vardhaman college of engineeringb) discuss briefly the food chain and food web with neat sketches....

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A1109 VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS) II B. Tech II Semester Supplementary Examinations, November 2019 (Regulations: VCE-R11/R11A) HYDRAULICS AND HYDRAULIC MACHINES (Civil Engineering) Date: 27 November, 2019 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75 Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks Unit I 1. a) Write down the significance of dimensional numbers. Also explain relationships between various dimensionless numbers. 7M b) What are the various types of similarities? Are these similarities truly attainable? If not why? 8M 2. State and explain Rayleigh method and Buckingham - theorem for the dimensional analysis with a suitable example. Also explain the advantages of using this theorem. 15M Unit II 3. a) Obtain an expression for the force exerted by a jet of water on an inclined fixed flat plate in the direction of the jet. 7M b) A jet of water of diameter 7.5cm moving with a velocity of 25m/s strikes a fixed plate in such a way that the angle between the jet and plate is 60 0 . Find the force exerted by the jet on the plate: i. In the direction normal to the plate ii. In the direction of the jet 8M 4. a) Obtain an expression for the force exerted by a jet of water on flat vertical plate moving in the direction of the jet. 7M b) A jet of water of diameter 75mm strikes a curved plate at its centre with a velocity of 20m/s. The curved plate is moving with a velocity of 8m/s in the direction of the jet. The jet is deflected through an angle of 165 0 . Assuming the plate is smooth. Find: i. Force exerted on the plate in the direction of jet ii. Power of the jet iii. Efficiency of the jet 8M Unit III 5. a) Define the term most economical section of a channel. What are the conditions for the rectangular channel of the best section? 8M b) A rectangular channel carries water at the rate of 400 litres/s when bed slope is 1 in 2000. Find the most economical dimensions of the channel if C = 50. 7M 6. a) Explain the following terms: i. Specific energy of a flowing liquid ii. Minimum specific energy iii. Critical depth iv. Critical velocity 8M b) The discharge of water through a rectangular channel of width 8m, is 15m 3 /s. When depth of flow of water is 1.2 m. Calculate: i. Specific energy of a flowing water ii. Critical depth and critical velocity iii. Value of minimum specific energy 7M Cont…2

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Page 1: VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERINGb) Discuss briefly the food chain and food web with neat sketches. 8M Unit –III 5. a) Explain the Municipal solid waste management practices. 8M b)

Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A1109

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

II B. Tech II Semester Supplementary Examinations, November – 2019 (Regulations: VCE-R11/R11A)

HYDRAULICS AND HYDRAULIC MACHINES (Civil Engineering)

Date: 27 November, 2019 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Write down the significance of dimensional numbers. Also explain relationships between various dimensionless numbers.

7M

b) What are the various types of similarities? Are these similarities truly attainable? If not why?

8M

2. State and explain Rayleigh method and Buckingham - theorem for the dimensional analysis with a suitable example. Also explain the advantages of using this theorem.

15M

Unit – II

3. a) Obtain an expression for the force exerted by a jet of water on an inclined fixed flat plate in the direction of the jet.

7M

b) A jet of water of diameter 7.5cm moving with a velocity of 25m/s strikes a fixed plate in such a way that the angle between the jet and plate is 600. Find the force exerted by the jet on the plate: i. In the direction normal to the plate ii. In the direction of the jet

8M

4. a) Obtain an expression for the force exerted by a jet of water on flat vertical plate moving in the direction of the jet.

7M

b) A jet of water of diameter 75mm strikes a curved plate at its centre with a velocity of 20m/s. The curved plate is moving with a velocity of 8m/s in the direction of the jet. The jet is deflected through an angle of 1650. Assuming the plate is smooth. Find: i. Force exerted on the plate in the direction of jet ii. Power of the jet iii. Efficiency of the jet

8M

Unit – III

5. a) Define the term most economical section of a channel. What are the conditions for the rectangular channel of the best section?

8M

b) A rectangular channel carries water at the rate of 400 litres/s when bed slope is 1 in 2000. Find the most economical dimensions of the channel if C = 50.

7M

6. a) Explain the following terms: i. Specific energy of a flowing liquid ii. Minimum specific energy iii. Critical depth iv. Critical velocity

8M

b) The discharge of water through a rectangular channel of width 8m, is 15m3/s. When depth of flow of water is 1.2 m. Calculate: i. Specific energy of a flowing water ii. Critical depth and critical velocity iii. Value of minimum specific energy

7M

Cont…2

Page 2: VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERINGb) Discuss briefly the food chain and food web with neat sketches. 8M Unit –III 5. a) Explain the Municipal solid waste management practices. 8M b)

:: 2 ::

Unit – IV

7. Define unit power, unit speed, unit discharge and specific speed with reference to hydraulic turbines. Derive expressions for these terms.

15M

8. a) A pelton wheel turbine id having a mean runner diameter of 1 m and is running at 1000 rpm. The net head is 100 m. If the side clearance is 20o and discharge is 0.1 m3/s. Find the power available at the nozzle and hydraulic efficiency of the turbine.

9M

b) Draw the neat sketch of the draft tube in reaction and explain briefly the working principle of the draft tube.

6M

Unit – V

9. a) Obtain the expression for the minimum speed for starting a centrifugal pump. 7M b) Define cavitation. What are the effects of cavitation? Give the necessary precautions

against cavitation.

8M

10. a) Explain characteristic curves of a centrifugal pumps. 10M b) Explain the losses of centrifugal pump. 5M

Page 3: VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERINGb) Discuss briefly the food chain and food web with neat sketches. 8M Unit –III 5. a) Explain the Municipal solid waste management practices. 8M b)

Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A1511

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

II B. Tech II Semester Supplementary Examinations, December – 2019 (Regulations: VCE-R11/R11A)

DATABASE MANAGEMENT SYSTEMS

(Common to Computer Science and Engineering & Information Technology)

Date: 02 December, 2019 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Exemplify a database management system application. List and explain the various disadvantages of using file system over database systems.

8M

b) Construct an E-R diagram for an online flower store. The customer should be able to order flowers of his/her choice to a destination on a particular date. Make all the necessary assumptions.

7M

2. a) Explain the different approaches used to classify database management systems. 8M b) List the various users of a Database Management System. What are the major functions

of a Database Administrator (DBA).

7M

Unit – II

3. a) Explain different Integrity constraints can be specified in the relational model with an example.

9M

b) With an example explain the following relational algebra operators: i. Selection ii. Projection

6M

4. a) Define Relational Algebra? List and explain different Join Operations. 7M b) Consider the following relational schema. An employee can work in more than one

department; the pcLtime field of the Works relation shows the percentage of time that a given employee works in a given department. Emp(eid: integer, ename: string, age: integer, salary: real) Works(eid: integer, did: integer, pet_time: integer) Dept(did.· integer, budget: real, managerid: integer) Write the following queries in SQL: i. Print the names and ages of each employee who works in both the Hardware

department and the Software department ii. Print the name of each employee whose salary exceeds the budget of all of the

departments that he or she works in iii. Find the managerids of managers who control the largest amounts iv. Find the enames of managers who manage only departments with budgets larger

than $1 million, but at least one department with budget less than $5 million

8M

Unit – III

5. a) Illustrate redundancy and problem that it can cause with example. 8M b) Define Normal Form. Which normal form satisfies multivalued dependency? Explain it

with an example. 7M

6. a) Give a set of FDs for the relation schema R(A,B,C,D) with primary key AB under Which R is in 2NF but not in 3NF?

5M

b) i. Describe the properties of relational decomposition ii. Discuss the rules to satisfy the following normal forms: I. 5NF II. BCNF

10M

Cont…2

Page 4: VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERINGb) Discuss briefly the food chain and food web with neat sketches. 8M Unit –III 5. a) Explain the Municipal solid waste management practices. 8M b)

:: 2 ::

Unit – IV

7. a) What is two phase protocol? How does it guarantee serializability? 8M b) How the schedules can be characterized based on serializability? Give an example. 7M 8. a) Explain threats of database. 7M b) Explain timestamp based concurrency control algorithm.

8M

Unit – V

9. a) Write short notes on indexed sequential access method (ISAM). 7M b) State how indexing in done in database management systems. 8M 10. a) State the advantages and disadvantages of storing data using the RAID method. 7M b) Write short notes on B+Trees. 8M

Page 5: VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERINGb) Discuss briefly the food chain and food web with neat sketches. 8M Unit –III 5. a) Explain the Municipal solid waste management practices. 8M b)

Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2514

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

II B. Tech II Semester Supplementary Examinations, December – 2019 (Regulations: VCE-R14)

DATABASE MANAGEMENT SYSTEMS

(Common to Computer Science and Engineering & Information Technology)

Date: 02 December, 2019 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Exemplify a database management system application. List and explain the various disadvantages of using file system over database systems.

8M

b) Construct an E-R diagram for an online flower store. The customer should be able to order flowers of his/her choice to a destination on a particular date. Make all the necessary assumptions.

7M

2. a) Explain the different approaches used to classify database management systems. 8M b) List the various users of a Database Management System. What are the major functions

of a Database Administrator (DBA).

7M

Unit – II

3. a) Explain different Integrity constraints can be specified in the relational model with an example.

9M

b) With an example explain the following relational algebra operators: i. Selection ii. Projection

6M

4. a) Define Relational Algebra? List and explain different Join Operations. 7M b) Consider the following relational schema. An employee can work in more than one

department; the pcLtime field of the Works relation shows the percentage of time that a given employee works in a given department. Emp(eid: integer, ename: string, age: integer, salary: real) Works(eid: integer, did: integer, pet_time: integer) Dept(did.· integer, budget: real, managerid: integer) Write the following queries in SQL: i. Print the names and ages of each employee who works in both the Hardware

department and the Software department ii. Print the name of each employee whose salary exceeds the budget of all of the

departments that he or she works in iii. Find the managerids of managers who control the largest amounts iv. Find the enames of managers who manage only departments with budgets larger

than $1 million, but at least one department with budget less than $5 million

8M

Unit – III

5. a) Illustrate redundancy and problem that it can cause with example. 8M b) Define Normal Form. Which normal form satisfies multivalued dependency? Explain it

with an example. 7M

6. a) Give a set of FDs for the relation schema R(A,B,C,D) with primary key AB under Which R is in 2NF but not in 3NF?

5M

b) i. Describe the properties of relational decomposition ii. Discuss the rules to satisfy the following normal forms: III. 5NF IV. BCNF

10M

Cont…2

Page 6: VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERINGb) Discuss briefly the food chain and food web with neat sketches. 8M Unit –III 5. a) Explain the Municipal solid waste management practices. 8M b)

:: 2 ::

Unit – IV

7. a) What is two phase protocol? How does it guarantee serializability? 8M b) How the schedules can be characterized based on serializability? Give an example. 7M 8. a) Explain threats of database. 7M b) Explain timestamp based concurrency control algorithm.

8M

Unit – V

9. a) Write short notes on indexed sequential access method (ISAM). 7M b) State how indexing in done in database management systems. 8M 10. a) State the advantages and disadvantages of storing data using the RAID method. 7M b) Write short notes on B+Trees. 8M

Page 7: VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERINGb) Discuss briefly the food chain and food web with neat sketches. 8M Unit –III 5. a) Explain the Municipal solid waste management practices. 8M b)

Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3010

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

II B. Tech II Semester Supplementary Examinations, November – 2019 (Regulations: VCE-R15)

ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE

(Common to Computer Science and Engineering, Information Technology, Electrical and Electronics Engineering & Mechanical Engineering)

Date: 27 November, 2019 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Explain the multidisciplinary nature of environmental science. 7M b) Explain briefly the causes and effects of soil erosion and deforestation.

8M

2. a) Discuss the effects of over grazing and modern agriculture on food resources. 7M b) Discuss the benefits and problems associated with forest resources.

8M

Unit – II

3. a) Discuss the biodiversity value in detail. 7M b) Discuss the structure and function of forest ecosystem.

8M

4. a) Enumerate the endangered species of India and discuss briefly how to protect them. 7M b) Discuss briefly the food chain and food web with neat sketches.

8M

Unit – III

5. a) Explain the Municipal solid waste management practices. 8M b) Explain in detail about global warming and Greenhouse effect with neat sketch.

7M

6. a) Define soil pollution. List out the causes and control measures to soil pollution. 9M b) Explain the reaction leading to the formation and destruction of ozone in the

stratosphere.

6M

Unit – IV

7. a) Define clean development mechanism. Explain the main objectives of clean development mechanism.

7M

b) Enumerate the advantages and disadvantages of Nano technology.

8M

8. a) Elaborate in detail about the polluter pay principle. 7M b) Explain the role of Information Technology on Environment and Human health.

8M

Unit – V

9. a) Draw and explain the flow chart of EIA methodology. 8M b) Explain the various components of Environmental Management Plan.

7M

10. a) Explain the role of NGO’s in creating awareness among people regarding environmental issues.

8M

b) Discuss the salient features of Water Act. 7M

Page 8: VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERINGb) Discuss briefly the food chain and food web with neat sketches. 8M Unit –III 5. a) Explain the Municipal solid waste management practices. 8M b)

Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3512

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

II B. Tech II Semester Supplementary Examinations, November – 2019 (Regulations: VCE-R15)

PRINCIPLES OF PROGRAMMING LANGUAGES (Computer Science and Engineering)

Date: 26 November, 2019 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) With a neat diagram explain process of compilation. 8M b) Discuss about Programming Environments.

7M

2. a) i. Write BNF notation for if-else statement. ii. Write a note on syntax and semantics.

8M

b) Define Context Free Grammar. Using the following grammar

a ss ign id exp r

id A B C

* |expr id expr id expr expr id

Show parse tree and Left most derivation for following: i. A= (A+B)*C ii. (b) A=B*(C*(A+B))

7M

Unit – II

3. a) Define Data type. Explain enum data type with proper syntax and example. 6M b) i. Define Array. With proper syntax and example explain array initialization. List the

different operations that can be performed on arrays ii. Write short note on records

9M

4. a) Define the following: i. Pointers ii. Dangling pointer iii. Reference type iv. Type checking v. Strong typing vi. Binding vii. Binding Time viii. Union ix. Associative arrays

9M

b) Define name and structure type compatibility. What are relative merits of these two?

6M

Unit – III

5. a) Explain the primary design issues for arithmetic expressions and Outline operator precedence and associativity rules for evaluation of its operators.

10M

b) Write a note on overloaded subprograms.

5M

6. a) Describe how type conversions take place in different programming languages. 8M b) Define shallow and deep binding for referencing environments of subprograms that

have been passed as parameters.

7M

Cont…2

Page 9: VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERINGb) Discuss briefly the food chain and food web with neat sketches. 8M Unit –III 5. a) Explain the Municipal solid waste management practices. 8M b)

:: 2 ::

Unit – IV

7. a) Define Abstraction? Explain abstract data types in C++. 9M b) Explain dynamic binding in small talk.

