-st rib

180. CM. Statements correctly applied to the clavicle:

A. It is the single long bone in the body located horizontally

B. The entire its length is located subcutaneously

C. It is the first bone to begin ossification

D. Acromial end ossifys endesmally

E. It is the single long bone to ossify partly endesmally

181. CM. Lateral angle of the scapula carries:

A. Spine of the scapula

B. Subarticular (infraglenoid) tubercle

C. Coracoid process

D. Supraspinous fossa

E. Neck of the scapula

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182. CM. Anatomical structures located at the level of the lateral scapular angle

A. Acromial articular surface

B. Infraspinous fossa

C. Glenoid cavity

D. Supraglenoid tubercle

E. Clavicular articular surface

183. CM. The main components of the upper limb skeleton are:

A. Shoulder girdle

B. Arm

C. Hand

D. Skeleton of the free upper limb

E. Forearm

184. CM. Segments of the free upper limb

A. Forearm bones

B. Humerus

C. Bones of the hand

D. Arm

E. Phalanges of the fingers

185. CM. Bones of the shoulder girdle are:

A. Sternum.

B. Clavicle

C. Humerus

D. Scapula

E. First rib

186. CM. Structural elements of the shoulder girdle bone palpable on alive person:

A. Sternal end of clavicle

B. Supraglenoid tubercle

C. Acromial end of clavicle

D. Acromion

E. Body of the clavicle

187. CM. Structural elements located on the dorsal surface of the scapula

A. Acromial process

B. Supraspinous fossa

C. Coracoid process

D. Scapular spine

E. Glenoid cavity

188. CM. Structural elements located on the acromial end of the clavicle

A. Acromial articular surface

B. Conoid tubercle

C. Trapezoid line

D. Sternal articular surface

E. Clavicular articular surface

189. CM. Statements correctly pertain to the upper free limb skeleton:

A. Lateral epicondyle of the humerus is more prominent than the medial one

B. Head of the radius is disc-shaped

C. Ulna is shorter than radius

D. Supinator fossa located under the radial notch of the ulna is delimited posteriorly by the homonymous crest

E. Anterior surface of coronoid process is smooth

190. CM. Statements correctly pertain to the humerus: A. Anatomical neck separates the head of the humerus from the greater and lesser tubercles

B. Surgical neck is located in the middle part of the diaphysis of the humerus

C. 2 fossae: coronoid and olecranian are located proximally to the trochlea of the humerus

D. Medial epicondyle starts from the capitulum of the humerus, lateral one – from the trochlea

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E. Risc of traumatic injury of the radial and ulnar nerves exists in fractures of the humerus

191. CM. Anatomical structures located at the level of the upper end of the humerus

A. Anatomical neck

B. Lateral epicondyle

C. Intertubercular groove

D. Head of the humerus

E. Groove of the ulnar nerve

192. CM.Location of the groove of radial nerve?

A. Medial surface

B. Lateral surface

C. Anterior surface

D. Posterior surface

E. Lateral epicondyle

193. CM. Anatomical structures located at the level of the distal end of humerus

A. Trochlea of the humerus

B. Greater tubercle

C. Groove of the ulnar nerve

D. Olecranian fossa

E. Groove of the radial nerve

194. CM. Anatomical structures of the proximal end of humerus:

A. Greater tubercle

B. Crest of the lesser tubercle

C. Groove of the radial nerve

D. Anatomical neck

E. Head of the condyle of the humerus

195. CM. Anatomical structures of the distal end of humerus are:

A. Anatomical neck

B. Coronoid fossa

C. Intertubercular groove

D. Groove of the ulnar nerve

E. Groove of the radial nerve

196. CM. Elements of the humerus that may be palpated on alive person:

A. Anatomical neck

B. Medial epicondyle

C. Coronoid fossa

D. Lateral epicondyle

E. Surgical neck

197. CM.Which bones form the skeleton of forearm?

A. Radial bone

B.Humerus

C. Fibula

D. Ulna

E. Olecranon

198. CM. Anatomical structures situated at the proximal end of the ulna.

A. Olecranon.

B. Head of ulna.

C. Ulnar notch.

D. Trochlear notch.

E. Supinator crest.

199. CM. Anatomical structures located at the level of distal part of radial bone:

A. Neck of the radius

24

B. Head of the radius.

C. Ulnar notch

D. Styloid process

E. Radial tuberosity

200. CM. Which of the upper limb bones carries an articular circumference?

A.Humerus

B. Ulna

C. Clavicle

D. Radial bone


201. CM. Which of the upper limb bones carries the styloid process?

A. Os hamatum

B. Humerus

C. Ulna

D. Radial. bone

E. Scapula

202. CM. Statements that pertain to the forearm bones:

A. Lateral surface of the radial bone continues distally by styloid process

B. Posterior border of the radial bone is seen better in its distal part

C. Proximal end of the ulna has 2 processes and 2 notches

D. Posterior border of the ulna has subcutaneous location

E. Nutritional orifice of the ulna is located on the proximal part of the anterior surface

203. CM. Elements of the upper limb bones that can be palpated on alive person:

A. Coronoid process of the ulna

B. Olecranon

C. Styloid process of the ulna

D. Styloid process of the radial bone

E. Interosseal margin of the radius

204. CM. Bones of the hand: A. Scaphoid bone is the biggest bone of the proximal row of the carpus

B. Pisiform bone is located inside the tendon of the radial flexor of the carpus

C. The first metacarpal bone is the shortest metacarpal bone

D. Each phalanx has 3 parts: base, body and head

E. Phalange of the thumb are thicker and longer than those of the other fingers

205. CM. What are the segments of the skeleton of the hand?

A. Metacarpus

B. Tarsus

C. Carpus

D. Phalanges of the fingers

E. Brachium

206. CM.Developmental abnormalities of the skeleton of the hand

A. Acheiria

B. Apodia

C. Polydactyly

D. Syndactyly

E. Sirenomelia

207. CM. Carpal bones:

A. Bones of the proximal row (in the lateral-medial sence) are located in the order: scaphoid, lunate, pyramidal,

pisiform

B. Each carpal bone has 6 articular surfaces

C. Proximal row of the carpal bones forms a structure that is convex proximally and concave distally

D. Distal row has one surface convex proximally and other rectiline distally

E. There are 4 prominent points of insertion and origin on the carpal bones: on the scaphoid, pisiform, trapezoid and

25

hamate bones

208. CM.In the metacarpal bones are distinguished:

A. Epicondyles

B. Base

C. Body

D. Neck

E. Head

209. CM.The following bones have the styloid process:

A. Scapula

B. Clavicle

C. Humerus

D. Radius

E. Ulna

210. CM.What bones form the distal row of the carpal bones?

A.Trapezoid

B. Lunate

C.Capitate

D. Hamate

E. Navicular

211. CM. Indicate parts of the metacarpal bone

A. Base

B.Neck

C.Body

D.Head

E. Epiphysis

212. CM.Bones that have the head and neck are:

A. Scapula

B. Clavicle

C. Humerus

D. Radius

E. Ulna

213. CM.Mark anomalies of the upper limb

A. Focomelia

B. Acheiria

C. Rachischisis

D. Syndactilia

E. Spondylolisis.

214. CM.Components of the lower limb skeleton are:

A. Femur

B. Brachium

C. Girdle

D. Skeleton of the free lower limb

E. Humerus

215. CM.Statements applied to the coxal bone:

A. Ilion is placed superiorly, pubic bone - anteroinferiorly, sciaticbone - posteroinferiorly

B. Tubercle of the pubic bone and anterior superior iliac spine are located in the frontal plane

C. Obturator foramen is delimited by the pubic bone anterosuperiorly, and by sciatic bone - posteroinferiorly

D. Posterior gluteal line is the longest of those 3 gluteal lines

E. The uppest point of the iliac is located at the level of the 4-th lumbar intervertebral disc

216. CM. Coxal bone consists of:

A. Pubic bone

26

B. Obturator foramen

C. Iliac bone

D. Iliac crest

E. Sciatic bone

217. CM. Of what bones the coxal bone consists?

A. Pubic bone

B. Sacrum

C. Sciatic bone

D. Ilium

E. Coccygeal bone

218. CM. Anatomical structures of the iliac bone.

A. Obturator groove

B. Auricular surface

C. Symphysial surface

D. Greater wing

E. Anterior gluteal line

219. CM. Anatomical structures located on the iliac crest

A. Iliac tuberosity

B. Anterior superior iliac spine

C. Spina iliaca posterior inferior

D. Arcuate line

E. Intermedial line

220. CM. Anatomical structures of the acetabulum

A. Lunate surface.

B. Acetabular fossa.

C. Acetabular notch.

D. Fovea of the head of femur.

E. Pubic tubercle

221. CM. Anatomical structures of the pubic bone:

A. Pubic tubercle

B. Obturator groove

C. Iliopubic eminence

D. Pubic crest

E. Auricular surface

222. CM. Structures of the hip bone palpabile on alive person are:

A. Iliac crest

B. Acetabulum

C. Anterior superior iliac spine

D. Sciatic tuber

E. Sciatic spine

223. CM. Pelvis as a whole: A. Superior aperture of the small pelvis is inclined anteroinferiorly

B. Angle of inclination from the horizontal plane is smaller in women than in men

C. Anterior iliac spines and sciatic tubers in anatomical position are located in the same frontal plane

D. Inferior pelvic aperture in female is larger than in men

E. True conjugate is the distance between the promontory and the most prominent posteriorly point of the pubic

symphysis.

224. CM. Statements correctly applied to the skeleton of the lower limb:

A. Lesser trochanter is located in the angle formed by the neck and body of the femur

B. Body of the femur is convex anteriorly

C. Femur can be palpated at the distal part only

D. Apex of the patella is directed upward

E. Patella has function of support

27

225. CM. Structures of the distal end of the femur are:

A. Neck of the femur

B. Popliteal surface

C. Gluteal tuberosity

D. Medial condyle


226. CM. Anatomical structures located at the level of proximal end of the femur

A.Greater trochanter

B. Medial condyle

C. Rough line (linea aspera)

D. Intertrochanteric line

E. Acetabulum

227. CM. Anatomical structures located at the level of distal end of the femur

A. Lateral epicondyle


C. Popliteal surface

D. Patellary surface

E. Lunate surface

228. CM. Structural elements that can be palpated on alive person

A. Head of the femur


C. Lesser trochanter

D. Greater trochanter


229. CM. Structures of the proximal end of the tibia:

A. Intercondilar eminence

B. Fibular articular surface

C. Medial intercondylar tubercle

D. Medial malleolus

E. Lateral intercondylar tubercle

230. CM. Which of the bones of the lower limb carry malleoli?

A. Tibia

B. Talus

C. Fibula

D. Calcaneus

E. Patella

231. CM. Structural elements of the proximal end of the tibia?

A. Anterior intercondylar area

B. Fibular articular surface

C. Fibular notch

D.Intercondylar eminence

E. Medial epicondyle

232. CM.Structural elements of the distal end of the tibia:

A. Line of the soleus muscle

B. Malleolar groove

C. Medial malleolus

D. Lateral malleolus

E. Fibular notch

233. CM. Structural elements of the leg bones that can be palpated on alive person:

A. Intercondilar eminence

B. Lateral maleola

28

C. Medial malleolus

D. Tuberosity of the tibia

E. Head of the fibula

234. CM. Skeleton of the foot is subdivided into:

A. Carpal bones

B. Tarsal bones

C. Metacarpal bones

D. Metatarsal bones

E. Bones of the toes

235. CM.What bones of the foot form the proximal row of the tarsus?

A. Medial cuneiform bone

B. Navicular bone

C. Calcaneus

D. Talus

E. Lunate bone

236. CM. Anatomical structures situated at the level of the astragalus.

A. Trochlea tali

B. Medial malleolar surface

C. Head of the talus

D. Posterior articular surface of the calcanean bone


237. CM. Anatomical structures located at the level of the calcaneus

A. Lateral malleolar surface

B. Sustentaculum tali

C. Middle talar articular surface

D. Navicular articular surface

E. Cuboid articular surface

238. CM. Bones of the distal row of the tarsus:

A. Astragalus (talar bone)

B. Cuboid bone

C. Medial cuneiform bone

D. Navicular bone

E. Lateral cuneiform bone

239. CM. Bones forming the solidar complex of the foot:

A. Calcaneus

B. Navicular bone

C. Astragalus (talar bone)

D. Cuneiform bones

E. Cuboid bone

240. CM. Plantar arches:

A. They are in humans and some higher vertebrates

B. Convexity of the transverse arch is more pronounced at the medial edge of the plant

C. Toes do not have supporting role

D. Plantar arches are supported by dome-shaped foot bones, ligaments, muscles and aponeuroses

E. The longest and highest longitudinal arch is the third one

241. CM. Amortizing structures (damping structures)of the lower limb:

A. Menisci

B. Synovial fluid

C. Leg bones

D. Patella

E. Plantar arches

29

242. CM. Bones of the cerebral skull are:

A. Sphenoid bone

B. Occipital bone

C. Vomer bone

D. Palatine bone

E. Etmoid bone

243. CM. Bones of the cerebral skull are:

A. Sphenoid bone

B. Occipital bone

C. Frontal bone

D. Parietal bone

E. All above mentionedare right

244. CM.Skull bones containing air cavities?

A. Mandible

B. Sphenoid bone

C.Frontal bone

D. Maxilla


245. CM.Mark the main parts of the frontal bone.

A. Squama

B. Frontal sinus

C. Orbital parts

D. Nasal part

E. Greater wing

246. CM.Structures located on the cerebral surface of the frontal bone

A. Groove of the superior sagittal sinus

B. Groove of the sigmoid sinus

C. Crista galli

D. Oval foramen

E. Crest of the frontal bone

247. CM.Anatomical structures located on the inner surface of the Squama of occipital bone

A. Groove of the inferior petrosal sinus

B. Groove of the transverse sinus

C. Superior nuchal line.

D. Groove of the superior sagittal sinus

E. Groove of thesigmoid sinus

248. CM.Anatomical structures located on the external surface of the Squama of frontal bone

A.Superciliary arches

B. Ethmoid notch

C. Glabella

D. Temporal line

E. Infraorbital foramen

249. CM. Mark the main parts of the occipital bone

A. Basilar part

B. Clivus

C. Occipital Squama

D. Greater occipital foramen (foramen magnum)

E. All mentioned above are right

250. CM. Anatomical structures located on the inner surface of the parietal bone

A. Temporal line

B. Parietal tuber

C. Arterial grooves

D. Groove of the superior sagittal sinus

30

E. Pits for pacchionian granulations

251. CM. Mark the main parts of the sphenoid bone A. Greater wing

B. Pterygoid process

C. Sphenoid sinus

D. Lesser wing

E. All mentioned above are right

252. CM. Terms that pertain to the base of the skull:

A. Anterior base

B. Posterior base

C. Exobase

D. Lateral

E. Endobase

253. CM. Bones of the facial skull are:

A. Mandible

B. Ethmoid bone

C. Zygomatic bone

D. Frontal bone

E. Nasal bone

254. CM. Odd bones of the skull are:

A. Maxilla

B. Mandible

C. Sphenoid bone

D. Vomer

E. Palatine bone

255. CM. Pneumatic bones are:

A. Coxal bone

B. Frontal bone

C. Humerus

D. Sphenoid bone

E. Maxilla

256. CM. Orifices of the exobase of the skull, formed by fusion of two or more bones:

A. Styloid

B. Lacerate

C. Round foramen

D. External orifice of the carotid canal

E. Jugular

257. CM. Skull-cap (calvaria) is formed by:

A. Frontal bone

B. Basilar part of occipital bone

C. Squama of temporal bone

D. Parietal bones

E. Body of sphenoid bone

258. CM. Structural elements of the frontal bone:

A. Zygomatic process

B. Supraorbital notch

C. Temporal line

D. Crista galli

E. Superciliary arches

259. CM. Portions of the occipital bone:

A. Basilar part

31

B. Temporal part

C. Lateral part

D. Sphenoid part

E. Squama of the occipital bone

260. CM.Occipital bone takes part in formation of the orifices:

A. Round

B. Greater occipital

C. Jugular

D. Oval

E. Lacerate

261. CM. Indicate the frontal sinus opening?

A. Through ethmoid infundibulum

B. In the middle nasal meatus

C. In the inferior nasal meatus

D. In the superior nasal meatus

E. In the temporal fossa

262. CM.Divisions of the sphenoid bone:

A. Base

B. Body

C. Greater wing

D. Lesser wing

E. Pterygoid processes

263. CM. Canals of the sphenoid bone:

A. Musculotubar

B. Optic

C. Carotid

D. Pterygoid

E. Infraorbital

264. CM. Surfaces of the greater wing of the sphenoid bone:

A. Cerebral

B. Temporal

C. Zygomatic

D. Orbital

E. Infratemporal

265. CM. Structures pertaining to the body of sphenoid bone:

A. Hypophyseal fossa

B. Sphenoid sinus

C. Pterygopalatine groove

D. Anterior clinoid process

E. Carotid groove

266. CM. Pterygoid process contains:

A. Pterygopalatine groove

B. Pterygoid fossa

C. Sphenoid rostrum

D. Pterygoid notch

E. Pterygoid hook

267. CM. Divisions of the ethmoid bone:

A. Orbital plate

B. Ethmoid labirynth

C. Medial plate

D. Cribriform plate

E. Perpendicular plate

32

268. CM. The main divisions of the ethmoid bone are:

A. Cribriform plate

B. Ethmoid labyrinth

C. Perpendicular plate

D. Ethmoid cells


269. CM. Which nasal conchae belong to the ethmoid bone?

A. Superior nasal concha

B. Inferior nasal concha

C. Middle nasal concha

D. Supreme nasal concha


270. CM. Ethmoid cells open into:

A. Orbit

B. Superior nasal meatus

C. Anterior cranial fossa

D. Middle nasal meatus

E. Inferior nasal meatus

271. CM. Parts of the temporal bone:

A. Pyramid

B. Body

C. Mastoid part

D. Squamous part

E. Tympanic part

272. CM. Highlight the main divisions of the temporal bone.

A. Petrosal part

B. Mastoid process

C. Tympanic part

D. Squamous part


273. CM. Anatomical structures having the openings of the ethmoid cells?

A. Middle nasal meatus

B. Common nasal meatus

C. Superior nasal meatus

D. Anterior cranial fossa

E. Pterygopalatine fossa

274. CM. Anatomical structures situated on the anterior surface of the temporal pyramid.

A. Arcuate eminence

B.Trigeminal impression

C. Petrosal fossa

D. Groove of the inferior petrosal sinus

E. Groove of the greater petrosal nerve

275. CM. Anatomical structures situated on the posterior surface of the temporal pyramid.

A. Tympanic roof (tegmen tympani)

B. External acoustic porus

C. External aperture of the vestibular aqueduct

D. Internal acoustic porus

E. Subarcuate fossa

276. CM. Anatomical structuressituatedon the inferior surface of the temporal pyramid.

A.Subarcuate fossa

B.Inferior aperture of the tympanic canalicle

C. Jugular foramen

D.External carotid foramen

33

E. Petrosal fossa

277. CM. Processes of the temporal bone

A. Frontal process

B. Zygomatic process

C. Pterygoid process

D. Mastoid process

E. Intrajugular process

278. CM. Canals and canalicles of the temporal bone.

A. Carotid canal

B. Optic canal

C. Facial canal

D. Mastoid canalicle

E. Condylar canal

279. CM. Statements pertaining to the facial skull:

A. The hyoid bone is located at the level of the third cervical vertebra.

B. On the apex of the horns of hyoid bone are located tubercles.

C. Anterior portion of the superior nasal wall is formed by the ethmoid cribriform plate.

D. Bones that contribute to the nasal septum formation are: the nasal spine of the frontal bone, sphenoid rostrum,

nasal crests of the nasal, palatine and maxillary bones.

E. Posteroinferior part of the nasal septum is formed by the vomer.

280. CM. Statements pertaining to the facial skull cavities:

A. Medial walls of the orbits are parallel, those lateral form the right angle relative to each other

B. Optic canal is located at the level of the union of the upper wall of the orbit to the medial one.

C. Frontal sinus in some cases extends to the anteromedial part of the superior wall of the orbit.

D. Inferior wall of the orbit separates the orbit from the maxillary sinus.

E. Medial wall of the orbit is thicker and more durable of all orbital walls.

281. CM. Statements that pertain to the body of the maxilla:

A. Has 4 processes.

B. Infratemporal surface take part in formation of the infratemporal and pterygopalatine fossae.

C. The great palatine groove is located on its nasal surface.

D. The lacrimal groove lies in front of the maxillary hiatus.

E. It takes part informationof the orbit, nasal and oral cavities

282. CM. Statements that pertain to the mandible:

A. Anterior border of the branch of the mandible is thinner than the posterior one.

B. Submandibular fossa is located under the mylohyoid line, that sublingual–above it.

C. It is the most massive and most lasting bone of the facial skull.

D. The oblique line is located on the internal surface of the branch of mandible.

E. It is the second bone of the human body, it which ossification starts.

283. CM. Statements pertaining to the age changes of the mandible:

A. Both halves of the mandible fuse till the 2nd year of life.

B. Mental orifice in the newborns is located near the lower edge of the mandible.

C. Angle between the body and the branch in the newborn is obtuse - about 140˚and more.

D. The height of the mandibular body incrises in old people.

E. Mental orifice is located on midpoint of distance between the superior and inferior margins of the mandible in

adults .

