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Indian-Airforce Placement-Paper :37053

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AFCAT Air Force Common Admission Test

1. Out of the following which centre is making use of enriched Uranium?

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1. Out of the following which centre is making use of enriched Uranium? (a) Tarapur Nuclear Energy Centre

(b) Kalpakkam Nuclear Energy Centre

(c) Narora Nuclear Energy Centre (d) Ravat Bhata Nuclear Energy Centre Ans. (a)

2. Shobha Gurtu is a (a) Padmashree

(b) Padmavibbushan (c) Padmabhushan

(d) Phalke Award Winner Ans. (a)

3. Dhyan Chand was Indian Captain in Berlin World cup Hockey Test in the year

(a) 1906

(b) 1916 (c) 1964

(d) 1936 Ans. (d)

4. Where is the largest Railway platform in the world?

(a) Leningrad

(b) Liver pool (c) Sonepur

(d) Kharagpur Ans. (d)

5. Nunamati is famous for

(a) mines of raw iron (b) mines of coal

(c) oil refinery

(d) mines of mica

Ans. (c)

6. Energy is measured in the same unit as- (a) work



(a) work (b) power

(c) momentum (d) force Ans. (a)

7 The largest gland in human body is (a) endocrine (b) Pancreas

(c) liver (d) none of these Ans. (b)

8. The universal donor is

(a) O (b) A (c) B (d) AB Ans. (a)

9. The capital of of Chattisgarh is (a) Raipur (b) Bilaspur (c) Raichur

(d) Ranchi Ans. (a)

10. Sphygmomanometer measures (a) blood pressure (b) ocean depth

(c) magnetic field (d) electric current Ans. (a)

11. Who among the following holds the office during the pleasure of the President of India? (a) Judges of Supreme Court (b) Election Commissioner

(c) Governor (d) Speaker of Lok Sabha Ans. (c)



12. The author of the book Interpreter of Maladies is (a) Jhumpa Lahiri

(b) Arundhati Roy (c) Vikram Seth (d) Geeta Mehta Ans. (a)

13. Which among the following is a Morning Raga?

(a) Sohini (b) Bhairavi (c) Kalawati (d) Sarang Ans. (b)

14. Guernica is a famous painting of

(a) Leonardo da Vinci (b) Michelangelo (c) Picasso

(d) None of these Ans. (c)

15. Last Supper is a world famous painting of (a) Paul Gauguin

(b) Leonardo da Vinci (c) Raphael (d) None of these Ans. (b)

16. Bhogali Bihu is a festival of (a) Assam

(b) Orissa (c) Gujarat

(d) Rajasthan Ans. (a)

17. The capital of Andaman & Nicobar is (a) Car Nicobar

(b) Port Blair (c) Katchtibu



(b) Port Blair (c) Katchtibu

(d) None of these Ans. (b)

18. What does the term Dactology mean?

(a) Study of finger prints for identification (b) Study of physically handicapped persons

(c) System of new words

(d) None of these Ans. (a)

19. Aizawl is the capital of (a) Lakshadweep

(b) Nagaland

(c) Mizoram (d) None of these Ans. (c)

20. The term Third World is related to

(a) Asian countries

(b) Oil producing countries (c) Developed countries

(d) Developing countries Ans. (d)

21. Which of the following is a bulwark of personal freedom? (a) Mandamus

(b) Habeas Corpus

(c) QuWarranto (d) Certiorari Ans. (b)

22. The anode in a dry cell consists of

(a) Copper (b) Zinc

(c) Carbon

(d) Graphite Ans. (c)



23. In which country Greenwich is situated? (a) USA

(b) UK

(c) Holland (d) India Ans. (b)

24. Which of the following types of lens is used in a camera?

(a) Convex (b) Concave

(c) Spherical

(d) Uniform. thickness Ans. (a)

25. Sound waves are

(a) longitudinal

(b) transverse (c) partially longitudinal and partially transverse

(d) sometimes longitudinal sometimes transverseAns. (a)

26. After walking 6 km, I turned right and covered a distance of 2 km, then turned left and covered a

distance of 10 km. In the end, I was moving towards the north. From which direction did I start my

journey?

(a) North

(b) South

(c) East (d) West Ans. (c)

27. In a certain code language EDITION is written as IDETNOI. How will the word MEDICAL be written in

that code language? (a) DEMILAC

(b) LACJM

(c) DIEMCAL (d) MCADILE



(d) MCADILE Ans. (a)

28. Find the odd one (a) Shelley (b) Keats

(c) Chaucer

(d) Churchill Ans. (a)

29 In a row of boys Ganesh is 12th from the left and Rajan is 15th from the right. When they interchangetheir positions Rajan becomes 20th from the right. How many boys are there in the row?

(a) 29

(b) 31 (c) 32

(d) 30 Ans. (b)

30. There are four roads. You are coming from South and want to go to the temp1e The road to your leftleads away from coffee house. The front straight road leads to the college only. In which direction is the

temple located?

() North (b) South

(c) East

(d) West Ans. (c)

Directions (Q. 3132): In each of the following questions a related pair of words isgiven. Find the most suitable pair of related words from among the four alternatives.

31. Satellite : Planetary path

(a) Missile : Projectile Path (b) Arrow : Plunge (c) Bullet : Pipe

(d) Elevator : Axle Ans. (a)

32. Brittle: Break: (a) Glass : Break

(b) Sharp : Scratch



(b) Sharp : Scratch

(c) Tree : Wind (d) Elastic : Bend Ans. (d)

33. Fill in the missing letter in the following series S,V,Y,B,?

(a) C (b) D

(c) E

(d) C Ans. (c)

34. Fill in the missing letter in the following series

A, Z, C, X, E? (a) C

(b) D

(c) W (d) V Ans. (d)

Directions (Q. 3539): Read the following information and answer the questions.There are six flats on a floor in two rows facing north and south allotted to six persons

P, Q, R, S, T and U. The position of their flats is as follows

(i) Qs flat faces the north and is not next to S.

(ii) S and U have occupied diagonally opposite flats.

(iii) R next to U occupied a flat facing the south and T gets a flat which faces the north.

35. Whose flat is between Q and S? (a) P

(b) R

(c) T

(d) U Ans. (c)

36. The flats of which pair other than of SU is diagonally opposite to each other?

(a) RT

(b) PT



(b) PT

(c) QP (d) TU Ans. (c)

37. If the flats of T and P are interchanged, whos flat will be next to that of U?

(a) S (b) R (c) Q

(d) Q or S

Ans. (b)

38. After interchanging the flats of T and P, who stays between T and U in the same block?

(a) P (b) Q

(c) S

(d) R Ans. (d)

39. If the flats are not interchanged between T and P, who occupies the flat between Q and S?

(a) P

(b)T

(c) R (d) U Ans. (b)

40. In a map south-east has be shown as north, north-east has been shown as west and so on. In this map

what will west represent? (a) South-west

(b) South-east

(c) South

(d) North-west Ans. (b)

41. In an imaginary system 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, are represented by z, y, x, w, v, u, t, s, r, q

respectively. In such a system 23 *4 *5 will be written as (* indicates symbol of multiplication)

(a) xyr

(b) rvu



(b) rvu (c) ysr

(d) vtz Ans. (d)

42. Anand is related to Vinod and Cinderella. Deepa is Cinderellas mother. Also Deepa is Vinods sisterand Ela is Vinods sister. How is Ela related to Cinderella?

(a) Niece

(b) Cousin

(c) Sister

(d) Aunt Ans. (d)

43 The letters of English alphabet are numbered from 26 to 1. The assigned numbers are used to write he

letters of the original alphabet so that 26 stands for A, 25 stands for B and so on. Using this sequence,

answer the following question. Which of the following sequence denotes a valid word?

V-O-I-D (a) 612-1723

(b) 5111812

(c) 5121823

(d) 5121723 Ans. (c)

44. In certain code language the word NUMERICAL is written as LMUIREACN. How will the word

PUBLISHED be written in that language?

(a) DUBSILEHP

(b) DBULISEHP (c) DUBLSEHP

(d) DBUSILEHP

Ans. (d)

45. If Dog is called Cat, Cat is called Lion, Lion is called Ox, Ox is called Cock, Cock is called Elephant,

and Elephant is called Donkey, then farmer ploughs with which animal? (a) Dog

(b) Lion

(c) Donkey

(d) Cock



(d) Cock

Ans. (d)

46 In a colony, each of the 20% families have two TV sets, 30% of the rest families have three TV sets.

Each of the remaining families has one TV set. Which of the following statement is true?