6M

8. a) Explain mechanism of semaphores to provide cooperation synchronization of tasks. 8M b) Explain threads in Java with an example.

7M

Unit – V

9. a) Explain how backtracking works in Prolog. 5M b) What are the design issues for exception handling? How exceptions are handled in C++?

Explain with an example.

10M

10. a) Discuss the two ways that ML is fundamentally different from Scheme.` 5M b) Explain about data objects in LISP. 10M

Page 10: VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERINGb) Discuss briefly the food chain and food web with neat sketches. 8M Unit –III 5. a) Explain the Municipal solid waste management practices. 8M b)

Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3513

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

II B. Tech II Semester Supplementary Examinations, November – 2019 (Regulations: VCE-R15)

FORMAL LANGUAGES AND AUTOMATA THEORY

(Common to Computer Science and Engineering & Information Technology)

Date: 28 November, 2019 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Explain different types of transition function and list the properties of transition function. 8M b) Let a NFA 0

, , ,M Q q F as shown in Fig.1 below. Find an equivalent DFA.

Fig.1

7M

2. a) Construct DFA to accept binary numbers divisible by 4. 8M b) Design NFA to accept strings with a’s and b’s such that the string end with ‘aa’:

7M

Unit – II

3. a) State Arden’s Theorem and gives the proof for the same. 7M b) Give the regular expression for the following DFA.

Fig.2

8M

4. a) Prove that L=aibi | i ≥ 0 is not regular. 8M b) Derive the regular expression for the set of all strings over a,b which contain ab as a

substring is regular.

7M

Unit – III

5. a) Is the following grammar ambiguous? Justify. S → iCtS | iCtSeS | a C → b

6M

b) Transform the grammar with productions. S → abAB A → baB | ɛ B → BAa | A | ɛ Into Chomsky Normal Form.

9M

Cont…2

Page 11: VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERINGb) Discuss briefly the food chain and food web with neat sketches. 8M Unit –III 5. a) Explain the Municipal solid waste management practices. 8M b)

::2::

6. a) State and explain decision properties of CFL. 6M b) Give the GNF grammar for the following CFG

,S A S a A SA b

9M

Unit – IV

7. a) Prove that equivalence of acceptance by final state and empty stack. 7M b) Construct NPDA for the language

L = | , 0n m m n

a b c n m

8M

8. a) Explain different steps to find PDA corresponding to a given CFG. 8M b) Construct a PDA that accepts L = 0n 1n | n ≥ 0.

7M

Unit – V

9. Design Turing machine for the language.

| , , 1, i j k

L a b c i j k i k j

15M

10. a) Show that “Post Correspondence Problem is un-decidable”. 8M b) Write about Universal Turing machine. 7M

Page 12: VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERINGb) Discuss briefly the food chain and food web with neat sketches. 8M Unit –III 5. a) Explain the Municipal solid waste management practices. 8M b)

Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3514

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

II B. Tech II Semester Supplementary Examinations, November – 2019 (Regulations: VCE-R15)

SOFTWARE ENGINEERING (Computer Science and Engineering)

Date: 29 November, 2019 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Define software. Do you think the characteristics of software are different from those of hardware? Justify.

7M

b) What is a software process? Elaborate on the activities that establish a process framework.

8M

2. a) Justify the waterfall model as a systematic sequential approach. 7M b) Discuss on the phases of unified process of a software model.

8M

Unit – II

3. a) What is Agile Process? Briefly explain. 7M b) Briefly describe Scrum Process.

8M

4. a) Briefly explain Adaptive Software Development (ASD). 8M b) What are the Human Factors involved in Agile Software Development team.

7M

Unit – III

5. a) Explain the differences between Functional and Non-Functional Requirements. 8M b) What do you mean by Requirement Validation? Explain in detail.

7M

6. a) Show that the scenario-based modeling helps to achieve user-satisfaction in interacting with a system.

8M

b) What do you mean by Requirement Analysis? What are the requirement modeling which can be expected as an outcomes of Requirement Analysis?

7M

Unit – IV

7. a) Analyze the dimensions of the design model. Discuss on the elements of the design model.

7M

b) Explain Data Centered and Layered Architecture.

8M

8. a) Explain the Golden Rules of User Interface Design. 7M b) Identify the implementation issues in software engineering process.

8M

Unit – V 9. a) Illustrate the unit testing strategy of conventional software. 7M b) Evaluate the various techniques of system testing in a computer-based system.

8M

10. a) Elaborate on the significance of debugging process and its strategies. 7M b) Identify the elements of software quality assurance and its management. 8M

Page 13: VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERINGb) Discuss briefly the food chain and food web with neat sketches. 8M Unit –III 5. a) Explain the Municipal solid waste management practices. 8M b)

Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3515

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

II B. Tech II Semester Supplementary Examinations, November – 2019 (Regulations: VCE-R15)

OPERATING SYSTEMS (Common to Computer Science and Engineering & Information Technology)

Date: 30 November, 2019 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Explain the dual-mode operation in operating system with a neat diagram. 7M b) Define an operating system. List and explain operating system services. 8M 2. a) Classify the various types of system calls. 8M b) Demonstrate the following commands with options:

i. For interactive copying ii. To rename a file iii. To delete a file

7M

Unit – II

3. a) Explain monitor solution for dining philosopher problem.

9M

b) Process Execution Time(ms) Priority Arrival Time (ms)

P1 10 2 0

P2 4 1 2

P3 6 3 0

With the help of a Gantt chart compare priority (Non-preemptive) scheduling with priority (preemptive) scheduling.

6M

4. a) With a neat diagram explain the contents of PCB, explain the need for PCB. 7M b) Demonstrate the following system calls with syntax:

msgrcv() shmget() shmctl() semctl()

8M

Unit – III

5. a) Consider the deadlock problem and write an overview about: i. Resource allocation graph ii. Deadlock prevention

8M

b) Consider a resource allocation system that uses the Bankers algorithm for 3 resource types (A, B, C) and 5 users (P0, P1, P2, P3, P4) is currently in the following state. (Alloc: Resources held by each user. Max need of each user, Reev: ongoing request of each user, Avail: free resources):

Allocation Max Reev Available

A B C A B C A B C

P0 0 1 0 7 5 3 3 3 2

P1 2 0 0 3 2 2

P2 3 0 2 9 0 2

P3 2 1 1 2 2 2

P4 0 0 2 4 3 3

Is the state safe? -If Yes is your answer, give time sequence of process ID’s that loads to all the processes completed. -If your answer is NO, give a sequence of activities that results in a deadlock state.

7M

Cont…2

Page 14: VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERINGb) Discuss briefly the food chain and food web with neat sketches. 8M Unit –III 5. a) Explain the Municipal solid waste management practices. 8M b)

::2::

6. a) Illustrate paging concept in memory management with a neat diagram. 8M b) Given page reference string:

1, 2, 3, 4, 2, 1, 5, 6, 2, 1, 2, 3, 7, 6, 3, 2, 1, 2, 3, 6 compare the number of faults for LRU & FIFO algorithm for frame size 3.

7M

Unit – IV

7. a) Explain the following: i. File attributes ii. File operations

8M

b) Demonstrate SCAN and SSTF Scheduling with suitable examples.

7M

8. a) Describe the structure of tertiary storage structure. 8M b) Explain with example grep, head, tail, find commands.

7M

Unit – V

9. a) What is a protection domain? Discuss ways in which a domain can be realized. 9M b) A password may become known to other users in a variety of ways. Is there a simple

method for detecting that such event has occurred? Justify your answer.

6M

10. a) Discuss goals and principles of protection. 5M b) Discuss the stages of implementing security defenses. 10M

Page 15: VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERINGb) Discuss briefly the food chain and food web with neat sketches. 8M Unit –III 5. a) Explain the Municipal solid waste management practices. 8M b)

Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3516

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

II B. Tech II Semester Supplementary Examinations, December – 2019 (Regulations: VCE-R15)

DATABASE MANAGEMENT SYSTEMS

(Computer Science and Engineering)

Date: 02 December, 2019 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Exemplify a database management system application. List and explain the various disadvantages of using file system over database systems.

8M

b) Construct an E-R diagram for an online flower store. The customer should be able to order flowers of his/her choice to a destination on a particular date. Make all the necessary assumptions.

7M

2. a) Explain the different approaches used to classify database management systems. 8M b) List the various users of a Database Management System. What are the major functions

of a Database Administrator (DBA).

7M

Unit – II

3. a) Explain different Integrity constraints can be specified in the relational model with an example.

9M

b) With an example explain the following relational algebra operators: iii. Selection iv. Projection

6M

4. a) Define Relational Algebra? List and explain different Join Operations. 7M b) Consider the following relational schema. An employee can work in more than one

department; the pcLtime field of the Works relation shows the percentage of time that a given employee works in a given department. Emp(eid: integer, ename: string, age: integer, salary: real) Works(eid: integer, did: integer, pet_time: integer) Dept(did.· integer, budget: real, managerid: integer) Write the following queries in SQL: i. Print the names and ages of each employee who works in both the Hardware

department and the Software department ii. Print the name of each employee whose salary exceeds the budget of all of the

departments that he or she works in iii. Find the managerids of managers who control the largest amounts iv. Find the enames of managers who manage only departments with budgets larger

than $1 million, but at least one department with budget less than $5 million

8M

Unit – III

5. a) Illustrate redundancy and problem that it can cause with example. 8M b) Define Normal Form. Which normal form satisfies multivalued dependency? Explain it

with an example. 7M

6. a) Give a set of FDs for the relation schema R(A,B,C,D) with primary key AB under Which R is in 2NF but not in 3NF?

5M

b) i. Describe the properties of relational decomposition ii. Discuss the rules to satisfy the following normal forms: III. 5NF IV. BCNF

10M

Cont…2

Page 16: VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERINGb) Discuss briefly the food chain and food web with neat sketches. 8M Unit –III 5. a) Explain the Municipal solid waste management practices. 8M b)

:: 2 ::

Unit – IV

7. a) What is two phase protocol? How does it guarantee serializability? 8M b) How the schedules can be characterized based on serializability? Give an example. 7M 8. a) Explain threats of database. 7M b) Explain timestamp based concurrency control algorithm.

8M

Unit – V

9. a) Write short notes on indexed sequential access method (ISAM). 7M b) State how indexing in done in database management systems. 8M 10. a) State the advantages and disadvantages of storing data using the RAID method. 7M b) Write short notes on B+Trees. 8M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3213

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

II B. Tech II Semester Supplementary Examinations, November – 2019 (Regulations: VCE-R15)

PRINCIPLES OF ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING (Electronics and Communication Engineering)

Date: 28 November, 2019 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Define the coefficient of coupling and find its relation with L1, L2and M. 7M b) Define Self and Mutual Inductance and obtain the relation between them.

8M

2. a) Define and explain Faradays laws. 8M b) Derive the expression for energy stored in an inductor.

7M

Unit – II

3. a) Analyze the transient response in RC series circuit having DC excitation 9M b) Find the current in a series RL circuit having R=2Ω and L= 10H, while a dc voltage of 100V

is applied. What is the value of this current after 5 seconds of switching on?

6M

4. a) Explain the transient response in RL series circuit having DC excitation 6M b) In a series RLC circuit R=5Ω, L=1Hand C=1F. A dc voltage of 20V is applied at t=0. Obtain

i(t).

9M

Unit – III

5. a) Explain in detail any two speed control methods of DC shunt motor. 9M b) A 4 pole DC generator running at 1500rpm has an armature with 90 slots having 6

conductors per slot. The flux per pole is 6x10-2Wb. Determine the induced emf if the coils are lap connected. If the armature current is 100A, determine the electrical power output of the machine.

6M

6. a) Explain Swinburne’s test. 6M b) Explain the types of dc motor. A 6 pole lap wound shunt motor has 500 conductors in the

armature. The resistance of armature is 0.05Ω. The resistance of shunt field is 25Ω. Find the speed of the motor when it takes 120A from dc mains of 100V supply. Flux per pole is 2x10-2Wb.

9M

Unit – IV

7. a) Obtain the emf equation for a single phase transformer. 8M b) A 25 kVA, single-phase transformer has 500 turns on the primary and 40 turns on the

secondary winding. The primary is connected to 3000 V, 50 Hz supply. Calculate: i. Primary and Secondary currents on full-load ii. The secondary emf iii. The maximum flux in the core

7M

8. a) Derive the condition for which the efficiency of transformer is maximum. 7M b) In a 25 kVA, single-phase transformer 2000/200V transformer has the iron and copper

losses are 350W and 400W respectively. Calculate the efficiency at full load and 0.8 power factor lagging.

8M

Unit – V

9. a) What is slip? Derive expression for slip and frequency of rotor currents. 8M b) A 3-phase, 4-pole, 400 V, 50 Hz induction motor runs with a speed of 1440 rpm. Calculate

its slip.

7M

10. a) A 3-phase, 6 pole, 50Hz Induction motor has frequency of rotor current at full-load of 1.8Hz. Find the synchronous speed and slip at full-load.

8M

b) Prove that the frequency of the induced emf in the rotor of an induction motor is slip times its stator supply frequency.

7M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3410

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

II B. Tech II Semester Supplementary Examinations, November – 2019 (Regulations: VCE-R15)

ELECTROMAGNETICS AND TRANSMISSION LINES (Electronics and Communication Engineering)

Date: 27 November, 2019 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) State and explain Coulomb’s law in vector form and also obtain expression for electric field for N number of point charges.

7M

b) Charges of 20nC and are located at (3, 0, 0) and (-3, 0, 0) respectively. Let 0.

Determine 0, , 0E at P y

8M

2. a) Derive expression for electric field intensity at any point due to infinite line charge using Gauss’s Law.

7M

b) Two parallel conducting discs are separated by distance 5mm at z=0 and z=5mm. If V=0 at z=0 and V=100V at z=5mm, find the charge densities on the discs.

8M

Unit – II

3. a) Apply Biot Savarts law to obtain expression for the magnetic field intensity of an

infinitely long straight filament carrying a direct current I along the z-axis.

8M

b) A solenoid of 200 turns wound tightly on a cylindrical tube of length 60cm and of diameter 6cm, given that medium is air. Find the inductance. Derive the formula used.

7M

4. a) State and prove Ampere’s circuital Law, list out its applications. 8M b) Explain briefly magnetic scalar and vector potential. Let A=(3y-z)ax + 2xzayWb/m in

certain region of free space. Find B and Hat point P(2,-1, 3).

7M

Unit – III

5. a) Obtain the differential and integral form of Amperes circuital law in time varying field. 8M b) In a material for which σ=5S/m and εr=1, the electric field intensity is E=250 sin1010t

V/m. Find the conduction and displacement current densities and the frequency at which both have equal amplitudes.