284. CM. Anatomical structures that pertain to the palatine bone:

A. Orbital plate

B. Horizontal plate

C. Ethmoid plate

D. Perpendicular plate

E. Sphenoid plate

34

285. CM. Medial wall of the orbit is formed by the:

A. Orbital surface of the greater wing

B. Lacrimal bone

C. Lesser wings

D. Orbital plate of the ethmoid bone

E. Frontal process of the maxilla

286. CM. Inferior wall of the orbit is formed by the:

A. Orbital surface of the zygomatic bone

B. Frontal process of the zygomatic bone

C. Orbital surface of the maxilla

D. Zygomatic process of the frontal bone

E. Orbital process of the palatine bone

287. CM. Lateral wall of the orbit is formed by the:

A. Lateral plate of the pterygoid process

B. Zygomatic process of the frontal bone

C. Orbital surface of the greater wing of the sphenoid bone

D. Frontal process of the maxilla

E. Frontal process of the zygomatic bone

288. CM. Orbit communicates with endobase of the skull through the:

A. Optic canal

B. Round foramen

C. Superior orbital fissure


E. Ethmoid orifices

289. CM. Inferior orbital fissure is limited by the:

A. Orbital process of the palatine bone

B. Frontal bone

C. Orbital surface of the maxilla

D. Orbital plate of the ethmoid bone

E. Orbital surface of the greater wing of the sphenoid bone

290. CM. Orbit communicates with the nasal cavity through the:

A. Anterior ethmoid orifice

B. Greater palatine canal

C. Nasolacrimal canal

D. Posterior ethmoid orifice

E. Optic canal

291. 2 CM. Bones that take part in formation of the lateral orbital wall are:

A. Lacrimal bone

B. Maxilla

C. Ethmoid labirynth

D. Nasal bones

E. Palatine bone

292. CM. Nasal bony septum constitutes of the:

A. Nasal spine of the frontal bone

B. Frontal process of the maxilla

C. Perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone

D. Perpendicular plate of the palatine bone

E. Vomer

293. CM. Statements concerning the skull as a whole:

A. Base of the skull is more fragile than calvaria

B. Internal blade of the bones of calvaria is stronger than external one

C. Middle cranial fossa contains the temporal lobes of the cerebral hemisphere

D. Jugular foramen is placed behind the petrooccipital fissure.

35

E. Spinous orifice communicates the middle cranial fossa with the infratemporal one.

294. CM. Statements that pertain to the anterior cranial fossa:

A. Cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone separates anterior cranial fossa from the nasal cavity.

B. It houses the foramen cecum and orifices of the anterior and posterior ethmoid canals.

C. Medial margins of the orbital parts of the frontal bone overlap the ethmoid labyrinths.

D. 3 bones take part in formation of the anterior cranial fossa .

E. Ethmoid canals are formed by junction of the lateral margin of the cribriform plate with the frontal bone.

295. CM. Statements that pertain to the middle cranial fossa:

A. In its central is placed the optic canal, chiasmatic groove and turkish saddle.

B. In the anterior part of the turkish saddle a tubercle is located, in that posterior – dorsum sellae, and in the middle –

hypophyseal fossa.

C. It is located in relation to the orbits anteriorly, to the temporal fossa - laterally, to pterygopalatine fossa - inferiorly.

D. Lacerate foramen is located posteromedially to the oval foramen.

E. It communicates with the orbit, pterygopalatine fossa and exobase of the skull.

296. CM. Statements that pertain to the posterior cranial fossa:

A. It is the largest and deepest of the three cranial fossae.

B. Laterally it is limited by the mastoid part of the temporal bone and mastoid angle of the parietal bone

C. Clivus is separated from the temporal pyramid by the petrooccipital fissure.

D. Mastoid foramen opens into the upper part of the groove of transverse sinus.

E. Anterior part of the greater occipital foramen is narrower than that posterior.

297. CM. Orifices of the posterior cranial fossa:

A. Jugular

B. Oval

C. Internal acoustic porus

D. Hypoglossal

E. Sphenopalatine

298. CM. Infratemporal fossa is limited by the:

A. Pterygoid process of the sphenoid bone

B. Palatine bone

C. Temporal bone

D. Zygomatic bone

E. Branches of the mandible

299. CM.Mark those 3 walls of the pterygopalatine fossa:

A. Anterior – tubercle of the maxilla

B. Lateral – pterygoid process

C. Posterior– the base of the pterygoid process

D. Medial – perpendicular plate of the palatine bone

E. Superior – zygomatic arch

300. CM. Statements pertaining to the structural features of the female skull:

A. Mental protuberance is well highlighted.

B. Mandibular angle is inverted.

C. Orbits are bigger, the distance between them is shorter

D. Superciliary arches are weakly pronounced.

E. Mastoid processes are weakly pronounced.

301. CM. Statements pertaining to the structural features of the male skull:

A. Mental protuberance is well highlighted.

B. Mandibular angle is inverted.

C. Ratio of the facial skull to cerebral skull is 1:4,04

D. Superciliary arches and glabella are well pronounced.

E. Mastoid process is weakly pronounced.

302. CM. Statement pertaining to the external acoustic meatus:

36

A. It is limited by the tympanic part of the temporal bone.

B. It is open on the posterior surface of the temporal pyramid

C. It contains blood vessels and nerves.

D. Serves for transmition of the sound waves.

E. It is placed laterally to the tympanic cavity.

303. CM. Statement pertaining to the internal acoustic meatus:

A. It is placed in the tympanic part of the temporal bone.

B. It is open on the posterior surface of the temporal pyramid

C. It contains blood vessels and nerves.

D. Serves for transmition of the sound waves.

E. It is placed laterally to the tympanic cavity.

304. CM. Bones that develop by desmal ossification are:

A. Frontal bone

B. Parietal bone

C. Ethmoid bone

D. Inferior nasal concha

E. Squama of the occipital bone

305. CM. Bones that develop by chondral ossification are:

A. Lacrimal bone

B. Sphenoid bone

C. Maxilla

D. Mandible

E. Parietal bone

306. CM. Statements applied to the superior sagittal sinus:

A. It passes on the Squama of the frontal bone, sagittal margin of the parietal bone and Squama of the occipital bone

B. It finishes at the level of the jugular orifice.

C. It passes horizontally on the internal surface of the occipital Squama.

D. It is straight.

E. It finishes by the confluence of the sinuses

307. CM. Groove of the sigmoid sinus:

A. It passes horizontally on the internal surface of the occipital Squama.

B. It is straight.

C. It finishes at the level of jugular orifice

D. It is located on 3 bones: parietal, temporal and occipital

E. It is located onthe superior marginof the temporal pyramid.

308. CM. Groove of the superior petrosal sinus:

A. It is located on 3 bones: parietal, temporal and occipital

B.It is located on the superior margin of the temporal pyramid.

C. Passes on the Squama of the frontal bone, sagittal margin of the parietal bone and occipital Squama

D. It finishes at thelevel of sigmoid sinus

E.It passes horizontally on the internal surface of the occipital Squama.

309. CM. Groove of the transverse sinus:

A. It finishes at the level of jugular foramen.

B. It passes horizontally on the internal surface of the occipital Squama.

C. It is straight.

D. It finishes at the level of upper part of sigmoid groove.

E. It is located on 3 bones: parietal, temporal and occipital

310. CM. Structures related to the frontal bone:

A. Lesser wings.

B. Trochlear fossa.

C. Perpendicular plate.

D. Nuchal lines.

E. Consists of 4 parts

37

311. CM. Temporal bone:

A. Is concerned with the hearing apparatus

B. Trochlear fossa.


D. Nuchal lines.

E. Carotid canal

312. CM. Occipital bone:

A. Clivus

B. Trochlear fossa.


D. Nuchal lines.

E. Consists of 4 parts

313. CM. Sphenoid bone:

A. Lesser wings.

B. Superior orbital fissure


D. Chiasmatic groove.

E. Carotid canal

314. CM. Ethmoid bone:

A. Lesser wings.

B. Trochlear fossa.


D. Crista galli

E. Carotid canal


A. Pharyngeal tubercle.

B. Cribriform plate

C. Sphenoid angle.

D. Orbital plate

E. Optic canal.

316. CM. Sphenoid bone:

A. Infratemporal crest

B. Spinous foramen.

C. Sphenoid angle.

D. Orbital plate .

E. Optic canal.


A. Articular tubercle.

B. Pyramid.

C. Jugular fossa.

D. Arcuate eminence

E. Optic canal.

318. CM. Occipital bone:


B. Jugular notch

C. Sphenoid angle.

D. Orbital plate .

E. Groove of the sigmoid sinus

319. CM.Parietal bone:


B. Pits for pacchionian granulations

38

C. Sphenoid angle.

D. Groove of the sigmoid sinus

E. Optic canal.

320. CM. Body of the sphenoid bone:

A. Cribriform plate.

B. Carotid groove.

C. Groove of the superior sagittal sinus.

D. Posterior clinoid process.

E. Spinous foramen

321. CM. Squama of the occipital bone:


B. Inion



E. Inferior nuchal line.



B. Carotid canal

C. Groove of the sigmoid sinus


E. External aperture of the vestibular aqueduct

323. CM. Parietal bone:


B. Mastoid angle



E. Sagittal margin



B. Supreme nasal concha.



E. Inferior nuchal line.

325. CM. Palatine bone:

A. Ethmoid crest

B. Marginal tubercle.

C. Orbital process

D. Perpendicular plate.

E. Crest of the concha

326. CM. Processes of palatine bone:

A. Pyramidal process

B. Orbital process

C. Sphenoid process

D. Palatine process

E. Jugularprocess

327. CM. Vomer:

A. Wings.


C. It is a bone of the visceral skull


E. Forms nasal septum

328. CM.Maxilla:

39

A. Has a body and 4 processes


C. Infraorbital foramen

D. Infratemporal fossa

E. Lacrimal groove.

329. CM. Anatomical structures situated on the anterior surface of the body of maxilla.

A. Canine fossa.

B. Infraorbital groove.

C. Infraorbital foramen.

D. Tuber of the maxilla.

E. Alveolary ridge

330. CM. Processes of the maxilla are:

A. Palatine process.

B. Pyramidal process.

C. Frontal process.

D. Orbital process.

E. Sphenoid process.

331. CM.Concerning the mandible:

A. Wings.

B. Masseteric tuberosity

C. Lingula


E. Digastric fossa

332. CM. Anatomical structures situated on the body of mandible.

A. Foramen mandibulae.

B. Mental spine.

C. Digastric fossa.

D. Mylohyoid line.

E. Mental foramen.

333. CM. Anatomical structures located on the mandibular branch are:

A. Pterygoid tuberosity.

B. Mental foramen.

C. Coronoid process.

D. Mylohyoid groove.

E. Mandibular foramen.

334. CM. Anatomical structures located on the alveolary process of the mandible?

A. Dental alveolae (sockets).

B. Interalveolar septa.

C. Interradicular septa.

D. Alveolary ridges.


335. CM. Concerning zygomatic bone:

A. Frontal process.


C. Temporal process


E. Orbital surface

336. CM. Surfaces of the zygomatic bone?

A. Medial.

B. Orbitalis.

C. Temporal.

D. Lateral.

E. Nasal.

40

337. CM. Groove of the sigmoid sinus crosses:

A. Temporal bone.

B. Occipital bone.

C. Sphenoid bone.

D. Frontal bone.

E. Parietal bone.

338. CM. Structures concerning to the maxilla:

A. Lacrimal groove

B. 2 processes: temporaland frontal.

C. 3 processes: lacrimal, maxillary, ethmoid.

D. Crest of the concha

E. Processes: frontal, alveolar, zygomatic, palatine.

339. CM. Anatomical structures of the mandible:

A. Body, 2 branches.

B. Pterygoid tuberosity

C. Has 3 processes: lacrimal, maxillary, ethmoid.

D. 2 wings.

E. Sublingual fovea

340. CM. Statements pertaining to the vomer:

A. Body, 2 branches.

B. There are 2 processes: temporal and frontal.

C. It forms anterosuperior part of the nasal septum

D. 2 wings.

E. It forms posteroinferior part of the nasal septum

341. CM. Statements pertaining to the anterior cranian fossa:

A. Lacerate foramen

B. Blind foramen (foramen cecum).

C. Pterygomaxillary fissure

D. Crista galli

E. Internal acoustic porus.

342. CM. What bones take part in formation of the anterior cranial fossa?

A. Frontal bone.

B. Ethmoid bone

C. Parietal.

D. Sphenoid.

E. Incisive bone

343. CM. Structures related to the middle cranial fossa:

A. Lacerate foramen.

B. Spinous foramen

C. Pterigomaxillary fissure

D. Round foramen


344. CM. Mark orifices of the middle cranial fossa?

A. Spinous foramen.

B. Greater occipital foramen.

C. Lacerate foramen.

D. Jugular foramen.

E. Blind foramen (foramen cecum).

345. \ Communications of the middle cranial fossa with the orbit:

A. Optic canal.

B. Inferior orbital fissure.

41

C. Superior orbital fissure.

D. Oval foramen.

E. Sphenopalatine foramen

346. CM. Statements on the posterior cranian fossa:

A. Lacerate foramen.

B. Greater occipital foramen.


D. Sphenopalatine foramen


347. CM. Communications of the posterior cranial fossa with exobase of the skull.

A. Oval foramen

B. Jugularl foramen

C. External aperture of the vestibular aquaeduct.

D. Greater occipital foramen.

E. Spinous foramen.

348. CM. Concerning the infratemporal fossa:

A. Lacerate foramen

B. Inferior orbital fissure


D. Sphenopalatine foramen.

E. Oval and spinous orifices

349. CM. Concerning the walls of infratemporal fossa

A. Lateral plate of pterygoid process

B. Medial plate of pterygoid process

C. Tuber of maxilla

D. Perpendicular plate of palatine bone

E. Zygomatic bone.

350. A CM. Communications of the infratemporal fossa with other skull cavities are:

A. Pterygomaxillariy fissure.

B. Inferior orbital fissure.

C. Sphenopalatine foramen.

D. Superior orbital fissure.

E. Condylar canal.

351. CM. Concerning the pterygopalatine fossa:

A. Lacerate foramen

B. Round foramen

C. Pterygomaxillary fissure

D. Sphenopalatine foramen

E. Pterygoid canal

352. CM. Anatomical structures that form the walls of pterygopalatine fossa are:

A.Perpendicular plate of palatine bone

B.Tuber of maxilla

C. Pterygoid process

D. Branch of mandible

E. Pyramidal process

353. CM.Structures related to the superior nasal meatus:

A. Incisive foramen

B. Aperture of sphenoid sinus

C. Ethmoid infundibulum.

D. Posterior ethmoid cells.


42

354. CM.Concerning the middle nasal meatus:

A. Incisive foramen.

B. Aperture of the ethmoid sinus.

C. Ethmoid infundibulum

D. Anterior cells of ethmoid bone

E. Aperture of the maxillary sinus

355. CM. Concerning the inferior nasal meatus:

A. Incisive foramen.

B. Aperture of ethmoid sinus.

C. Ethmoid infundibulum.

D. Anterior cells of ethmoid bone


356. CM. Concerning topography of the skull. Superior orbital wall:

A. Is formed by 3 bones: sphenoid, zygomatic and frontal

B. Contains the fossa of lacrimal gland

C. Has the infraorbital groove

D. Contains the optic canal

E. Has trochlear fossa

357. CM. Concerning the inferior orbital wall:


B. Contains the fossa of lacrimal sac

C. Has infraorbital groove

D. Consists of orbital process of palatine bone

E. Has trochlear fossa

358. CM. Concerningthe lateral orbital wall:

A. Is formed by 2 bones: sphenoid and zygomatic

B. Contains the fossa of lacrimal sac

C. Has infraorbital groove

D. Has optic canal

E. Contains the zygomaticoorbital foramen

359. CM. Bones forming the lateral orbital wall are: A.Zygomatic bone

B.Sphenoid bone

C. Maxilla

D.Frontal bone

E. Palatine bone

360. CM.Bones forming the medial orbital wall are:

A. Ethmoid bone

B. Sphenoid bone

C. Maxilla

D. Lacrimal bone

E. Frontal bone

361. CM. Concerning the medial wall of the orbit:


B. Has fossa of the lacrimal sac

C. Contains the infraorbital groove

D. Has posterior ethmoid orifice

E. Consists of the lacrimal bone

362. CM.Orifices located on the orbital walls are: A. Anterior ethmoid foramen

B. Oval foramen

C. Posterior ethmoid foramen

D. Zygomaticoorbital foramen

E. Spinous foramen

43

363. CM. Concerning the cavities oftemporal bone:

A. Incisive canal


C. Mastoid antrum


E. Tympanic cavity

364. CM. Concerning the petrotympanic fissure:

A. Tympanic cavity

B. Inferior aperture of tympanic canalicle

C. Cranial nervesVII and VIII.

D. Chorda tympani


365. CM. Concerning the stylomastoid orifice:

A. Facial nerve


C. Cranial nerves VII and VIII.

D. Chorda tympani

E. Temporal bone

366. CM. Concerning the mastoid canalicle:

A. Temporal bone


C. Cranial nervesVII and VIII.

D. Jugular fossa


367. CM. Concerning the internal acoustic meatus:

A. Pyramid of temporal bone

B. Inferior aperture of the tympanic canalicle

C. Cranial nerves VII and VIII.

D. Posterior cranial fossa


368. CM. Bones forming the nasal septum: A. Nasal bone

B. Vomer

C. Lacrimal bone

D. Ethmoid bone

E. Incisive bone

369. CM. Bones forming the lateral wall of the nasal cavity are: A. Lacrimal bone

B. Zygomatic bone.

C. Ethmoid bone

D. Palatine bone.

E. Vomer.

370. CM. Paranasal sinuses open into the middle nasal meatus are: A. Sphenoid sinus

B. Frontal sinus

C. Anterior and middle ethmoid cells

D. Posterior ethmoid cells

E. Superior sagittal sinus

371. CM. Bones forming the bony part of palatine are: A. Vomer

B. Palatine bone

44

C. Hyoid bone

D. Maxilla

E. Incisive bone

372. CM. Types of sutures of the calota (skull-cap): A. Dentate suture

B. Serrate suture

C. Plane suture

D. Squamous suture

E. Harmony suture (sutura armonia)

373. CM. Structural features of newborn skull

A. Presence of fontanels

B. Frontal and parietal tubers are well pronounced

C.Volume of paranasal sinuses is small

D. Lack of mastoid process

E. Presence of sphenooccipital synostosis

45

OSTEOLOGY.

2. PROBLEM DE SITUAȚIE

1. As a result of trauma teenager suffered a fractured humerus at the midshaft. Radiogram, performed by a cast bandage

application demonstrates perfect reposition bone fragments and integrity metaphyses.

1. What could be the prognosis of this condition?

2. What elements of the bone take part in formation of the bone callus?

3. Will be affected subsequent growth of the humerus in length?

2. In the chair museum of osteology can be observed ribs tied in a knot. Such bone pliability can be achieved

through treating with acid solution.

1. What kind of substances were removed from the bone and what remained?

2. What mechanical properties of the bonea re provided by two kinds of substances?

3. Your colleague is hampered in solving tests. Among other subjects he do not know the correct answer on questions:

1. Name the one bone only of the shoulders, that is developed partly by membranous ossification.

2. Which of the tubular bones are called monoepiphyseal and why? Can you help him?

4. During X-ray examination of the patient the presence of suplimentary ribs united with the first lumbar vertebra were

revealed.

1. How are termed such suplimentary ribs?

2. Is it possible existence of additional ribs in other regions of the vertebral column? Explain where and how they are

called.

5. On the skeleton made recently is seen consolidation of the atlas with the skull, the sacrum consists of four vertebrae

only, and there is an additional lumbar vertebra.

1 What is the name of fusion the atlas with the skulll?

2. What is thename of revealed anomaly of the sacrum.

6. Many variations of the anatomical shape of the sternum are exhibited in the museum.

1. How to explaine polymorphism of the sternum from the ontogenetic point view?

2. What is the sternoschisis? What is genesis of this anomaly?

7. In the pleural puncture the needle is inserted only on the upper border of the rib.

1. Explain why?

2. Which of the 12 pairs of ribs does not have structure that argues your explanation.

8. During radiological examination of a boy of 10 years old was detected the presence of transparent areas between the

bodies of the sacral vertebrae.

1 How do you explain this picture?

2 How and when the sacral vertebrae become fused together?

9. Examination of a newborn showed no physiological curvature of the spine.

1. What is meaning of this pathology?

2. What are the physiological curvatures of the spine and terms of their development?

10. In treating fractures of the clavicle can be used osteosynthesis.

What structural features of the clavicle permit this procedure?