(A) 80% families have at least one TV set

(B) 50% families have two TV sets

(C) 56% families have one TV set

(D) 30% families have three TV setsAns. (C)

48 Arrange the following words according to dictionary

1. Bird 2. Bilk

3. Bill

4. Billion

5. Birth

Code:

(A) 2, 1, 3, 4, 5

(B) 2, 3, 4, 1, 5

(C) 3, 2, 4, 5, 1

(D) 3, 4, 2, 1, 5Ans. (B)

49. If S T means 5 is the wife of T, S + T means S is the daughter of T and S T means S is the

son of T. What will M + J + K means?

(A) K is the father of M(B) M is the grand-daughter of K

(C) J is wife of K

(D) K and M are brothersAns. (B)

50. S x T means S is brother of T and S + T means S is father of T, which of the following shows 0 is

the cousin of R ?

(A) R x T + O

(B) R + T x O

(C) R x O x T



(C) R x O x T

(D) None of theseAns. (D)

51. If P + Q means P is the husband of Q, P Q means P is the sister of Q, and P x Q means P is

son of Q, which of the following shows A is daughter of B ?(A) A D x B

(B) D x B + C A

(C) B C x A

(D) C x B AAns. (A)

52. In a class of 50 students, 36 students study Mathematics and 28 study Biology. The number of

students studying both Mathematics and Biology will be

(A) 22

(B) 14

(C) 30(D) 12Ans. (B)

53. If a man writes QDGFHS for TIGHER, then in this way what will be write for MONKEY?(A) XDHNMK

(B) YDJMLK

(C) XDJMNL

(D) XCHNMKAns. (C)

54. What is necessary for a nursing home?

(A) Nurse

(B) Ambulance

(C) Doctor

(D) MedicineAns. (C)

55. If 854 = 12, 467 = 38, then 683 =?

(A) 21

(B) 12



(B) 12(C) 18

(D) 35Ans. (C)

56. In a code if Se ker he = hot good tea Pek cha ker = good thunder pure Nep cha he = fresh pure tea

Then in the same code how thunder tea will be written?

(A) Pek he

(B) Cha he

(C) Pek ker

(D) Cha kerAns. (A)

57. A clock shows nine-half when seen in the mirror. What is the actual time?

(A) 3:30

(B) 2:30

(C) 6:10(D) 1:30Ans. (B)

58. A boy used in a picture Blue colour for Red, Red for Yellow, Yellow for Green and Green for Blue.What will be the colour of leaves?

(A) Green

(B) Blue

(C) Red

(D) YellowAns. (D)

59. Which one of the given responses would be a meaningful order of the following?

1. Leaves

2. Branch

3. Flower 4. Tree

5. Fruit

(A) 4, 3, 1, 2, 5

(B) 4, 2, 5, 1, 3



(B) 4, 2, 5, 1, 3

(C) 4, 3, 2, 1, 5

(D) 4, 2, 1,3, 5Ans. (D)

60 If + means x, means , x means f, and means +, then what is the value of 9 + 8 8

4 x 9

(A) 65(B) 39

(C) 27

(D) 11

Ans. (A)

61. If P means +, Q means , R means x and S means which of the following equation is not

correct?

(A) 1 R 5 = 16 Q 15 P 4(B) 14 P S 10 = 7 R 2 Q 12

(C) 11 R 10 S 10 = 16 P 2 Q 7

(D) 3 Q 9 P 6 = 8 R 3 Q 24Ans. (B)

62. In an examination if a student looses mark for the wrong answer and gets 1 mark for the correct

answer. If he got 30 marks for solving54 questions, then how many questions were correct?

(A) 30

(B) 36

(C) 40(D) 42Ans. (B)

63. The word formed in same sequence with the letter of the word INFOMATION is

(A) NATION -(B) FORMAT

(C) RATIONAL

(D) ONIONAns. (B)

64. Choose the correct number from the options?

015 : 00015: : 103:?



015 : 00015: : 103:?

(A) 0103

(B) 0O103

(C) 1003

(D) 1030Ans. (B)

65. Which one of the following will be seen same in the mirror?

(A) AUNUA

(B) OVCACV

(C) SVWVS(D) TMAMTAns. (D)

66. What is the angle between the two hands of clock when it is 7 : 30?

(A) 45(B) 35

(C) 325

(D) 30Ans. (A)

67 Ashok starts to walk from the point P. He went 10 km towards North and 6 km toward South. After this

he went 3 km towards East. How far is he now from P?

(A) 4 km

(B) 5 km

(C) 7 km(D) 3 kmAns. (B)

68. Complete the following series after choosing the correct optionc b a a b a a c c a a b b a a a

c b a(A) cabc

(B) babc

(C) bacc

(D) abcbAns. (B)



69. If it was Friday on 15th Aug. 2003, which day of the week will be on 15th Aug. 2005?

(A) Saturday

(B) Sunday

(C) Monday

(D) Thursday

Ans. (C)

70. In the following sequence there are how many such 6 which are preceded by 8 and followed by 3?7 8 6 3 2 7 1 8 6 8 9 8 6 1 8 6 3 1 8

(A) 1(B) 2(C) 3

(D) 4Ans. (B)

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Instructions for candidates TIME ALLOTTED 2 HRS.1. Total No. of Questions100. Each Question is of three marks. 2. One mark will be deducted for every wrong answer. 3. Do not write or mark on the Question Paper.4. Question Paper to be returned before leaving the Exam Hall.

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.

We stand poised precariously and challengingly on the razors edge of destiny. We are now at the mercyof atom bombs and the like which would destroy us completely if we fail to control them wisely. And wisdom in this crisis means sensitiveness to the basic values of life; it means a

vivid realization that we are literally living in one world where we must either swim together or sinktogether. We cannot afford to tamper with mans single minded loyalty to peace and international

understanding. Anyone, who does it is a traitor not only to mans past and present, but also to his future,because he is mortgaging the destiny of unborn generations.

Q1. From the tone and style of the passage it appears that the writer is-(a) a prose writer with a fascination for images and metaphors.

(b) a humanist with a clear foresight. (c) a traitor who wishes to mortgage the destiny of future generations.

(d) unaware of the global power situation.

Q2. The best way to escape complete annihilation in an atomic war is to-(a) work for international understanding and harmony.

(b) invent more powerful weapons. (c) turn to religion. (d) ban nuclear weapons.

Q3. The phrase razors edge of destiny means a/an-

(a) enigma that cuts through the pattern of life like the edge of a razor.(b) critical situation that foreordains the future.

(c) sharp line of division that marks the alternative courses of action in the future.(d) destiny with sharp edges.



(d) destiny with sharp edges.

Q4. According to the writer, wisdom on the razors edge of destiny means:

(a) awareness that we stand poised precariously on the razors edge of destiny. (b) determination to ban nuclear weapons.

(c) responsibility to the unborn generations.(d) awareness of the basic values of life.

Q5. The author is concerned about the threat of nuclear weapons because he feels that-

(a) a nuclear war will destroy human civilization.(b) all countries are interlinked and one cannot escape the consequences of what

happens to another country.(c) the world is on the brink of disaster.(d) his country is threatened by a nuclear war.

In each of the following questions, find out which part of the sentence has an error. Ifthere is no mistake, the answer is (d) No error.

Q6. A person I met (a)/in the theatre (b)/was the playwright himself. (c)/No error (d).(a) (b) (c) (d)

Q7. They walked (a)/besides each other (b)/in silence. (c)/No error (d).No error (d). (a) (b) (c) (d)Q8. We returned to the guest house (a)/impressed by (b)/what we had seen. (c)/No error (d).

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Q9. The judge was convinced (a)/that neither (b)/of the five accused was guilty. (c)/No error (d). (a) (b) (c) (d)

Q10. The municipality is going (a) /to built a new school (b)/near the park. (c)/ No error (d). (a) (b) (c) (d)Set - 1 2Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blank to make thesentence meaningfully complete.

Q11. His actions had ________ pain and suffering on thousands of people.(a) affected

(b) imposed(c) inflicted



(c) inflicted

(d) deplored

Q12. The Government will ______ all resources to fight poverty.(a) collect

(b) exploit (c) harness

(d) muster

Q13. The children ______ crackers to celebrate the victory of their team.(a) burst (b) fired

(c) shot(d) released

Q14. I am ______ forward to our picnic scheduled in the next month.(a) seeing

(b) looking (c) planning

(d) thinking

Q15. I hope you must have _____ by now that failures are the stepping stones to success.(a) known (b) felt

(c) decided (d) realized

In each of the following choose the word most similar in meaning to the word given incapitals.Q16. CAUSED

(a) Brought about (b) Brought forward

(c) Brought out (d) Brought over

Q17. PLACID



Q17. PLACID

(a) Plain

(b) Clear (c) Poor (d) Calm

Q18. AUDACIOUS

(a) Obvious(b) Daring (c) Ardent

(d) Affluent

Pick out the word that is most nearly the opposite in meaning to the word given incapitals.Q19. MONOLOGUE

(a) Prologue (b) Epilogue (c) Dialogue

(d) Catalogue

Q20. DELETE

(a) Imbibe (b) Improve

(c) Insert (d) Inspire

Q21. AMBIGUITY

(a) Certainty

(b) Clarity (c) Rationality

(d) Laxity

Choose the correct answer.