7M

6. a) Derive the expression for tangential and normal components of electric field intensity and electric flux density at the boundary between conductor and free space.

8M

b) An electric field of strength 3V/m in air enters a dielectric. The orientation of electric fields with respect to boundary in air and dielectric are 30 and 60 respectively. Find the relative permittivity of the dielectric. Also find the electric field strength in the dielectric.

7M

Unit – IV

7. a) State and prove poynting theorem. 7M b) A lossy dielectric is characterized by εr=2.5, µr=4 and σ=10-3 mho/m at a frequency

10MHz. Find: i. Attenuation constant ii. Phase constant iii. Velocity of propagation iv. Wavelength v. Intrinsic impedance

8M

Cont…2

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::2::

8. a) Derive wave parameters for good conducting medium. 7M b) State and Prove Brewster Angle.

8M

Unit – V

9. a) Derive the general voltage and current equations at any point on a transmission line. 7M b) A 300Ω line is terminated by unknown impedance. VSWR is 4.48 and the first voltage

minimum is situated at 6cm from the termination when the frequency is 200MHz. Using smith Chart Determine the unknown impedance if the line is in air.

8M

10. a) Explain Standing waves and standing wave ratio. 7M b) In a certain microwave transmission line, the characteristic impedance was measured

to be 210 at an angle 100Ω and the propagation constant 0.2 at an angle 780. Determine the primary constants of the line, if the frequency of operation is 1GHz.

8M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3411

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

II B. Tech II Semester Supplementary Examinations, November – 2019 (Regulations: VCE-R15)

PULSE AND DIGITAL CIRCUITS

(Electronics and Communication Engineering)

Date: 30 November, 2019 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Describe high pass RC circuit as differentiator. 7M b) Explain critical, under and over damping in RLC circuit.

8M

2. a) Illustrate the low pass RC circuit for ramp input with equations and waveform. 7M b) Analyze the function of ringing circuit with equations.

8M

Unit – II

3. a) Explain how diode can be used as a switch. Write the Piece wise linear characteristics of a diode.

7M

b) State the clamping circuit theorem and analyze the practical clamping circuit.

8M

4. a) Explain the working of single level series clipper clipping below reference voltage, with relevant schematic, characteristic equations and transfer characteristics.

8M

b) Draw one negative clamper and one positive clamper circuit with corresponding output waveforms. Explain.

7M

Unit – III

5. a) Explain the steps involved in designing fixed bias bistable multivibrator. 7M b) Illustrate the working principle of Monostable multivibrator with neat circuit.

8M

6. a) Analyze the working of direct connected binary. List its advantages and disadvantages. 7M b) Describe Astable collector coupled multivibrator with neat circuit and waveforms.

8M

Unit – IV

7. a) Briefly explain the methods for generating time base waveforms. 7M b) Describe Miller and Bootstrap time base generators and compare them.

8M

8. a) Discuss the general features of time base signal. 7M b) Write the methods for linearity improvement.

8M

Unit – V

9. a) With schematic, explaining the working of bidirectional gates using transistors. 7M b) Describe the realization of OR, AND and NOT gate using diode and transistors.

8M

10. a) What is sampling scope? Explain the same with neat block diagram. 8M b) Compare TTL and CMOS logic families. 7M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3508

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

II B. Tech II Semester Supplementary Examinations, November – 2019 (Regulations: VCE-R15)

COMPUTER ORGANIZATION AND ARCHITECTURE

(Common to Information Technology & Electronics and Communication Engineering)

Date: 26 November, 2019 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Explain multi processor and multi computer. 7M b) Show and explain the block diagram for the register transfer operation as shown.

2 2 1: .T R R

8M

2. a) With a neat diagram explain basic functional units of computers. 8M b) Write a note on error detection codes.

7M

Unit – II

3. a) Illustrate flow chart for instruction cycle. 7M b) What is the need for a RISC processor? List characteristics of a RISC machine. 8M 4. a) With a neat diagram explain control unit of basic computer. 8M b) List and explain different types of instruction format.

7M

Unit – III

5. a) With a block diagram, explain the selection of address for control memory. 7M b) Explain the microinstruction format with an example. 8M 6. a) Illustrate addition and subtraction using 2’s compliment. 7M b) Drive an algorithm is flowchart form for addition and subtraction using 1’s compliment.

8M

Unit – IV

7. a) With a block diagram explain the synchronous DROM. 7M b) Explain ROM, PROM, EPROM and EEPROM. 8M 8. a) What is a secondary storage? Explain with an example. 9M b) With concept, explain DMA.

6M

Unit – V

9. a) Discuss briefly Dynamic arbitration algorithms. 10M b) With concept explain cache coherence. 5M 10. Write a note on:

i. Crossbar switch ii. Hyper cube inter connection iii. Daisy chain arbitration

15M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3601

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

II B. Tech II Semester Supplementary Examinations, November – 2019 (Regulations: VCE-R15)

WEB TECHNOLOGIES

(Information Technology)

Date: 29 November, 2019 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Explain tags related to tables and discuss with examples. 8M b) What do you understand by common tags? Give examples.

7M

2. a) Show the construction of dynamic html with the involvement of JavaScript. 8M b) List and explain the different types of style sheets with examples.

7M

Unit – II

3. a) Discuss how PHP scripts establish connection with database? Give three valid examples. 8M b) What are the different operators and control structures in PHP?

7M

4. a) Differentiate DOM and SAX parsers. 8M b) Give an example to perform operations on associative arrays by constructing PHP scripts.

7M

Unit – III

5. a) Explain different types of beans with suitable examples. 9M b) List out the Advantages of Java Beans.

6M

6. a) Write a Servlet program to set and read the cookies on any web browser. 7M b) Explain the lifecycle of Servlet. 8M

Unit – IV

7. a) What are the different tags used in JSP? Explain with examples. 8M b) Differentiate Servlet and JSP.

7M

8. a) List and explain implicit objects of JSP. 7M b) Build a JSP Script to retrieve the information from Oracle database.

8M

Unit – V

9. a) Write about database Driver manager class and list the commonly used methods of the driver manager class.

8M

b) Create a simple CURD application using javax.sql.*.

7M

10. a) Discuss the properties and methods of XMLHttpRequest object. 8M b) Explain the process of sending request to server using AJAX with an example. 7M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3602

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

II B. Tech II Semester Supplementary Examinations, December - 2019 (Regulations: VCE-R15)

COMPUTER GRAPHICS (Information Technology)

Date: 02 December, 2019 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) List the input devices and Discuss any Four of them. 8M b) Explain the basic working principles of cathode ray tube along with neat sketch.

7M

2. a) Illustrate the difference between LCD and LED. 8M b) Compare raster scan systems and random scan systems with appropriate sketches.

7M

Unit – II

3. a) Explain the procedure for boundary fill algorithm. 8M b) Explain the flood fill algorithm and write a recursive procedure for implementing the flood

fill algorithm.

7M

4. a) Explain the steps in Midpoint Circle algorithm. 7M b) Write DDA line drawing algorithm and illustrate the algorithm with end points (20, 10)

and (30, 18).

8M

Unit – III

5. a) Write steps for Cohen-Sutherland line clipping algorithm. 7M b) Illustrate basic two dimensional geometric transformations.

8M

6. a) Define clipping? And types of clipping. 7M b) Explain in detail about window to viewport coordinate transformation.

8M

Unit – IV

7. a) Explain the steps required to perform 3D rotation about an arbitrary axis. 8M b) Discuss the perspective projection and parallel projection.

7M

8. a) Write the structure of general three dimensional transformation viewing pipeline. 8M b) Explain 3D scaling with the help of any example.

7M

Unit – V

9. a) Explain the depth sorting method for solving the hidden surface problem. 8M b) Write short note on general computer animation functions and Raster animations.

7M

10. a) Explain the steps in generation of animation sequence. 7M b) Explain the back face detection algorithm and list the difference between object space

methods and image space methods in visible surface detection methods. 8M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3011

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

II B. Tech II Semester Supplementary Examinations, December – 2019 (Regulations: VCE-R15)

MANAGERIAL ECONOMICS AND FINANCIAL ANALYSIS

(Common to Electronics and Communication Engineering & Mechanical Engineering)

Date: 02 December, 2019 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Explain the law of demand and its expectations. 8M b) In what way managerial economics helps in decision making for managers. 7M 2. a) What do you mean by elasticity of demand? Briefly explain the different types of

elasticity of demand. 9M

b) Briefly explain the types of demand.

6M

Unit – II

3. a) Discuss the concept of isocost and isoquant and also explain the features of isoquant. 8M b) Discuss the laws of production. 7M 4. a) List and explain various types of cost. 10M b) List the limitations of break even analysis.

5M

Unit – III

5. a) Bring out the differences between monopoly and monopolistic competition. 8M b) List the various features of oligopoly. 7M 6. a) What do you mean by peak load pricing? List out the features of peak load pricing and

based on the present market conditions quote some examples of peak load pricing. 8M

b) What are the objectives that have to be kept in mind while pricing a product?

7M

Unit – IV

7. a) Industrial Concerns require large amount of working capital to run their business based on what factors they determine the need of working capital.

8M

b) What do you mean by capital budgeting? Why it is important for every business? 7M 8. ABC Ltd. has under consideration two mutually exclusive proposals for the purchase of new

equipment initially costing machine A-2,00,000 and machine B-1,50,000.

Year Machine A –CI Machine B -CI PV@10%

1 45,000 33,000 .909

2 50,000 35,000 .826

3 55,000 37,000 .751

4 45,000 30,000 .683

5 40,000 31,000 .621

Calculate: i. Payback period ii. Net present value

15M

Cont…2

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Unit – V 9. a) Compare journal and ledger. 6M b) Prepare trial balance from the following ledger balances:

Particulars Rs. Particulars Rs.

Capital account 28,000 Carriage 1500

Stock of goods 10,000 Purchases 15000

Motor cars 8,000 Furniture 5000

Discount received 400 Wages 8200

Bad debts 400 Sundry creditors 6500

Sales 40000 Commission received 600

Cash at bank 4000 Returns outwards 1000

Returns inwards 2000 Debtors 200

Cash in hand 6000 Sundry Expenses 300

Rent 3500 Interest received 200

Discount allowed 300 Advertisement 500

Salaries 2800 Plant and machinery 9000

9M

10. a) Describe liquidity, activity and profitability ratios. 7M b) Following is the trading and p/l a/c of Mica for the year ended 31.12.2018.

Particulars Rs. Particulars Rs.

To opening stock 1,00,000 By sales 5,60,000

To purchases 3,50,000 By closing stock 1,00,000

To wages 9,000

To gross profit 2,01,000

6,60,000 6,60,000

To admin.exp 20,000 By gross profit b/d 2,01,000

To selling exp 89,000 By interest on investment

10,000

To financial exp 30,000 By profit on sale of assets

8,000

To net profit 80,000

2,19,000 2,19,000

Calculate: i. Gross profit ratio ii. Net profit ratio iii. Stock turnover ratio iv. Financial expenses to sales Ratio

8M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3110

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

II B. Tech II Semester Supplementary Examinations, November – 2019 (Regulations: VCE-R15)

HYDRAULICS AND HYDRAULIC MACHINES (Civil Engineering)

Date: 27 November, 2019 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Differentiate between: i. Steady and unsteady flow ii. Laminar and turbulent flow

10M

b) With the help of neat sketch arrive at Chezy’s equation for uniform flow in open channel.

5M

2. a) Provide classification of type of flows based on any four conditions. 8M b) Water flows at a uniform depth of 2.5m in a trapezoidal channel having a bottom width

of 6m, side slope of 2 horizontal to 1 vertical. If it has to carry a discharge of 50m3/s, compute the bottom slope required to be provided. Take Manning’s N as 0.025.

7M

Unit – II

3. a) State and explain the Buckinghams theorem. How are the repeating variables selected in dimensional analysis?

8M

b) What are the methods of dimensional analysis? Describe the Raylighs method of dimensional analysis.

7M

4. a) Explain different types of forces acting in moving fluid. 7M b) Define the following non dimensional number. What are the significances for fluid flow

problems: i. Froude number ii. Weber number

8M

Unit – III

5. a) Obtain an expression for the forced exerted by a jet of water on a fixed curved plate and moving inclined plate.

8M

b) A jet of water from nozzle is deflected through 600 from original direction of a curved plate which it enters tangentially without shock with a velocity of 30m/s and leaves with a mean velocity of 5m/s, if the decrease from the nozzle is 0.8kg/s, calculate the magnitude and direction of the resultant force on the vane, if the vane is stationary.

7M

6. a) Discuss the various heads and efficiencies of a turbine. 7M b) A jet of water of diameter 10cm strikes a flat plate with a velocity 40 m/s. the normal of

vane is inclined at 450 to the axis of the jet. Find the pressure force on the plate in the direction of jet: i. When the plate is stationary ii. When the plate is moving with a velocity of 18 m/s away from the jet Also determine the power and efficiency of the jet when the plate is moving.

8M

Unit – IV

7. a) Define unit quantities of a turbine. Discuss the uses of unit quantities. 8M b) A water turbine has a velocity of 5m/s at the entrance to the draft-tube and a velocity of

1.2m/s at the exit. For friction losses of 0.12m and a tail water 5m below the entrance to the draft-tube, find the pressure head at the entrance.

7M

Cont…2

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8. a) What is specific speed? State its significance in the study of hydraulic turbine. 7M b) A comical draft tube having diameter at the top as 2m and pressure head at 7m of water

(vacuum), discharges water at the outlet with a velocity of 1.2m/s at the rate of 25m3/s. If atmospheric pressure head is 10.3m of water and losses between the inlet and outlet of the draft tubes are negligible, find the length of draft tube immersed in water. Total length of tube is 5m.

8M

Unit – V

9. a) Define the following terms: i. Load factor ii. Utilization factor iii. Capacity factor

6M

b) The internal and external diameter of an impeller of a centrifugal pump which is running at 1200r.p.m., are 200mm and 400mm respectively. The discharge through pump is 0.03m3/s and velocity of flow is constant which is equal to 2m/s. the diameters of the suction and delivery pipes are 150mm and 100mm respectively and suction and delivery heads are 5m (abs.) and 25m (abs.) of water respectively. If the outlet vane angle is 450 and power required to drive the pump is 15kW, determine the following: i. Vane angle of the impeller at inlet ii. Overall efficiency of the pump iii. Manometric efficiency of the pump

9M

10. a) With respect to centrifugal pumps, explain the following: i. Priming ii. Manometric head iii. Multistage pumps

8M

b) The diameters of an impeller of a centrifugal pump at inlet and outlet are 20cm and 50cm respectively. The velocity of flow at outlet is 2m/s and the vanes are set back at an angle of 450 at the outlet. Determine the minimum starting speed of the pump if the manometric efficiency is 70%.