11. The right upper limb of the young man is shorter. At the age of ten he suffered a cervical fracture of the humerus

with fragments displacement on the metaepiphyseal line. Explain:

1. Where is located the surgical neck of the humerus?

2. Why the upper limb became shorter?

12. The presence of carpal ossification points allows age assessment of the children in forensic practice.

1. Name the carpal bones and explain the appearance of their ossification points.

2. What stages of development do these bones undergo?

13. A transparent areas around the acetabulum is observed on the radiologicalcliché of a child 8 years old.

1. Is this a disorder?

2. How do you explain that picture?

46

14. During gynecological examination of a pregnant woman the following dimensions of the upper aperture of the small

pelvis where determed: true conjugate (gynecological) - 10 cm, transverse diameter - 13 cm, oblique diameter - 12

cm.

1. Can be caused the size of true conjugate by wearing high heels shoes until the age of 16?

2. Up to what age the final formation of the pubic boneoccurs?

15. A young man playing football suffered trauma resulting in the fracture of distal fibula.

1. How is called this part the fibula?

2. What is the name of joint in which formation the distal epiphysis of the fibula takes part?

16. When examining a child 2.5 years doctor - pediatrician noticed excessive increase of the frontal and parietal tubers,

deflection of the costal arches, flat foot and lower limb deformity.

1. What disease this child suffers and what causes it?

17. Milk leakage occurs through the nose of a newborn during breastfeeding.

1. Defect of which bone may be?

2. What developmental abnormality is associated more often to this defect?

18. In traumatic head injury among other changes was affected the integrity of the parietal bone compact substance, the

fragments of its internal blade can crush the vessels of cerebral pachymeninx.

1. How is called this blade?

2. What is the name of spongy substance placed between the compact bone substance of the cranial vault.

19. In case of bleeding from the head and neck, its suspending can be obtained by compression of the carotid artery on

the homonymous tuber.

1. Where is located this tuber and what is its eponym?

2. List the structural features of the transverse cervical processes.

20. On the internal surface of the sagittal border of parietal bone can be seen arboriforme grooves and dimples.

1. How these grooves and pits are termed?

2. Call the structures that cause formation of the digitate impressions.

21. A trauma of the head caused lesion of the greater sphenoid wing, vessels and nerves penetrating its holes.

1. Name the holes located at the base of the greater sphenoid wing and anatomical structures passing through them.

2. Explain the location of these holes.

22. During the dissection of a cadaver was found that death occurred as a result of meningitis, caused by the spread of

infection to the cerebral meninges through the occipital emissary vein.

1. What is the name of the passage of the occipital emissary vein?

2. Where is located the external opening of this canal?

23. Inflammation of the mastoid cells mucous membrane (mastoiditis) presents a common complication in medical

practice of otolaryngologist.

1. What is the name of the largest mastoid cells?

2. Where is located this cell in relation to the tympanic cavity?

24. Inflammatory process in the pharynx can spread to the tympanic cavity through the auditory tube.

1. On what wall of the tympanic cavity the semicanal of auditory tube opens?

2. A constitutive part of which canal is this semicanal?

25. Complicated topography of the temporal pyramid is determined by its functional peculiarities and complexity of

anatomical structures in this region. Concerning this explain:

1. What is the name of the fossa located on the bony septum separating the jugular fossa from the external orifice of

the carotid canal?

2. Name the anatomical formation located in the fossa.

3. Which of the temporal bone structures takes part in formation of the temporomandibular joint?

26. Complexity of the internal structure of temporal pyramid is determined by the multiplicity of channels and ducts that

contains vessels and nerves.

Remember temporal bone structure and call the anatomical structures that are connecting between each other:

1. Caroticotimpanic tubules.

2. Channel facial nerve.

47

27. Forensic examination found a lesion in the region lacerate foramen (foramen lacerum) resulting in damage to vital

anatomical structures found here.

Explain:

1. What are bones bounding this foramen?

2. Why lacerate foramen received this name?

28. The boxers often finds zygomatic arch fracture.

1. How zygomatic arch is formed?

2. Name the depression area limited by the zygomatic arch on the lateral side?

29. Fracture of the bones ofthe endobase in the region of posterior cranial fossa has serious consequences.

1. Name the bones (divisions or their components) involved in formation of the posterior cranial fossa and holes

located here.

2. What anatomical structures of the endobase that delimit the skull-cap in the posterior cranial fossa region?

30. Forensic examination of a corpse found the fracture of the occipital squama along the supreme nuchal line.

1. How do you think, was injured the skull-cap or base?

2. Name the anatomical structures on which the limitrophe line between the calvaria and the exobase of the skull

passes.

31. Late treated purulent process of the ethmoid bone, destroyed a part of the bone and spread to the anatomical

formations in orbit.

1. Which of the orbital wall was destroyed?

2. What bones participate in the formation of orbital wall?

32. In medical practice there are frequent cases when nasal mucosal inflammation of the lining of the maxillary

(haimorite) sinus spread because these cavities communicate with each other.

1. Call the opening of communication of the maxillary sinus and the nasal meatus into which it opens?

2. Which of the paranasal sinuses open into superior nasal meatus?

33. Damage to the upper part of the anterior surface of the maxilla can affect a nerve that passes through the

homonymous channel and innervates the upper lip and wing of the nose.

1. About what hole is it?

2. Name the canal that opens through the hole.

3. Call the groove that continues this channel posteriorly.

34. Nasal septum deviation creates obvious discomfort (affecting nasal breathing), which therefore require surgical

treatment.

1. Name the bones forming nasal septum.

2. What are the names of holes of the nasal cavity communicating it with nasopharynx and separated by the nasal

septum.

35. Trauma of the nasal root can cause fracture of the nasal bone and of the back of the nose respectively.

1. Name the neighboring bones to which the nasal bones join?

2. What is the name of the groove located on the posterior surface of the nasal bone.

36. A patient with haimoritis was admitted in the clinic, he was sent to radiological examination, before being carried the

sinus puncture.

1. What would be the anatomical argument of sequence of these actions of the doctor?

2. Specify the appearance and development of the maxillary sinus terms.

37. In the unconscious patient is observed bleeding from the ear canal following severe trauma.

1. Which of the skull bones could be damaged?

2. Give explanation of this bleeding?

38. In a patient the inflammatory process in the orbit spread to the formations of the pterygopalatine fossa.

1. How do you explain generalization of inflammatory process. Give anatomical explanation of this situation.

2. What topographical formations could be involved in the inflammatory process?

48

39. Damage of anterior portion of the medial wall of the orbit, as the result of trauma or disease, may have suffered

some bone formation.

1. What bones can be involved in the process?

2. Walls of which channel could be harmed in this case?.

40. Radiological examination found the presence of a channel that opens in the center of the turkish saddle.

1. What is the name of this channel?

2 Disturbance of fusion of which anatomical structures causes formation of this channel?

41. It is known that due to communication of the orbit with nasal cavity abundant lacrimation is accompanied by

rhinorea.

1. What is the anatomical argument of this situation?

2. What is the name of the fossa from where this channel starts ?

42. An important indicator used in forensics and archeology is to determine the approximate age of the man by bone

structure, in particular, by the angle of the jaw.

1. What is the angle values in children, adult and senile?

2. What are the changes in the dental sockits after loss of the permanent teeth?

43. Somatoscopic examination of the skull revealed the presence of an triangular supranumerary bone in the upper

portion of the occipital squama and longitudinal fissure (cleft) in the hard palate.

1. How are called bones located in the indicated region?

2. What bones where not fused and formed the pallatum fissum?

44. Anterior wall of the topographic formations is formed by the tuber of maxilla and its posterior surface, that posterior

- by the pterygoid process of the sphenoid, and medial one - by the perpendicular plate of the palatine bone.

1. What formation is it?

2. What are the neighboring cavities communicating with this fossa and through what?

45. Delayed or incorrect treatment of the purulent ethmoiditis can cause spread to the orbit.

1. How do you explain this?

2. What is the name of ethmoid bone portion oriented to the orbit?

46. At one traumatologic center was transported a child with speech disorders, semiopen mouth, desorders of occlusion

and displacement of the lower dental arch.

1. What bone of the skull was injured?

2. What is the name of portion of this bone that carries the teeth?

47. Examination of a child with craniocerebral trauma revealed peripheral paresis of the facial nerve, deafness, balance

disorders.

1. What bone of skulllui could be damaged?

48. In a child who suffered a car accident is seen "glasses sign" (bruising around the eyes).

1. What compartment of the skull may be affected?

2. Name the bones that can be injured in this situation.

49. After a respiratory viral disease patient complanes the pain in the glabella.

1. What is the part of the bone which may be affected?

2. How do you explain this?

50. In a patient with a bone fracture of endobase of the skull whose line passes through floor of the anterior cranial

fossa, anosmia (lack of smell) and leaking a clear fluid from the nose are attested.

1. What bones can be injured in this case?

2. Give anatomical argumentation of this phenomenon.

51. The patient suffered a trauma to the maxilla. Traumatologist suspects a fracture.

1. Which of anatomical structures can suffer in this case?

2. What are the pillars of resistence of the maxilla?

52. By craniometry the following values of the cerebral skull were found: longitudinal diameter - 20.1 cm, and the

49

transverse - 15.3 cm.

1. What craniometrical points were used to determine these dimensions?

2. How to calculate the index using the data of craniometry?

3. Determine the shape of the skull of this person.

53. By craniometry of paleoanthropology samples were found the following sizes of the skull: longitudinal diameter -

18.9 cm, height 22.4 cm.

1. What craniometrical points were used to determine these dimensions?

2. How to calculate height index using the data of craniometry?

3. Determine the shape of the skull by obtained indexes.

54. During the craniometry the following dimensions of the facial skull were found: zygomatic diameter - 12.7 cm, total

face height - 14.6 cm.

1. Call the craniometry points used in these measurements.

2. How to calculate the facial index by the craniometrical data?

3. What kind of face shape is it?

55. During cephalometry the following sizes ofte facial skull were established: zygomatic diameter - 16.1 cm, upper

facial height - 11.9 cm.

1. What craniometrical points were used to determine these sizes.

2. How to calculate upper facial index after these data?

3. What is the face shape of this individuum.

56. Parents of a child 2.5 years old have addressed the doctor - pediatrician accusing pulsation in the upper front region.

1. Why is the reason they feel the pulse?

2. Using anatomical knowledge explain the reason for parental complaints.

3. Where may be such formations also?

57. The child suffered a respiratory viral infection. A little later he began to feel pain in the ear, and then - pain-ear. The

doctor insists to resort to urgent treatment.

1. Explain what happened in this case?

2. Give anatomical argumentation of detected symptoms.

50

ARTHROSYNDESMOLOGY

1. TESTS

1. CS. Articulation of bones by means of membranes are named:

A. Synchondroses

B. Synelastoses

C. Synsarcoses

D. Synfibroses

E. Synostoses

2. CS. How are called movements performed on the frontal axis?

A. Flexio et extensio

B. Adductio et abductio.

C. Rotatio.

D. Circumductio.

E. Pronatio et supinatio.

3. CS. How are called movements performed on the sagittal axis?

А. Flexio et extensio.


C. Rotatio.

D. Circumductio.


4. CS. The sutures belong to:

A. Synsarcoses

B. Synelastoses

C. Synchondroses

D. Synfibroses

C. Synostoses

5. CS. The gomphoses belong to:

A. Ligaments

B. Synchondroses

C. Synfibroses

D. Synelastoses

E. Membranes

6. CS. Point out the age of fusion of the both parts of the mandible into a single bone.

А. At the end of the first year.

B. At three years old.

C. At five years old.

D. At thirty years old.

E. In old age.

7. CS. Point out the age of fusion/ossification of the palatine suture.

А. At the end of the first year.

B. At three years old.

C. At five years old.

D. At thirty years old.

E. In old age.

8. CS. Characteristics of synarthroses: A. According to the time of their existence they are divided into temporary and permanent.

B. Membranes differ from ligaments by the width of the filled in space.

C. In their development the joints pass through the same three stages as the skeleton

D. Symphysis is a transitional form from syndesmoses to synchondroses.

E. Syndesmoses can transform to synchondroses and synostoses.

9. CS. How is called the movement when to segments of a limb get closer to each other.

A. Circumduction

51

B. Adduction

C. Abduction

D. Extension

F. Flexion

10. CS. Name the movement due to which a limb or one of its segments gets closer to the saggital plan of

the body:

A. Circumduction

B. Adduction

C. Abduction

D. Extension

F. Flexion

11. CS. Name the movement that results from successive abduction, extension, adduction and flexion:

A. Circumduction

B. Adduction

C. Abduction

D. Extension

E. Flexion

12. CS. In which joint just rotation is possible:

A. Plane joint.

B. Hinge joint.

C. Pivot joint.

D. Condylar joint.

E. Saddle joint.

13. CS. It has identical articular surfaces:

A. Ellipsoid joint.

B. Plane joint.

C. Pivot joint.

D. Condylar joint.

E. Ball-and-socket joint.

14. CS. In which joint the groove of the trochlea forms an angle with its axis:

A. Plane joint.

B. Screw-like joint.

C. Pivot joint.

D. Condylar joint.

E. Enarthrosis.

15. CS. It forms when few bones join to each other:

A. Simple joint.

B. Compound joint.

C. Combined joint.

D. Complex joint.

E. Enarthrosis.

16. CS. It is a functional combination of few anatomically separated joints:

A. Simple diarthrosis.

B. Compound diarthrosis.

C. Combined diarthrosis.

D. Complex diarthrosis.

E. Amphyarthrosis.

17. CS. Contains intraarticular cartilage:





E. Amphyarthrosis.

52

18. CS. It forms by connection of two bones:





E. Enarthrosis.

19. CS. In which individuals the thorax is conical shape?

A. In women.

B. In brachymorphic type.

C. In dolicomorphic type.

D. In mesomorphic type.

E. In senile people.

20. CS.Ligaments of the shoulder joint:

A. The scapulohumeral ligament.

B. The acromiohumeral ligament.

C. The clavihumeral ligament.

D. The deltoideohumeral ligament.

E. The coracohumeral ligament.

21. CS. Which ligaments connect the vertebral arches?

А. Ligamentum longitudinale anterius.

B. Ligamentum nuchae.

C. Ligamentum longitudinale posterius.

D. Ligamenta flava.

E. Ligamentum supraspinale.

22. CS. It is an element of the articulatio atlanto – occipitalis:

A. Alar ligaments.

B. Anterior atlanto-occipital membrane.

C. Apical ligament of the dens.

D. Transverse ligaments of the Atlas.

E. Tectorial membrane.

23. CS. What kinds of movements are possible in the articulatio atlantoaxialis mediana?



C. Rotatio.

D. Circumductio.


24. CS. What is the shape of the articulatio atlantoaxialis mediana?

А. Articulatio plana.

B. Articulatio sellaris.

C. Ginglymus.

D. Articulatio trochoidea.

E. Articulatio spheroidea.

25. CS. What is the shape of the articulatio atlantooccipitalis?

А. Articulatio sellaris.

B. Articulatio ellipsoidea.

C. Articulatio condylaris.

D. Articulatio plana.

E. Articulatio trochoidea.

26. CS. To which group belong the articulationes zygapophysiales?

А. Articulatio simplex.

B. Articulatio composita.

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C. Articulatio sellaris.

D. Articulatio complexa.

E. Articulatio cotylica.

27. CS. It is an element of the articulationes zygapophysiales:

A. Alar ligaments.

B. Anterior atlantooccipital membrane.

C. Apical ligament of the dens.

D. Transverse ligament of the atlas.

E. Articular surfaces of the articular processes.

28. CS. What is the shape of the articulatio temporomandibularis?

А. Articulatio spheroidea.

B. Articulatio ellipsoidea

C. Ginglymus.


E. Articulatio sellaris.

29. CS. Sutura plana is located between the:

A. Parietal and occipital bones.

B. Frontal and nasal bones.

C. The right and left maxilla.

D. Temporal and sphenoid bones.

E. Frontal and parietal bones.

30. CS. The vertebral arches are joined by means of:

A. Zygapophyseal ligaments.

B. Supraarcuate ligaments.

C. Intervertebral ligaments.

D. Yellow ligaments.

E. Interarcuate ligaments.

31. CS. What is the shape of the articulatio capitis costae?


B. Articulatio spheroidea.

C. Articulatio trochoidea.

D. Articulatio ellipsoidea.


32. CS. What kind of articulation/junction forms between the first rib and sternum?

А. Syndesmosis.

B. Synchondrosis.

C. Synostosis.

D. Symphysis.

E. Synsarcosis.

33. CS. What kind of articulation/junction forms between the second rib and sternum?

А. Syndesmosis.

B. Synchondrosis.

C. Synostosis.

D. Diarthrosis.

E. Symphysis.

34. CS. Articulationes costovertebrales belong to:

А. Articulatio complexa.


C. Articulatio combinata.

D. Articulatio simplex.

E. Articulatio ellipsoidea.

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35. CS. The supraspinal ligament in the region of the neck is named:

A. Inferior occipital ligament.

B. Posterior supraspinal ligament.

C. Cervical supraspinal ligament.

D. Nuchal ligament.

E. Posterior occipital ligament.

36. CS. The joints between the vertebral arches are:

A. Diarthroses.

B. Synelastoses.

C. Synchondroses.

D. Synostoses.

E. Symphyses.

37. CS. Joints between the articular processes of the vertebrae are:

A. Diarthroses.

B. Synelastoses.

C. Synchondroses.

D. Synostoses.

E. Synfibroses.

38. CS. Joints of the of the transverse processes are:

A. Diarthroses.

B. Syndesmoses.

C. Synchondroses.

D. Synostoses.

E. Symphyses.

39. CS. Joints of the spinal processes are:

A. Diarthroses.

B. Synelastoses.

C. Synchondroses.

D. Syndesmoses.

E. Synsarcoses.

40. CS. Joints between the sacral vertebrae are:

A. Diarthroses.

B. Synelastoses.

C. Synchondroses.

D. Synostoses.

E. Symphyses.

41. CS. What is the shape of the articulatio acromioclavicularis?






42. CS. Choose the saddle joints of the upper limb:

A. Carpometacarpal joint of the thumb.

B. Proximal radioulnar joint.

C. Humeroulnar joint.

D. The elbow joint.

E. The carpometacarpal joints.

43. CS. What is the shape of the articulatio humeri?



C. Articulatio trochoidea.

D. Articulatio spheroidea.

55


44. CS. What is the shape of the articulatio humeroulnaris?

А. Articulatio ellipsoidea.

B. Articulatio trochoidea.

C. Articulatio cochlearis.


E. Articulatio condylaris.

45. CS. What is the shape of the articulatio humeroradialis?



C. Ginglymus.



46. CS. On which axis are possible movements in the articulatio humeroulnaris?

А. Axis frontalis.

B. Axis sagittalis.

C. Axis verticalis.

D. Axis obliquus.

E. Axis horizontalis.

47. CS. What is the shape of the articulatio radiocarpea?

А. Articulatio trochoidea.


C. Ginglymus.



48. CS. What ligament limits the abduction of the hand?

А. Ligamentum collaterale carpi radiale.

B. Ligamentum collaterale carpi ulnare.

C. Ligamentum radiocarpeum dorsale.

D. Ligamentum radiocarpeum palmare.

E. Ligamentum anulare radii.

49. CS. What ligament limits the adduction of the hand?

А. Ligamentum collaterale carpi radiale.

B. Ligamentum collaterale carpi ulnare.

C. Ligamentum radiocarpeum dorsale.

D. Ligamentum radiocarpeum palmare.

E. Ligamentum anulare radii.

50. CS. What type of junctions form between the diaphyses of the bones of the forearm?

А. Synchondrosis.

B. Diarthrosis.

C. Syndesmosis.

D. Symphysis.

E. Synsarcosis

51. CS. What is the shape of the articulation radioulnaris distalis?

А. Articulatio condylaris.


C. Articulatio spheroidea.


E. Ginglymus.

52. CS. What is the shape of the articulatio carpometacarpea pollicis?


56





53. CS. What is the shape of the articulationes carpometacarpeae II-V?



C. Articulatio ellipsoidea.


E. Articulatio bicondylaris.

54. CS. On which axes are possible movements in the articulationes interphalangeae?

А. Axis frontalis.

B. Axis sagittalis.

C. Axis verticalis.

D. Axis obliquus.


55. CS. Components of the hard foundation of the hand:

A. The IInd-Vth carpometacarpal joints with their ligaments.

B. The intercarpal joints with their ligamentary apparatus.

C. The radiocarpal joint with its strengthening apparatus.

D. The intermetacarpal joints with their ligaments.

E. The metacarpophalangeal joints with their ligamentary apparatus.

56. CS. Biaxial joints:

A. The talocrural.

B. The sacroiliac joint.

C. The knee joint.

D. The hip joint.

E. The proximal tibiofibular joint.

57. CS. It is an element of the sacroiliac joint:

A. Collateral ligaments.

B. Lateral ligament.

C. Bifurcate ligament.

D. Sacrospinal ligament.

E. Interosseous ligament.

58. CS. What is the shape of the articulatio sacroiliaca?

А. Articulatio cotylica.


C. Articulatio spheroidea.



59. CS. What is the shape of the articulatio coxae?


B. Articulatio cotylica.


D. Articulatio sellaris.


60. CS. Which ligament brakes extension in the articulatio coxae?

А. Ligamentum iliofemorale.

B. Ligamentum pubofemorale.

C. Ligamentum ischiofemorale.

D. Zona orbicularis.

E. Ligamentum capitis femoris.

57

61. CS. It is an element of the articulatio tibiofibulare:



C. Medial interosseous cuneometatarsal ligament.

D. Bifurcate ligament.

E. Anterior and posterior tibiofibular ligaments.

62. CS. What is the shape of the articulatio genus?

А. Ginglymus.