Q22. The First Battle of Panipat was fought between-

(a) Akbar & Hemu (b) Babur and Ibrahim Lodhi(c) Akbar & Rana Sanga



(c) Akbar & Rana Sanga

(d) Ahmad Shah Abdali & Marathas

Q23. Fa-hien visited India during the reign of-(a) Chandra Gupta Maurya (b) Bindusara

(c) Chandra Gupta II (d) Bimbisara

Q24. Gandhijis first experience with Satyagraha came up in-

(a) Dandi (b) Champaran(c) Bengal

(d) Natal

Q25. During whose tenure as the viceroy of India were the great Martyrs Bhagat Singh, Sukhdev andRajguru hanged?(a) Lord Curzon

(b) Lord Irwin (c) Lord Minto

(d) Lord Chelmford

Q26. The winner of the highest number of gold medals in an Olympic game is-(a) Mark Spitz (b) Matt Biondi

(c) Michael Phelps (d) Jenny Thompson

Q27. Agha Khan Cup is associated with the game of-(a) Football

(b) Hockey

(c) Badminton (d) Cricket

Q28. Usain Bolt, the 100 meters race world record holder, is from which country?(a) Jamaica



(a) Jamaica

(b) U.S.A. (c) Canada

(d) Nigeria

Q29. Only two cricket players have taken 10 wickets in an innings. One is Anil Kumble. The other is-

(a) Richard Hadlee (b) Muttiah Muralidharan

(c) Jim Laker (d) Andy Roberts

Q30. Borlaug Award is given every year to an Indian scientist for outstanding contribution in the field of-(a) Medicine

(b) Space (c) Applied Science

(d) Agriculture

Q31. The highest Indian gallantry award which could be given in peace time is-

(a) Ashok Chakra (b) Param Vir Chakra

(c) Kirti Chakra (d) Param Vishisht Seva Medal

Q32. The most successful Satellite Launch Vehicle of Indian Space Programme to launch commercialsatellites is known as-

(a) SLV(b) ASLV

(c) PSLV(d) GSLV

Q33. Which one of the following soils is most suitable for cotton cultivation-

(a) Red soil (b) Black soil

(c) Loamy soil (d) Laterite soil



(d) Laterite soil

Q34. The name of indigenously built Light Combat Aircraft is-(a) Tejas

(b) Chakra c) Vajra

(d) Trishul

Q35. The boundary between China and India is known as-

(a) Mc Mohan Line (b) Radcliffe Line

(c) Hindenberg Line (d) Line of Control

Q36. Equinox means two days in a year when day and night are almost equal. If March 21 is an equinoxwhich is the next?

(a) 09 October (b) 31 August (c) 23 September

(d) 03 November

Q37. UNHCR, an organisation of United Nations, was established to provide/promote-(a) Primary Education

(b) Health and Culture (c) Relief (d) Protection to refugees

Q38. Who authored the book Train to Pakistan?

(a) Salman Rushdie

(b) Khushwant Singh (c) Mulk Raj Anand (d) Vikram Seth

Q39. Vitamin necessary to prevent prolonged bleeding is-

(a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin E



(b) Vitamin E (c) Vitamin D

(d) Vitamin KQ40. The famous classical dance form of Andhra Pradesh is-

(a) Kathakali (b) Kuchipudi

(c) Mohini Attam (d) Yakshaagna

Q41. The term Carbon Credit is associated with-(a) Coal reserve of a nation

(b) Reduction of Green House Gas emissions(c) Fossil Fuel reserve (d) Amount of CO2 an individual emits in a year

Q42. In a 225 meter long yard 26 trees are planted at equal distance, one tree being at each end of the

yard. What is the distance between two consecutive trees?(a) 10 meters

(b) 8 meters (c) 12 meters (d) 9 meters

Q43. A bonus of Rs. 1000 is divided among three employees. Rohit gets twice the amount Sachin gets.

Sachin gets one fifth of what Gagan gets. How much amount does Gagan get?(a) Rs. 500 (b) Rs. 625

(c) Rs. 750

(d) Rs. 120

Q44. A boy was asked to multiply a number by 25. Instead, he multiplied the number by 52 and got theanswer 324 more than the correct answer. The number to be multiplied was-(a) 12

(b) 15 (c) 25

(d) 32



Q45. The average age of 35 students in a class is 16 years. Out of these students the average age of 21

students is 14 years. The average age of remaining students is-(a) 15 years

(b) 17 years (c) 20 years

(d) 19 years

Q46. After replacing an old member by a new member, it was found that the average age of five

members of a club is the same as it was 3 years ago. What is the difference between the age of replacedmember and new member?

(a) 2 years (b) 8 years (c) 15 years

(d) 25 years

Q47. The average salary of all the workers in a workshop is Rs. 8000. The average salary of seventechnicians is Rs. 12000 and average salary of others is Rs. 6000. The total number of workers in the

workshop are-(a) 20 (b) 21

(c) 22 (d) 23

Q48. In an examination a candidate has to get 35% of total marks to pass. In one paper he gets 62 out of

150 and in the second 35 out of 150. How many marks should he get out of 200 marks in the third paper topass?

(a) 61 (b) 68

(c) 70 (d) 78

Q49. The salary of A & B together amounts to Rs. 2000. A spends 95% of his salary and B 85% of hissalary. If their savings are same what is the salary of A?

(a) Rs. 750 (b) Rs. 1250



(b) Rs. 1250 (c) Rs. 1500

(d) Rs. 1600

Q50. Out of the 1000 inhabitants of a town, 60% are male of whom 20% are literate. If, amongst all theinhabitants, 25% are literate, then what percentage of the females of the town are literate?

(a) 22.5 (b) 32.5 (c) 27.5

d) 37.5

Q51. A trader mixes 26 Kg of rice at Rs. 20 per kg with 30 Kg rice of another variety costing Rs. 36 perKg. If he sells the mixture at Rs. 30 per Kg his profit will be-(a) -7%

(b) 5% (c) 8%

(d) 10%

Q52. The difference between the cost price and sale price is Rs. 240. If the profit is 20%, the sellingprice is-(a) Rs. 1200

(b) Rs. 1440

(c) Rs. 1800 (d) Rs. 2440

Q53. Samant bought a microwave oven and paid 10% less than Maximum Retail Price(MRP). He sold itwith 30% profit on his purchase cost. What percentage of profit did he earn on MRP?

(a) 17% (b) 20%

(c) 27% (d) 32%

Q54. The price of a scooter and a TV are in the ratio of 7:5. If the scooter costs Rs. 8000 more than a TVset, then the price of TV set is-

(a) Rs. 20000 (b) Rs. 24000



(b) Rs. 24000 (c) Rs. 32000

(d) Rs. 28000

Q55. The speed of three cars is in the ratio of 5:4:6. The ratio between the time taken by them to travelthe same distance is-

(a) 5:4:6 (b) 6:4:5 (c) 10:12:15

(d) 12:15:10

Q56. The ration between two numbers is 3:4. If each number is increased by 6 the ratio becomes 4:5.The difference between the numbers is-(a) 1

(b) 3 (c) 6

(d) 8

Q57. Rs. 800 becomes Rs. 956 in 3 years at a certain rate of interest. If the rate of interest is increasedby 4% what amount will Rs. 800 become in 3 years?

(a) Rs. 1020 (b) Rs. 1052

(c) Rs. 1282 (d) Rs. 1080

Q58. How much time will it take for an amount of Rs. 450 to gain Rs. 81 as interest, if rate of interest is4.5% p.a on simple interest?

(a) 4.5 years (b) 3.5 years

(c) 5 years (d) 4 years

Q59. At what rate of annual simple interest will Rs. 10000 double in 15 years?(a) 5.5%

(b) 8%



(b) 8% (c) 6.75% (d) 7.25%

Q60. The value of (?) in the equation 365.089 - ? + 89.72 = 302.35 is-

(a) 152.456 (b) 152.459

(c) 153.456 (d) 153.459

Q61. A sum of Rs. 312 is divided among 60 boys and some girls in such a way that each boy gets Rs.3.60 and each girl gets Rs.2.40. The number of girls are-

(a) 35 (b) 60 (c) 40

(d) 65

This is a test of your ability to understand words. For each question four options aregiven. There is only one correct answer for each question. Mark the correct answer.