7M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3211

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

II B. Tech II Semester Supplementary Examinations, November – 2019 (Regulations: VCE-R15)

ELECTRICAL MACHINES-II

(Electrical and Electronics Engineering)

Date: 30 November, 2019 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) With a neat phasor diagram explain how induction motor can be considered as a generalized transformer.

9M

b) The stator of a 3Φ induction motor has 3slots/pole/phase. If the supply frequency is 50Hz, Calculate: i. The number of stator poles produced and total number of slots in stator ii. Speed of the rotating stator flux or magnetic field

6M

2. a) Derive the relationship between: i. Full load torque and maximum torque ii. Starting torque and maximum torque

7M

b) The power input to a 500 V, 50 Hz, 6P, 3Φ induction motor running at 975 rpm is 40kW. The stator losses are 1kW and the friction and windage loss total 2kW. Calculate: i. Slip ii. Rotor copper loss iii. Shaft power iv. Efficiency

8M

Unit – II

3. a) With a neat diagram explain the principle of operation of an induction generator. 8M b) Explain the working of star-delta starter highlighting the effect of starting currents.

7M

4. a) State and Explain the various method of speed control of 3-phase IM. 8M b) A 110V, 3Φ, star connected induction motor takes 25A at a line voltage of 30V with the

rotor locked. With this line voltage, power input to motor is 440W and core loss is 40W. The dc resistance between a pair of stator terminals is 0.1Ω. If the ratio of ac to dc resistance is 1.6, find the equivalent leakage reactance/phase of the motor and the stator and rotor resistance/phase.

7M

Unit – III

5. a) With relevant diagram differentiate between the rotors of salient pole and non salient pole alternators.

8M

b) A 3-phase, 8-pole, 750rpm star connected alternator has 72 slots on the armature, each slot has 12 conductors and winding is short chorded by 2 slots. Find the induced emf between the lines, given the flux per pole is 0.06wb.

7M

6. a) For salient pole synchronous machine, neglecting the effect of armature resistance, derive an expression for power developed as a function of load angle.

8M

b) A 5kva, 220V, star connected 3-phase salient pole alternator with direct and quadrature axis reactances of 12ohm and 7 ohm respectively, delivers full load current at unity power factor. Calculate the excitation voltage, neglecting resistance.

7M

Cont…2

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Unit – IV

7. a) Explain dark lamp method for synchronization of alternators.

7M

b) What is the effect of change of excitation and mechanical power input on parallel operation?

8M

8. a) Write a brief note on the variation of armature current and power factor with excitation in a synchronous motor.

8M

b) Explain the theory of operation of a synchronous motor.

7M

Unit – V

9. a) Explain double field revolving theory. 8M b) With relevant diagram explain the operational features and working of a capacitor start

and run motor.

7M

10. a) Explain the principle of permanent magnet machines. 8M b) What are stepper motors? Explain their working and mention some applications. 7M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3212

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

II B. Tech II Semester Supplementary Examinations, November – 2019 (Regulations: VCE-R15)

CONTROL SYSTEMS

(Electrical and Electronics Engineering)

Date: 28 November, 2019 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Distinguish between open loop and closed loop control system. Give any one example for each.

6M

b) Write the differential equations describing the system in Fig.1. Find transfer function

2y s

F s.

Fig.1

9M

2. a) Define feedback control. Differentiate between positive and negative feedback systems with appropriate examples.

8M

b) Write the torque equations of the given rotational system shown in Fig.2. Find the

Transfer function

2.

s

T s

Fig.2

7M

Unit – II

3. a) Reduce the block diagram shown in Fig.3 below and find C/R using block diagram techniques.

Fig.3

7M

b) Find the overall transfer function of a field controlled DC servomotor. 8M

Cont…2

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:: 2 ::

4. a) Find the transfer function C(s)/R(s) for the signal flow graph shown in Fig.4 below

Fig.4

8M

b) What is a synchro? With the aid of a schematic diagram, explain the salient features of a synchro transmitter.

7M

Unit – III

5. a) A unity feedback control system is characterized by closed loop transfer function with

characteristic equation 26 2 5 0S S . Find the percentage overshoot and settling time

for a unit step input.

7M

b) Explain about static error constant Kp, Kv, and Ka. 8M 6. a) Given a unity feedback control system with G(s)=50/s(s+5), find the percentage overshoot

and settling time for a unit step input. Also find the steady state error for an input defined by the polynomial provide below r(t)=2 + 4t + 6t2, t ≥ 0.

7M

b) Sketch the root locus plot for a closed loop system having an open loop transfer function as follows

8M

Unit – IV

7. a) Explain in detail frequency domain specifications. 7M

b) For a unity feedback system 1 21 1

KG S

S S T S T

, draw the polar plot.

8M

8. a) State and explain nyquist stability criteria. 6M b) Access the stability of system with G(s)H(s)=100(1+5s)/s4(1+s) use nyquist criteria. 9M

Unit – V

9. a) Define: i. State model ii. State variable iii. State space

6M

b) Evaluate the state model for the system described by the transfer function as

9M

10. a) Write properties of state transition matrix. 8M b) Obtain a state transition matrix for the following system.

7M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3405

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

II B. Tech II Semester Supplementary Examinations, November – 2019 (Regulations: VCE-R15)

SIGNALS AND SYSTEMS

(Electrical and Electronics Engineering)

Date: 26 November, 2019 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Determine whether the following signals are periodic or not, if periodic find fundamental period:

i. j n

x n e

ii. 5 0 .2x n cos n

iii. 2

co s3

x n n

iv. 3

co s co s3 4

x n n n

8M

b) i. Prove that 2

a a

a o

x t d t x t d t

of x t is even and 0 ,

a

a

x t d t

of x t is

odd

ii. Determine whether the system 2

y t x t is linear, time in variant, causal and

stable.

7M

2. a) Sketch the wave forms for the following signals:

i. 3 2 1 2 1 3x t u t u t u t u t

ii. 2 1 1 2x t r t r t r t r t

7M

b) Convolute the two continuous time signals given below:

i. 2

1

tutx e t

ii. 2 2x t u t

8M

Unit – II

3. a) For each of the systems, check whether the system is linear, time variant and casual:

i. 10logy n x n

ii. 3

y n x n

7M

b) Define step response of an LTI system. Find the same for the following systems:

i. h t t u t

ii. /1

t R C

h t e u tR C

8M

4. a) State and prove the properties of correlation function. 7M b) Find the exponential Fourier series for the triangular signal shown Fig.1 and sketch the

spectrum.

Fig.1

8M

Cont…2

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:: 2 ::

Unit – III

5. a) State and prove the following properties as applicable to Fourier transform: i. Linearity ii. Time reversal

8M

b) Find the Fourier transform of the function

2 t

x t te u t

7M

6. a) Discuss the filter characteristics of LTI systems. 7M b) Determine the Fourier transform of the following signals:

i. 1x t

ii. 2 2

1, 0x t a

a t

8M

Unit – IV

7.

a) Find the Laplace transform and RoC of 2 / 2

.t t

f t e u t e u t

7M

b) Find the inverse Laplace transform of the function.

3

1 0

2 8

SY S

S S

8M

8. a) Define Region of Convergence in Laplace transform? Discuss the properties of the same 7M b) Find the inverse Laplace transform of

2

3 2

4 6

2

SX S

S S

8M

Unit – V

9.

a) State and explain sampling theorem.

7M b) Specify the Nyquist’s rate and Nyquist’s intervals for each of the following signals:

i. 200g t S in t

ii. 200g t S inc t

8M

10. a) Find the Z-transform for the following sequences:

i. n

x n na u n

ii. 4

) 2(an

x n u n

8M

b) Find the inverse Z-transform of X z by using partial fraction expansion approach.

143

1)(

2

zz

zzX ; : 1R oC z

7M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3412

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

II B. Tech II Semester Supplementary Examinations, November – 2019 (Regulations: VCE-R15)

ANALOG COMMUNICATIONS (Electronics and Communication Engineering)

Date: 29 November, 2019 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Explain the demodulation of DSBSC wave using coherent detection method. 7M b) An audio frequency signal 10 sin 2 500 t volts is used to amplitude modulate a carrier of

5

5 0 s in 2 1 0 t volts. Assume modulation index = 0.2. Find the following:

i. Sideband frequencies ii. Amplitude of each side band frequencies iii. Bandwidth required

8M

2. a) Explain the generation of AM wave using square law modulator with relevant mathematical analysis.

8M

b) Evaluate the effect of phase and frequency errors in DSBSC using synchronous detection.

7M

Unit – II

3. a) Provide a detailed time domain expression of SSB-SC wave. 8M b) Consider a composite wave obtained by adding a non coherent carrier

cos 2c c

A f t to a DSB-SC wave m t cos 2c

f t . This composite wave is applied

to an envelope detector. Find the resulting detector output. Evaluate this output for

0 and ||m(t) << Ac/2.

7M

4. a) What is multiplexing? Describe the process of frequency division multiplexing. 8M b) Using the message signal m(t) = t/(1+t2), obtain the mathematical expression for AM wave

when the percentage modulation is 50%.

7M

Unit – III

5. a) Show that the spectrum of the FM wave contains infinite side bands. 10M b) An angle modulated signal is defined by

6

1 0 co s 2 1 0 0 .2 s in 2 0 0 0 .S t t t V o lts Find the following:

i. The power in the modulated signal ii. The frequency deviation Δf iii. Phase deviation iv. The approximate transmission bandwidth

5M

6. a) Explain the working of balanced frequency discriminator for demodulation of FM wave. 9M b) A carrier of frequency 106Hz and amplitude 3 volts is frequency modulated by a

sinusoidal modulating signal of frequency 500Hz and of peak amplitude 1 volt. The frequency deviation is 1kHz. The level of modulating signal is changed to 5 volts peak and the modulating frequency is changed to 2kHz. Write the expression for the new modulated waveform.

6M

Cont…2

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Unit – IV

7. a) Explain generation and demodulation of PWM wave. 7M b) Derive the expression for Figure of merit of SSBSC receiver system.

8M

8. a) Describe mathematically the process of signal reconstruction using the concept of flat top sampling

8M

b) The carrier reaching an envelope detector in an AM receiver has an RMS value equal to 1V in the absence of modulation. The noise at the input of the envelope detector has a PSD equal to 10-3w/Hz. If the carrier is modulated to a depth of 100% and the message bandwidth W = 3.2 KHz, find [SNR]o.

7M

Unit – V

9. a) With neat block diagram, explain the working of Superheterodyne receiver. 8M b) In a broadcast Superheterodyne receiver having no RF amplifier, the loaded Q of the

antenna coupling circuit at the input to the mixer is 100. If the intermediate frequency is 455 kHz, calculate: i. The image frequency and its rejection ratio at 1000 kHz ii. The image frequency and its rejection ratio at 25 MHz

7M

10. a) Explain the radio receiver characteristics. 8M b) With neat block diagram, explain the functioning of FM transmitter. 7M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A1410

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

II B. Tech II Semester Supplementary Examinations, November – 2019 (Regulations: VCE-R11/R11A)

ELECTROMAGNETIC THEORY AND TRANSMISSION LINES (Electronics and Communication Engineering)

Date: 27 November, 2019 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) State and explain Coulomb’s law in vector form and also obtain expression for electric field for N number of point charges.

7M

b) Charges of 20nC and are located at (3, 0, 0) and (-3, 0, 0) respectively. Let 0.

Determine 0, , 0E at P y

8M

2. a) Derive expression for electric field intensity at any point due to infinite line charge using Gauss’s Law.

7M

b) Two parallel conducting discs are separated by distance 5mm at z=0 and z=5mm. If V=0 at z=0 and V=100V at z=5mm, find the charge densities on the discs.

8M

Unit – II

3. a) Apply Biot Savarts law to obtain expression for the magnetic field intensity of an infinitely

long straight filament carrying a direct current I along the z-axis.

8M

b) A solenoid of 200 turns wound tightly on a cylindrical tube of length 60cm and of diameter 6cm, given that medium is air. Find the inductance. Derive the formula used.

7M

4. a) State and prove Ampere’s circuital Law, list out its applications. 8M b) Explain briefly magnetic scalar and vector potential. Let A=(3y-z)ax + 2xzayWb/m in certain

region of free space. Find B and Hat point P(2,-1, 3).

7M

Unit – III

5. a) Obtain the differential and integral form of Amperes circuital law in time varying field. 8M b) In a material for which σ=5S/m and εr=1, the electric field intensity is E=250 sin1010t V/m.

Find the conduction and displacement current densities and the frequency at which both have equal amplitudes.

7M

6. a) Derive the expression for tangential and normal components of electric field intensity and electric flux density at the boundary between conductor and free space.

8M

b) An electric field of strength 3V/m in air enters a dielectric. The orientation of electric fields with respect to boundary in air and dielectric are 30 and 60 respectively. Find the relative permittivity of the dielectric. Also find the electric field strength in the dielectric.

7M

Unit – IV

7. a) State and prove poynting theorem. 7M b) A lossy dielectric is characterized by εr=2.5, µr=4 and σ=10-3 mho/m at a frequency

10MHz. Find: i. Attenuation constant ii. Phase constant iii. Velocity of propagation iv. Wavelength v. Intrinsic impedance

8M

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Cont…2

::2::

8. a) Derive wave parameters for good conducting medium. 7M b) State and Prove Brewster Angle.

8M

Unit – V

9. a) Derive the general voltage and current equations at any point on a transmission line. 7M b) A 300Ω line is terminated by unknown impedance. VSWR is 4.48 and the first voltage

minimum is situated at 6cm from the termination when the frequency is 200 MHz. Using smith Chart Determine the unknown impedance if the line is in air.

8M

10. a) Explain Standing waves and standing wave ratio. 7M b) In a certain microwave transmission line, the characteristic impedance was measured to

be 210 at an angle 100Ω and the propagation constant 0.2 at an angle 780. Determine the primary constants of the line, if the frequency of operation is 1GHz.

8M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3210

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

II B. Tech II Semester Supplementary Examinations, December - 2019 (Regulations: VCE-R15)

POWER SYSTEM GENERATION (Electrical and Electronics Engineering)

Date: 02 December, 2019 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) With a neat diagram describe the elements of a hydroelectric power station. 8M b) Write a brief note on the concept of pumped storage and comment on their storage

requirements.

7M

2. a) Write a brief note on the different types of energy sources and efficiency in their use. 7M b) What is a mass curve, Explain its significance in estimation of power developed from a

given catchment area?

8M

Unit – II

3. a) Differentiate between boilers and super heaters. Highlight their functions. 8M b) How is the efficiency of a thermal power plant computed? Explain briefly.