C. Articulatio bicondylaris.



63. CS. On which axes are possible movements in the articulatio genus?

А. Axis transversalis et sagittalis.

B. Axis sagittalis et verticalis.

C. Axis verticalis et transversalis.

D. Axis transversalis et obliquus.

E. Axis sagittalis et obliquus.

64. CS. What is the shape of the articulatio tibiofibularis?






65. CS. It is an element of the distal tibiofibular syndesmosis.



C. Bifurcate ligament.



66. CS. To what type of joints belongs articulatio talocruralis?

A. Articulatio simplex.




E. Articulatio sellaris.

67. CS. What is the shape of the articulatio talocruralis?



C. Articulatio cotylica.

D. Ginglymus.


68. CS. On which axis are possible movements in the articulatio talocruralis?

А. Axis transversalis.

B. Axis sagittalis.

C. Axis verticalis.

D. Axis obliquus.


69. CS. It is an element of the Lisfranc's joint:


B. Deltoid ligament.

C. Lateral ligament.


58

E. Medial interosseous cuneometatarsal ligament.

70. CS. What is the shape of the articulatio calcaneocuboidea?




D. Ginglymus.


71. CS. What is the shape of the articulatio cuneonavicularis?




D. Ginglymus.


72. CS. What is the shape of the articulationes tarsometatarseae?



C. Ginglymus.



73. CS. What is the shape of the articulationes metatarsophalangeae?


B. Ginglymus.




74. CS. It is an element of the Chopart's joint:

A. Deltoid ligament.

B. Collateral ligaments.

C. Lateral ligament.

D. Medial interosseous cuneometatarsal ligament.

E. Bifurcate ligament.

75. CS. What is the shape of the articulationes interphalangeae pedis?


B. Ginglymus.




76. CS. What kind of movement is possible in the articulationes interphalangeae pedis?



C. Rotatio.

D. Circumductio.

E. Oppositio et reppositio.

77. CM. Which of the following types of junctions belong to synarthroses?

A. Synchondrosis.

B. Synostosis.

C. Symphysis.

D. Syndesmosis.

E. Sutura.

78. CM. Which of the following types of junctions belong to synfibroses?

A.Sutura.

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B.Gomphosis.

C.Membrana interossea.

D. Synostosis.

E. Symphysis.

79. CM. Name the main elements of a diarthrosis (synovial joint).

A.Discus articularis.

B.Capsula articularis.

C.Cavitas articularis.

D.Labrum articulare.

E. Facies articulares.

80. CM. Name the auxilliary elements of a diarthrosis (synovial joint).

А. Ligamentum.

B. Cartilago articularis (disci et menisci articulares).

C. Capsula articularis.

D. Bursae sinoviales.

E. Labrum articulare.

81. CM. Name the auxilliary elements of a diarthrosis, derivatives of cartilaginous tissue.

А. Cartilago articularis.

B. Labrum articulare.

C. Meniscus articularis.

D. Discus articularis.

E. Synchondrosis.

82. CM. Into what types are divided joints by their complexity?

А. Combined.

B. Condylar.

C. Compound.

D. Complex.

E. Simple.

83. CM. Into what groups are divided joints according to the shape of the articular surfaces?

А. Compound.

B. Ball-and-socket.

C. Combined.

D. Saddle.

E. Ellipsoid.

84. CM. Into what groups are divided joints acoording to the number of axes on which are performed

movements?

А. Simple.

B. Multiaxial

C. Compound.

D. Uniaxial.

E. Biaxial.

85. CM. Haw are named movements on the vertical axis?



C. Rotatio.

D. Circumductio.


86. CM. Which of the following joints are uniaxial?


B. Articulatio cotylica.

C. Articulatio plana.

D. Ginglymus.


60

87. CM. Which of the following joints are biaxial?






88. CM. Which of the following joints are multiaxial?

А. Articulatio bicondylaris.


C. Articulatio cotylica.


E. Articulatio plana.

89. CM. Articular surfaces of diarthroses: A. The articular cartilage usually is hialinic, just rarely it is fibrous.

B. The thickness of the articular cartilage varies from 0.2 to 0.5 mm.

C. In some cases the articular surfaces are not congruent.

D. When the articular surfaces are not congruent, their incongruence is modeled by means of sesamoid

bones.

E. The intraarticular discs with their circumference adhere to the articular capsule.

90. CM. Layers of the articular capsule:

A. Adventitial.

B. Epithelial.

C. Fibrous.

D. Serous.

E. Synovial.

91. CM. The synovial fluid has the role of:

A. Guiding the movements.

B. Metabolism.

C. Amortization.

D. Lubrification of the articular surfaces.

E. Growth of bones.

92. CM. Functions of the articular capsule are:

A. Protection.

B. Support.

C. Strengthening of bones.

D. Guiding the movements.

E. Secretion.

93. CM. The ligaments have the function of:

A. Strengthening the bones.

B. Strengthening of the articular capsule.

C. Braking of movements.

D. Guiding of movements.

E. Protection.

94. CM. Articular cartilage: A. Does not contain nervous endings.

B. It has properties of compressibility and elasticity.

C. Plays an amortization role.

D. With age it becomes thicker.

E. In case of long immobilization it can be invaded by blood vessels.

95. CM. The movement when two segments of a limb get further from each other.

61

A. Circumduction.

B. Adduction.

C. Abdduction.

D. Extenssion.

E. Flexion.

96. CM. Are possible just gliding movements:

A. Plane joint.

B. Screw-like joint.

C. Pivot joint.

D. Amphyarthrosis.

E. Saddle joint.

97. CM. Are possible flexion and extension:

A. Plane joint.

B. Ellipsoid joint.

C. Pivot joint.

D. Condylar joint.

E. Saddle joint.

98. CM. Can be performed flexion-extension, abduction-adduction and circumduction:

A. Plane joint.

B. Hinge joint.

C. Ball-and-socket joint.

D. Condylar joint.

E. Cotyloid joint.

99. CM. Can be performed flexion-extension, abduction-adduction, rotation and circumduction:

A. Plane joint.

B. Amphyarthrosis.

C. Pivot joint.

D. Ellipsoid joint.

E. Ball-and socket joint.

100. CM. Are possible opposite movements just on a single plan:

A. Plane joint.

B. Hinge joint.

C. Pivot joint.

D. Condylar joint.

E. Saddle joint.

101. CM. Are possible opposite movements just on two perpendicular to each other axes:

A. Plane joint.

B. Srew-like joint.

C. Pivot joint.

D. Condylar joint.

E. Saddle joint.

102. CM. Are possible movements in all directions:

A. Plane joint.

B. Amphyarthrosis.

C. Ball-and-socket joint.

D. Condylar joint.

E. Cotyloid joint.

103. CM. Junctions of the bones of the skull: A. The bones of the facial skull join to each other just by means of plane sutures.

B. The serrate sutures are not present in the region of the facial skull.

C. Between the body of the sphenoid bone and base of the occipital bone there is a permanent synchondrosis.

D. Gomphosis is a variation of syndesmosis.

E. The temporomandibular joint is a condylar, complex, combined diarthrosis.

62

104. CM. Temporomandibular joint: A. The articular cavity is separated into two floors.

B. The articular disc is like a biconvex lens.

C. The gliding movements are performed in the inferior floor.

D. The rotation on a vertical axis is performed in the superior floor.

E. In case of lateropulsion take place unilateral gliding of the head of mandible with the articular disc in the

superior floor of the TMJ, but in its contralateral side occur rotation in the inferior floor.

105. CM. Ligamentary apparatus of the temporomandibular joint:

A. The lateral ligament is intergrown (connected) to the articular capsule.

B. The extracapsular ligaments connect the mandible with the skull.

C. The stylomandibular ligament represents a thickening of the fibrous capsule of the parotid gland.

D. The sphenomandibular ligament extends from the sphenoid spine to the angle of the mandible.

E. The sphenomandibular ligament plays a role of a passive support for the mandible.

106. CM. Movements in the temporomandibular joint:

A. In propulsion there occurs bilateral gliding of the head of the mandible together with the articular disc on

the articular surface of the temporal bone.

B. In retropulsion there occurs rotation in the inferior floor of the joint.

C. In lowering the mandible three phases are distinguished.

D. When the mandible moves anteriorly the movement occurs just in the inferior floor.

E. In lateral movements of the mandible that occur simultaneously in both joints the movements are

not similar (identical).

107. CM. Sutura serrata between the:



C. Right and left maxilla.

D. Temporal and sphenoid bones.

E. Frontal and parietal bones.

108. CM. What ligaments strengthen the articulationes atlantoaxiales mediana et laterales?

А. Ligamentum apicis dentis.

B. Ligamentum transversum atlantis.

C. Ligamenta alaria.

D. Ligamentum cruciforme atlantis.

E. Ligamentum supraspinale.

109. CM. To which type of joints belongs articulatio temporomandibularis?





E. Articulatio synovialis.

110. CM. What kinds of movements are possible in the inferior floor of the articulatio

temporomandibularis?

A. Propulsion of the mandible.

B. Retropulsion of the mandible.

C. Lowering of the mandible.

D.Raising of the mandible.

E. Lateral movements.

111. CM. What kinds of movements are performed in the superior floor of the articulatio

temporomandibularis?

A. Propulsion of the mandible.

B. Retropulsion of the mandible.

C. Lowering of the mandible.

D.Raising of the mandible.

E. Lateral movements.

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112. CM. Name the extraarticular ligaments of the temporomandibular joint:

А. Ligamentum laterale.

B. Ligamentum sphenomandibulare.

C. Ligamentum stylomandibulare.

D. Ligamentum mediale. / it is not homologated by the NA

E. Ligamentum bifurcatum.

113. CM. To which types belongs articulatio atlantooccipitalis?

А. Articulatio simplex.





114. CM. Sutura squamoza forms between:



C. Right and left maxilla.

D. Temporal and parietal bones.

E. Temporal and sphenoid bones.

115. CM. To which segments/parts of the vertebral column is characteristic physiological lordosis?

А. Thoracic part.

B. Cervical part.

C. Lumbar part.

D. Sacral part.

E. Coccygeal part.

116. CM. To which segments/parts of the vertebral column is characteristic physiological kyphosis?

А. Thoracic part.

B. Lumbar part.

C. Cervical part.

D. Sacral part.

E. Coccygeal part.

117. CM. Joints between the vertebral bodies: A. The bodies of the adjacent vertebra are joined by means of synchondroses, syndesmoses, or synostoses.

B. The intervertebral discs are thiner in the thoracic part/segment of the vertebral column

C. The intervertebral discs are well blood supplied (vascularized).

D. The anterior longitudinal ligament is connected to the vertebral bodies and does not connect to the

intervettebral discs.

E. The posterior longitudinal ligament starts from the body of the Epistropheus.

118. CM. Intervertebral discs:

A. Have a shape of the biconvex lens.

B. Their dimensions are bigger than those of the vertebral bodies.

C. Connection of the neighboring vertebrae occurs by means of the pulpy nucleus (nucleus pulposus).

D. The fibrous ring plays an amortization role.

E. The first disc is located between the first and second cervical vertebrae.

119. CM. The longitudinal ligaments of the vertebral column:

A. Are located bilaterally to the vertebral bodies.

B. The anterior ligament extends from the pharyngeal tubercle to the second or third sacral transverse line.

C. The posterior longitudinal ligament becomes wider (broader) at the level of the intervertebral discs.

D. The longitudinal ligaments are strong connected with the intervertebral discs.

E. The posterior longitudinal ligament ends on the posterior surface of bodies of the sacral or first coccygeal

vertebrae.

120. CM. Joints of the vertebrae:

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A. The vertebral arches are joined by means of synfibroses.

B. The intervertebral joints are plane, multiaxial, slightly mobile diarthroses.

C. The intertransverse ligaments are better developed in the cervical region.

D. The nuchal ligament is inserted on the external occipital crest and inferiorly on the spinous process of the

prominent vertebra (seventh cervical vertebra).

E. The interspinal ligaments are very thin in the cervical region.

121. CM. What shape can have the articulationes zygapophysiales?

А. Saddle joint.

B. Plane joint.

C. Ellipsoid joint.

D. Pivot joint.

E. Cotyloid joint.

122. CM. The zygapophyseal joints are: A. Amphyarthroses.

B. Uniaxial diarthroses.

C. Plane diarthroses.

D. Synarthroses.

E. Multiaxial diarthroses.

123. CM. The vertebral column has an increased mobility at the level of:

A. Lordoses.

B. Thoracic segment (part).

C. Kyphoses.

D. Cervical segment (part).

E. Lumbar segment (part).

124. CM. Joints of the vertebral column with the skull:

A. The vertebral column joins with the skull by means of three bones.

B. The atlantooccipital joints are strengthen by the anterior and posterior atlantooccipital membranes.

C. The anterior atlantooccipital membrane is wider/broader than the posterior one.

D. The atlantoaxial joints are covered in front by the tectorial membrane.

E. The dens is maintained in its stable position by the alar, cruciate and apical ligaments.

125. CM. Movements of the vertebral column:

A. In the vertebral column are possible flexion and extension, adduction and abduction, rotation.

B. The shape of the intervetebral discs changes during movement.

C. The most mobile part of the vertebral column is the lumbar part.

D. In the vertebral column is possible circumduction.

E. The amplitude of abduction and adduction in the thoracic part of the vertebral column is wider that

amplitude of rotation.

126. CM. Junction of the posterior extremities (ends) of the ribs:

A. The heads of the IInd-Xth ribs form with the vertebrae compound diarthroses.

B. All the joints of the head of the rib are strengthened by means of an intraarticular and an extraarticular

radiate ligament.

C. The posterior extremities of the ribs are connected to each other by means of the external intercostal

membrane.

D. Rotation in the costovertebral and costotransverse joints permits ascending and descending movements of

the anterior extremities of the ribs.

E. The costotransverse joints do not have strengthening ligaments.

127. CM. Junctions of the anterior extremities of the ribs:

A. The capsule of the sternocostal joints represents a continuation of the sternal periosteum.

B. The first rib joins with the sternum by means of a synchondrosis.

C. The IInd-VIIth sternocostal joints are strengthened by means of intraarticular and sternocostal radiate

ligaments.

D. The cartilages of the false ribs join to each other or form intercondral joints.

E. The cavity of the IInd sternocostal joint is separated into two compartments.

128. CM. The sternoclavicular joint:

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A. The articular surfaces are congruent.

B. The joint is complex, combined.

C. Movements are possible on two axes.

D. The articular cavity is divided into two compartments (chambers).

E. It is strengthened by the sternoclavicular, interclavicular and costoclavicular ligaments.

129. CM. To which joints belongs articulatio sternoclavicularis?


B. Articulatio synovialis.



E. Synarthrosis

130. CM. What kinds of movements can be performed in the articulatio sternoclavicularis?

А. Rising and lowering the clavicle.

B. Propulsion and retropulson of the clavicle, or movements to the front and to the back of the clavicle.

C. Rotation of the clavicle.

D. Circumduction.

E. Adduction and abduction.

131. CM. Name the ligaments that strengthen the articulatio sternoclavicularis.

А. Ligamentum trapezoideum.

B. Ligamentum sternoclaviculare anterius.

C. Ligamentum costoclaviculare.

D. Ligamentum interclaviculare.

E. Ligamentum sternoclaviculare posterius.

132. CM. The acromioclavicular joint is: A. A multiaxial, combined diarthrosis.

B. In 1/3 of cases it contains (has) an articular disc.

C. Sometimes the disc has an orifice.

D. The articular capsule is strengthened by the coracoacromial ligament.

E. The coracoclavicular ligament includes two parts: the conoid ligament and the trapezoid one.

133. CM. What ligaments strengthen the articulatio acromioclavicularis?

А. Ligamentum acromioclaviculare.

B. Ligamentum trapezoideum.

C. Ligamentum conoideum.

D. Ligamentum coracohumerale.

E. Ligamentum coracoclaviculare.

134. CM. Point out the abnormal shapes of the thoracic cage.

А. Infundibular.

B. Flat.

C. Bell-shaped thorax.

D. Pigeon chest

E. Cylindrical shape.

135. CM. The shoulder joint:

A. The glenoid cavity of the scapula is smaller than the surface of the head of the humerus.

B. The articular capsule is inserted distantly from the humeral head.

C. The articular capsule is thin and large (free).

D. The subscapular bursa is located at the base of the coracoid process.

E. The intertubercular synovial sheath encloses (surrounds) the tendon of the long head of the biceps

brachii muscle.

136. CM. What kinds of movements are possible in the shoulder joint.



C. Rotatio.

D. Circumductio.

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137. CM. To what type belongs articulatio humeri?

A. Articulatio composita.

B. Articulatio combinata.

C. Articulatio simplex.



138. CM. The elbow joint:

A. It is formed by six articular surfaces.

B. The proximal radioulnar joint is strengthened by the collateral ligaments.

C. There are no synovial bursae in the articular region.

D. The elbow joint includes three joints of different shapes: ball-and-socket, pivot and cohlear (screw-like)

joint.

E. The movements in the elbow joint are possible on two axes.

139. CM. To what type belongs the articulatio cubiti?






140. CM. Junctions of the bones of the forearm:

A. The bones of the forearm are joined by means of syndesmoses and diarthroses.

B. The proximal radioulnar joint is strengthened by the annular and quadrate ligament.

C. The articular capsule of the distal radioulnar joint forms a prolabation between the carpal bones.

D. The amplitude of supination and pronation in the radioulnar joint is about 2000.

E. The distal radioulnar joint is complex.

141. CM. The radiocarpal joint:

A. It is formed by five bones: the radius and four proximal carpal bones.

B. The articular capsule is fixed at some distance from the articular surfaces.

C. The palmar radiocarpal ligament extends from the radius to the scaphoid bone.

D. It is an ellipsoid, biaxial joint.

E. Four strengthening ligaments are accounted in this joint: two collateral and two radiocarpal ligaments.

142. CM. What bones form the articulatio radiocarpea?

А. Triquetrum.

B. Pisiforme.

C. Lunatum.

D. Radius.

E. Ulna

143. CM. What kinds of movements are possible in the articulatio radiocarpea?


B. Rotatio.

C. Adductio et abductio.

D. Circumductio.


144. CM. On which axes are possible movements in the articulatio radiocarpеa?


B. Axis sagittalis.

C. Axis verticalis.

D. Axis obliquus.


145. CM. To what type of joints belongs the articulatio mediocarpea?

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146. CM. On which axes are possible movements in the articulatio carpometacarpea pollicis?


B. Axis sagittalis.

C. Axis verticalis.

D. Axis obliquus.


147. CM. Joints of the hand:

A. The articular capsule of the mediocarpal joint is very thin on the palmar side.

B. The articular cavity of the mediocarpal joint communicates with that of the radiocarpal one.

C. The intercarpal joints are strengthened by the dorsal, palmar, interosseous intercarpal ligaments and by

the pisohamatum, pisometacarpeum and radiate ligaments.

D. The IInd-Vth carpometacarpal joints have a common articular cavity.

E. The articular cavity of the carpometacarpal joint of the thumb is isolated from other carpometacarpal

joints.

148. CM. The intermetacarpal, metacarpophalangeal and interphalangeal joints:

A. The intermetacarpal joints have a common articular capsule with the IInd-Vth carpometacarpal joints.

B. The metacarpophalangeal joints are multiaxial.

C. The intermetacarpal joints are strengthened by the dorsal, palmar and interosseous

ligaments that have a transverse direction.

D. The capsules of the metacarpophalangeal joints are tighten.

E. The interphalangeal joints are hinge, uniaxial joints.

149. CM. The biaxial joints of the upper limb:

A. Shoulder joint.

B. Mediocarpal joint.

C. Radiocarpal joint.

D. Interphalangeal joints.

E. Carpometacarpal joint of the thumb.

150. CM. Auxilliary elements of the shoulder joint:

A. Coracohumeral ligament.

B. Intertubercular synovial sheath.

C. Acromiohumeral ligament.

D. Subtendinous bursa of the subclavius muscle.

E. The articular rim.

151. CM. Ligaments of the elbow joint:

A. Collateral humeral ligament.

B. Collateral ulnar ligament.

C. Collateral radial ligament.

D. Collateral radioulnar ligament.

E. Annular radial ligament.

152. CM. Compound joints of the upper limb:

A. Interphalangeal joints.

B. Radiocarpal joint.

C. Carpometacarpal joint of the thumb.

D. Elbow joint

E. Proximal radioulnar joint.

153. CM. Sacroiliac joint:

A. It is formed by the auricular articular surfaces of the sacrum and hip bone.

B. The articular capsule is large (free) and resistant.

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C. The articular cartilage of the hip bone is thicker that that of the sacrum.

D. The interosseous sacroiliac ligament is the strongest among all the other sacroiliac ligaments.

E. It is an amphyarthrosis.

154. CM. What ligaments strengthen the articulatio sacroiliaca?

А. Ligamentum sacrospinale.