Q62. INCITE means the same as(a) short

(b) delay (c) place (d) provoke

Q63. SUCCUMB means the same as

(a) aid (b) yield (c) check

(d) oppose

Q64. ANOMALOUS means the same as(a) disgraceful (b) formless

(c) irregular (d) threatening



Q65. FORTUITOUS means the same as

(a) accidental (b) conclusive (c) courageous

(d) prosperous

Q66 PERMEABLE means the same as(a) flexible (b) variable

(c) soluble (d) penetrable

Q67. CONVOY means the same as(a) carry

(b) flock (c) standard

(d) escort

Q68. CITE means the same as(a) illustrate

(b) reveal (c) recollect

(d) quote

Q69. VOCATION means the same as(a) hobby (b) occupation

(c) post (d) designation

Each of the following questions has an underlined/capitalized word. You are toindicate which one of the four choices most nearly means the same as theunderlined/capitalizedword.

Q70. The benefits of the plan are likely to be transitory.

(a) significant



(a) significant (b) obvious

(c) temporary (d) cumulative

Q71. The hikers found several crevices in the rocks.(a) cracks

(b) minerals (c) canals (d) puddles

Q72. BOOK is to CHAPTER as BUILDING is to

(a) ELEVATOR (b) LOBBY

(c) ROOF

(d) STOREY

Q73. CARROT is to VEGETABLE as

(a) DOGWOOD is to OAK (b) FOOT is to PAW(c) PEPPER is to SPICE

(d) SHEEP is to LAMB

Q74. CONCAVE is to CONVEX as(a) CAVITY is to MOUND

(b) HILL is to HOLE(c) OVAL is to OBLONG (d) ROUND is to POINTED

Q75. GOWN is to GARMENT as GASOLINE is to

(a) COOLANT (b) FUEL (c) OIL

(d) LUBRICANT

Q76. HYPER- is to HYPO- as



Q76. HYPER- is to HYPO- as(a) DIASTOLIC is to SYSTOLIC

(b) OVER is to UNDER(c) SMALL is to LARGE (d) STALE is to FRESH

Q77. IMMIGRATION is to EMIGRATION as

(a) ARRIVAL is to DEPARTURE (b) FLIGHT is to VOYAGE(c) LEGAL is to ILLEGAL

(d) MIGRATION is to TRAVEL

Q78. OCTAGON is to SQUARE as HEXAGON is to

(a) POLYGON (b) PYRAMID

(c) RECTANGLE (d) TRIANGLE

Q79. TELL is to TOLD as

(a) RIDE is to RODE (b) SINK is to SANK(c) WEAVE is to WOVE (d) WEEP is to WEPT

Q80. SHEEP is to LAMB as HORSE is to(a) COLT (b) DOE (c) FAWN (d) MARE

Q81. IGNORE is to OVERLOOK as(a) AGREE is to CONSENT (b) CLIMB is to WALK(c) DULL is to SHARPEN

(d) LEARN is to REMEMBER



Q82. FREQUENTLY is to SELDOM as(a) ALWAYS is to NEVER (b) EVERYBODY is to EVERYONE

(c) GENERALLY is to USUALLY (d) OCCASIONALLY is to CONSTANTLY This test is designed to test your ability to visualize and manipulate objects in space. In each question,you are shown a picture of a block. To the right of the pictured block,there are five choices shown as A,

B, C, D and E. Select the choice containing a block that is just like the pictured block at the left althoughturned in a different position.



The hidden figures test is designed to perceive simple figures in complex drawings. At the top of eachsection are five figures lettered A, B, C, D, and E. Below these are several numbered drawings. You mustdetermine which lettered figure is embedded in each of the numbered drawings.

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Indian Air Force Common admission Test AFCAT free solved sample placement papers,Previous year AFCAT question papers and their solutions for coming exam,Indian AirForce Engineering Knowledge Test (AFCAT) 2013 Question Paper Answers PreviousYear Old Paper Answer Keys Free,afcat solved question paper of previousyears.Free previous year question paper for afcat with answers ,AFCAT QuestionPaper AFCAT stands for Air Force Common Admission Test,AFCAT,CMAT,CAT,GATE,NDA,SCRA,Bank IBPS,Gramin Bank IT Non IT PSU companies Aptitude,reasoning verbal ability ,English,Current affairs,General Awareness largest collectionof solved question papers,model question papers with detailed explanations,Indian Air Force Common admission Test AFCAT SET 1

Instructions for candidates TIME ALLOTTED 2 HRS.1. Total No. of Questions100. Each Question is of three marks. 2. One mark will be deducted for every wrong answer. 3. Do not write or mark on the Question Paper.4. Question Paper to be returned before leaving the Exam Hall.

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.

We stand poised precariously and challengingly on the razors edge of destiny. We are now at the mercy

of atom bombs and the like which would destroy us completely if we fail to control them wisely. And wisdom in this crisis means sensitiveness to the basic values of life; it means avivid realization that we are literally living in one world where we must either swim together or sinktogether. We cannot afford to tamper with mans single minded loyalty to peace and international



together. We cannot afford to tamper with mans single minded loyalty to peace and internationalunderstanding. Anyone, who does it is a traitor not only to mans past and present, but also to his future,

because he is mortgaging the destiny of unborn generations.

Q1. From the tone and style of the passage it appears that the writer is-(a) a prose writer with a fascination for images and metaphors.(b) a humanist with a clear foresight.

(c) a traitor who wishes to mortgage the destiny of future generations.(d) unaware of the global power situation.

Q2. The best way to escape complete annihilation in an atomic war is to-

(a) work for international understanding and harmony.(b) invent more powerful weapons. (c) turn to religion. (d) ban nuclear weapons.

Q3. The phrase razors edge of destiny means a/an-(a) enigma that cuts through the pattern of life like the edge of a razor.(b) critical situation that foreordains the future.(c) sharp line of division that marks the alternative courses of action in the future.

(d) destiny with sharp edges.

Q4. According to the writer, wisdom on the razors edge of destiny means:(a) awareness that we stand poised precariously on the razors edge of destiny.

(b) determination to ban nuclear weapons.(c) responsibility to the unborn generations.(d) awareness of the basic values of life.

Q5. The author is concerned about the threat of nuclear weapons because he feels that-(a) a nuclear war will destroy human civilization.(b) all countries are interlinked and one cannot escape the consequences of what happens to another country.(c) the world is on the brink of disaster.

(d) his country is threatened by a nuclear war.

In each of the following questions, find out which part of the sentence has an error. Ifthere is no mistake, the answer is (d) No error.

Q6. A person I met (a)/in the theatre (b)/was the playwright himself. (c)/No error (d).



Q6. A person I met (a)/in the theatre (b)/was the playwright himself. (c)/No error (d).(a) (b) (c) (d)

Q7. They walked (a)/besides each other (b)/in silence. (c)/No error (d).No error (d).

(a) (b) (c) (d)Q8. We returned to the guest house (a)/impressed by (b)/what we had seen. (c)/No error (d). (a) (b) (c) (d)

Q9. The judge was convinced (a)/that neither (b)/of the five accused was guilty. (c)/No error (d). (a) (b) (c) (d)

Q10. The municipality is going (a) /to built a new school (b)/near the park. (c)/ No error (d). (a) (b) (c) (d)Set - 1 2Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blank to make thesentence meaningfully complete.

Q11. His actions had ________ pain and suffering on thousands of people.(a) affected

(b) imposed(c) inflicted (d) deplored

Q12. The Government will ______ all resources to fight poverty.(a) collect (b) exploit (c) harness (d) muster

Q13. The children ______ crackers to celebrate the victory of their team.(a) burst (b) fired (c) shot

(d) released

Q14. I am ______ forward to our picnic scheduled in the next month.(a) seeing



(a) seeing (b) looking

(c) planning (d) thinking

Q15. I hope you must have _____ by now that failures are the stepping stones to success.(a) known

(b) felt (c) decided (d) realized

In each of the following choose the word most similar in meaning to the word given incapitals.Q16. CAUSED

(a) Brought about

(b) Brought forward (c) Brought out (d) Brought over

Q17. PLACID

(a) Plain (b) Clear

(c) Poor (d) Calm

Q18. AUDACIOUS

(a) Obvious(b) Daring (c) Ardent (d) Affluent

Pick out the word that is most nearly the opposite in meaning to the word given incapitals.Q19. MONOLOGUE

(a) Prologue (b) Epilogue (c) Dialogue (d) Catalogue



(d) Catalogue

Q20. DELETE

(a) Imbibe (b) Improve (c) Insert (d) Inspire

Q21. AMBIGUITY

(a) Certainty

(b) Clarity (c) Rationality (d) Laxity

Choose the correct answer.