7M

4. a) Draw a line diagram of a thermal power station and show the different paths. 7M b) Write brief notes on the following:

i. Economizers ii. Flue gases iii. Condensers iv. Cooling towers

8M

Unit – III

5. a) Describe the principle of operation and components of a gas power station. 8M b) What are the criteria that should be kept in mind before selecting a site for nuclear power

plants?

7M

6. a) Differentiate between PWR, BWR and FBR. 9M b) What are the shielding and safety precautions that are to be considered in a nuclear

power plant?

6M

Unit – IV

7. a) Explain main and transfer bus bar system with relevant diagrams. 7M b) Differentiate between air insulated and gas insulated substations.

8M

8. a) Draw the single line diagram of a gas insulated substation and explain the various parts. 9M b) Differentiate between indoor and outdoor substations.

6M

Unit – V

9. a) Define the following terms: i. Demand factor ii. Load factor iii. Plant capacity factor iv. Plant use factor

8M

b) A 1000MW power station delivers 1000MW for 2 hours, 500MW for 6 hours and is shut down for the rest of each day. It is also shot down for maintenance for 60 days annually. Calculate its annual load factor.

7M

Cont…2

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:: 2 ::

10. a) What is tariff? Explain two-part tariff and maximum demand tariff. 8M b) A generating station has the following data.

Installed capacity = 500 MW Capacity factor = 45% Annual load factor = 60% Annual cost of fuel, oil etc = Rs.10X107 Capital cost = 109 Annual interest and depreciation = 15% Calculate: i. The minimum reserve capacity of the station ii. The cost per kWh generated

7M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3313

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

II B. Tech II Semester Supplementary Examinations, November – 2019 (Regulations: VCE-R15)

BASIC MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

(Electrical and Electronics Engineering)

Date: 29 November, 2019 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Define Thermodynamics? Distinguish between: i. Intensive and extensive properties ii. Macroscopic and Microscopic approach iii. Homogeneous and heterogeneous systems

8M

b) A reversible heat engine operates between reservoirs at constant temperatures of 6000C and 250C. The engine drives a reversible heat pump which operates between 250C and -150C. The heat transfer to the engine is 500KJ. Evaluate: i. Net heat transfer to the reservoir at 250 ii. Efficiency iii. COP of the heat pump

7M

2. a) State and explain first law of Thermodynamics for closed system undergoing a noncyclic process. And prove that internal energy is property of the system

7M

b) A reversible engine operates between temperatures of T1 and T (T1>T). The energy rejected by this engine is received by a second reversible engine at the same temperature T. The second engine rejects heat to a sink at T2 (T2<T): i. Show that the temperature T is the athematic mean of T1 and T2 if both the engines

produce the same amount of work ii. Show that T is the geometric between T1 and T2 if both the engines have same

thermal efficiency

8M

Unit – II

3. a) With a neat sketch, explain working of differential U-tube manometer and derive relation for measuring pressure difference between two pipes.

7M

b) A stone weighs 392.4N in air and 196.2N in water. Compute the volume of stone and its specific gravity.

8M

4. a) Derive Bernoulli’s equation and state the assumptions made. 8M b) A vertical cylinder of diameter 180mm rotates concentrically inside another cylinder of

diameter 181.2mm. Both the cylinders are of 300mm high. The space between the cylinders is filled with a liquid whose viscosity is unknown. Determine the viscosity of the fluid if the torque of 20Nm is required to rotate the inner cylinder at 120rpm.

7M

Unit – III

5. a) Give a complete classification of hydraulic turbines. 6M b) A double jet pelton-wheel is required to generate 7500KW when the available head at

the base of the nozzle is 400m. The jet is deflected through 1650 and the relative velocity of the jet is reduced by 15% in passing over the buckets. Determine: i. The diameter of each jet ii. Total flow iii. Force exerted by the jets in the tangential direction. Assume generator efficiency is

95%, overall efficiency as 80% and speed ratio as 0.47

9M

Cont…2

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:: 2 ::

6. a) Explain the functions of a draft tube. 6M b) An inward flow reaction turbine has a runner of 0.5m diameter and 7.5cm wide. The

inner diameter is 0.35m. The effective area of flow is 93% of the gross area and the flow velocity is constant. The guide vane angle is 230, inlet vane angle is 930 and the outlet vane angle is 300. Calculate the speed, so that the water enters without shock and the power from supply head of 60m. Assume hydraulic friction losses 10% and mechanical efficiency is 94%. What is the specific speed of the machine?

9M

Unit – IV

7. a) Sketch the velocity triangles at inlet and outlet for a centrifugal pump with radial inlet with: i. Forward curved ii. Radial iii. Backward curved vanes

9M

b) Derive the expression for Net Positive Suction Head. 6M 8. A centrifugal pump with an impeller outer diameter of 1.05m runs at 1000rpm. The blades

are backward curved and they make an angle of 200 with the wheel tangent at the blade tip. If the radial velocity of flow at the tip is 8m/s and the slip co-efficient is 0.86, find: i. The actual work input/kg of water flow ii. The absolute velocity of fluid at the impeller tip iii. The hydraulic efficiency, considering the K.E at the outlet is wasted If the pump is fitted with a diffusion chamber with an efficiency of 0.75, so that the exit velocity is reduced to 5m/s, find the new hydraulic efficiency.

15M

Unit – V

9. Derive the one dimensional steady state heat conduction equation in cartesian co-ordinates. 15M 10. a) Discuss the following:

i. Thermal contact resistance ii. Critical thickness of insulation iii. Overall heat transfer coefficient

6M

b) A 0.8m high and 1.5m wide double-pane window consists of two 4mm thick layers of glass (k= 78W/mK) separated by a 10mm wide stagnant air space (k= 0.026W/mK). Determine the rate of heat transfer through this window and the temperature of the inside surface, when the room is maintained at 200C and the outside air is at -100C. Take the convective heat transfer coefficients on the inside and the outside surfaces of the windows are 10 and 40 W/m2K respectively.

9M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3314

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

II B. Tech II Semester Supplementary Examinations, November – 2019 (Regulations: VCE-R15)

THERMAL ENGINEERING-I (Mechanical Engineering)

Date: 28 November, 2019 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) What are the important basic components of an IC engine? Explain them briefly. 8M b) Give a comparison between two stroke and four stroke I.C engines.

7M

2. a) Explain the various variables which affect the volumetric efficiency of an I.C engine. 7M b) With neat sketch explain the working principle of four stroke spark ignition engine.

8M

Unit – II

3. a) Explain the various factors that influence the flame speed. 8M b) Explain the effect of various engine variables on SI engine knock.

7M

4. a) What is delay period and what are the factors that affect it? 7M b) Explain the phenomenon of knock in CI engines and compare it with SI engine knock.

8M

Unit – III

5. a) Explain the principle involved in the measurement of brake power. 6M b) A four stroke cycle gas engine has a bore of 20cm and a stroke of 40cm. The compression

ratio is 6.In a test on the engine the indicated mean effective pressure is 5 bar, the air to gas ratio is 6:1 and the calorific value of the gas is 12 MJ/m3 at NTP. At the beginning of the compression stroke the temperature is 770C and pressure 0.98 bar. Neglecting residual gases, determine the indicated power, the thermal efficiency and the relative efficiency of the engine at 250rpm.

9M

6. a) Define mean effective pressure and and distinguish between brake mean effective pressure and indicated mean effective pressure.

8M

b) A gasoline engine working on four stroke develops a brake power of 20.9 KW. A Morse test was conducted on this engine and the brake power (KW) obtained when each cylinder was made inoperative by short circuiting the spark plug are 14.9, 14.3, 14.8 and 14.5 respectively. The test was conducted at constant speed. Find the indicated power, mechanical efficiency and bmep when all the cylinders are firing. The bore of the engine is 75mm and the stroke is 90mm. The engine is running at 3000rpm.

7M

Unit – IV

7. a) When is multi-stage compression used for air? What are its advantages? Explain effect of intercooling in a multi-stage reciprocating air compressor.

7M

b) A two-stage air compressor with perfect intercooling takes in air at 1 bar and 270C. The law of compression in both stages is PV1.2=Constant. The compressed air is delivered at 9 bar. Calculate the unit mass flow rate of air, the minimum work done and the heat rejected in the intercooler. Compare the values if compression is carried out in single stage compressor.

8M

Cont…2

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8. a) In a two stage air compressor, in which inter-cooling is perfect, prove that the work

done in compression is a minimum when the pressure in the intercooler is the geometric mean between initial and final pressures.

9M

b) A multi-stage reciprocating air compressor is to be designed to elevate pressure from 1 bar to 100 bar such that stage pressure ratio is not to exceed 4. Determine: i. No. of stages ii. Exact stage pressure ratio iii. Intermediate pressure

6M

Unit – V

9. a) What is slip and slip factor? Derive an expression for the same. 7M b) A centrifugal compressor runs at 15000rpm and produces stagnation pressure ratio of 4

between the impeller inlet and outlet. The stagnation conditions of air at the compressor intake are 1bar and 250C respectively. The absolute velocity at the compressor intake is axial. If the compressor has radial blades at the exit such that the relative velocity at the exit = 135m/s, and the total to total efficiency of the compressor is 0.78. Draw the velocity triangles at the exit of the rotor and compute the slip as well as the slip coefficient. Rotor diameter at the outlet is 58cm.

8M

10. a) Draw velocity triangle at the entry and exit for the axial compressor stage. 6M b) A single stage axial flow compressor with no inlet guide vanes but a row of stationary

vanes after the rotor runs at 3600rpm. The rotor hub and tip diameter are 20cm and 12.5cm respectively. The mass flow rate of air is 0.5kg/s. The turning angle of the rotor is 200 towards the axial direction during the air flow over the blade. If the atmospheric temperature and pressure are 250C and 1 atm respectively, assuming constant axial velocity through the machine, find: i. The total pressure rise of the air if ƞtt= 0.9 ii. The power required iii. The degree of reaction

9M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3316

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

II B. Tech II Semester Supplementary Examinations, November – 2019 (Regulations: VCE-R15)

HYDRAULIC MACHINES (Mechanical Engineering)

Date: 26 November, 2019 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Obtain an expression for the force exerted by a jet on a stationary vertical plate. 7M b) A jet of water of diameter 50mm moving with a velocity of 40 m/s, strikes a curved fixed

symmetrical plate at the centre. Find the force exerted by the jet of water in the direction of the jet if the jet is deflected through an angle of 120o at the outlet of the curved plate?

8M

2. a) Obtain an expression for the force exerted by the force on vertical moving plate. 6M b) A nozzle of 50mm diameter delivers a stream of water at 20m/s perpendicular to a plate

that moves away from the jet at 5 m/s. Find: i. Force on the plate ii. Work done iii. Efficiency of the jet

9M

Unit – II

3. a) Define hydraulic turbine and Write the classification of hydraulic turbine. 7M b) Show that when runner blade angle at in let of a francis turbine is 90o and the velocity of

flow is constant, the hydraulic efficiency is given by 2/2+tan2α, where α is the flow angle at inlet.

8M

4. a) What is the purpose of draft tube? List any two types of draft tubes with sketches. 6M b) Design a Pelton wheel to run under a head of 60 m at 200 rpm while the discharge

available is 200lit/s. Assume overall efficiency to be 85%, coefficient of velocity to be 0.98 and speed ratio is 0.46.

9M

Unit – III

5. a) Define unit head, unit speed, unit power and specific speed for turbine? 6M b) A turbine is designed to produce 30 MW running at a speed of 150rpm under a head of

18m. To evaluate its performance, a model is made to operate under a head of 4m running at a speed of 6000 rpm. The model was found to give an overall efficiency of 0.86. Find the flow rate through the model and the prototype turbine. Also find the ratio of their sizes?

9M

6. a) Derive an expression for discharge through a single acting reciprocating pump. 7M b) A double acting reciprocating pump is pumping water. The diameter of the piston is

250mm, piston rod diameter is 50mm, piston stroke is 380mm. The suction and delivery heads are 4.5m and 18.6m respectively. Find the work done by the piston during outward stroke. Would the work done change for the inward stroke?

8M

Cont…2

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Unit – IV

7. a) Show that the work done expression for the centrifugal pump is equal to ‘Vw2u2’ by considering the energy equation?

7M

b) A centrifugal pump delivers 50 lit/sec against a total head of 24 m when running at 1500 rpm. The velocity of flow is maintained constant at 2.4 m/sec and blades are curved back at 30o to the tangent at outlet. The inner diameter is half the outer diameter. If the manometric efficiency is 80 %. Determine: i. Blade angle at inlet ii. Power required to drive the pump

8M

8. a) What is priming? Why it is necessary for a centrifugal pump? 7M b) The diameters of an impeller of a centrifugal pump at inlet and outlet are 30 cm and 60

cm respectively. The velocity of flow at outlet is 2 m/s and the vanes are set back at an angle of 45o at the outlet. Determine the minimum starting speed of the pump if the manometric efficiency is 70%.

8M

Unit – V

9. a) With the help of sketch, discuss the hydraulic intensifier. 8M b) The diameters of fixed ram and fixed cylinder of an intensifier are 8cm and 20cm

respectively. If the pressure of the water supplied to the fixed cylinder is 300 N/cm2, find the water pressure flowing through the fixed ram.

7M

10. a) Explain the working of a hydraulic ram. 8M b) A hydraulic lift is required to lift a load of 8kN through a height of 10m, once in every 80

seconds. The speed of the lift is 0.5m/s. Determine: i. Power required to drive the shaft ii. Working period of lift in seconds iii. Idle period of the lift in seconds

7M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3317

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

II B. Tech II Semester Supplementary Examinations, November – 2019 (Regulations: VCE-R15)

KINEMATICS OF MACHINERY (Mechanical Engineering)

Date: 30 November, 2019 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Sketch and explain different types of kinematic pairs. 10M b) Derive an expression for correct steering in motor car.

5M

2. a) Explain construction and working of Whitworth quick return motion mechanism with neat diagram.

9M

b) With the help of a schematic sketch, explain the first inversion of four-bar chain, the beam engine.

6M

Unit – II

3. Sketch and explain the following mechanisms: i. Paucellier ii. Grashoppers mechanism

15M

4. In the toggle mechanism shown in Fig.1 the slider D is connected to move on a horizontal path. The crank OA is rotating in the counter clockwise direction at a speed of 180rpm, increasing at a rate of 50rad/s2. The dimensions of the various links are as follows: OA=180mm, CB=240mm, AB=360mm and BD=540mm. For the given configuration find Velocity of slider D and angular velocity of BD Acceleration of slider D and angular acceleration of BD

Fig.1

15M

Unit – III

5. The crank of a slider crank mechanism is 15 cm and the connecting rod is 60cm long. The crank makes 300rpm in the clockwise direction. When it has turned 45˚ from inner dead centre position, determine: i. Acceleration of the mid-point of the connecting rod ii. Angular acceleration of the connecting rod

15M

6. a) Two shafts with an included angle of 160o are connected by a Hook’s joint. The driving shaft runs at uniform speed of 1500rpm. The driven shaft carries a flywheel of mass 12kg and 100mm radius of gyration. Find the maximum angular acceleration of the driven shaft and maximum torque required.