B. Ligamenta sacroiliaca interossea.

C. Ligamentum sacrotuberale.

D. Ligamenta sacroiliaca ventralia.

E. Ligamenta sacroiliaca dorsalia.

155. CM. The pubic symphysis:

A. It is a hemiarthrosis (half-a-joint) located between the pubic bones.

B. The interpubic fibro-cartilaginous disc is more massive (bigger) in male than in female.

C. The pubic symphysis is higher in female.

D. Movements in the symphysis are possible in female during labour.

E. It is fixed by the superior pubic ligament and by the arcuate pubic ligament.

156. CM. Pelvis as a whole:

A. It is a bony ring.

B. The greater pelvis forms the inferior part of the abdominal cavity.

C. The greater sciatic foramen is bounded by the greater sciatic notch and by the sacrotuberal ligament.

D. The lesser sciatic foramen is formed by the lesser sciatic notch and sacrospinal ligament.

E. In normal anatomical position the superior pelvic aperture in female forms with the horizontal plan an

angle about (50-550).

157. CM. The terminal line crosses the:

A. Promontorium.

B. Iliac crest.

C. Arcuate line.

D. Pubic crest.

E. The superior margin of the pubic symphysis.

158. CM. The borders of the inferior aperture of the pelvis includes:

A. The coccygeal bone.

B. The sacrospinal ligaments.

C. The sciatic tuberosities.

D. The sciatic and inferior pubic rami.

E. The pubic sympysis.

159. CM. The hip joint.

A. It is formed by the head of the femur and acetabulum.

B. The articular rim (labrum) consists of hialinic cartilage.

C. The articular capsule is fixed to the acetabular articular rim.

D. The neck of the femur is partially located inside the articular cavity.

E. The fixation apparatus includes extraarticular, intracapsular and intraarticular ligaments.

160. CM. Name the intraarticular ligaments of the articulatio coxae (hip joint):

А. Zona orbicularis.

B. Ligamentum iliofemorale.

C. Ligamentum transversum acetabuli.

D. Ligamentum capitis femoris.

E. Ligamentum pubofemorale.

161. CM. What kinds of movements are possibile in the articulatio coxae (hip joint)?



C. Rotatio.

D. Circumductio.


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162. CM. Movements in the hip joint:

A. The amplitude of movements depends on position of the knee joint.

B. Lateral rotation is more obvious than the medial one.

C. The ischiofemoral ligaments brakes the extention.

D. The movements are limited by the ligamentary apparatus.

E. The amplitude of rotation is about 70-80°.

163. CM. The knee joint:

A. The articular surfaces are extended and incongruent.

B. It is formed by the femorotibial and patellofemural joint.

C. The fibrous capsule inserts distantly from the margins (edges) of the articular cartilages of the tibia.

D. Its stability depends on ligaments, muscles and tendons that surround the joint.

E. It is a uniaxial diarthrosis.

164. CM. The intraaarticular elements of the knee joint.

A. The cruciate ligaments are located outside the synovial cavity.

B. The anterior cruciate ligament is weaker that the posterior one.

C. The posterior cruciate ligament prevents the posterior movement of the femur on the tibia and

hyperextension of the knee joint.

D. The posterior cruciate ligament prevents the hyperflexion of the knee joint.

E. The anterior cruciate ligament is the main stabilization factor of the femur in the flexion position under

influence of the body weight.

165. CM. Synovial bursae of the knee joint:

A. Deep infrapatellar bursa.

B. Lateropatellar bursa.

C. Subcutaneous prepatellar bursa.

D. Retropatellar bursa.

E. The suprapatellar bursa.

166. CM. Name the bones that participate in formation of the knee joint.

А. Fibula.

B. Tibia.

C. Patella.

D. Femur.

E. Bones of the leg.

167. CM. Which ligaments brake extension in the articulatio genus?

А. Ligamentum collaterale tibiale et fubulare.

B. Ligamentum cruciatum anterius et posterius.

C. Ligamentum popliteum obliquum.

D. Ligamentum popliteum arcuatum.

E. Ligamentum cruciatum anterius.

168. CM. Which ligaments brake rotation in the articulatio genus?

А. Ligamentum collaterale tibiale et fubulare.

B. Ligamentum cruciatum anterius et posterius.

C. Ligamentum popliteum obliquum.

D. Ligamentum popliteum arcuatum.

E. Ligamentul patellae.

169. CM. Name the intraarticular elements of the articulatio genus.

А. Ligamentum popliteum obliquum.

B. Ligamentum transversum genus.

C. Plicae alares.

D. Menisci medialis et lateralis.

E. Ligamentum cruciatum anterius et posterius.

170. CM. What are the parts of the medial (deltoid) ligament of the articulatio talocruralis?

А. Pars tibionavicularis.

B. Pars tibiocalcanea.

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C. Pars tibiotalaris anterior.

D. Pars tibiotalaris posterior.

E. Pars tibiofibularis.

171. CM. Menisci:

A. Contribute to the congruency of the articular surfaces and amortization.

B. Their external margins connect with the articular capsule.

C. Their internal margins are free.

D. The medial meniscus is of a semilunar shape.

E. The lateral meniscus is almost circular (round shape), smaller and more mobile than the medial one.

172. CM. Components of the knee joint.

A. The transverse ligament of the knee (ligamentum transversum genu) connects the anterior parts of the

menisci.

B. The lateral meniscus is fixed to the posterior cruciate ligament and to the medial condyle of the femur by

means of ligaments.

C. The number and dimensions of the synovial bursae vary individually.

D. The fibrous capsule is loose.

E. The synovial bursae: suprapatellar, popliteal, anserine and gastrocnemian one communicate with the

synovial cavity of the knee joint.

173. CM. Tibiofibular joint:

A. The articular surface of the head of the fibula is bigger than the posteriorlateral surface of the lateral

condyle of the tibia

B. Its capsule insets on the margins of the articular surfaces.

C. It is strengthened by the (anterior and posterior) intracapsular ligaments of the head of the fibula.

D. It is an amphyarthrosis.

E. Its articular cavity communicates with that of the knee joint.

174. CM. The distal tibiofibular junction:

A. The integrity of the distal tibiofibular syndesmosis is essential for stability of the talocrural joint.

B. The triangular rough area of the lateral malleolus joins with the fibular notch of the distal extremity of the

tibia.

C. It is strengthened by the interosseous ligament and by the two tibiofibular ligaments (anterior and

posterior) one.

D. It is a combined diarthrosis.

E. The interosseous membrane participates in its strengthening.

175. CM. Talocrural joint:

A. It is formed by three articular surfaces.

B. The articular capsule is thin, strengthened by strong ligaments.

C. The capsule inserts on the edges of the articular surfaces.

D. The synovial membrane is loose.

E. The synovial cavity often extends superiorly between the tibiofibular ligaments.

176. CM. The straightening ligaments of the talocrural joint:

A. Lateral collateral ligament consists of three parts.

B. The anterior talofibular ligament is extended between the lateral malleolus and neck of the talus.

C. The posterior talofibular ligament is extended from the lateral malleolus to the lateral tubercle of the talus.

D. The calcaneofibular ligament is located between the apex of the lateral malleolus and lateral surface of

the calcaneus.

E. The medial collateral ligament starts from the medial malleolus and inserts on the talus, calcaneus and

navicular bones.

177. CM. What bones form the articulatio subtalaris?

А. Talus.

B. Os naviculare.

C. Calcaneus.

D. Os cuboideum.

E. Tibia.

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178. CM. Articulatio subtalaris belongs to the:

А. Articulationes planae.

B. Articulationes spheroideae.

C. Articulationes trochoideae.

D. Articulationes simplex

E. Articulationes synoviales.

179. CM. Which joints form the articulatio tarsi transversa?

А. Articulatio calcaneocuboidea.

B. Articulatio subtalaris.

C. Articulatio cuneonavicularis.

D. Articulatio talocalcaneonavicularis.

E. Articulatio talonavicularis.

180. CM. What ligaments strengthen the articulatio tarsi transversa?

А. Ligamentum talonaviculare.

B. Ligamentum calcaneonaviculare.

C. Ligamentum calcaneocuboideum.

D. Ligamentum calcaneocuboideum plantare.

E. Ligmentum plantare longum.

181. CM. Joints of the foot:

A. The Chopart's joint is the most mobile joint of the foot.

B. The transverse tarsal joint includes the talonavicular and calcaneocuboid joints.

C. The main movements in the transverse tarsal joint and in the subtalar one are: inversion and eversion.

D. In the subtalar joint can be performed adduction and abduction of the foot.

E. Through the tarsal sinus passes the tendon of a muscle.

182. CM. The calcaneocuboid joint:

A. The articular surfaces are congruent.

B. It is a saddle joint.

C. The articular capsule is thicker and more tensioned on the medial side.

D. The articular cavity just sometimes communicates with that of the talocalcaneonavicular joint.

E. On the dorsal surface it is strengthen better than on the plantar surface.

183. CM. Ligaments of the foot joints:

A. The long plantar ligament is the strongest ligament of the foot.

B. The long plantar ligament starts on the lateral surface of the calcaneus and it inserts on the bases of the

IInd-Vth metatarsal bones.

C. The "key" of the Chopart's joint is the bifurcate ligament.

D. The bifurcate ligament is formed by two parts: calcaneonavicular and calcaneocuneiform one.

E. The strongest ligaments are located on the plantar surface.

184. CM. Cuneonavicular joint:

A. It is an ellipsoid joint formed by four bones.

B. The articular capsule is fixed on the margins of the articular surfaces.

C. It is strengthened by the following ligaments: cuneonavicular (plantar and dorsal) ones, interosseous

intercuneiform, dorsal and plantar intercuneiform ligaments.

D. The articular cavity continues between the cuneiform bones.

E. In some cases the articular cavity communicates with the cavity of the tarsometatarsal joints.

185. CM. Tarsometatarsal and intermetatarsal joints:

A. There are three compound tarsometatarsal joints, isolated from each other.

B. They are strengthened by the dorsal, plantar and interosseous tarsometatarsal ligaments.

C. The lateral interosseous tarsometatarsal ligament is the "key" of the Lisfranc's joint.

D. intermetatarsal joint are plane.

E. The direction (orientation) of all the dorsal, plantar and interosseous ligaments is transverse.

186. CM. Name the anatomical formations that sustain the plantar arch.

А. Ligamenta tarsi interossea.

B. Ligamentum plantare longum.

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C. Ligamentum calcaneonaviculare plantare.

D. Ligamentum bifurcatum.

E.Ligamenta plantaria.

187. CM. Which ligaments strengthen the transverse arch of the foot?

А. Aponeurosis plantaris.

B. Ligamenta metatarsea interossea.

C. Ligamentum plantare longum.

D. Ligamentum metatarseum transversum profundum.

E. Ligamenta collateralia.

188. CM. Metatarsophalangeal joints:

A. The articular surfaces of the head of the metatarsal bones are spheroid by shape and slightly flattened

transversally.

B. The articular capsule is thin and loose.

C. Are strengthened by the medial and lateral collateral ligaments, by the plantar and deep transverse

metatarsal ligament.

D. The medial collateral ligaments are more massive and stronger.

E. The extension movements are more reduced that in the similar joints of the hand.

189. CM. Metatarsophalangeal joints:

A. The deep transverse metatarsal ligament connects the heads of the all metatarsal joints. B. The

metatarsophalangeal joints are multiaxial joints.

C. The flexion and extension in the metatarsophalangeal joints are more reduced that those of abduction and

adduction.

D. The interphalangeal joints are hinge, uniaxial joints.

E. The interphalangeal joints are strengthened by the collateral and dorsal ligaments.

190. CM. Articulatio atlantoaxialis mediana:

A. Alar ligaments.

B. Anterior atlantooccipital membrane.

C. Ligamentum apicis dentis.

D. Ligamentum transversum atlantis.


191. CM. It is an element of the articulationes atlantoaxiales laterales:

A. Alar ligaments.

B. Anterior atlantooccipital membrane. C. Ligamentum apicis dentis.

D. Articular capsule.


192. CM. The vertebral bodies join by means of:

A. Diarthroses.

B. Synelastoses.

C. Synchondroses.

D. Synostoses.

E. Symphyses.

193. CM. Uniaxial joints:

A. Hip joint.

B. Interphalangeal joints.

C. Knee joint.

D. Subtalar joint.

E. Calcaneocuboid joint.

194. CM. Multiaxial joints:

A. Sacroiliac joint.

B. Hip joint.

C. Knee joint.

D. Proximal tibiofibular joint.

E. Talocrural joint.

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195. CM. Amphyarthroses:

A. Sacroiliac joint.

B. Hip joint.

C. Talocrural joint.

D. Subtalar joint.

E. Calcaneocuboid joint.

196. CM. Simple joints:

A. Proximal tibiofibular joint.

B. Talocrural joint.

C. Subtalar joint.

D. Sacroiliac joint.

E. Interphalangeal joints.

197. CM. Compound joints:

A. Interphalangeal joints.

B. Knee joint.

C. Talocrural joint.

D. Subtalar joint.

E. Cuneonavicular joint.

198. CM. Complexe joints:

A. Sternoclavicular joint.

B. Calcaneocuboid joint.

C. Knee joint.


E. Talocrural joint.

199. CM. Combined joints: A. Sacroiliac joint.

B. Proximal and distal radioulnar joints.

C. Knee joint.


E. Temporomandibular joint.

200. CM. It is an element of the hip joint:


B. Transverse acetabular ligament.

C. Collateral ligaments.


E. Fibrocartilaginous rim.

201. CM. It is an element of the knee joint:

A. Collateral ligament.


C. Cruciate ligament.


E. Arcuate popliteal ligament.

202. CM. It is an element of the talocrural joint:


B. Collateral ligaments.

C. Calcaneofibular ligament.

D. Cruciate ligament.


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ARTHROSYNESMOLOGY.

CASE FILES

1. The results of anthropometric studies showed that the persons, height decreases in old age. What are the age

modifications of vertebral column which make it shorter?

What are the other modifications of locomotor apparatus which reduce the stature of human being?

2. The dissection of a fragment of vertebral column puts in evidence the yellow structures between the vertebral arches.

What structures are these?

What are their functional roles?

3. After examining a new-born the doctor found the absence of all of curvatures of vertebral column except one in

sagittal plane with posterior convexity.

What do you think, this fact can be considerated pathological?

Name the physiological curvatures of vertebral column.

Does the physiological scoliosis exist?

4. It is known there are many movements at the level of vertebral column.

Which ligament limits the excessive extension in the vertebral column?

What kind of modifications does the shape of the vertebral discs suffer during the extension of spine?

5. The amplitude (range) of movement differs in different parts of spine.

What are the causes of wide mobility of the cervical part of vertebral column and what is the range of possible

movements at this level?

What are the causes of reduced mobility of the thoracic part of vertebral column and what is the range of possible

movements at this level?

6. In a clinic after examining a man it was established that he had brachymorphic type of body build.

What would the shape of thorax be in this case?

List the characteristic signs of this shape of thorax.

7. The anthropometric studies give us dates about the modifications of thorax in relations with old age.

Indicate how does the thorax change its shape and dimensions in this period of life?

Name two possible causes of these changes.

8. It is necessary to know the limit (borderline) between greater and lesser pelvis to determine the topography of pelvic

cavity, organs (rectum, urinary bladder, uterus etc.).

Which anatomical structures does the terminal line pass through?

What do you call the outlet of pelvic cavity and which structures limit it?

9. It was determined the shape and dimensions of a woman,

s pelvis to prognosis the possibility of physiological

delivery. According to the results the obstetric conjugate (conjugata vera) is 10 cm and the anteroposterior

diameter of pelvic outlet is 9,5 cm.

How much do these dimensions measure in normal conditions?

Name the referent points which are used to determine these dimensions.

10. After an accident a rupture of the articular disc of distal radioulnar joint appeared.

Between which structures is the articular disc located?

Define the term “proximal protrusion” of articular capsule.

11. A child felt an acute pain at physical education, s lesson.

What may be the cause of this pain?

List the auxiliary elements of knee joint.

12. A 10 ten year old boy addressed at the department of traumatology, where a luxation (dislocation) of the left distal

radioulnar joint has been diagnosed.

What kinds of movements are disturbed in this case and in which joints.

13. In case of congenital luxation of the hip joint, during suddenly extension of joint capsule the head of femur enters

and leaves easily the acetabulum moving upward and downward.

Which position of lower limb should be chosen in this case to keep the femur perpendicular to the acetabulum.

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14. Surgeons – traumatologists know that the section of one ligament of transverse tarsal joint leads to the

disarticulation of this joint with disintegration of the foot.

What do you call this ligament?

Name the origin and insertion of this ligament.

15. The lesion of which ligaments of knee joint makes the “drawer test” (passive movement of leg forward / backward

in flexed knee joint) positive?

Motivate this case from anatomical point of view.

16. The examination of a man, who had complained a pain in the right knee joint, found the inflammation of

infrapatellar bursa (bursitis).

Between which anatomical structures is this bursa located?

Which other bursae of the knee joint do you know?

17. The articular capsule of ankle (talocrural) joint is often injured during the dissection of this joint.

Name the thinnest and most vulnerable zones of the capsule.

In which position of the foot is the lateral movement possible in this joint?

18. It was done the back projection, s X-ray examination of shoulder joint with upper limbs along the trunk. On the

radiograph the “X-ray joint space” is seen as a curved band, the inferomedial part of the humeral head is located

under inferior margin of glenoid cavity.

Do the above mentioned signs correspond to the norm? If not, which one does not correspond?

Describe the shoulder joint.

Which ligament limits (stops) the abduction above the shoulder level in this joint?

19. The X-ray examination of a 37 year old man, who had complained a pain in the hand, found a large “X-ray joint

space”, located on the medial margin of carpus.

Is this a normal condition? If yes, how do you explain its presence?

Which carpal bones in the anteroposterior projection overlap each other in normal condition?

20. As a result of trauma of hand the articular disc was separated from the ulna.

Between which anatomical structures is this disc located?

What do you call the proximal evagination (overturn) of joint capsule between the forearm bones?

21. It is known, that during the elbow joint, s flexion the slight medial movement of forearm takes part. That

, s why

during the flexion the hand reaches the breast (thorax) not the shoulder.

Indicate the causes of this fact.

What is the amplitude of flexion / extension movements in the elbow joint?

22. A purulent process of the region of elbow joint can affect the join capsule.

Indicate the weakest and the strongest zones of this capsule.

23. A 10 ten year old boy addressed at the department of traumatology, where a luxation (dislocation) of the left distal

radioulnar joint has been diagnosed.

What kinds of movements could be disturbed in this case and in which joints.

Give the anatomical characteristics of distal radioulnar joint.

24. During the exam a student could not name correct structural peculiarities of pubic symphysis.

Name the sex peculiarities of pubic symphysis.

What is “subpubic angle”? Indicate the sex differences of value of this angle.

25. The X-ray examination of temporomandibular joint (lateral projection) with closed mouth determined the

following signs: a deep mandibular fossa with unclear limits, protruding (raised) articular tubercle, clearly seen “X-

ray joint cavity”, being larger on extremities than in the center.

Do the above mentioned signs correspond to the normal condition? If not, why?

What are the differences between the articular disc of this joint and most of discs of the other joints.

76

MIOLOGY

1. TESTES

1. CS. The auxiliary devices of muscles are: A. Aponeurosiss

B. Tendons

C. Synovial folds

D. Muscular bellies

E. Synovial sheaths

2. CS. Which is the anatomic term for a broad tendon? А. Fascia.

B. Aponeurosis.

C. Tendo.

D. Intersectio tendinea.

E. Caput.

3. CS. Indicate the principal elements of the synovial sheath of the tendon. А. Perimysium.

B. Epimysium.

C. Mesotendineum.

D. Perineurium.

E. Endoneurium.

4. CS. The central tendon of the diaphragm contain : A. Aortic hiatus

B. Sternocostal space

C. Caval opening

D. Esophageal hiatus

E. Lumbocostal triangle

5. CS. The greater and lesser rhomboid muscles have origin in: A. Transverse processes of the vertebrae C VI-VII, Th I-V

B. Nuchal and supraspinous ligaments

C. Spinous processes of the vertebrae C VII - Th I-V

D. Interspinous ligament

E. External occipital protuberance

6. CS. The origin of the musculus rectus capitis posterior major А. Processus spinosus axisis.

B. Processus spinosus atlantis.

C. Processus transversus axisis.

D. Processus transversus atlantis.

E. Processus transversus C3

7. CS. The insertion of the musculus infraspinatus. А. Tuberculum majus humeri.

B. Tuberculum minus humeri.

C. Tuberositas deltoidea humeri.

D. Collum chirurgicum humeri.

E. Tuberositas radii.

8. CS. Musculus splenius cervicis in bilateral contraction: А. Make retroflection of the cervical portion of the spine

B. Extent the cervical portion of the spine

C. Lifts the ribs

D. Bents the head forward

E. Turn the head

9. CS. The latissimus dorsi realizes: A. Adduction of the arm

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B. Flex the arm

C. Supinate the arm

D. Turn in the arm

E. Extend the arm in shoulder joint

10. CS. The levator scapulae : A. Is triangular in shape.

B. origins from transverse processes of the last 4-5 cervical vertebrae.

C. is an antagonist of superior part of m.trapezius.

D. is inserted on medial border of the scapulae.

E. if fix point is into scapulae it bents the spine in the same side.

11. CS. The function of the back muscles: A. Mm. Romboidei descend and turn out the scapula.

B. M. serratus posterior superior is an expiatory muscle

C. In simultaneous contraction the serratus muscles become the inspiration ones.

D. M. splenius capitis in unilateral contraction provide the heterolateral rotation of the head .

E. M. erector spinae realize the extension of the spine and its lateral bending.

12. CS. The fascia of the back: A. There are 3: nuchal, thoracolumbar and intermediary of the serratus muscles.

B. The thoracolumbar fascia is located in the lumbar and inferior thoracic region.

C. The intermediate aponeurosis of the serratus muscles is inserted medialy into vertebral transvers processes,

laterally – into ribs..