Q22. The First Battle of Panipat was fought between-(a) Akbar & Hemu (b) Babur and Ibrahim Lodhi(c) Akbar & Rana Sanga (d) Ahmad Shah Abdali & Marathas

Q23. Fa-hien visited India during the reign of-(a) Chandra Gupta Maurya (b) Bindusara (c) Chandra Gupta II

(d) Bimbisara

Q24. Gandhijis first experience with Satyagraha came up in-(a) Dandi (b) Champaran

(c) Bengal (d) Natal

Q25. During whose tenure as the viceroy of India were the great Martyrs Bhagat Singh, Sukhdev and

Rajguru hanged?(a) Lord Curzon



(a) Lord Curzon (b) Lord Irwin

(c) Lord Minto (d) Lord Chelmford

Q26. The winner of the highest number of gold medals in an Olympic game is-(a) Mark Spitz

(b) Matt Biondi (c) Michael Phelps (d) Jenny Thompson

Q27. Agha Khan Cup is associated with the game of-(a) Football (b) Hockey (c) Badminton (d) Cricket

Q28. Usain Bolt, the 100 meters race world record holder, is from which country?(a) Jamaica (b) U.S.A. (c) Canada

(d) Nigeria

Q29. Only two cricket players have taken 10 wickets in an innings. One is Anil Kumble. The other is-(a) Richard Hadlee (b) Muttiah Muralidharan

(c) Jim Laker (d) Andy Roberts

Q30. Borlaug Award is given every year to an Indian scientist for outstanding contribution in the field of-(a) Medicine

(b) Space

(c) Applied Science (d) Agriculture



Q31. The highest Indian gallantry award which could be given in peace time is-(a) Ashok Chakra (b) Param Vir Chakra(c) Kirti Chakra

(d) Param Vishisht Seva Medal

Q32. The most successful Satellite Launch Vehicle of Indian Space Programme to launch commercialsatellites is known as-(a) SLV

(b) ASLV (c) PSLV(d) GSLV

Q33. Which one of the following soils is most suitable for cotton cultivation-

(a) Red soil (b) Black soil (c) Loamy soil (d) Laterite soil

Q34. The name of indigenously built Light Combat Aircraft is-(a) Tejas (b) Chakra c) Vajra

(d) Trishul

Q35. The boundary between China and India is known as-(a) Mc Mohan Line (b) Radcliffe Line

(c) Hindenberg Line (d) Line of Control

Q36. Equinox means two days in a year when day and night are almost equal. If March 21 is an equinox

which is the next?(a) 09 October (b) 31 August



(b) 31 August (c) 23 September (d) 03 November

Q37. UNHCR, an organisation of United Nations, was established to provide/promote-(a) Primary Education (b) Health and Culture (c) Relief

(d) Protection to refugees

Q38. Who authored the book Train to Pakistan?(a) Salman Rushdie

(b) Khushwant Singh (c) Mulk Raj Anand (d) Vikram Seth

Q39. Vitamin necessary to prevent prolonged bleeding is-

(a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin E (c) Vitamin D (d) Vitamin KQ40. The famous classical dance form of Andhra Pradesh is-

(a) Kathakali (b) Kuchipudi (c) Mohini Attam (d) Yakshaagna

Q41. The term Carbon Credit is associated with-(a) Coal reserve of a nation

(b) Reduction of Green House Gas emissions(c) Fossil Fuel reserve

(d) Amount of CO2 an individual emits in a year

Q42. In a 225 meter long yard 26 trees are planted at equal distance, one tree being at each end of theyard. What is the distance between two consecutive trees?

(a) 10 meters



(a) 10 meters (b) 8 meters (c) 12 meters (d) 9 meters

Q43. A bonus of Rs. 1000 is divided among three employees. Rohit gets twice the amount Sachin gets.Sachin gets one fifth of what Gagan gets. How much amount does Gagan get?(a) Rs. 500 (b) Rs. 625 (c) Rs. 750

(d) Rs. 120

Q44. A boy was asked to multiply a number by 25. Instead, he multiplied the number by 52 and got theanswer 324 more than the correct answer. The number to be multiplied was-(a) 12

(b) 15 (c) 25 (d) 32

Q45. The average age of 35 students in a class is 16 years. Out of these students the average age of 21

students is 14 years. The average age of remaining students is-(a) 15 years (b) 17 years (c) 20 years

(d) 19 years

Q46. After replacing an old member by a new member, it was found that the average age of five

members of a club is the same as it was 3 years ago. What is the difference between the age of replaced

member and new member?(a) 2 years (b) 8 years (c) 15 years (d) 25 years

Q47. The average salary of all the workers in a workshop is Rs. 8000. The average salary of seventechnicians is Rs. 12000 and average salary of others is Rs. 6000. The total number of workers in the



technicians is Rs. 12000 and average salary of others is Rs. 6000. The total number of workers in theworkshop are-(a) 20

(b) 21 (c) 22 (d) 23

Q48. In an examination a candidate has to get 35% of total marks to pass. In one paper he gets 62 out of

150 and in the second 35 out of 150. How many marks should he get out of 200 marks in the third paper topass?(a) 61 (b) 68

(c) 70 (d) 78

Q49. The salary of A & B together amounts to Rs. 2000. A spends 95% of his salary and B 85% of hissalary. If their savings are same what is the salary of A?

(a) Rs. 750 (b) Rs. 1250 (c) Rs. 1500 (d) Rs. 1600

Q50. Out of the 1000 inhabitants of a town, 60% are male of whom 20% are literate. If, amongst all theinhabitants, 25% are literate, then what percentage of the females of the town are literate?(a) 22.5

(b) 32.5

(c) 27.5 d) 37.5

Q51. A trader mixes 26 Kg of rice at Rs. 20 per kg with 30 Kg rice of another variety costing Rs. 36 per

Kg. If he sells the mixture at Rs. 30 per Kg his profit will be-(a) -7% (b) 5% (c) 8% (d) 10%



Q52. The difference between the cost price and sale price is Rs. 240. If the profit is 20%, the sellingprice is-(a) Rs. 1200 (b) Rs. 1440

(c) Rs. 1800 (d) Rs. 2440

Q53. Samant bought a microwave oven and paid 10% less than Maximum Retail Price(MRP). He sold itwith 30% profit on his purchase cost. What percentage of profit did he earn on MRP?

(a) 17% (b) 20% (c) 27% (d) 32%

Q54. The price of a scooter and a TV are in the ratio of 7:5. If the scooter costs Rs. 8000 more than a TVset, then the price of TV set is-(a) Rs. 20000 (b) Rs. 24000 (c) Rs. 32000

(d) Rs. 28000

Q55. The speed of three cars is in the ratio of 5:4:6. The ratio between the time taken by them to travel

the same distance is-(a) 5:4:6 (b) 6:4:5 (c) 10:12:15 (d) 12:15:10

Q56. The ration between two numbers is 3:4. If each number is increased by 6 the ratio becomes 4:5.The difference between the numbers is-(a) 1 (b) 3

(c) 6 (d) 8



(d) 8

Q57. Rs. 800 becomes Rs. 956 in 3 years at a certain rate of interest. If the rate of interest is increasedby 4% what amount will Rs. 800 become in 3 years?

(a) Rs. 1020 (b) Rs. 1052 (c) Rs. 1282 (d) Rs. 1080

Q58. How much time will it take for an amount of Rs. 450 to gain Rs. 81 as interest, if rate of interest is4.5% p.a on simple interest?(a) 4.5 years (b) 3.5 years

(c) 5 years (d) 4 years

Q59. At what rate of annual simple interest will Rs. 10000 double in 15 years?(a) 5.5%

(b) 8% (c) 6.75% (d) 7.25%

Q60. The value of (?) in the equation 365.089 - ? + 89.72 = 302.35 is-(a) 152.456 (b) 152.459 (c) 153.456 (d) 153.459

Q61. A sum of Rs. 312 is divided among 60 boys and some girls in such a way that each boy gets Rs.3.60 and each girl gets Rs.2.40. The number of girls are-(a) 35

(b) 60 (c) 40 (d) 65

This is a test of your ability to understand words. For each question four options are



This is a test of your ability to understand words. For each question four options aregiven. There is only one correct answer for each question. Mark the correct answer.

Q62. INCITE means the same as

(a) short (b) delay (c) place (d) provoke

Q63. SUCCUMB means the same as

(a) aid (b) yield (c) check (d) oppose

Q64. ANOMALOUS means the same as(a) disgraceful (b) formless (c) irregular (d) threatening

Q65. FORTUITOUS means the same as

(a) accidental (b) conclusive (c) courageous (d) prosperous

Q66 PERMEABLE means the same as(a) flexible (b) variable (c) soluble

(d) penetrable

Q67. CONVOY means the same as(a) carry (b) flock

(c) standard (d) escort



(d) escort

Q68. CITE means the same as(a) illustrate

(b) reveal (c) recollect (d) quote

Q69. VOCATION means the same as(a) hobby (b) occupation (c) post (d) designation

Each of the following questions has an underlined/capitalized word. You are toindicate which one of the four choices most nearly means the same as theunderlined/capitalizedword.