8M

b) A double universal joint is used to connect two shafts in the same plane. The intermediate shaft is inclined at angle of 20o to the driving shaft as well as the driven shaft. Find the maximum and minimum speed of the intermediate shaft and driven shaft if the driving shaft has constant speed of 500rpm.

7M

Cont…2

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Unit – IV

7. A cam with a minimum radius of 25mm is to be designed for a knife edged follower with the following data. To raise the follower through 35mm during 60˚ rotation of the cam; dwell for the next 40˚ of the cam rotation; descending of the follower during the next 90˚ of the cam rotation; dwell for the remaining period. Draw the profile of the cam if the ascending and descending of the follower undergoes with simple harmonic motion and the line of stroke of the follower is passing through the axis of the cam shaft. Also determine the maximum velocity and acceleration of the follower during out-strokes and return stroke when the cam rotates at 150rpm.

15M

8. a) Derive the expression for maximum power transmitted through belt drive. 7M b) A leather belt is required to transmit 75kW from a pulley 1.2m in diameter running at

250rpm. The angle embraced is 165o and the coefficient of friction between the belt and the pulley is 0.3. If the safe working stress for the leather belt is 1.5MPa, density of leather is 1Mg/m3 and thickness of belt 10mm, determine width of belt taking centrifugal tension into account.

8M

Unit – V

9. a) With neat sketches explain various types of gears used for transmission of motion between parallel shafts.

10M

b) Write short notes on the phenomena of interferences in involute gear profile.

5M

10. The annulus gear A in a gear train shown in Fig.2, rotates at 300 rpm about the axis of fixed wheel S which has 80 teeth. The three-armed spider is driven at 180rpm. Determine the number of teeth required on wheel P.

Fig.2

15M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3108

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

II B. Tech II Semester Supplementary Examinations, November – 2019 (Regulations: VCE-R15)

STRENGTH OF MATERIALS-II (Civil Engineering)

Date: 28 November, 2019 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Evaluate the stiffness of a closed coil helical spring subjected to an axial pull W. 8M b) Distinguish between close coiled springs and open coiled springs also list any five

functions of the spring.

7M

2. a) Derive the strength and stiffness equation for a circular shaft subjected to torsion. 5M b) A closely coiled helical spring made of steel wire 10mm diameter has 20 coils of 100mm

mean diameter. The spring is subjected to an axial load of 110N. Calculate the maximum shear stress induced deflection of spring, stiffness of spring, strain energy stored. Take G= 0.8x105MPa.

10M

Unit – II

3. a) Derive the formula of Euler’s buckling load of a column with both ends hinged. 7M b) A hollow cast iron column fixed at both ends is 6m long. If the external diameter is 20cm

and the thickness of the metal is 2.5cm. Find the maximum allowable axial load on it. Use Rankine’s formula and factor of safety 5. σc=560MPa, Rankine’s constant with hinged end = 1/1600.

8M

4. Explain the effective length of a column with different end conditions and also list the assumptions made in Euler’s theory.

15M

Unit – III

5. A 20 m high masonry chimney is 2metres square at the base and tapers to 1 square metre at the top. The tapered central flue is circular in cross section. If the total weight of the brick work above the base is 1300kN find for what uniform intensity of wind pressure on one face of the chimney the stress distribution across the base just ceases to be wholly compressive.

15M

6. How does the neutral axis deviate from the centroidal axis of a section in curved beams?

15M

Unit – IV

7. A cantilever of I section 2m long is subjected to load of 250kN at the free end. Determine the resulting bending stress at the corners of top flange on the fixed section of the cantilever. Top and bottom flanges 30x2.5mm, web 45x2mm.

15M

8. Determine the position of the shear center of a symmetrical I section. Top flange 180x40mm;

web 320x20mm, bottom flange 180x40mm.

15M

Unit – V

9. a) Derive the volumetric strain is the sum of twice the hoop strain and longitudinal strain. 7M b) A thin cylindrical shell 2m long has 200mm diameter and thickness of metal 10mm. It is

filled completely with a fluid at atmospheric pressure of 180N/mm2. Find the circumferential stress and longitudinal stress developed. Take E=200GPa.

8M

10. Derive an expression or thick cylinder – lame’s theory. 15M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3111

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

II B. Tech II Semester Supplementary Examinations, November - 2019 (Regulations: VCE-R15)

BUILDING PLANNING AND DRAWING (Civil Engineering)

Date: 30 November, 2019 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Explain and mention the limitations of built up area. 8M b) What is Floor area ratio? Explain with examples.

7M

2. a) Explain the objectives of buildings bye laws. 7M b) Explain the need of restriction for Height of a building.

8M

Unit – II

3. a) Explain the characteristics of various types of Residential building. 8M b) Explain the salient features of planning Kitchen.

7M

4. a) Explain the planning of Educational class room. 8M b) Explain the minimum standards of Bank office.

7M

Unit – III

5. Briefly explain the CPM and PERT with neat sketch.

15M

6. a) Explain the time estimates in detail. 7M b) List the advantage and limitations of a CPM. 8M

Unit – IV

7. Draw to a suitable scale, elevation and section of a paneled and glass door of suitable size.

15M

8. a) Draw to a suitable scale Details of Fixed Ventilator. 7M b) Draw the plan and elevation of a corner of a one and half brick wall thick in Flemish

bond.

8M

Unit – V

9. For the line diagram shown in Fig.1, draw the plan, elevation. Assume suitable dimensions for foundations and others etc.

Fig.1

15M

Cont…2

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:: 2 ::

10. For the line diagram shown in Fig.2 draw the plan, elevation. Assume suitable dimensions for

foundations and others etc.

Fig.2

15M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3112

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

II B. Tech II Semester Supplementary Examinations, December - 2019 (Regulations: VCE-R15)

SURVEYING-II (Civil Engineering)

Date: 02 December, 2019 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Explain with a neat illustration the method of measuring horizontal angles using the method of reiteration.

7M

b) The table below gives the lengths and bearings of the lines of a traverse ABCDE the lengths and bearing of EA having been omitted. Calculate the length and bearing of the line EA.

Line Length(m) Bearing

AB 204.0 87O30’

BC 226.0 20O20’

CD 187.0 280O0’

DE 192.0 210O3’

EA ? ?

8M

2. a) Define the following terms: i. The line of collimation ii. Swinging of the telescope iii. Normal position of telescope iv. Changing face

8M

b) Explain with a neat illustration the fundamental lines of a transit theodolite and their desired relations.

7M

Unit – II

3. a) Derive an expression for the distance and elevation formula for an inclined line of sight with the staff held vertical.

7M

b) A tacheometer is set up at an intermediate point on a traverse line PQ and the following observations were made on a vertically held staff.

Staff station Vertical angle Staff intercept Axial hair readings

P +8O36’ 2.350 2.105

Q +6O6’ 2.055 1.895

The instrument is fitted with an annalactic lens and the constant is 100. Compute the length PQ and the RL of Q if RL of P is 321.50m.

8M

4. a) Derive an expression for the elevation of an object when the base is inaccessible and the instrument stations are not in the same vertical plane as the elevated object.

7M

b) To determine the elevation of the top Q of a hill, a flag-staff of 2m height was erected and observations were made from two stations P and R 60m apart. The horizontal angle measured at P between R and the top of the flag-staff was 60o30’ and that measured at R between the top of the flag-staff and P was 68o18’. The angle of elevation to the top of the flag staff P was measured as 10o12’ at P. The angle of elevation to the top of flag-staff was measured to be 10o48’ at R. Staff readings on B.M. when the instrument was at P=1.965m and that with the instrument at R=2.055m. Calculate the elevation of the top of the hill if that of B.M. 435.065m.

8M

Cont…2

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Unit – III

5. a) Derive elements of a simple curve. 8M b) Carry out necessary calculations to set a simple curve by Rankine’s method given R=200m,

external deflection angle as 400, chainage of intersection point is 4583.8m. Take chord length as 30m.

7M

6. a) With a help of a sketch, explain the element of a compound curve along with equations. 7M b) What are different types of curves? Describe the suitability of each type of curve along

with sketches.

8M

Unit – IV

7. a) What is a reverse curve, describe the situations where reverse curves becomes necessary and what are different types of reverse curves?

7M

b) Describe the criteria for calculating the length of vertical curves and what are the different formulas used to calculate the length of vertical curves.

8M

8. a) Describe different modifications of an ideal transition curve. Explain the assumptions made to calculate the horizontal and vertical co-ordinates.

7M

b) A downgrade of 1.2% is followed by an upgrade of 2.4%. The R L of intersection is 60m and chainage is 360m. A vertical parabolic curve of 120m long is to be introduced to connect the two grades. A peg interval of 15m. Calculate the elevations of the curve by tangent corrections.

8M

Unit – V

9. a) Explain briefly the method of measuring angle using a total station. 7M b) List the advantages of GIS technology.

8M

10. a) Define the term modulation and briefly explain the methods adopted in modulation in an EDM.

7M

b) With an illustration explain how reduced level is obtained using a total station. 8M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3315

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

II B. Tech II Semester Supplementary Examinations, November – 2019 (Regulations: VCE-R15)

PRODUCTION TECHNOLOGY-I (Mechanical Engineering)

Date: 29 November, 2019 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) What is riser? Point out function of riser. 5M b) How solidification happens in pure metals and alloys describe with illustration?

10M

2. a) Analyze the process of investment casting and state its application. 5M b) Explain the construction and operation of Cupola.

10M

Unit – II

3. a) Explain briefly different types of welds and welded joints. 8M b) What is welding? How do you classify welding processes?

7M

4. a) Explain with a neat sketch the working principle of Gas welding. 7M b) With neat sketches explain briefly the working principle of forge and resistance welding.

8M

Unit – III

5. a) With a neat sketches the working principle of friction and induction welding. 7M b) What are the advantages and limitations of welding process?

8M

6. a) Briefly discuss the cause and remedies of welding process. 7M b) Explain the working principle of oxy-acetylene gas cutting process.

8M

Unit – IV

7. a) Differentiate between cold working and hot working process. 8M b) Describe the concept of Planetary roll mill and cluster roll mill with illustration.

7M

8. a) Enlighten the following processes: i. Stain hardening ii. Recrystallisation iii. Grain growth

9M

b) Analyze forging defects with and state its remedies to the same.

6M

Unit – V

9. a) Distinguish between hot and cold extrusion process. 7M b) What are the advantages and limitations of extrusion process?

8M

10. a) What is the concept of forward and backward extrusion explains with illustration? 8M b) List out the properties of plastics with its application. 7M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A1014

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

II B. Tech II Semester Supplementary Examinations, December – 2019 (Regulations: VCE-R11/R11A)

PROBABILITY AND STATISTICS (Mechanical Engineering)

Date: 02 December, 2019 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit-I

1. a) A committee of 4 persons is to be appointed from 3 officers of the production department, 4 officers of the purchase department, two officers of the sales department and 1 charted accountant. Find the probability of forming the committee in the following manner: i. There must be one from each category ii. It should have at least one from the purchase department iii. The chartered accountant must be in the committee.

8M

b) A problem in statistics is given to three students A, B and C whose chances of solving it are 1/3, 1/4 and 1/5 respectively. Find the probability that the problem will be solved if they all try independently.

7M

2. a) The odds that A speaks the truth are 3 : 2 and the odds that B speaks the truth are 5 : 3. In what percentage of cases are they likely to contradict each other on an identical point?

8M

b) The probability that a contractor will get a plumbing contract is 2/3, and the probability that he will not get an electric contract is 5/9. If the probability of getting at least one contract is 4/5, what is the probability that he will get both the contracts?

7M

Unit – II

3. a) The mean and variance of a binomial variable with parameters n and p are 16 and 8. Find:

i. )1( xp

ii. )2( xp

7M

b) Find the mean and standard deviation of a normal distribution in which 7% of items are under 35 and 89% are under 63.

8M

4. a) If the mean of breaking strength of copper wire is 575lbs, with a standard deviation of 8.3lbs. How large a sample must be used in order that there will be one chance in100 that the mean breaking strength of the sample is less than 572lbs.

8M

b) Let 1, 5, 6, 8s find the probability distribution of the sample mean for random

sample of size 2 drawn without replacement.

7M

Unit-III

5. a) The mean yield of wheat from a district A was 210 lbs. with S.D. = 10 lbs. per acre from a sample of 100 plots. In another district B, the mean yield was 220 lbs. with S. D. = 12 lbs. from a sample of 150 plots. Assuming that the standard deviation of the yield in the entire state was 11 lbs., test whether there is any significant difference between the mean yield of crops in the two districts.

7M

b) In a big city 325 men out of 600 men were found to be smokers. Does this information support the conclusion that the majority of men in this city are smokers? α = 0.05.

8M

Cont…2

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6. a) The subject under investigation is the measure of dependence of Tamil on words of

Sanskrit origin. One newspaper article reporting the proceedings of the constituent assembly contained 2025 words of which 729 words were declared by literacy critic to be of Sanskrit origin. A second article by the same author describing atomic research contained 1600 words of which 640 words were declared by the critic to be of Sanskrit origin. Assuming that simple sampling conditions hold, estimate the limits for the proportion of Sanskrit words in the writer’s vocabulary and examine whether there is any significant difference in the dependence of this writer on words of Sanskrit origin in writing the two articles. Take α = 0.05.

7M

b) A radio shop sells, on an average, 200 radios per day with a standard deviation of 50 radios. After an extensive advertising campaign, the management will compute the average sales for the 25 days to see whether an improvement has occurred. Assume that the daily sales of radios are normally distributed: i. Write down the null and the alternative hypothesis ii. Test the hypothesis at 5% level of significance if X = 216

iii.

8M

Unit – IV

7. a) A random sample of size 16 has 53 as mean. The sum of squares of deviations from mean is 150. Can this sample be regarded as taken from the population having 56 as mean? Also obtain 95% confidence limits for the mean.

8M

b) The mean weekly sale of soap bars in departmental stores was 146.3 bars per store. After an advertising campaign the mean weekly sales in 22 stores for a typical week increased to 153.7 and showed a standard deviation of 17.2. Was the advertising campaign successful?

7M

8. a) In one sample of 8 observations, the sum of the squares of deviations of the sample values from the sample mean was 84.4 and in the other sample of 10 observations it

was 102.6. Test whether this difference is significant at 5 per cent point of F for 1

7n

and 1

9n degrees of freedom is 3.29.