D. The nuchal fascia is the fascia of m.splenii.

E. The nuchal fascia continuous with superficial facia of the neck.

13. CS. The internal oblique muscle of abdomen: A. The position, size and direction of bundles don’t defer from external one.

B. Has origin in lower ribs, thoracolumbar fascia, iliac crest, anterosuperior iliac spine and lateral portion of the

inguinal ligament.

C. The posterosuperior bundles passed from down to up and are inserted in cartilages of the inferior ribs.

D. Its aponeuroses is spited in two layers which cover the whole rectus abdominis muscle.

E. The inferior bundles together with those originate from external oblique one made up the cremasteric miscle.

14. CS. The inguinal fossa: A. There are 6 depressions determined by peritoneal folds.

B. The median umbilical fold is stretched from umbilicus till urinary bladder.

C. The supravesical fossa correspond to superficial inguinal ring.

D. The lateral inguinal fossa is delimitated by medial and lateral umbilical folds.

E. The medial inguinal fossa doesn’t correspond to posterior wall of the inguinal canal.

15. CS. The medial wall of the axillary cavity is made up by: A. M. serratus medialis

B. M. serratus posterior inferior

C. M. serratus anterior

D. M. rhomboid major

E. M. serratus posterior superior

16. CS. Indicate the place of the insertion of the musculus rhomboideus major. А. Processus spinosi vertebrae thoracicae.

B. Costae II - VIII.

C. Margo medialis scapulae.

D. Margo lateralis scapulae.

E. Angulus superior scapulae.

17. CS. Indicate the place of the insertion of the musculus pectoralis major. А. Acromion.

B. Processus coracoideus scapulae.

C. Crista tuberculi majoris humeri.

D. Crista tuberculi minoris humeri.

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E. Spina scapulae.

18. CS. Indicate the place of the insertion of the musculus latissimus dorsi. А. Crista tuberculi majoris humeri.

B. Crista tuberculi minoris humeri.

C. Costae VII - X.

D. Processus spinosi vertebrae thoracicae.

E. Margo medialis scapulae.

19. CS. Indicate the action of the musculus serratus posterior superior. А. Lift ribs.

B. Lift the scapula.

C. Turn the scapula.

D. Flex the spine.

E. Depress ribs.

20. CS. Under the extensor retinaculum in the carpal region are lodged:

A. Canals for nerves

B. Spaces for arteries

C. Synovial sheaths for tendons of extensor muscles of the hand.

D. Synovial bursae.

E. Synovial sheaths for lymph vessels and veins

21. CS. The fascia of the superior limb: A. In the region of the shoulder are distinguished fascia: suprascapularis and subscapularis.

B. Fascia infraspinosa is divided into 2 layers which embedded the deltoid muscle.

C. From fascia brachialis start 2 intermuscular septa: anterior and posterior.

D. The distal portion of the forearm fascia formed the 2 retinaculi.

E. In forearm region there are two muscular lodges: anterior and posterior.

22. CS. The medial wall of the cavitas axillaris is formed by: А. Мusculus teres major.

B. Мusculus triceps brachii.

C. Мusculus pectoralis minor.

D. Мusculus serratus anterior.

E. Мusculi teretis minor et major.

23. CS. The lateral edge of the foramen quadrilaterum is made by: А. Collum chirurgicum humeri.

B. Caput longum musculi bicipitis brachii.

C. Caput longum musculi tricipitis brachii.

D. Мusculus coracobrachialis.

E. Мusculi teres minor et major.

24. CS. The lateral edge of the foramen quadrilaterum: А. Collum chirurgicum humeri.

B. Caput longum musculi bicipitis brachii.

C. Caput longum musculi tricipitis brachii.


E. Мusculus brachialis.

25. CS. The lateral edge of the foramen trilaterum: А. Мusculus biceps brachii.

B. Мusculus teres minor.

C. Мusculus teres major.

D. Мusculus subscapularis.

E. Мusculi teretis minor et major.

26. CS. Indicate which muscles take part in depressing of the scapula: А. Мusculus infraspinatus.

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B. Мusculus subscapularis.

C. Мusculus serratus posterior inferior.

D. Мusculus serratus anterior.

E. Мusculus teres major.

27. CS. Determine the shoulder configuration: A. M. deltoideus

B. M. subscapularis

C. M. supaspinosus

D. M. teres major

E. M. teres minor

28. CS. Indicate the muscles that participated in the arm extention А. Мusculus suprascapularis.

B. Мusculus teres major.

C. Мusculus deltoideus.

D. Мusculus pectoralis minor.

E. Мusculus subscapularis.

29. CS. The action of the brachial muscle is: А. Extension of the arm

B. Flexion of the hand

C. Extension of the forearm

D. Flexion of the forearm

E. Pronate the arm

30. CS. The insertion of the musculus triceps brachii is: А. Tuberositas ulnae.

B. Tuberositas radii.

C. Collum radii.

D. Olecranon.

E. Corpus radii.

31. CS. Which muscles participated in the flexion of the forearm А. Мusculus anconeus.

B. Мusculus supinator.

C. Мusculus flexor digitorum profundus.

D. Мusculus brachialis.

E. Мusculus subscapularis.

32. CS. The insertion of the musculus extensor carpi ulnaris is. А. Os pisiforme.

B. Os hamatum.

C. Os metacarpale V.

D. Os triquetrum.

E. Epicondylus medialis humeri.

33. CS. Abduct the arm: A. M. subscapularis

B. M. supaspinosus

C. M. teres major

D. M. teres minor

E. M. infraspinosus

34. CS. Which muscles participated in the adduction of the hand. А. Мusculi flexor et extensor carpi ulnaris.

B. Мusculi flexor et extensor carpi radialis.

C. Мusculus pronator teres.

D. Мusculus palmaris longus.

E. Мusculi lumbricales.

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35. CS. Indicate muscles participated in the adduction of the hand fingers toward middle one. А. Мusculi lumbricales.

B. Мusculi flexores digitorum profundus et superficialis.

C. Мusculi interossei palmares.

D. Мusculi interossei dorsales.

E. Мusculi flexores digitorum profundus et superficialis.

36. CS. Indicate muscles participated in the abduction of the hand fingers from middle one. А. Мusculi lumbricales.

B. Мusculi flexores digitorum profundus et superficialis.

C. Мusculi interossei palmares.

D. Мusculi interossei dorsales.

E. Мusculi flexores digitorum profundus et superficialis.

37. CS. Through greater sciatic orifice mare passes: A. M. obturator internus

B. M. obturator externus

C. M. gluteus minimus

D. M. piriformis

E. M. iliopsoas

38. CS. Through lesser sciatic orifice mare passes: A. M. piriformis

B. M. obturator internus

C. M. obturator externus

D. Mm. gemeli

E. M. psoas minor

39. CS. The vascular space is separated from muscular one by: A. Lig. lacunaris

B. Lig. inguinale

C. Lig. reflexus

D. Iliopectineal arch

E. Fascia transversa

40. CS. The anterior wall of the inguinal canal is formed by: А. Мusculus transversus abdominis.

B. Fascia transversalis.

C. Мusculus obliquus externus abdominis (aponeuroza).

D. Мusculus obliquus internus abdominis.

E. Lig. inguinale

41. CS. The posterior wall of the inguinal canal is formed by: А. Мusculus transversus abdominis.

B. Fascia transversalis.

C. Мusculus obliquus externus abdominis.

D. Мusculus obliquus internus abdominis.

E. Lig. inguinale

42. CS. The superior border of the trigonum femorale is formed by: А. Мusculus iliopsoas.

B. Мusculus sartorius.

C. Мusculus vastus medialis.

D. Ligamentum inguinale.

E. Мusculus obliquus externus abdominis.

43. CS. The medial border of the trigonum femorale is formed by: А. Мusculus adductor longus.

B. Мusculus vastus medialis.

C. Мusculus rectus femoris.

D. Ligamentum inguinale.

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44. CS. The lateral border of the trigonum femorale is formed by: А. Мusculus rectus femoris.

B. Мusculus sartorius.

C. Мusculus vastus medialis.

D. Мusculus vastus lateralis.


45. CS. In the femoral triangle are opened the: A. The inguinal canal

B. The femoral canal

C. The obturator canal

D. The adductor canal

E. The cruropopliteal canal

46. CS. Indicate the place of the insertion of the musculus iliopsoas. А. Trochanter major femoris.

B. Trochanter minor femoris.

C. Collum femoris.

D. Linea aspera femoris.

E. Spina iliaca anterior superior.

47. CS. Musculus gluteus minimus is inserted to: А. Trochanter major femoris.


C. Collum femoris.

D. Linea aspera femoris.

E. Fossa trochanterica

48. CS. Indicate the muscles which take part in extension of the thigh А. Мusculus gluteus minimus.

B. Мusculus gluteus maximus.

C. Мusculus gluteus medius.

D. Мusculus pectineus.

E. Мusculus vastus intermedius.

49. CS. Indicate the muscles which take part in abduction of the thigh А. Мusculus pectineus

B. Мusculus gracilis.

C. Мusculus gluteus maximus.

D. Мusculus gluteus medius.


50. CS. Indicate the muscles which take part in the internal rotation of the thigh: А. Мusculus gluteus maximus.

B. Мusculus gluteus minimus.

C. Мusculus iliopsoas.

D. Мusculus sartorius.


51. CS. Indicate the muscles which take part in the external rotation of the thigh А. Мusculus tensor fasciae latae.

B. Мusculus biceps femoris.

C. Мusculus sartorius.



52. CS. The origin of the musculus sartorius is:

А. Trochanter major femoris.

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C. Spina iliaca anterior inferior.

D. Spina iliaca anterior superior.

E. Spina iliaca posterior superior.

53. CS. The function of the musculus vastus lateralis is: А. Flex the leg

B. Extent the leg

C. Flex the thigh

D. Turn the thigh outside

E. Supine the thigh

54. CS. The insertion of the musculus adductor longus: А. Epicondylus lateralis femoris.

B. Epicondylus medialis femoris.

C. Linea aspera femoris.

D. Condylus medialis tibiae.

E. Condylus lateralis tibiae.

55. CS. The insertion of the musculus triceps surae: А. Maleolus medialis.

B. Maleolus lateralis.

C. Processus posterior tali.

D. Tuber calcanei.

E. Talus

56. CS. The third peroneus represent a o portion of next muscle: A. Tibialis anterior

B. Peroneus longus

C. Tibialis posterior

D. Peroneus brevis

E. Extensor digitorum longus

57. CS. Retinaculi, which are made up by fascia of leg: A. Each extensor and flexor retinaculi have two portions: superior and inferior.

B. Beneath flexor retinaculum are formed two osteofibrous canals.

C. The tibial posterior vessels and tibial nerve pass through the separate sheaths.

D. Behind the de lateral malleolus two fibular retinaculi are formed.

E. Under the inferior extensor retinaculum are located osteofibrous 3 canals.

58. CS. The muscles of the thigh. Medial group: A. Semimembranosus

B. Biceps femoris

C. Semitendinosus

D. Gracilis

E. Sartorius

59. CS. Flexion of the thigh: A. Gluteus maximus

B. Piriformis

C. Obturator internus

D. Gluteus medius

E. Iliopsoas

60. CS. Adduction of the thigh: A. Pectineus

B. Piriformis


D. Gluteus medius

E. Qudratus femoris

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61. CS. Internal rotation of the thigh: A. Gluteus maximus

B. Gluteus medius

C. Qudratus femoris

D. Obturator externus

E. Iliopsoas

62. CS. Indicate the muscles which take part in lateral rotation of the leg. А. Мusculus rectus femoris.



D. Мusculus adductor longus.

E. Мusculus gracilis.

63. CS. The lateral wall of the canalis adductorius. А. Мusculus adductor magnus.

B. Мusculus adductor longus.

C. Мusculus adductor brevis.

D. Мusculus vastus medialis.

E. Мusculus sartorius

64. CS. The anterior wall of the canalis cruropоpliteus. А. Мusculus soleus.

B. Мusculus gastrocnemius.

C. Мusculus flexor digitorum longus.

D. Мusculus tibialis posterior.

E. Мusculus semimembranosus.

65. CS. The topographic formations localized on the foot: A. Pirogov’s canal

B. The femoral canal

C. The cruropopliteal canal

D. The saphenus opening

E. Nothing mentioned above

66. CS. Insertion of the mimic expression muscles: A. In superficial fascia

B. In aponeuroses

C. In the skin

D. In ligaments

E. In the tendons of the masticator muscles

67. CS. Insertion of the masticator muscles:

A. In the maxilla

B. In the occipital bone

C. In the mandible

D. In the hyoid bone

E. In the temporal bone

68. CS. The Musculus temporalis is inserted in: А. Angulus mandibulae.

B. Tuberositas pterygoidea.

C. Processus coronoideus.

D. Processus condylaris.

E. Ramus mandibulae.

69. CS. Indicate the muscles which make retropulsion on the mandible. А. The anterior bundles of the temporal muscle.

B. Musculus pterygoideus lateralis.

C. Musculus pterygoideus medialis.

D. The posterior bundles of the temporal muscle.

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E. Musculus masseter.

70. CS. Spaces delimitated by mm. pterygoideus lateralis et temporalis: А. Interpterygoidian.

B. Suprapterygoidian.

C. Pterygomaxilar.

D. Temporo-pterygoidian.

E. Infrapterygoidian.

71. CS. The interscalenic space is delimited by: A. M. sternocleidomastoideus and scalenius anterior

B. M. scalenius medius and m. colli longus

C. Mm. scalenii anterior and medius

D. Mm. scalenii medius and posterior

E. M. scalenius posterior and m. colli longus

72. CS. The skin muscle of the neck. А. Musculus digastricus.

B. Musculus scalenus anterior.

C. Musculus omohyoideus.

D. Musculus sternothyroideus.

E. Musculus platysma.

73. CS. Action of the sternocleidomastoideus muscle on unilateral contraction: А. Tilt head to the ipsilateral the side.

B. Retroflexes the head.

C. Turn the head to the opposite side.

D. Performs head flexion.

E. When the head is fixed, pulls the chest down.

74. CM. Indicate the main parts of each skeletal muscle: А. Caput.

B. Venter.

C. Tendo.

D. Aponeurosis.

E. Fascia.

75. CM. The derivatives of fascia are: А. Septum intermusculare.

B. Retinaculum flexorum.

C. Retinaculum extensorum.

D. Ligamentum metacarpeum transversum superficiale.

E. Bursae synoviales.

76. CM. Indicate the factors which determine the muscle power. А. The muscle length.

B. The anatomic cross section.

C. The angle of insertion on the bone.

D. The physiological cross section. .

E. The state of muscle training.

77. CM. Indicate the elements of the muscle auxiliary apparatus. А. The synovial sheath of the tendons.

B. The fibrous sheath of the tendons.

C. Fascia.

D. The sesamoid bones.

E. Ligaments

78. CM. Indicate the roles of fascia. А. Serve as start point for some muscles.

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B. Serve as place for muscle insertion.

C. Determine the direction of muscle traction.

D. Determine the grade of contraction of the muscular belly.

E. Represent the sources of blood and nerve supply of the muscles.

79. CM. The skeletal muscles: A. Represent the active component of the locomotor apparatus.

B. Have the contractile function.

C. Constitute the main body source of the heat.

D. Constitute the 55 - 60% of the body weight.

E. Have the role in blood and lymph circulation.

80. CM. The fascia: A. Connect the skin to muscles.

B. Insure the morphofunctional integrities of the muscles

C. Increase the muscular output.

D. Form the sheath for vessels and nerves

E. Separate the periossteum from muscles.

81. CM. The functional importance of the muscular crossings are: A. Increase the muscular efficiency

B. Ensure the morphofunctional integrity of the different segments muscles

C. Enforce the flexors and extensors

D. Perform the fine and harmonious movements

E. Ensure the rotations

82. CM. The retinaculli and synovial sheaths of tendons:

A. Retinaculli are fibrous enlagment fascia as bundle.

B. Retinaculli maintain the tendons close to bones.

C. The synovial sheath favors the gliding tendons inside the proper osteofibrous canals.

D. The synovial sheath represents the cylindrical tube formed by two layers.

E. The synovial sheaths exist in all muscles.

83. CM. The synovial burses:

A. Are formed at the level of tendons and muscles with excessive load power.

B. There are subcutaneouse, subfascial, subtendinous and submuscular.

C. In some cases communicated to cavity of joint.

D. Are absent in child and old men

E. Always communicate with cavity of nearer joint

84. CM. The physical proprieties of the skeletal muscles: A. Elasticity

B. Extensibility

C. Conductibility

D. Contractility

E. Tonicity

85. CM. Indicate the groups of the head muscles. А. The mimic muscles.

B. The masticator muscles.

C. The submandibular muscles.

D. The muscles of sense organs.

E. The mimic orbicular muscles.

86. CM. Indicate the portions of the epicranian muscle. А. Venter frontalis.

B. Venter parietalis.

C. Venter occipitalis.

D. Galea aponeurotica.

E. Venter temporoparietalis.

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87. CM. Indicate the muscles around the orbit. А. Мusculus orbicularis oculi.

B. Мusculus corrugator supercilii.

C. Мusculus levator supercilii.

D. Мusculus procerus.

E. Musculus depressor supercilii.

88. CM. Indicate the muscles around the nose. А. Musculus nasalis.

B. Musculus levator alae nasi.

C. Musculus depressor septi nasi.

D. Musculus levator septi nasi.

E. Musculus levator labii superiorioris.

89. CM. Indicate the muscles around the buccal orifice. А. Musculus levator anguli oris.

B. Musculus depressor labii inferioris.

C. Musculus orbicularis oris.

D. Musculus masseter.

E. Musculus levator labii superioris.

90. CM. Indicate the portions of the musculus orbicularis oris. А. Marginal.

B. Medial.

C. Labial.

D. Lateral.

E. Central.

91. CM. Indicate the musculi masticatores. А. Musculus buccinator.

B. Musculus masseter.

C. Musculus orbicularis oris.

D. Musculus pterygoideus lateralis.

E. Musculus temporalis.

92. CM. Indicate the point of insertion of the musculus pterygoideus medialis. А. Fovea pterygoidea.

B. Angulus mandibulae.

C. Tuberositas pterygoidea.

D. Incisura mandibulae.

E. Processus coronoideus.

93. CM. Indicate the point of insertion of the musculus masseter. А. Protuberantia mentalis.

B. Tuberositas masseterica.

C. Processus condylaris.

D. Corpus mandibulae.

E. Processus coronoideus.

94. CM. Indicate the point of insertion of the musculus pterygoideus lateralis. А. Collum mandibulae.

B. Fovea pterygoidea.

C. Capsula articularis (articulatio temporomandibularis).

D. Angulus mandibulae.

E. Discus articularis (articulatio temporomandibularis).

95. CM. Indicate the muscles which realize the propulsion of the mandible. А. Musculus pterygoideus medialis.

B. Musculus temporalis.

C. Musculus pterygoideus lateralis.

D. Musculus digastricus.

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96. CM. Indicate the muscles which realize the depression of the mandible. А. Мusculus mylohyoideus.

B. Мusculus geniohyoideus.

C. Мusculus digastricus.

D. Мusculus buccinator.


97. CM. Indicate the particularities of the facial muscles. А. Are localized just under the skin.

B. Have no skin insertion.

C. Are concentrated around natural orifices of the head.

D. During contraction determine the mimics.

E. Have no fascia with exception of buccinators.

98. CM. Indicate the primordial muscular buds of the development of masticator i and facial muscles. А. Miotoms of cervical somites.

B. Mezenchym of first visceral arch.

C. Mezenchym of second visceral arch.

D. Mezenchym of third visceral arch.

E. Mezenchym of brachial arches.

99. CM. Indicate the portions of the musculus orbicularis oculi. А. Pars orbitalis.

B. Pars nasalis.

C. Pars lacrimalis.

D. Pars medialis.

E. Pars palpebralis.

100. CM. Indicate the muscles which express happiness. А. Мusculus zygomaticus major.

B. Мusculus levator anguli oris.

C. Мusculus risorius.

D. Мusculus mentalis.

E. Мusculus depressor anguli oris.

101. CM. Indicate the muscles which express sadness. А. Мusculus zygomaticus minor.

B. Мusculus orbicularis oris.

C. Мusculus depressor anguli oris.

D. Platysma.

E. Depressor septi nasi.

102. CM. Indicate the fascias of the head. А. Fascia temporalis.

B. Fascia masseterica.

C. Fascia parotidea.

D. Fascia superficialis faciei.

E. Fascia bucopharyngea.

103. CM. In the hair aria of the head there are following spaces: А. Subcutaneous.

B. Subaponeurotic.

C. Subperiostal.

D. Axillar.

E. Interaponeurotic.

104. CM. The fascial spaces of the temporal region are: А. Superficial temporal.

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B. Interaponeurotic.