Q70. The benefits of the plan are likely to be transitory.

(a) significant (b) obvious (c) temporary (d) cumulative

Q71. The hikers found several crevices in the rocks.(a) cracks (b) minerals (c) canals

(d) puddles

Q72. BOOK is to CHAPTER as BUILDING is to (a) ELEVATOR

(b) LOBBY (c) ROOF (d) STOREY





(a) DOGWOOD is to OAK (b) FOOT is to PAW(c) PEPPER is to SPICE (d) SHEEP is to LAMB

Q74. CONCAVE is to CONVEX as(a) CAVITY is to MOUND (b) HILL is to HOLE(c) OVAL is to OBLONG (d) ROUND is to POINTED

Q75. GOWN is to GARMENT as GASOLINE is to(a) COOLANT (b) FUEL (c) OIL

(d) LUBRICANT

Q76. HYPER- is to HYPO- as

(a) DIASTOLIC is to SYSTOLIC (b) OVER is to UNDER(c) SMALL is to LARGE (d) STALE is to FRESH

Q77. IMMIGRATION is to EMIGRATION as(a) ARRIVAL is to DEPARTURE (b) FLIGHT is to VOYAGE(c) LEGAL is to ILLEGAL (d) MIGRATION is to TRAVEL

Q78. OCTAGON is to SQUARE as HEXAGON is to(a) POLYGON (b) PYRAMID (c) RECTANGLE

(d) TRIANGLE



Q79. TELL is to TOLD as(a) RIDE is to RODE (b) SINK is to SANK

(c) WEAVE is to WOVE (d) WEEP is to WEPT

Q80. SHEEP is to LAMB as HORSE is to

(a) COLT (b) DOE (c) FAWN (d) MARE

Q81. IGNORE is to OVERLOOK as

(a) AGREE is to CONSENT (b) CLIMB is to WALK(c) DULL is to SHARPEN

(d) LEARN is to REMEMBER

Q82. FREQUENTLY is to SELDOM as(a) ALWAYS is to NEVER (b) EVERYBODY is to EVERYONE

(c) GENERALLY is to USUALLY (d) OCCASIONALLY is to CONSTANTLY This test is designed to test your ability to visualize and manipulate objects in space. In each question,you are shown a picture of a block. To the right of the pictured block,there are five choices shown as A,

B, C, D and E. Select the choice containing a block that is just like the pictured block at the left althoughturned in a different position.



The hidden figures test is designed to perceive simple figures in complex drawings. At the top of eachsection are five figures lettered A, B, C, D, and E. Below these are several numbered drawings. You mustdetermine which lettered figure is embedded in each of the numbered drawings.




Yes

No



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Indian-Airforce/AFCAT-2014selection-proc... Indian-Airforce Placement-Paper-Whole-Te...

CDAC Placement-Paper : 37030

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Posted By : Yamuna

Updated Date : Mar 9, 2013CDAC Whole-Testpaper placement paper Question

and answers

CDAC recruitment process and aptitude testexperiences

CDAC Project engineers recruitment details CDAC Test pattern, Selection procedure,Practice model question papers

CDAC hiring Technical Officer Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC), invites applications for the post of Project Engineer C-DAC Hyderbad Requires Project Engineer on contract basis Eligibility: BE/B.Tech (Computer Science & Engineering (CSE), Electronics &Communication Engineering (ECE), Electronics & Instrumentation Engineering)ME/M.Tech Hiring process on the basis on written test and interview

Selection Process : The selection will be based on written test & interview.Important Dates:Last Date for Online Registration 15-01-2013 (05:00 P.M)Last Date for Receipt of hardcopy of the Application along with Application Fee: 17-01-2013 (05:00 P.M).

CDAC Project engineers recruitment details General Conditions

In case of more applications, apart from above mentioned criteria screening will be done based onrelevant skill set, experience and aggregate marks secured in relevant qualifying degree.

Persons working in Government / PSUs/autonomous bodies are required to forward an online advance

copy of the application and later submit hard copy application through proper channel.



copy of the application and later submit hard copy application through proper channel.

Short-listed candidates will be called for written test. Those who are qualified in the written test.

At the time of interview , they should bring Original Certificates of qualifications and experience and a

photocopy of the same. SC/ST/OBC/Physically Challenged Category candidates should submitnecessary certificates of the caste at the time of interview.

The selection will be based on written test & interview.

Last date for online registration 15-01-2013 (05:00 P.M)

Last date of receipt of hardcopy of the Application along with application fee: 17-01-2013 (05:00 P.M)Thursday

Applications received late/incomplete will be summarily rejected.

If the candidate wishes to apply multiple posts he has to pay the fees equal to no. of applications. (eg. for1 post Rs. 100/- and if he applies for 4 Posts Rs. 400/-).

Written Test / Interview will be conducted only in Hyderabad.

Written Examination is tentatively scheduled on 27-01-2013 (Sunday)Exact date,time venue of the written test will be announced on 16-01-2013 in our websitewww.cdac.in/careers or www.cdachyd.in/careers).

Admit Card for written examination available on website from 20-01-2013.

No TA /DA will be paid for appearing for the written test / interview.

C-DAC reserves the right to fill up the post or increase/decrease the number of posts or even to cancelthe whole process of recruitment without assigning any reasons thereof.

Canvassing in any form is prohibited and will result in disqualification.

Candidates are advised to keep checking the website for any information updates

For more details :http://cdachyd.in/career



For more details :http://cdachyd.in/career


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No


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Updated Date : Mar 8, 2013BSNL Whole-Testpaper placement paper Question

and answers

BSNL recruitment process and aptitude testexperiences

BSNL previous years solved sample placement papers,BSNL DGM,JTO Tech Assistant questions with answers,BSNL model questions for practicce,BSNL technical assistantquestion papers wit answers and detalied explnations

1. Weins bridge is used for measurement of frequency in the applied voltage waveform is measurementof frequency in the applied voltage waveform is (a) Sinusoidal (Ans)

(b) Square(c) rectangular(d) triangular

2. Strain gauge is

(a) not a transducer(b) an active transducer (Ans)(c) not an electronic (d) none



(d) none

3. A high Q coil has (a) large band width

(b) high losses (Ans)(c) low losses(d) flat response

4. In the case of an instrument reading of 8.3V with a 0 to 150 voltmeter having a guaranteed accuracy of

1% full scale reading, the percentage limiting error is (a) 1.810 %(b) 0.181 %(c) 12.45 % (Ans)(d) 0.0018%

(Explanation : Limiting error at full scale = 1/100 X 150 = 1.5 voltthe true reading may be (8.3 + 1.5) Volt the relative error = 1.5/100 X 8.3 = 12.45 % )

5. The 'h' parameter equivalent circuit of a junction transistor is valid for(a) High frequency, large signal operation

(b) High frequency, small signal operation(c) Low frequency, small signal operation (Ans)(d) Low frequency, large signal operation

6. A system is casual if the output of any time depends only on (a) Values of input in the past and in the future (b) Values of input at that time and in the past (Ans)(c) Values of input at that time and in the future (d) None

7. From the hot metal surface electrons escape because(a) of change of state from metal to gas due to heat(b) of change of state from gas to metal(c) the energy greater than the work function (Ans)

(d) the energy is greater than Fermi level8. The most common device used for detection in radio receivers is (a) amplifier



(a) amplifier(b) triode

(c) diode (Ans)(d) transistor

9. In a full wave rectifier the negative point in a circuit is (a) Cathode

(b) anode(c) The central tap on the high voltage secondary (Ans)(d) Plate

10. Negative feedback amplifier has a signal corrupted by noise as its input (a) Amplify the noise as much as the signal (b) Reduce the noise (Ans)(c) Increase the noise(d) Not effect the noise

PART II

11. It is an unidirectional device that blocks the current flow from cathode to anode

(a) SCR (Ans)(b) PCR(c) VCR(d) DCR

12. An ideal constant current source is connected in series with an ideal constant voltage source.Considering together the combination will be a (a) constant voltage source(b) constant current source (Ans)

(c) constant voltage and a constant current source or a constant power source(d) resistance

13. A node current in an thyristor is made up of (a) electrons only

(b) electrons or holes(c) electrons and holes (Ans)



(d) holes only14. For a pulse transformer, the material used for its core and the possible turn ratio from primary tosecondary are respectively (a) ferrite : 20:1

(b) laminated iron : 1:1(c) ferrite : 1:1 (Ans)(d) powdered iron :1:1

15. A converter which can operate in both 3 pulse and 6 pulse modes is a

(a) 1 phase full converter(b) 3 phase half wave converter(c) 3 phase semi converter (Ans)(d) 3 phase full converter

16. A single phase CSI has capacitor C as the load. For a constant source current, the voltage acrossthe capacitor is (a) square wave(b) triangular wave (Ans)(c) step function