7M

b) It is known that the mean diameters of rivets produced by two firms A and B are practically the same but the standard deviations may differ. For 22 rivets produced by firm A, the standard deviation is 2.9mm, while for 16 rivets manufactured by firm B, the standard deviation is 3.8mm. Compute the statistic you would use to test whether the products of firm A have the same variability as those of firm B and test its significance.

8M

Unit – V

9. a) A self service canteen employs one cashier at its counter. 8 customers arrive per every 10 min on an average. The cashier can serve on average one per minute. Assume that arrivals are Poisson and the service time distribution is exponential. Determine: i. Average number of customers in the system ii. Average queue length iii. Average time a customer spends in the system

8M

b) The mean rate of arrivals of planes of an airport during the peak period is 20 hours. The number of arrivals in any hour follows a Poisson distribution. When there is congestion the planes are forced to fly over the field in the stack awaiting the landing of other planes that arrive earlier. 60 planes per hour can land in good weather and 30 planes per hour can land in bad weather: i. How many planes would be flying over the field in the stack on an average in good

weather and in bad weather ii. How long a plane would be in the stack in the process of landing in good and bad

weather

7M

Cont…3

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10. a) A car park contains 5 cars. The arrival of cars is Poisson with a mean rate of 10 per hour. The length of time each car spends in the car park has negative exponential distribution with mean of 2 hours. How many cars arte in the car park on average and what is the probability of a newly arriving customer finding the car park full and having to park his car elsewhere?

8M

b) A one person barber shop has six chairs to accommodate people waiting for haircut. Assume that customers who arrive when all the six chairs are full leave without entering the shop. Customers arrive at the average rate of 3per hour and spend an average of 15min for service. Find: i. The probability that a customer can get directly into the barber chair upon arrival. ii. Expected number of customers waiting for a hair cut.

7M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A1215

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

II B. Tech II Semester Supplementary Examinations, November - 2019 (Regulations: VCE-R11/R11A)

ELECTRICAL TECHNOLOGY (Common to Mechanical Engineering, Aeronautical Engineering & Civil Engineering)

Date: 26 November, 2019 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Sketch the speed – armature current and torque – armature current characteristics of DC shunt and series motors.

6M

b) Obtain the expression for emf generated in a DC generator. A 4 pole wave connected armature has 51 slots with 12 conductors per slot and is driven at 900 rpm. If the useful flux per pole is 25mWb, find the value of generated emf.

9M

2. a) With the help of a single turn coil and a magnet, explain the principle of operation of DC generator.

7M

b) A 220V shunt motor has armature and field resistance of 0.2Ω and 220Ω respectively. The motor is driving a constant load torque and running at 1000rpm drawing 10A current from the supply. Calculate the new speed and armature current if an external armature resistance of value 5Ω is inserted in the armature circuit.

8M

Unit – II

3. a) Sketch equivalent circuit of a single phase transformer under no load and load condition and explain a test to obtain no load equivalent circuit of transformer

8M

b) A transformer has 1200 primary turns and 200 secondary turns. The primary and secondary resistances are 0.2 and 0.02Ω respectively and the corresponding leakage reactance are 1.2 and 0.05Ω respectively. Calculate: i. The equivalent resistance, reactance and impedance referred to the primary winding ii. The phase angle of the impedance

7M

4. a) What are the different losses in a transformer? On what factors do they depend? How are they minimized?

8M

b) A 125KVA transformer has primary voltage of 2000V at 60Hz. Primary turns are 182 and secondary turns are 40. Calculate neglecting losses: i. No – load secondary voltage ii. Full – load primary and secondary current iii. Flux in core

7M

Unit – III

5. a) Give the construction differences between squirrel cage and slip ring induction motor and its advantages over each other.

8M

b) The power input to a 500V, 50Hz, 6 pole, 3-phase squirrel cage induction motor running at 975rpm is 40KW. The stator losses are 1KW and the friction and winding losses are 2KW. Calculate: i. Slip ii. Rotor copper loss iii. The efficiency

7M

6. a) Explain the working principle of star delta starter with circuit diagram. 8M b) A 440V, 50Hz, 6 pole, 3-phase induction motor draws an input power of 76KW from the

mains. The rotor emf makes 120 complete cycles per minute. Its stator losses are 1KW and rotor current per phase is 62A. Calculate: i. Rotor copper losses per phase ii. Rotor resistance per phase iii. Torque developed

7M

Cont…2

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Unit – IV

7. a) Explain how do you find the regulation of an alternator by synchronous impedance method.

8M

b) Find the no load phase and line voltage of a star connected 3-phase, 6 pole alternator which runs at 1200rpm, having flux per pole of 0.1wb sinusoidally distributed. Its stator has 54 slots having double layer winding. Each coil has 8 turns and the coil is chorded by 1 slot.

7M

8. a) Derive an equation for the voltage induced in an alternator and the applications of different types of alternators.

8M

b) A 3-phase, star connected alternator is rated at 1600KVA, 13,500V. The armature

resistance and synchronous reactance are 1.5 and 30 respectively per phase. Calculate the percentage regulation for a load of 1280KW at 0.8 leading power factor.

7M

Unit – V

9. a) Name the different types of single phase AC motors. Give some important applications of these motors.

8M

b) List the different types of stepper motors. Give the constructional features of the motors. 7M 10. a) Discuss the shaded pole single phase induction motor along with typical torque speed

characteristic. 8M

b) What are servo motors? List its features to use for an application. 7M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A1409

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

II B. Tech II Semester Supplementary Examinations, November – 2019 (Regulations: VCE-R11/R11A)

PULSE AND DIGITAL CIRCUITS

(Electronics and Communication Engineering)

Date: 30 November, 2019 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Describe high pass RC circuit as differentiator. 7M b) Explain critical, under and over damping in RLC circuit.

8M

2. a) Illustrate the low pass RC circuit for ramp input with equations and waveform. 7M b) Analyze the function of ringing circuit with equations.

8M

Unit – II

3. a) Explain how diode can be used as a switch. Write the Piece wise linear characteristics of a diode.

7M

b) State the clamping circuit theorem and analyze the practical clamping circuit.

8M

4. a) Explain the working of single level series clipper clipping below reference voltage, with relevant schematic, characteristic equations and transfer characteristics.

8M

b) Draw one negative clamper and one positive clamper circuit with corresponding output waveforms. Explain.

7M

Unit – III

5. a) Explain the steps involved in designing fixed bias bistable multivibrator. 7M b) Illustrate the working principle of Monostable multivibrator with neat circuit.

8M

6. a) Analyze the working of direct connected binary. List its advantages and disadvantages. 7M b) Describe Astable collector coupled multivibrator with neat circuit and waveforms.

8M

Unit – IV

7. a) Briefly explain the methods for generating time base waveforms. 7M b) Describe Miller and Bootstrap time base generators and compare them.

8M

8. a) Discuss the general features of time base signal. 7M b) Write the methods for linearity improvement.

8M

Unit – V

9. a) With schematic, explaining the working of bidirectional gates using transistors. 7M b) Describe the realization of OR, AND and NOT gate using diode and transistors.

8M

10. a) What is sampling scope? Explain the same with neat block diagram. 8M b) Compare TTL and CMOS logic families. 7M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2212

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

II B. Tech II Semester Supplementary Examinations, November – 2019 (Regulations: VCE-R14)

PRINCIPLES OF ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING (Electronics and Communication Engineering)

Date: 28 November, 2019 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Define the coefficient of coupling and find its relation with L1, L2and M. 7M b) Define Self and Mutual Inductance and obtain the relation between them.

8M

2. a) Define and explain Faradays laws. 8M b) Derive the expression for energy stored in an inductor.

7M

Unit – II

3. a) Analyze the transient response in RC series circuit having DC excitation 9M b) Find the current in a series RL circuit having R=2Ω and L= 10H, while a dc voltage of 100V

is applied. What is the value of this current after 5 seconds of switching on?

6M

4. a) Explain the transient response in RL series circuit having DC excitation 6M b) In a series RLC circuit R=5Ω, L=1Hand C=1F. A dc voltage of 20V is applied at t=0. Obtain

i(t).

9M

Unit – III

5. a) Explain in detail any two speed control methods of DC shunt motor. 9M b) A 4 pole DC generator running at 1500rpm has an armature with 90 slots having 6

conductors per slot. The flux per pole is 6x10-2Wb. Determine the induced emf if the coils are lap connected. If the armature current is 100A, determine the electrical power output of the machine.

6M

6. a) Explain Swinburne’s test. 6M b) Explain the types of dc motor. A 6 pole lap wound shunt motor has 500 conductors in the

armature. The resistance of armature is 0.05Ω. The resistance of shunt field is 25Ω. Find the speed of the motor when it takes 120A from dc mains of 100V supply. Flux per pole is 2x10-2Wb.

9M

Unit – IV

7. a) Obtain the emf equation for a single phase transformer. 8M b) A 25 kVA, single-phase transformer has 500 turns on the primary and 40 turns on the

secondary winding. The primary is connected to 3000 V, 50 Hz supply. Calculate: i. Primary and Secondary currents on full-load ii. The secondary emf iii. The maximum flux in the core

7M

8. a) Derive the condition for which the efficiency of transformer is maximum. 7M b) In a 25 kVA, single-phase transformer 2000/200V transformer has the iron and copper

losses are 350W and 400W respectively. Calculate the efficiency at full load and 0.8 power factor lagging.

8M

Unit – V

9. a) What is slip? Derive expression for slip and frequency of rotor currents. 8M b) A 3-phase, 4-pole, 400 V, 50 Hz induction motor runs with a speed of 1440 rpm. Calculate

its slip.

7M

10. a) A 3-phase, 6 pole, 50Hz Induction motor has frequency of rotor current at full-load of 1.8Hz. Find the synchronous speed and slip at full-load.

8M

b) Prove that the frequency of the induced emf in the rotor of an induction motor is slip times its stator supply frequency.

7M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A3109

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

II B. Tech II Semester Supplementary Examinations, November - 2019 (Regulations: VCE-R15)

STRUCTURAL ANALYSIS-I (Civil Engineering)

Date: 29 November, 2019 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. Using method of sections, find the forces in all the members of the truss shown in Fig.1.

Fig1

15M

2. Determine the forces in all the members of the truss shown in the Fig.2 by using method of joints.

Fig.2

15M

Unit – II

3. a) Derive the expression for strain energy due to direct force and due to bending. 8M b) Compute the maximum deflection and rotation for a cantilever beam subjected to UDL

by strain energy concept.

7M

4. Determine the support reaction components,normal thrust, and radial force just to right of the point D of three hinged arch shown in Fig.3.

Fig.3

15M

Cont…2

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:: 2 ::

Unit – III

5. Analyze the propped cantilever beam having a UDL of 40kN/m for a span of 4m. Draw SFD and BMD.

15M

6. Determine the fixed end moments of the beam having a part UDL of 2kN/m over a span of 6m from the left end of the fixed support and the total span of the beam is 8m. Draw SFD and BMD.

15M

Unit – IV

7. Analyze the continuous beam shown in the Fig.4 by Slope-deflection method. Draw Bending moment & Shear force diagram. (EI is constant throughout the beam)

Fig.4

15M

8. Analyze the continuous beam shown in the Fig.5 by Moment distribution method. Draw Bending moment & Shear force diagram.

Fig.5

15M

Unit – V

9. Two loads of 4KN & 6KN spaced 6m apart cross a girder of 16m span, the 4KN load leading from left to right. Construct the Max SF and BM diagrams stating the absolute values.

15M

10. Two wheel loads of 16 and 8KN, at a fixed distance of 2m apart, cross abeam of 10m span. Draw the influence line for bending moment & shear force for a point 4m from the left abutment, and find the maximum bending moment & shear force at that point.

15M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2415

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

II B. Tech II Semester Supplementary Examinations, November – 2019 (Regulations: VCE-R14)

ELECTRONIC CIRCUITS

(Electrical and Electronics Engineering)

Date: 29 November, 2019 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Draw the CE and CB configurations and their corresponding hybrid equivalent circuits. Briefly explain the operations.

9M

b) Find the transistor currents in the circuit shown in the Fig.1. A silicon transistor with β=100 and Ico=20nA is under consideration. Assume VBE=0.7V, VCE=0.3V

Fig.1

6M

2. a) Draw the common gate configuration of JFET. Represent the same using AC equivalent model. With necessary equations for input and output impedances, explain the working.

10M

b) Discuss the classification of various amplifiers.

5M

Unit – II

3. a) Briefly explain the working of a quasi complimentary symmetry push pull amplifier. Mention few advantages of quasi complementary over the other types.

9M

b) For a harmonic distortion of D2=0.1,D3=0.02,D4=0.01 with I1=4A and Rc=8Ω,calculate the total harmonic distortion, fundamental power component and total power.

6M

4. a) Explain the circuit operation of a class AB power amplifier. 8M b) For a class B amplifier providing a 20V peak signal to a 16 Ω load and a power supply of

Vcc=30V, Determine the input power, output power and circuit efficiency.

7M

Unit – III

5. a) Explain the working of a crystal oscillator. List its main advantages. 6M b) A CE transistor amplifier with no bypass capacitor shown in Fig.2 acts as a current

series feedback amplifier. Find gain, input and output resistances if RS=1KΩ, RE=1.5KΩ, RC=2KΩ, neglect the effect of R1 and R2 also neglect hre. Given hie = 1KΩ, hfe = 50, and

hoe = 25 .

Fig.2

9M

Cont…2

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:: 2 ::

6. a) Derive expression for Rif and Rof in current shunt feedback amplifier. 8M b) Explain the working of Colpitts Oscillator.

7M

Unit – IV

7. a) Draw the circuit of a two level clipper circuit which is used to convert a sinusoidal signal into an approximate square wave. Draw its transfer characteristics, input and output characteristics and explain its operation.

8M

b) A pulse of 10V amplitude and duration of 1ms is applied to a high pass RC circuit with R=20KΩ and C=0.01uF.Plot the output waveform to scale and calculate the percentage tilt in the output.

7M

8. a) Draw a high pass circuit, derive response for a ramp input of this circuit and show input and output wave forms.

7M

b) Design a clamping circuit to obtain an output with positive peak at 20V and negative peak at -10V. The input is a square wave of ± 15V at 1kHz. Assume Si diode.

8M

Unit – V

9. a) With a circuit diagram and waveforms, explain the working of a collector coupled monostable multivibrator.

7M

b) Design collector coupled astable multivibrator. The repetition rate is 500 Hz and pulse width is 0.2 msec. Use two transistors with hfe = 50, VCC = VBB = 20 V, RC1 = RC2 = 1 KΩ.