C. Subaponeurotic.

D. Deep temporal.

E. Temporomandibular.

105. CM. The fascial spaces of the lateral region of the face: А. Masetero-mandibular.

B. Interpterygoidian.

C. Infrapterygoidian.

D. Suprapterygoidian.

E.Temporo-pterygoidian.

106. CM. The main groups of the neck muscles: А. Superficial.

B. External.

C. Deep.

D. Internal.

E. Inserted on hyoid bone.

107. CM. The deep muscles of the neck: А. Musculus thyrohyoideus.

B. Musculus scalenus medius.

C. Musculus longus capitis.

D. Musculus scalenus posterior.

E. Musculus platysma.

108. CM. The suprahyoid muscles: А. Мusculus digastricus.

B. Мusculus mylohyoideus.

C. Мusculus sternocleidomastoideus.

D. Мusculus geniohyoideus

E. Musculus omohyoideus.

109. CM. The infrahyoid muscles: А. Мusculus stylohyoideus.

B. Мusculus omohyoideus.

C. Мusculus sternohyoideus.

D. Мusculus thyrohyoideus.

E. Мusculus geniohyoideus.

110. CM. The muscles inserted on hyoid bone: А. Musculus digastricus.

B. Musculus stylohyoideus.

C. Musculus omohyoideus.

D. Musculus mylohyoideus.

E.M.sternocleidomastoidian.

111. CM. Deep musles of the neck inserted on first rib: А. Мusculus longus colli.

B. Мusculus scalenus anterior.

C. Мusculus scalenus posterior.

D. Мusculus rectus capitis lateralis.

E. Мusculus scalenus medius.

112. CM. The action of the musculus sternocleidomastoideus in bilateral contraction: А. Bent the head to the same side.

B. Realize the retroflexion of the head.

C. Turn the head to the opposite side.

D. Realize the flexion of the head.

E. When head is bent, it lifts ribs.

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113. CM. Musculus platysma: А. Lifts ribs.

B. Move the angle of the mouse down and lateral.

C. Depress the mandible.

D. Protects the subcutaneous veins in case of compression.

E. Lift the neck skin.

114. CM. The neck region: А. Regio cervicalis anterior.

B. Regio cervicalis medialis.

C. Regio cervicalis lateralis.

D. Regio nuchae.

E. Regio sternocleidomastoidea.

115. CM. The triangles of the anterior region of the neck: А. Trigonum submandibulare.

B. Trigonum omotracheale.

C. Trigonum omohyoideum.

D. Trigonum linguale.

E. Trigonum omoclaviculare.

116. CM. The triangles of the lateral region of the neck: А. Trigonum submandibulare.

B. Trigonum omotrapezoideum.

C. Trigonum omoclaviculare.

D. Trigonum linguale.

E. Trigonum caroticum.

117. CM. Indicate the fascias of the neck. А. Lamina superficialis.

B. Lamina retrovisceralis.

C. Lamina pretrachealis.

D. Lamina prevertebralis.

E. Lamina retrovisceralis.

118. CM. The limits of the carotid triangle: А. Мusculus sternocleidomastoideus.

B. Мusculus mylohyoideus.

C. Мusculus digastricus.

D. Мusculus omohyoideus.

E. Мusculus mylohyoideus.

119. CM. The limits of the suprasternal space: А. Incisura jugularis sterni.

B. Clavicula.

C. Lamina superficialis fasciae colli.

D. Lamina pretrachealis fasciae colli.

E. Lamina prevertebralis.

120. CM. The limits of the spatium antescalenum: А. Мusculus scalenus medius.

B. Мusculus scalenus anterior.

C. Мusculus sternohyoideus.

D. Мusculus sternothyroideus.

E. Musculus omohyoideus.

121. CM. Indicate the limits of the spatium interscalenum. А. Мusculus scalenus anterior.

B. Clavicula.

C. Мusculus scalenus medius.

D. Costa I.

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E. Musculus scalenus posterior.

122. CM. Spatium retroviscerale is located between: А. Lamina pretrachealis fasciae colli.

B. Lamina prevertebralis fasciae colli.

C. Pharynx.

D. Larynx.

E. Vertebrae cervicales.

123. CM. Indicate between which structures is located the spatium previscerale. А. Lamina superficialis fasciae colli.

B. Lamina pretrachealis fasciae colli.

C. Trachea.

D. Oesophagus.

E. Larynx.

124. CM. The limits of the trigonum submandibulare: А. Musculus stylohyoideus.

B. Musculus mylohyoideus.

C. Musculus digastricus.

D. Musculus omohyoideus.

E. Baza mandibulei.

125. CM. Indicate the structures which delimit the trigonum submentale. А. Venter anterior musculi digastrici.

B. Raphe musculi mylohyoidei.

C. Corpus ossis hyoidei.

D. Basis mandibulae.

E. Musculus stylohyoideus.

126. CM. The thoracic muscles: A. There are distinguished muscles derived from bud of superior limb and autochthon muscles.

B. The diaphragm derived from ventral portions of cervical myotomes.

C. The proper muscles of the thorax and superior limb with insertion in the thorax are muscle of breathing.

D. The autochthon muscles realize the movement of inspiration.

E. Contribute to maintain the vertical position of the body.

127. CM. Indicate the muscles inserted in medial margin of scapula. A. Musculus levator scapulae.

B. Musculus seratus posterior superior.

С. Musculi rhomboidei minor et major.

D. Musculus serratus anterior.

E. Musculus lattissimus dorsi.

128. CM. The greater pectoral muscle:

A. Consist by 3 portions: clavicular, sternal and costal.

B. All its parts converge in one common tendon.

C. Is inserted in great tubercle of the humerus.

D. Its supero-lateral margin together with deltoid muscle delimit the Mohrenheim’s fossa.

E. Having the punctum fixum on the chest it adducts and supinate the arm.

129. CM. The lesser pectoral muscle: A. Start from cartilages of the III-V-th ribs.

B. Is inserted on coracoid process of the scapula.

C. Its superomedial margin continues with m. subclavicular.

D. When the punctum fixum on the chest pull the shoulder up and forward.

E. Between its tendon and coracoid process of the scapula is located the synovial bursa.

130. CM. The insertion place of the musculus biceps brachii: А. Tuberositas ulnae.

B. Tuberositas radii.

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C. Collum radii.

D. Olecranon.

E. Fascia antebrachii

131. CM. The origin of the musculus flexor carpi radialis is: А. Epicondylus lateralis humeri.

B. Epicondylus medialis humeri.

C. Olecranon.

D. Tuberositas radii.

E. Septul intermuscular medial al braţului

132. CM. The origin of the musculus extensor digitorum is: А. Epicondylus lateralis humeri.

B. Epicondylus medialis humeri.

C. Olecranon.

D. Tuberositas radii.

E. Fascia antebrachii

133. CM. The anterior serratus muscle: A. Is tetragonal.

B. Continues from first ten ribs until medial margin of scapula.

C. The superficial surface of inferior portion forms the medial wall of the axilla.

D. Depend on punctum fixum can pull scapula laterally and forward or take part in breathing.

E. Is a muscle of inspiration.

134. CM. The proper muscles of the thorax: A. Majority of them participate in act of expiration.

B. The external intercostals occupy the intercostal spaces from costal tubercle up to breast bone.

C. The internal intercostals are located in intercostal spaces from breast bone up to rib angles.

D. The subcostal muscles start in nearer place of rib angle and are inserted to internal surface of the next

superior rib.

E. The transversal muscle of the thorax is placed inside of posterior wall of the thorax.

135. CM. Diaphragm: A. The superior surface is convex and form the flour of the thoracic cavity, but its inferior one, concave form

the roof of the abdominal cavity.

B. The dome of diaphragm presents the central depression that corresponds to heart position.

C. It right side is lifted up to 5th

rib, but left one is lifted up to 4th

rib.

D. The muscular part occupies its periphery.

E. Its position varies depending on gender, ages, position of the body and breathing movement.

136. CM. Diaphragm is constituted from follow portions: A. Abdominal

B. Costal

C. Thoracic

D. Sternal

E. Lumbar

137. CM. The Diaphragm functions: A. Respiratory.

B. Contribute in blood and lymph circulation.

C. Participate in swallowing.

D. Contribute the movement thru bile ducts.

E. Contribute in phonation.

138. CM. The autochthon muscles of the thorax are: A. M. serratus posterior inferior

B. Mm. intercostali interni et externi

C. M. supraspinosus

D. M. subcostalis

E. M. transverses thoracis

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139. CM. The fascias of the thorax: A. Fascia thoracica superficialis is well developed and send septa in then thickness of mammary gland.

B. The layers of pectoral fascia enclose the m. pectoralis major.

C. The thicker superior portion of the deep layer of pectoral fascia constitute the fascia clavipectoralis.

D. Fascia pectoralis forms the suspensory ligaments of mammary gland.

E. The ribs and intercostal muscles are lined outside by fascia thoracica propria, but insied – by fascia

endothoracica.

140. CM. The back muscles: A. Occupy the entire dorsal surface of the trunk from sacral region and iliac crests up to base of the skull.

B. The superficial muscles have insertion in the skeleton of upper limb and ribs.

C. The superficial muscles are autochthons.

D. The deep muscles form two layers.

E. The deep muscles are divided in autochthons and ventral origin.

141. CM. Indicate the superficial muscles of the back. А. Musculus rhomboideus major.

B. Musculus serratus posterior inferior.

C. Musculus spinalis.

D. Musculus serratus posterior superior.

E. Musculus erector spinae.

142. CM. Indicate the insertion of the musculus trapezius. А. Processus coracoideus scapulae.

B. Extremitas acromialis claviculae.

C. Acromion.

D. Spina scapulae.

E. Margo medialis scapulae.

143. CM. Indicate the actions of the musculus latissimus dorsi. А. Abduction of the arm.

B. Adduction of the arm.

C. Supination of the arm.

D. Pronation of the arm.

E. Extension of the arm.

144. CM. Indicate the deep muscle sof the back. А. Мusculus erector spinae.

B. Мusculus longissimus.

C. Мusculi transversospinales.

D. Мusculi multifidi.

E. M.romboizi.

145. CM. Indicate the insertion of the musculus serratus anterior. А. Margo medialis scapulae.

B. Margo lateralis scapulae.

C. Costae II -VIII.

D. Processus spinosi vertebrae thoracicae.

E. Angulus inferior scapulae.

146. CM. The origin of the m. trapezius: A. The inferior nuchal line.

B. The external occipital crest.

C. The nuchal ligament.

D. The spinous processes of the C7-T12 vertebras.

E. The supraspinous ligament of thoracic segment of the spinal column.

147. CM. The action of the m. trapezius: A. Adduction of the arm

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B. Approach the scapula to spinal column

C. Lift the scapula

D. Depressed the scapula

E. Extend the cervical portion of the spinal column

148. CM. The origin of the latissimus dorsi is: A. External surface if the last 3-4 ribs

B. The spinous processes if the last 2 thoracic vertebrae

C. The spinous processes lumbar vertebrae

D. The lateral sacral crest.

E. The internal lip of the sacral crest

149. CM. The erector spinae muscle: A. Represent a muscular complex localized in costovertebral groove

B. Joint the pelvis with chest and spine, parts of spine one with each other and spine with skull.

C. Its componential muscles conjoint in its superior part in a whole mass.

D. Represent the autochthon musculature of the spinal column.

E. Ensure the maintaining the vertical posture.

150. CM. The thoracolumbar fascia:

A. Cover the superficial muscle of the back.

B. At different levels is developed uniform.

C. Is represented by two layers, which form the sheath for m.erector spinae.

D. At the lateral margin both layers become conjoint.

E. The deep layer separate m.erector spinae from m.qudratus lumborum.

151. CM. The abdominal muscles: A. The anterolateral wall is formed by autochthon musculature.

B. Each broad muscle has the muscular and aponeurotic portions.

C. Take part in inspiration.

D. Contribute to uphold the internal organs.

E. Possess action upon spine.

152. CM. The external oblique muscle of the abdomen: A. Start from external surface of the last 7-8 ribs.

B. Its posterior bundles have almost vertical position and are inserted in internal lip of the iliac crest.

C. Its teeth are interfered with teeth of m. serratus anterior and m. latissimus dorsi.

D. The inguinal ligament is stretched between inferior iliac spine and pubic tubercle.

E. At the level of insertion in pubic bone its aponevrosis forms 2 peduncles: superior and inferior.

153. CM. The m.transversus abdominis: A. It is composed of one muscular part and two aponeurotic parts: anterior and posterior.

B. Starts from inferior ribs, fascia thoracolumbaris, iliac crest and lateral portion of the inguinal ligament.

C. At the lateral margin of m. rectus abdominis its aponevroris is splits in two layers.

D. The superior 2/3 of the aponeuroses together with posterior layer of internal oblique muscle form the

posterior wall of the sheath of r.rectus abdominis.

E. The convex line of the muscular fibers passed in tendon is called arcuate line.

154. CM. The abdominal rectus abdominis: A. Has origin from pubic crest and pubic symphisis.

B. Is attached in internal surface of the xyphoid process and cartilages of V-VII ribs.

C. Both muscles a separated by tendinous suture named semilunar line.

D. Is enclosed in the sheath of rectus abdominis.

E. The posterior surface firmly is attaches to its sheath.

155. CM. The sheath of the rectus abdominisis formed by: A. M. obliqus abdominal intern

B. Linia albă

C. Lamelele aponeurozei muşchiului oblic abdominal intern

D. Aponeuroza m. oblic abdominal extern

E. Aponeuroza muşchiului transvers abdominal

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156. CM. The inguinal canal: A. The inferior wall is represented by aponevrosis of internal oblique muscle.

B. The wall posterior, formed by fascia transversa is enforsed by lig. interfoveolaris Hesselbach, lig. reflexus,

lig.Henle and the conjunct tendon.

C. The conjunct tendon is localized in the lateral part of the superior wall of the inguinal canal.

D. The superficial inguinal ring is delimited by aponeurotic cruses of the extern oblique musclei, intercrural

fibres and lig. reflexus.

E. The inguinal canal in female is shorter and wider.

157. CM. The inguinal rings: A. The location of the deep inguinal ring corresponds to inguinal medial fossa.

B. It is wider in female.

C. At the level of the deep inguinal ring fascia transversa pass in fascia spermatica interna.

D. At the level of the superficial inguinal ring are located often the muscular bundles in men.

E. The back of superficial inguinal ring is formed by fibers of the lig, reflexus originated from opposite

external oblique muscle.

158. CM. The abdominal fascias: A. The superficial fascia is developed better in its superior parts.

B. The fascia proper form the 3 layers, the best developed taped the internal oblique muscle.

C. The superficial layer of the fascia propria continues as fascia of m. cremaster.

D. Fascia transversa is a portion of fascia endoabdominalis.

E. Fascia transversa is enforced in its inferior part by longitudinal fibers of linia alba.

159. CM. The weak places of the diaphragm. A. The lumbocostal triangle

B. The space between sternal bundles of diaphragm.

C. The sternocostal triangle

D. The Petit’ triangle

E. The fascia transversa between lig. Henle and lig. interfoveolaris

160. CM. The weak places of the anterior abdominal wall: A. Tetragon of Grynfelt

B. The sternocostal triangle

C. The semilunar line

D. The triangle of Volânski

E. Linia alba

161. CM. The weak places of the posterior abdominal wall: A. The lumbocostal triangle

B. Tetragon of Grynfelt

C. Linia semilunaris

D. The Petit’ triangle Triunghiul Petit

E. The triangle of Volânski

162. CM. The muscle of shoulder include: A. M. levator scapulae

B. M. supraspinosus

C. M. deltoideus

D. M. pectoralis minor

E. M. infraspinosus

163. CM. The origin of the deltoid: A. The lateral third of clavicle

B. Surgical neck of humerus

C. Acromion

D. Spina scapulae

E. The superior angle of scapulae

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164. CM. The subscapular muscle: A. Occupy the subscapular fossa.

B. Run behind of capsule of the shoulder joint.

C. The tendon is separated by capsule of shoulder joint using bursa.

D. It is antagonist for m.supraspinosus.

E. The tendon joint completely to capsule of shoulder joint.

165. CM. The posterior wall of the axillar cavity is constituted by: A. M. trapezius

B. M. latissimus dorsi

C.M. infraspinosus

D.M. subscapularis

E.M. terres major

166. CM. The anterior wall of the axillar cavity is constituted by:

A.M. deltoideus

B.M. pectoralis major

C.M. pectoralis anterior

D.M. pectoralis minor

E.M. biceps brachii

167. CM. Indicate the muscle made up the anterior wall of cavitas axillaris. А. Мusculus deltoideus.

B. Мusculus pectoralis minor.

C. Мusculus biceps brachii.

D. Мusculi teretis minor et major.

E. Мusculus pectoralis major

168. CM. Name the anatomical structure, constituted the walls of canalis nervi radialis А. Humerus.

B. Musculus biceps brachii.

C. Musculus triceps brachii.

D. Musculus brachialis.

E. Мusculus coracobrachialis.

169. CM. The lateral wall of axilar cavity is constituted by: A.M. triceps brachii

B. М. pectoralis minor

C.M. biceps brachii (short head)

D.M. serratus anterior

E.M. coracobrachialis

170. CM. The trilateral opening (anterior view) is delimitated by: A. The tendon of long head biceps brachii

B. The tendon of long head triceps brachii

C. M. teres major

D. M. infraspinatus

E. M. subscapularis

171. CM. The quadrilateral opening (anterior view) is delimitated by: A. The tendon of long head biceps brachii

B. Humerus

C. M. infraspinatus

D. M. subscapularis

E. M. teres major

172. CM. On anterior wall of the axillary cavity there are distinguished: A. The omoclavicular triangle

B. The clavipectoral triangle

C. The deltoideopectoral triangle

D. The suprapectoral triangle

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E. The subpectoral triangle

173. CM. Indicate the formations, which delimit the fossa cubitalis. А. Humerus.

B. Musculus brachialis.

C. Musculus pronator teres.

D. Musculus brachioradialis.

E. Musculus biceps brachii.

174. CM. Name the groove of forearm А. Median

B. Radioulnar

C. Cubital

D. Radial

E. Ulnar

175. CM. The function of anterior group muscles of the arm: A. Extension in the shoulder joint

B. Flexion in the elbow joint

C. Abduction in the shoulder joint

D. Anterior flexion of arm

E. Rotation of arm

176. CM. The posterior group muscles of the arm realize: A. Adduction of the arm

B. Extension in the shoulder joint

C. Anterior flexion of arm

D. Extension in the elbow joint

E. Flexion in the elbow joint

177. CM. The cubital fossa is delimited by: A. M. coracobrahialis

B. M. brachialis

C. M. brachioradialis

D. M. supinator

E. M. pronator qudratus

178. CM. The anterior lateral cubital groove is delimited laterally by: A. M. biceps brachii

B. M. brahialis

C. M. triceps brachii

D. M. brachioradialis

E. M. pronator teres

179. CM. The anterior medial cubital groove is delimited laterally by: A. M. coracobrachialis

B. M. brachialis

C. M. supinator

D. M. brachioradialis

E. M. pronator teres

180. CM. The radial groove is delimited by: A. M. flexor digitorum superficialis

B. M. flexor carpi ulnaris

C. M. flexor carpi radialis

D. M. palmaris longus

E. M. brachioradialis

181. CM. The median groove is delimited by: A. M. flexor digitorum profundus

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B. M. palmaris longus

C. M. flexor carpi radialis

D. M. flexor carpi ulnaris

E. M. flexor digitorum superficialis

182. CM. The ulnar groove is delimited by: A. M. flexor pollicis longus lung

B M. flexor pollicis profundus

C. M. flexor carpi ulnaris

D. M. pronator quadratus

E. M. flexor digitorum superficialis l

183. CM. Muscles of the hand, thenar group: A. There are palmar, dorsal and interosal muscles.

B. There are arranged in 3 levels.

C. The deepest muscle is m.opponens pollicis.

D. All, with exception m. adductor pollicis, have origin in proximal row carpal of bones.

E. M.opponens pollicis is inserted in first metacarpal bone.

184. CM. Muscles of the hand, hypothenar group: A. The number of muscles is 4.

B. M. palmaris brevis is inconstant.

C. The most superficial muscle is m.opponens digiti minimi.

D. All, with exception m. palmaris brevis, have origin in retinaculum flexorum, pisform bone and os hamatum.

E. All muscles are inserted in proximal phalange of the little finger.

185. CM. The fasciae and aponeurosises of the hand: A. The dorsal fascia is much thinner than palmar one.

B. The space between thenar and hypothenar is occupied by palmar aponeurosis.

C. The palmar aponeurosis is made up by longitudinal and fibres.

D. At the level of the metacarpal bones the transversal fibres of palmar aponeurosis form the superficial

metacarpal ligament.

E. From medial and lateral portions of the palmar fascia arise the bundles joint to fascia of interossei muscles.

186. CM. The retinaculi of the upper limb: A. The flexor retinaculum is extended from pisiform and hamate bones up to scaphoid and trapezoid.