(d) pulsed wave 17. A single phase full wave midpoint thyristor convertor uses a 230/200 V transformer with centre tap onthe secondary side. The P.I.V per thyristor is

(a) 100 V(b) 141.4V(c) 200 V(d) 282.8 V (Ans)(Explanation : For centre taped transformer in output side the PIV = 2 Vrms = 2 x 200/2 = 282.8 Volt)

18. In dc choppers for chopping period T, the output voltage can be controlled by FM by varying (a) T keeping Ton constant (Ans)

(b) Ton keeping T constant

(c) Toff keeping T constant

(d) None of the above



19. An ideal power supply consist of (a) A Very small output resistance

(b) Zero internal resistance (Ans)(c) Very large input resistance(d) Very large output resistance

20. The linearity error for a digital input is indicated by (a) (b) y(c) (d) (Ans)

21. In the 8421 BCD code the decimal number 125 is written as (a) 1111101 (Ans)(b) 0001 0010 0101 (c) 7D

(d) None of the above Explanation :

22. Match the given feedback circuit with its proper nomenclatures



(a) Current series feedback (Ans)

(b) Current shunt feedback(c) Voltage series feedback(d) Voltage shunt feedback

23. Class A amplifier is used when

(a) No phase inversion is required (b) Highest voltage gain is required(c) dc voltages are to be amplified (d) Minimum distortion is desired (Ans)

24. Identify the correct match for the give transistor

(a) Enhancement type P channel MOSFET (b) Depletion type N channel MOSFET (Ans)(c) Enhancement type N channel MOSFET(d) Depletion type P channel MOSFET

25. In case a signal band limited to fermimeter is sampled at a rate less than 2 fermimeter , theconstructed signal will be (a) Distortionless

(b) Small in amplitude(c) Having higher frequencies suppressed(d) Distorted (Ans)



(d) Distorted (Ans)

26. IC which has quad 2 input AND gates

(a) 7411(b) 7404(c) 7400(d) 7408 (Ans)

27. Registers in which data is entered or taken out in serial form are referred as(a) left shift register(b) right shift register(c) shift registers (Ans)

(d) none of the above

28. The expression ABC can be simplified to(a) A B C (b) AB + BC + CA

(c) A B + C(d) A + B + C (Ans)

29. Read the following :(i) Routh Herwitz's criterion is in time domain

(ii) Root locus plot is in time domain(iii) Bode plot is in frequency domain(iv) Nyquist criterion is in frequency domain (Ans)

(a) 2, 3 and 4 are correct

(b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct

(c) 3 and 4 are correct(d) All four are correct

30. Register and counters are similar in the sense that they both(a) count pulses(b) store binary operation(c) shift registers

(d) made from an array of flip flops and gates integrated on a single chip (Ans)



(d) made from an array of flip flops and gates integrated on a single chip (Ans)

31. In D/A converter, the resolution required is 50 mv and the total maximum input is 10 V. The number ofbits required is (a) 7

(b) 8 (Ans)(c) 9(d) 200

32. On differentiation unit impulse function results in

(a) Unit parabolic function(b) Unit triplet(c) Unit doublet (Ans)(d) Unit ramp function

33. ------ watt of power is received from sun per m2 surface area of a geosynchronous satellite(a) 100(b) 500(c) 2000

(d) 1000 (Ans)

34. The ripple factor in an LC filter(a) Increase with the load current(b) Increases with the load resistance

(c) Remains constant with the load current(d) Has the lowest value (Ans)

35. In different parts of the country identical telephone numbers are distinguished by their

(a) Language digits(b) Access digits(c) Area codes (Ans)(d) Central office codes

36. Amplitude modulation is used for broadcasting because(a) it is move noise immune than other modulation systems



(a) it is move noise immune than other modulation systems

(b) compared with other systems it requires less transmitting power(c) its use avoids receiver complexity (Ans)(d) no other modulation system can provide the necessary bandwidth for high fidelity

37. The maximum phase shift than can be provided by a lead compensator with transfer function G0(S) = 1 + 6S

1 + 2S

(a) 15o

(b) 45o

(c) 30o (Ans)

(d) 60o

(Explanation : If GC(s) = 1 +Tn s

1 + Td s

then Q = tan -1 Tn - tan-1 Td

Q = tan -1 6 - tan-1 2

So maximum phase shift will be Q= 30o )

38. The correct sequence of steps required to improve system stability is(a) Insert derivative action, use negative feedback, reduce again(b) Reduce gain, use negative feedback, insert derivative action(c) Reduce gain, insert derivative action, use negative feedback(d) Use negative feedback, reduce gain, insert derivative action. (Ans)

39. Identify slope change at = 10 of the magnitude v/s frequency characteristic of a unity feedbacksystem with the following open-loop transfer function G (j) = 5(1+j o.w)

j (1 + j0.5) [ (1+j 0.6 /50) + ( j/50)2](a) -80 dB/dec to - 60 dB/dec (Ans)(b) 40 dB/dec to 20 dB/dec(c) 20 dB/dec to - 40 dB/dec(d) 40 dB/dec to - 20 dB/dec

(Explanation :

Factor Cornerfrequency

Gain and angle



frequency

5 ----- 20 log5=14dB line parallel to x axis

1j

----- -20dB/dec passing through =1

11 + j0.5

1=2 -20dB/dec slope originates from =2

1+0

(1+j 0.6 /50) + ( j/50)22=7.07 -40 dB/dec slope originates from =7.07

1+j 0-1 3=10 +20dB/dec slope originates =10

40. In the feedback control system the loop transfer function is given by G(s) H (s) = K

s(s+2) (s2 +2s +2) Number of asymptotes of its root loci is(a) 1(b) 2(c) 3(d) 4 (Ans)

41. In a closed - loop transfer function G (s) = 2600k(s + 25)

R (s) s4 +125s3 + 5100s2 + 65000s + 65000k

the imaginary axis intercepts of the root loci will be(a) + j228 (Ans)(b) +j2.28(c) +j1.14(d) +j114

42. Considering the following statement : In a magic tee1. the collinear arms are isolated from each other

2. one of the collinear is isolated from the E-arm3. one of the collinear arm is isolated from the H-arm4. E-arm and H-arm are isolated from each other. of these statements (a) 1 and 2 are correct



(a) 1 and 2 are correct (b) 1 and 3 are correct(c) 1 and 4 are correct (Ans)(d) 2 and 3 are correct

43. In 1965 first geostationary satellite was launched called

(a) ANIK(b) EARLY BIRD (Intel sat-1)(c) WESTAR (Ans)(d) MOLNIYA

44. When A = 0., B = 0, C=1 then in two input logic gate we get gate (a) XOR gate(b) AND gate(c) NAND gate (Ans)(d) NOR gate

45. In a radio receiver the IF amplifier(a) is tuned above the stations incoming frequency(b) amplifies the output of local oscillator(c) is fixed tuned to one particular frequency (Ans)

(d) can be tuned to various isolate frequencies

46. A duplexer is used to(a) couple two antennas to a transmitter without interference(b) isolate the antennas from the local oscillator (c) prevent interference between two antennas connected to a receiver (Ans)(d) use an antenna for reception or transmission without interference

47. Boolean algebra is based on(a) numbers(b) logic (Ans)(c) truth(d) symbols

48. The amplifiers following the modulated stage in a low level modulation AM system be



48. The amplifiers following the modulated stage in a low level modulation AM system be(a) linear amplifier(b) harmonic generators

(c) class C power amplifiers (Ans)(d) class B untuned amplifiers

49. In a radar system maximum unambiguous range depends on (a) maximum power of the transmitter(b) pulse repetition frequency (Ans)(c) width of the transmitted pulse(d) sensitivity of the radar receiver

50. In composite video waveform the function of the serrations, is to

(a) equalize the charge in the integrator before the start of vertical retrace.(b) help vertical synchronization(c) help horizontal synchronization (Ans)(d) simplify the generation of the vertical syncpulse.