B. The flexor retinaculum converts carpal groove into carpal canal.

C. Carpal canal transmits 2 synovial sheathes.

D. The bundles of the flexor retinaculum splits laterally and medially forming the ulnar and radial carpal canals.

E. The space behind of extensor retinaculum is divided in 4 canals.

187. CM. The carpal canal contain the synovial sheath for: A. Tendon of m. flexor carpi ulnaris

B. Tendons of flexors digitorum superficialis et profundus

C. Tendon of m. flexor carpi radialis

D. Tendon of m. flexor pollicis longus

E. Tendon of abductor pollicis longus

188. CM. The topography of the arm: A. The radial nerve canal is located between humerus and biceps brachii.

B. The entrance of radial nerve canal is sited in medial upper third.

C. The limits of the entrance of the radial nerve canal is formed by humerus, medial and lateral heads of triceps

brachii.

D. The radial nerve canal is lodge for radial nerve, and homonym vessels.

E. The bicipital grooves separate the anterior and posterior regions of the arm.

189. CM. Rotate inside the arm: A. M. deltoideus

B. M. subscapularis

C. M. supaspinosus

D. M. teres major

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E. M. teres minor

190. CM. Rotate outside the arm: A. M. deltoideus

B. M. subscapularis

C. M. supaspinosus

D. M. teres major

E. M. teres minor

191. CM. Adhere to arthicular capsule of elbow joint: A. M. coracobrachialis

B. M. subscapularis

C. M. brachialis

D. M. biceps brachialis

E. M. triceps brachialis

192. CM. Adhere to arthicular capsule of shoulder joint: A. M. deltoideus

B. M. subscapularis

C. M. brachialis

D. M. biceps brachialis

E. M. supaspinosus

193. CM. Are not adjoin to arthicular capsules: A. M. deltoideus

B. M. coracobrachialis

C. M. subscapularis

D. M. supaspinosus

E. M. triceps brachialis

194. CM. The muscles of the pelvis: A. There are flexors, extensors, rotators, abductors and adductors of thigh.

B. Form around hip joint the strongest muscular mass.

C. All are biarticular.

D. Are classified in medial and lateral groups.

E. Are inserted on proximal epiphysis of the femur.

195. CM. The fascias of the pelvis: A. M. psoas major is covered by the lumbar fascia.

B. The iliac fascia represents the continuation of the lumbar fascia.

C. The lateral portion of fascia lata runs away from lig. inguinalis forming the iliopectineal arch.

D. Fascia glutea separate mm. glutei from other external muscles of pelvis.

E. The distal gluteal fascia continues with fascia lata of thigh.

196. CM. The obturator canal is delimitated by: A. M. obturator externus

B. M. pectineus

C. Obturator opening

D. Obturator groove

E. M. obturator internus

197. CM. The muscles of the anterior group of the thigh: A. All are uniarticular

B. Flex the thigh and leg.

C. Are longest of the body

D. Form one common tendon.

E. M.quadriceps femoris is inserted in patella and tuberositas tibie

198. CM. The muscles of the posterior group of the thigh: A. All are extensors of the thigh.

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B. Flex the leg.

C. Have origin in iliac bone.

D. M. biceps femoris and m. semitendinosus are rotators (synergistic) of the leg.

E. All participate in forming of pes anserinus profundus.

199. CM. The muscles of the medial group of the thigh: A. Are adductors of the thigh.

B. All are inserted in linia aspera of the femoris.

C. Have origin in pubic bone.

D. M. sartorius participates in forming the pes anserinus superficialis.

E. M. pectineus participates in flexion and abduction of the thigh.

200. CM. The insertion of the musculus semimembranosus is. А. Condylus medialis tibiae.

B. Condylus lateralis tibiae.

C. Epicondylus lateralis femoris.

D. Epicondylus medialis femoris.

E. Fascia mușchiului popliteu.

201. CM. Indicate the origin of the musculus extensor digitorum brevis. А. Calcaneus.

B. Os naviculare.

C. Talus.

D. Tibia.

E. Do not start from retinaculum extensorum inferius.

202. CM. Name the formations which built the walls of the canalis adductorius. А. Мusculus adductor magnus.

B. Мusculus adductor longus.

C. Мusculus adductor brevis.

D. Мusculus vastus medialis.


203. CM. Indicate the topographic formations legalized postero-inferiory by ligamentum inguinale. А. Annulus inguinalis superficialis.

B. Lacuna vasorum.

C. Lacuna musculorum.

D. Canalis оbturatorius.

E. Canalis adductorius.

204. CM. Enumerate the walls of the canalis femoralis. А. Vena femoralis.

B. Artera femoralis.

C. Fascia pectinea.

D. Cornu superius margo falciformis.

E. Ligamentum inguinale.

205. CM. Name the limits of the fossa poplitea. А. Мusculus biceps femoris.

B. Мusculus semimembranosus.

C. Мusculus gastrocnemius.

D. Мusculus soleus.

E. Мusculus tibialis posterior.

206. CM. Indicate the canals of the leg region: А. Canalis cruropоpliteus.

B. Canalis musculoperoneus superior.

C. Canalis adductorius.

D. Canalis musculoperoneus inferior.

E. Canalis femoralis

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207. CM. Fascia lata: A. Its posterior part is tendinous.

B. In its antero-superior portion splits in 2 layers.

C. The deep layer is pierces by saphenous opening.

D. Made up the sheath for quadriceps femoris and greater adductor.

E. Its lateral portion is named iliotibial tract.

208. CM. The adductor canal is delimitated by: A.M. adductor brevis

B.M. adductor magnus

C.M. adductor longus

D.M. vastus medialis

E.M. vastus lateralis

209. CM. The femoropopliteal canal includes: A. 2 walls

B. 3 walls

C. 2 openings

D. 3 openings

E. 2 fissures

210. CM. The femoral triangle is bounded by: A. M. pectineus

B. M. sartorius

C. M. adductor magnus

D. Inguinal lig.

E. M. adductor longus

211. CM. Muscular lacuna is bounded by: A. M. iliopsoas

B. M. sartorius

C. Coxal bone

D. Lacunar lig.

E. Iliopectineal arch

212. CM. Vascular lacuna is bounded by: A. Femoral vein

B. M. psoas major

C. Inguinal lig.

D. Pectineal lig.

E. Iliopectinal arch

213. CM. The femoral ring is bounded by: A. Iliopectinal arch

B. Inguinal lig.

C. Femoral artery

D. Lacunar lig.

E. Pectineal lig.

214. CM. The femoral canal has: A. 2 walls

B. 3 walls

C. 4 walls

D. 2 rings

E. 1 septum

215. CM. The popliteal fossa is bounded by: A. M. plantaris

B. M. gastrocnemius

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C. M. biceps femoris

D. M. soleus

E. M. semimembranosus

216. CM. The leg muscles: A. There are arranged symmetrically around the bones.

B. There are located in 3 separated lodges.

C. Majority of their tendons change the directions.

D. The muscles of the anterior group are extensors of the leg.

E. Majority of them are multi articular.

217. CM. The components of the chain anti-gravity: A. M. iliacus

B. M. gluteus maximus

C. M. popliteus

D. M. triceps surae

E. M. quadriceps femoris

218. CM. The leg fascia: A. Fuse to anterior ridge and medial surface of tibia.

B. Send 2 intermuscular septa: medial and lateral.

C. Made up 2 retinaculi: for flexors and for extensors.

D. The deep layer separate the Gastrocnemius and Soleus.

E. he space between Achille's tendon deep layer of fascia contain fat

219. CM. The superior musculofibular canal is made up by: A. Tibia

B. Fibula

C. Soleus

D. M. peroneus longus

E. M. flexor hallucis longus

220. CM. The inferior musculofibular canal is made up by: A. M. tibial posterior

B. Fibula

C. M. flexor hallucis

D. M. peroneus longus

E. M. peroneus tertius

221. CM. The cruropopliteual canal is made up by: A. Tibia

B. M. tibialis anterior

C. Gastrocnemius

D. Soleus

E. M. tibialis posterior

222. CM. The thigh muscles, anterior group: A. Semimembranosus

B. Quadriceps femoris

C. Biceps femoris

D. Pectineus

E. Sartorius m.

223. CM. The thigh muscles, posterior group: A. Semimembranos

B. Quadriceps femoris

C. Biceps femoris

D. Semitendinosus

E. Pectineus

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224. CM. The extension of the thigh is realized by following muscle: A. Gluteus maximus

B. Gluteus medius

C. Biceps femoris

D. Obturator externus

E. Iliopsoas

225. CM. Abduct the thigh following muscles : A. Gluteus minimus

B. Piriformis


D. Gluteus medius

E. Obturator exterus

226. CM. Turn the thigh the muscles except on:

A. Gluteus maximus

B. Piriformis

C. Quadratus femoris

D. Gemelli muscles

E. Tensor fascia latae

227. CM. Topographical structures of the thigh : A. Pirogov’s canal

B. Femoral canal

C. Saphenous opening

D. Adductor canal

E. Scarpa's triangle

228. CM. Topographical structures of the leg: A. Pirogov canal

B. Femoral canal

C. Cruropopliteal canal

D. Saphenous opening

E. Adductor canal

229. CM. Classify the head muscles: A. Pennate muscles

B. Mimic muscle

C. Digastric muscle

D. Mastication muscles

E. Antagonistic muscles

230. CM. Name the head muscles covered by fascia: A. M. temporalis

B. M. mentalis

C. M. buccinator

D. M. pterygoideus lateralis

E. M. maseter

231. CM. The classification of the neck muscles describe: A. anterior muscles

B. Superficial muscles

C. Short muscles

D. Deep muscles

E. Fusiform muscles

232. CM. The superficial muscles of the neck there are: A. Suprahyoid

B. Scalenii

C. Sternocleidomastoid

D. Longus colli muscle

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E. Platysma

233. CM. The medial triangle of the neck include next triangles: A. Clavipectoral

B. Submandibular

C. Carotid

D. Omoclavicular

E. Omotracheal

234. CM. The deep group of the neck muscles include: A. Infrahyoid muscles

B. Longus colli and longus capitis muscles

C. Scalene muscles

D. Digastric muscle

E. Rectus capitis anterior and lateral muscles

235. CM. The lateral triangle of the neck include: A. Omohyoid triangle

B. Omotrapezoid triangle

C. Clavipectoral triangle

D. Omoclavicular triangle

E. Omotracheal triangle

236. CM. Interfasciale spaces of the neck there are: A. Interscalenic

B. Interaponeurotic suprasternal

C. Antescalenic

D. Previsceral

E. Retrovisceral

237. CM. Name the muscle that flexes the spine: А. Мusculus longissimus.

B. Мusculus latissimus dorsi.

C. Мusculus obliquus abdominis externus.

D. Мusculus pectoralis major.

E. Мusculus obliquus abdominis internus.

238. CM. Indicate which muscles provide the elevation of the scapula and clavicle: А. Мusculus rhomboideus major.

B. Мusculus supraspinatus.

C. Мusculus infraspinatus.

D. Мusculus teres major.

E. Мusculus trapezius

239. CM. Indicate which muscles provide the abduction of the arm: А. Мusculus triceps brachii.

B. Мusculus deltoideus.


D. Мusculus latissimus dorsi.

E. Мusculus supraspinatus.

240. CM. Indicate which muscles provide the adduction of the arm: А. Мusculus deltoideus.

B. Мusculus supraspinatus.



E. Мusculus pectoralis major

241. CM. Indicate which muscles provide the flexion of the arm: А Мusculus pectoralis major.

B. Мusculus infraspinatus.

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C. Мusculus subscapularis.

D. Мusculus teres major.

E. Мusculus biceps brachii

242. CM. Indicate which muscles provide the suppination of the forarm: А. Мusculus pronator teres.

B. Мusculus triceps brachii.

C. Мusculus biceps brachii.

D. Мusculus brachialis.

E. Мusculus supinator.

243. CM. Indicate which muscles provide the flexion of the thigh: А. Мusculus rectus femoris.


C. Мusculus vastus lateralis.

D. Мusculus vastus intermedius.


244. CM. Indicate which muscles provide the adduction of the thigh: А. Мusculus gluteus medius.

B. Мusculus gluteus minimus.

C. Мusculus gracilis.



245. CM. Indicate which muscles provide the flexion of the leg: А. Мusculus biceps femoris.


C. Мusculus vastus lateralis.

D. Мusculus popliteus.


246. CM. Indicate which muscles provide the internal rotation of the leg: А. Мusculus rectus femoris.



D. Мusculus adductor longus.

E. Мusculus gracilis.

247. CM. Indicate which muscles provide the dorsal flexion of the foot: А. Мusculus fibularis longus.

B. Мusculus tibialis anterior.

C. Мusculus tibialis posterior.

D. Мusculus triceps surae.

E. Мusculus extensor digitorum longus

248. CM. Indicate which muscles provide the internal rotation of the foot: А. Мusculus peroneus longus.

B. Мusculus tibialis anterior.

C. Мusculus tibialis posterior.

D. Мusculus triceps surae.

E. Мusculus peroneus brevis.

249. CM. Indicate which muscles provide the external rotation of the foot: А. Мusculus fibularis longus.

B. Мusculus extensor digitorum longus.

C. Мusculus extensor hallucis longus.

D. Мusculus tibialis posterior.

E. Мusculus fiexor hallucis longus

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MYOLOGY

2. Case files

1. A man adressed to the doctor complaining of back pain. After examination, the doctor determined that the pain is located

in the so-called delta region auscultation.

1. Indicate the limits of given triangle.

2. What position of the arm and scapula increases its size?

2. A series of exercises is recommended to the patient with the wrong posture.

1. What muscles should be trained in the given set of physical exercises?

2. Which of the mentioned muscle is located more deeply?

3. The patient was clinically diagnosed with diaphragmatic hernia (evagination of the stomach into the thoracic cavity

through one of the weak areas of the diaphragm).

1. List the weak areas of the diaphragm?

2. Name the portions of diaphragm and their origin.

4. The rib fracture with displacement of the fragments, caused the injury of the pleura and fascia lining the chest cavity

inside.

1. What is called the fascia?

2. List Anatomical structuresla adhering fascia once inside.

5. A child requires examination of the abdominal cavity.

1. In which part of the anterior abdominal wall incision can be performed to avoid bleeding?

6. The fracture of the I rib with displacement of bone fragments caused damage of subclavian artery and bleeding.

1. What space is limited inferiorly by the I rib?

2. Between which muscles this space is expanded?. Indicate origin, insertion and function of these muscles.

7. A patient is diagnosed as having "Tendovaginitis".

1. What muscular structures are involved in this pathology?

2. At what level the immobilizing is recommend?

8. In clinics of surgery the imminent need for revision of the abdominal cavity in a child occurred.

1.In which part of the abdominal wall incision for access will be made with minimal risk of bleeding?

2. What are the elements of abdominal wall in this area?

9. To achieve performance athlete coach recommends increasing effort on the abdominal rectus muscle.

1. List the functions of the abdominal rectus muscle.

2. Call the points of origin and insertion of this muscle.

10. Which respiratory muscles decisively influence the vital capacity of the lungs?

1. List the parts of the muscle that inserts to the skeleton.

2. In which anatomical plan is located this muscle?

11. A newborn was diagnosed as having the umbilical hernia.

1. Call the Latin term corresponding to location of the hernia.

2. Between which abdominal muscles is it located?

12. Some trunk muscles of the women participate in labor, helping to expel the fetus.

1. List these muscles.

2. What term defines the conjugate effort of abdominal muscles?

13. Considerably increased endoabdominal pressure caused by the excessive exercise in people with poor physical

development can result in hernias of the anterior abdominal wall.

1. List the weak places of the anterior abdominal wall.

2. Explain the phenomenon of hernias frequency in the upper segment of the white line.

14. A set of special exercises is recommended for posture correction of the patients.

1. Which of the muscles are involved in these complex programs of the kinetotherapy?

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2. Which of these muscles are located in the deepest layer?

15. The shoulder injury to the patient-child finds severe limitation of all movements except adduction.

1. Which of the shoulder muscles will be the most affected in this accident?

2. Call the insertion site of these muscles.

16. A child patient has a contusion of the medial group of thigh muscles.

1. What movements and joints are affected in this case?

2. List the medial group of the thigh muscles.

17. A child patient accused impossibility to recover from knee flexion position.

1. Which muscles may be affected?

2. Name the place of insertion of the corresponding muscle tendon.

18. A child patient was found longitudinal flat foot.

1. What muscles would be involved in order to improve the situation?

2 .What kind of exercises would be indicated?

19. Treading crooked patient suffered a fracture of the lateral malleolus.

1. Tendons of what muscles were affected in this trauma?

2. What are the functions of these muscles?

20. In the trauma of the arm (deep cut wound) was affected tendon inserted on the crest of the greater tubercle of the

humerus.

1.What is the name of this muscle?

2. What is the origin of the muscle?

21. In trauma of the arm the quadrangular foramen was affected.

1. Call the structures bounding this foramen.

2. Is there other foramen in the vicinity of the quadrangular foramen? What are its limits?

22. After a sports injury the patient is unable to bend wrist.

1 What muscle could be traumatized in this case?

2.Mobility of which joints could be reduced?

23. A patient has an injury to the tendon of the leg triceps muscle.

1. What is the function of this muscle?

2. Call the site of insertion of this muscle.

24. A patient is diagnosed as having fracture of the clavicle.

1. Action of which muscle will be limited in application of fixation bandage?

2. What are the side actions of this muscle?

25. A patient is diagnosed as having crushing of the patella.

1. Tendons of which muscles are affected in this case?

2. What functions of these muscles may be affected in the ruptures of their tendons?

26. Axillary nerve injury in shoulder trauma caused disturbance of deltoid muscle functions.

1. Call the points of origin and insertion of this muscle.

2. List the functions of deltoid muscle and of its parts.

27. In consequence of trauma to the distal phalanx of the thumb the suppurative process occurred showing diffusion trend.

1. In that way it is possible to spread abscesses in the absence of the corresponding interventions?

2 Call the limits (proximal and distal) of the synovial sheath of the flexor pollicis longus tendon.

28. Doctor-surgeon found inflammation of the synovial sheath of the tendon of the flexor indicis muscle at the level of the

distal phalanx.

1. Is it possible the spread of the abscesses to the forearm and carpal region?

2. Explain formation of the carpal tunnel.

29. After a sports injury patient is unable to bend wrist, finger movements are unaffected.

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1. What muscles might be affected in this case?

2. Which of the joints will show limitation of movement in such trauma?

30. Patient complaints of pain in the feet, fatigue and unpleasant sensations while driving. Plantograma (footprint) shows

contours of the plantar surface as an elongated triangle with the rounded angles. Diagnosis: Flat foot.

1. List the plantar arches.

2. What is the highest longitudinal arch?

3. Call the active and passive elements to strengthen the arches of the foot.

31. The patient has a cut wound at the level of the lateral plantar groove caused by broken glass on the beach.

1. Call the limits of this groove.

2. Is there another groove on the plantar surface of the foot? What are its limits?

32. In the trauma of the arm (deep cut wound) were affected tendons of two muscles inserted to the tuberosity of the lesser

tubercle of the humerus.

1. List these muscles.

2. Call the points of origin of these muscles.

3. What are the functions of these muscles?

33. In consequence of intramuscular injection the abscess of the great gluteus muscle occurred, which in turn caused the hip

joint dysfunction.

1. Call the functions of the great gluteus muscle.

2. What are the points of origin and insertion of this muscle?

34. Neuritis (inflammation) of obturator nerve caused disorders of the medial thigh muscles functions.

1. List the medial thigh muscles.

2. Call the function of each of the medial thigh muscles.

35. During surgical intervention on blood vessels of the thigh surgeon makes an incision in the iliopectineal groove.

1. What are anatomical limits of this groove?

2. Within the limits of which triangle the iliopectineal groove is located? Call the limits of this triangle.

36. Propagation of suppurative processes is limited by fascial intermuscular septa.

1. List the intermuscular septa in the leg.

2. What are the muscular groups, separated by intermuscular fascial septa of the leg region?

37. The patient has a deep cut wound on the dorsal surface of the foot with involvement of the muscle tendons.

1. Tendons of what muscles are located on the back of the foot?

2. List the functions of these muscles.

38. Patient has an injury to the tendon of the triceps muscle of the right leg.

1. What is the function of this muscle?

2. List the components of the triceps muscle of the leg.

39. As a result of a traumatic craniocerebral injury patient can not move the jaw forward.

1. What muscles might be affected in this case?

2 What are the points of insertion of these muscles?

40. As a result of a traumatic craniocerebral injury patient can not move the jaw forward.

1 What muscles might be affected in this case?

2.What are the points of insertion of these muscles?

41. Inspection of the neck region of the patient shows a wound at the level of the carotid and omotracheal triangles.

1. Call the limits of these triangles.

2. Are there other triangles on the anterior and lateral regions of the neck?

42. The patient inspection found the presence of a collection of pus between the superficial and pretracheal fasciae of the

neck above the jugular notch of the sternum.

1. What is the term of this space.

2. List the other interfascial cellular spaces of the neck.

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43. In consequence of cerebral stroke the paralysis of the mastication muscles occurred, the patient accuses disorders of the

temporomandibular joint function.

1. Contractions of which muscle cause the lateral displacement of the mandible?

2. What muscle contributes to moving the jaw forward.

1. tests cs. an osteon is -...

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