51. The frequency range 30MHz - 300 MHz is

(a) medium frequency(b) very high frequency (Ans)(c) super high frequency(d) infrared frequency

52. Which wave cannot exist inside wave guide(a) TE

(b) TM(c) TEM (Ans)(d) HE

53. Ionosphere layer of earth is situated at(a) upto 18kms from each(b) from 18 to 70 k m(c) 70 to 500 km (Ans)(d) above 500 km



54. A two cavity klystron tube is a (a) velocity modulated tube (Ans)(b) frequency modulated tube(c) Amplitude modulated tube(d) simple triode

55. As the thermal noise get doubled due to the increase in a resistance the noise power get(a) doubled(b) quadrupted(c) unchanged (Ans)

(d) halved

56. Which one is a cross field tube(a) Klystron (b) Reflex Klystron(c) Magnetron (Ans)

(d) TWT

57. The degree of coupling depends on(a) Size of hole(b) location of holes (Ans)(c) size and location of holes(d) not depend on size or location of hole

58. The thermal noise depends on(a) direct current through device(b) resistive component of resistance (Ans)(c) reactive component of impedance(d) load to connected

59. The charge on a hole is

(a) 1.6 x 10-9

(b) 1.6 x 10-19 (Ans)

(c) 1.6 x 101



(c) 1.6 x 101

(d) 1.6 x 1020

60. Intel's 8085 microprocessor chip contains(a) seven 8 bit registers (Ans)(b) 8 seven bits registers(c) seven 7 bit registers

(d) eight 8 bit registers

PART -III

61. The words 'Satyameva Jayate' have been taken from (a) Vedas (Ans)(b) Bhagwad Gita(c) Mahabharata

(d) None of these

62. Which of the following countries was the first to develop a neutron bomb?(a) USA (Ans)(b) USSR(c) China(d) Pakistan

63. 'Kathakali' dance is connected with(a) Kerala (Ans)(b) Rajasthan(c) Uttar Pradesh(d) Tamil Nadu

64. The term "Ashes" is associated with(a) Hockey(b) Cricket (Ans)(c) Soccer

(d) None of these

65. The Kailash Temple at Ellora is a specimen of(a) Gupta architecture



(a) Gupta architecture(b) Rashtrakutlas architecture(c) Chalukya architecture(d) Chola architecture (Ans)

66. When the two Houses of Parliament differ regarding a Bill then the controversy is solved by(a) Joint sitting of the two Houses

(b) President of India(c) Prime Minister of India (Ans)(d) By a special committee for the purpose

67. Which of the following is not the work of Kalidasa ?(a) Meghdoot(b) Raghuvansha

(c) Sariputra Prakarma(d) Ritushamhara (Ans)

68. Amir Khusro was the famous poet and aesthete of(a) Akbar the Great (Ans)(b) Mahmud Ghaznvi

(c) Shah Jahan(d) Alauddin Khilji

69. With the beginnings of space travel, we entered a new(a) Era of great history (Ans)(b) List(c) Book(d) Year

70. An though it mourns the death of someone , need not be sad

(a) Funny poem(b) Newspaper article(c) Orthodox talk(d) Elegy (Ans)

71. If stare is glance so gulp is



71. If stare is glance so gulp is(a) Slip (Ans)(b) Tell (c) Salk

(d) Admire

72. He hardly works means(a) The work is hard(b) He is hard(c) The work is easy(d) He work very little (Ans)

73. Give the opposite word for pulchritude(a) antipathy(b) unsightliness (Ans)(c) inexperience(d) languor

74. Nanometre is -----part of a metre(a) Millionth(b) Ten millionth (Ans)(c) Billionth(d) Ten billionth

75. Malaria affects(a) Liver(b) Spleen (Ans)

(c) Intestine(d) Lungs

76. Sindhu Rakshak is a/an(a) Aircraft carrier(b) Submarine(c) Multiple-purpose fighter(d) Anti-aircraft gun (Ans)



77. With which subject is "Dada Saheb Phalke Award" associated ?

(a) Best film director(b) Best musician(c) Best documentary (Ans)(d) Best work relating to promotion of Indian film Industry

78. Who developed the branch of mathematics know as Calculus ?(a) Aryabhatta(b) Newton

(c) Einstein (Ans)(d) Archimedes

79. In which state is Kanha Park situated ?(a) M.P.

(b) U.P. (Ans)(c) Assam(d) W. Bengal

80. Which day is observed as Human Rights Day ?(a) 24th October (Ans)(b) 4th July(c) 8th August(d) 10th December


Yes

No


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BSNLDGM model questions with answers and detailed explanations

BSNL DGM MODEL PAPER- PART-A,BSNL DGM model questions for practice upcomingDGM examination, BSNL DGM solved question papers includes technical questions,general abilityquestions,and basic engineering questions. Preparation of BSNL upcoming wrritten test examination practice more model to improve your knowledge and speed,time management for exam. BSNL DGM Objective questions

1. First-level managers must possess skills, which include knowledge of and proficiency in themethods, processes and procedures for carrying out activities.a. Humanb. Conceptualc. Designd. Technical

2. Which of the following skills is important at all levels of an organization?a. Conceptualb. Designc. Humand. Technical

3. Which of the following skills indicates the ability to solve problems in ways that will benefit theenterprise?a. Designb. Humanc. Conceptuald. Technical

4. Managers possessing skill have the ability to understand and coordinate the full range ofcorporate objectives and activities.a. Design skillb. Human skillc. Conceptual skilld. Technical skill

5. Which of the following approaches to management examines practical cases but is having only



5. Which of the following approaches to management examines practical cases but is having onlylimited value for developing management theory?a. Group behavior approachb. Systems approachc. Operational approachd. Empirical approach

6. Which of the following is also known as the mathematical approach?a. Operational approachb. Management science approach

c. Management roles approachd. Systems approach

7. Which of the following approaches to management advocates a system ofcooperation using bothinterpersonal and group behavioral aspects?a. Sociotechnical approachb. Contingency approachc. Situational approachd. Cooperative social systems approach

8. Under which system does a worker's wage increase in proportion to theoutput produced?a. Time-and-motion studyb. Piece-rate incentive systemc. Micromotion studyd. Gantt Chart

9. Who proposed the task-and-bonus system under which workers are given a bonus if the work iscompleted before the set time?a. Frederick W. Taylorb. Henry L. Ganttc. Frank B. Gilbrethd. Max Weber

10. The theorists ignored the human desire for job satisfaction.a. Scientific managementb. Bureaucratic managementc. Administrative theoryd. Management science

11. Which type of management approach focuses only on the economic andphysical needs ofworkers and ignores their social needs?a. Scientific managementb. Bureaucratic managementc. Administrative managementd. Operations management

12.Which one of the following did not contribute to the behavioral concept ofmanagement?a. Elton Mayob. Mary Parker Folletc. Chris Argyrisd. Henry R. Towne



d. Henry R. Towne

13. A branch of the classical viewpoint of management, is basedon Max Weber's research in thefield of management.a. Bureaucratic managementb. Scientific managementc. Administrative management

d. Weber management

14. which of the following is the fastest memory in the terms of accessibility?1. Read only memory2. Cache memory3.Random Access memory4. Dynamic random access Memory

15. Registers are associated with_________1. Input2. memory3.control4. output

16. _______________ is an example of sequential storage device1. Magnetic Tape2. floppy disk3. Hard disk4. CD-ROM

17.Programs and procedures in an information system are _____________1. data resources2. people resources3. hardware and software resources4. all the above

18.The information circulated in a company grapevine can be called as ____________1. knowledge information2. sampled information3.informal information4. organizational information

19.what is the term used to refer to alignment of the beginning and end of lines1.indentation2. justification3. superscript4 font

20. what is the character positioned below normal text called?1. superscript2. italic3.font4.subscript



4.subscript

21. spread sheet is a ________________1. superscript

2.Italic3.font4.subscript

22.The first Factories Act was enacted in a),1881b),1895c),1897d),1885Answer- a), 1881

23, Who is an adult as per Factories Act, 1948 ?a. Who has completed 18 years of age b. who is less than 18 years c. who is more than 14 years d. who is more than 15 yearsAnswer- a). Who has completed 18 years of age

24. A person who has ultimate control over the affairs of the factory under Factories Act, 1948 iscalled as _________

a. Occupier b. Managerc. Chairmand. Managing Director.Answer - a. Occupier

25, The space for every worker employed in the Factory after the commencement of Factories Act,1948 should be ________ Cubic Meters.

a. 9.9 b. 10.2 c. 14.2 d. 13.2 Answer- c. 14.2

26,The provision for cooling water during hot weather should be made by the organization if itemployees _______ or more employees.

a. 200 b. 250 c. 300 d. 150Answer- b. 250



27.Who is an Adolescent as per Factories Act, 1948 ?

a. Who has completed 17 years of age b. who is less than 18 years c. who has completed 15 years but less than 18 years. d. None of these Answer- c. who has completed 15 years but less than 18 years.

28, Which one of the following is not a welfare provision under Factories Act, 1948a.Canteen b. Creches c.First Aid d.Drinking water.Answer- d. Drinking water.

29, First Aid Boxes is to be provided for ______ of persons a. 125 b. 135 c. 150 d. 160Answer- c. 150

30,Safety Officers are to be appointed if Organisation is engaging ______ or more employees.a. 1000 b. 2000 c. 500 d. 750Answer- a. 1000

31 Canteen is to be provided if engaging employees more than ______ persons.a. 250 b. 230 c. 300 d. 275Answer- a. 250

32 Leave with wages is allowed for employees if they work for _______ days in a month.a. 15 b. 25 c. 20

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