8M

10. a) Explain the working of a Schmitt trigger with a circuit diagram and waveforms. 8M b) Explain the working of a fixed bias bistable mulitvibrator. 7M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A1408

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

II B. Tech II Semester Supplementary Examinations, November - 2019 (Regulations: VCE-R11/R11A)

ELECTRONIC CIRCUIT ANALYSIS (Electronics and Communication Engineering)

Date: 29 November, 2019 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Draw the h-parameter model of CE transistor configuration and obtain the expressions for current gain AI, voltage gain AV, input impedance ZI, output impedance ZO, voltage gain with source AVS and current gain AIS with source.

9M

b) A CE transistor amplifier is driven by a voltage source Vs of internal resistance Rs=1200Ω. The load impedance is a resistor RL=1200Ω. The h-parameters are hie=1.1KΩ, hre=2.5×10-4, hfe=51, hoe=25µA/V. Compute the current gain AI, voltage gain AV, input impedance ZI, output impedance ZO, voltage gain with source AVS and current gain AIS with source.

6M

2. a) Draw and explain the small signal model of JFET circuit. 5M b) Draw the circuit of a self-bias bypassed Rs (source resistance) common source JFET

amplifier and draw it’s equivalent circuit. Also obtain the expressions for input impedance Zi, out impedance Zo and voltage gain Av.

10M

Unit-II

3. a) Derive the expression for Rof of a voltage series feedback and voltage shunt feedback amplifiers.

9M

b) Discuss the characteristics of negative feedback in amplifiers.

6M

4. a) With neat circuit diagram, explain the Colpitts Oscillator and discuss the advantages and applications.

8M

b) With neat circuit diagram, Explain the working of wein bridge oscillator.

7M

Unit-III

5. a) Explain the effect of an emitter bypass capacitor on low frequency response. 8M b) Discuss the hybrid π model Transistor conductances.

7M

6. a) Discuss the hybrid π model capacitances.

9M

b) It is desired that the voltage gain of an R-C coupled amplifier at 60Hz should not decrease by more than 10% from the mid band value. Find the lower 3dB frequency.

6M

Unit – IV

7. a) With a neat diagram explain the complementary-symmetry push-pull amplifiers. 8M b) Calculate the input power, output power and efficiency of the amplifier circuit in Fig.1

for an input voltage that results in a base current of 10mA peak.

Fig.1

7M

Cont…2

2 5

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:: 2 ::

8. a) Draw the diagram of a transformer-coupled class-A power amplifier and explain the

need for impedance matching. 8M

b) With a neat schematic of a class B push-pull amplifier explain cross over distortion.

7M

Unit – V

9. a) With the help of neat schematics explain the working of a double tuned amplifier. 7M b) A parallel resonant circuit has a capacitor of 100pF in one branch and inductance of

100µH plus a resistance of 10Ω in the parallel branch. Find: i. Resonant frequency ii. Impedance of the circuit at resonance iii. Q factor of the circuit iv. Bandwidth

8M

10. a) With the help of neat schematics explain the working of a single tuned amplifier. 7M b) A circuit is resonant at 455KHz and has a 10KHz bandwidth. The inductive reactance is

1255Ω. What is the parallel impedance of the circuit at resonance? 8M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A1108

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

II B. Tech II Semester Supplementary Examinations, November - 2019 (Regulations: VCE-R11/R11A)

STRUCTURAL ANALYSIS-I (Civil Engineering)

Date: 29 November, 2019 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. Analyze the propped cantilever beam having a UDL of 40kN/m for a span of 4m. Draw SFD and BMD.

15M

2. Draw the SFD and the BMD of a propped beam shown in Fig.1.

Fig.1

15M

Unit – II

3. Determine the fixed end moments of the beam having a part UDL of 2kN/m over a span of 6m from the left end of the fixed support and the total span of the beam is 8m. Draw SFD and BMD.

15M

4. For a rigidly fixed beam AB of span 5m as shown in Fig.2 carrying a UDL of 10kN/m over the entire span, locate the point of contraflexure and draw BMD and SFD

Fig.2

15M

Unit – III

5. a) Derive the expression for strain energy due to direct force and due to bending. 8M b) Compute the maximum deflection and rotation for a cantilever beam subjected to

UDL by strain energy concept.

7M

6. Two loads of 4KN & 6KN spaced 6m apart cross a girder of 16m span, the 4KN load leading from left to right. Construct the Max SF and BM diagrams stating the absolute values.

15M

Unit – IV

7. Analyze the continuous beam shown in the Fig.3 by Slope-deflection method. Draw Bending moment & Shear force diagram. (EI is constant throughout the beam)

Fig.3

15M

8. Two wheel loads of 16 and 8KN, at a fixed distance of 2m apart, cross abeam of 10m span. Draw the influence line for bending moment & shear force for a point 4m from the left abutment, and find the maximum bending moment & shear force at that point.

15M

Cont…2

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:: 2 ::

Unit – V

9. Find the degree of static indeterminacy for the structures as shown in Fig.4.

Fig.4

15M

10. Calculate the vertical deflection components of joint B of the truss loaded as shown in Fig.5 by strain energy method. Cross- sectional area of each member is 500 x 10-6m2. E = 200 x 106 kN/m2

Fig.5

15M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2414

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

II B. Tech II Semester Supplementary Examinations, November – 2019 (Regulations: VCE-R14)

ANALOG COMMUNICATIONS (Electronics and Communication Engineering)

Date: 29 November, 2019 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Explain the demodulation of DSBSC wave using coherent detection method. 7M b) An audio frequency signal 10 sin 2 500 t volts is used to amplitude modulate a carrier

of 5

5 0 s in 2 1 0 t volts. Assume modulation index = 0.2. Find the following:

i. Sideband frequencies ii. Amplitude of each side band frequencies iii. Bandwidth required

8M

2. a) Explain the generation of AM wave using square law modulator with relevant mathematical analysis.

8M

b) Evaluate the effect of phase and frequency errors in DSBSC using synchronous detection.

7M

Unit – II

3. a) Provide a detailed time domain expression of SSB-SC wave. 8M b) Consider a composite wave obtained by adding a non coherent carrier

cos 2c c

A f t to a DSB-SC wave m t cos 2c

f t . This composite wave is

applied to an envelope detector. Find the resulting detector output. Evaluate this

output for 0 and ||m(t) << Ac/2.

7M

4. a) What is multiplexing? Describe the process of frequency division multiplexing. 8M b) Using the message signal m(t) = t/(1+t2), obtain the mathematical expression for AM

wave when the percentage modulation is 50%.

7M

Unit – III

5. a) Show that the spectrum of the FM wave contains infinite side bands. 10M b) An angle modulated signal is defined by

6

1 0 co s 2 1 0 0 .2 s in 2 0 0 0 .S t t t V o lts Find the following:

i. The power in the modulated signal ii. The frequency deviation Δf iii. Phase deviation iv. The approximate transmission bandwidth

5M

6. a) Explain the working of balanced frequency discriminator for demodulation of FM wave.

9M

b) A carrier of frequency 106Hz and amplitude 3 volts is frequency modulated by a sinusoidal modulating signal of frequency 500Hz and of peak amplitude 1 volt. The frequency deviation is 1kHz. The level of modulating signal is changed to 5 volts peak and the modulating frequency is changed to 2kHz. Write the expression for the new modulated waveform.

6M

Cont…2

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Unit – IV

7. a) Explain generation and demodulation of PWM wave. 7M b) Derive the expression for Figure of merit of SSBSC receiver system.

8M

8. a) Describe mathematically the process of signal reconstruction using the concept of flat top sampling

8M

b) The carrier reaching an envelope detector in an AM receiver has an RMS value equal to 1V in the absence of modulation. The noise at the input of the envelope detector has a PSD equal to 10-3w/Hz. If the carrier is modulated to a depth of 100% and the message bandwidth W = 3.2 KHz, find [SNR]o.

7M

Unit – V

9. a) With neat block diagram, explain the working of Superheterodyne receiver. 8M b) In a broadcast Superheterodyne receiver having no RF amplifier, the loaded Q of the

antenna coupling circuit at the input to the mixer is 100. If the intermediate frequency is 455 kHz, calculate: i. The image frequency and its rejection ratio at 1000 kHz ii. The image frequency and its rejection ratio at 25 MHz

7M

10. a) Explain the radio receiver characteristics. 8M b) With neat block diagram, explain the functioning of FM transmitter. 7M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A1509

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

II B. Tech II Semester Supplementary Examinations, November – 2019 (Regulations: VCE-R11/11A)

COMPUTER ARCHITECTURE AND ORGANIZATION

(Common to Computer Science and Engineering, Information Technology, Electronics and Communication Engineering & Electrical and Electronics Engineering)

Date: 26 November, 2019 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Explain multi processor and multi computer. 7M b) Show and explain the block diagram for the register transfer operation as shown.

2 2 1: .T R R

8M

2. a) With a neat diagram explain basic functional units of computers. 8M b) Write a note on error detection codes.

7M

Unit – II

3. a) Illustrate flow chart for instruction cycle. 7M b) What is the need for a RISC processor? List characteristics of a RISC machine. 8M 4. a) With a neat diagram explain control unit of basic computer. 8M b) List and explain different types of instruction format.

7M

Unit – III

5. a) With a block diagram, explain the selection of address for control memory. 7M b) Explain the microinstruction format with an example. 8M 6. a) Illustrate addition and subtraction using 2’s compliment. 7M b) Drive an algorithm is flowchart form for addition and subtraction using 1’s compliment.

8M

Unit – IV

7. a) With a block diagram explain the synchronous DROM. 7M b) Explain ROM, PROM, EPROM and EEPROM. 8M 8. a) What is a secondary storage? Explain with an example. 9M b) With concept, explain DMA.

6M

Unit – V

9. a) Discuss briefly Dynamic arbitration algorithms. 10M b) With concept explain cache coherence. 5M 10. Write a note on:

i. Crossbar switch ii. Hyper cube inter connection iii. Daisy chain arbitration

15M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A1603

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

II B. Tech II Semester Supplementary Examinations, November – 2019 (Regulations: VCE-R11/R11A)

WEB TECHNOLOGIES

(Common to Computer Science and Engineering & Information Technology)

Date: 29 November, 2019 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Explain tags related to tables and discuss with examples. 8M b) What do you understand by common tags? Give examples.

7M

2. a) Show the construction of dynamic html with the involvement of JavaScript. 8M b) List and explain the different types of style sheets with examples.

7M

Unit – II

3. a) Discuss the deployment structure, processing of information and protocol support for Jigsaw and Tomcat servers.

8M

b) Create XML document for an address book of the person consisting of name, street, region, postal code, locality, country, telephone number, and emailID. Assume the field values suitably.

7M

4. a) Differentiate DOM and SAX parsers. 8M b) What are DTDs? Explain briefly the Declaration of Elements, attributes and entities with

an example.

7M

Unit – III

5. a) Create a Servlet to display “Hello world” message. 8M b) Explain the lifecycle of Servlet.

7M

6. a) Write a Servlet program to set and read the cookies on any web browser. 7M b) Write a HTML script and corresponding Servlet to handle HTTP request.

8M

Unit – IV

7. a) What are the different tags used in JSP? Explain with examples. 8M b) Differentiate Servlet and JSP.

7M

8. a) List and explain implicit objects of JSP. 7M b) Build a JSP Script to retrieve the information from Oracle database.

8M

Unit – V

9. a) Discuss CMS tools. 8M b) What is content management system? Explain briefly.

7M

10. a) List out the objects of ASP and highlight the features of the properties, methods and events.

7M

b) Write short note on: i. Ruby ii. AJAX

8M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2208

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

II B. Tech II Semester Supplementary Examinations, November – 2019 (Regulations: VCE-R14)

ELECTRICAL MACHINES-II

(Electrical and Electronics Engineering)

Date: 30 November, 2019 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) With a neat phasor diagram explain how induction motor can be considered as a generalized transformer.

9M

b) The stator of a 3Φ induction motor has 3slots/pole/phase. If the supply frequency is 50Hz, Calculate: i. The number of stator poles produced and total number of slots in stator ii. Speed of the rotating stator flux or magnetic field

6M

2. a) Derive the relationship between: i. Full load torque and maximum torque ii. Starting torque and maximum torque

7M

b) The power input to a 500 V, 50 Hz, 6P, 3Φ induction motor running at 975 rpm is 40kW. The stator losses are 1kW and the friction and windage loss total 2kW. Calculate: i. Slip ii. Rotor copper loss iii. Shaft power iv. Efficiency

8M

Unit – II

3. a) With a neat diagram explain the principle of operation of an induction generator. 8M b) Explain the working of star-delta starter highlighting the effect of starting currents.

7M

4. a) State and Explain the various method of speed control of 3-phase IM. 8M b) A 110V, 3Φ, star connected induction motor takes 25A at a line voltage of 30V with the

rotor locked. With this line voltage, power input to motor is 440W and core loss is 40W. The dc resistance between a pair of stator terminals is 0.1Ω. If the ratio of ac to dc resistance is 1.6, find the equivalent leakage reactance/phase of the motor and the stator and rotor resistance/phase.

7M

Unit – III

5. a) With relevant diagram differentiate between the rotors of salient pole and non salient pole alternators.

8M

b) A 3-phase, 8-pole, 750rpm star connected alternator has 72 slots on the armature, each slot has 12 conductors and winding is short chorded by 2 slots. Find the induced emf between the lines, given the flux per pole is 0.06wb.

7M

6. a) For salient pole synchronous machine, neglecting the effect of armature resistance, derive an expression for power developed as a function of load angle.

8M

b) A 5kva, 220V, star connected 3-phase salient pole alternator with direct and quadrature axis reactances of 12ohm and 7 ohm respectively, delivers full load current at unity power factor. Calculate the excitation voltage, neglecting resistance.

7M

Cont…2

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Unit – IV

7. a) Explain dark lamp method for synchronization of alternators.

7M

b) What is the effect of change of excitation and mechanical power input on parallel operation?

8M

8. a) Write a brief note on the variation of armature current and power factor with excitation in a synchronous motor.

8M

b) Explain the theory of operation of a synchronous motor.

7M

Unit – V

9. a) Explain double field revolving theory. 8M b) With relevant diagram explain the operational features and working of a capacitor start

and run motor.

7M

10. a) Explain the principle of permanent magnet machines. 8M b) What are stepper motors? Explain their working and mention some applications. 7M

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2511

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING (AUTONOMOUS)

II B. Tech II Semester Supplementary Examinations, November – 2019 (Regulations: VCE-R14)

FORMAL LANGUAGES AND AUTOMATA THEORY

(Common to Computer Science and Engineering & Information Technology)

Date: 28 November, 2019 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a) Explain different types of transition function and list the properties of transition function.

8M

b) Let a NFA 0, , ,M Q q F as shown in Fig.1 below. Find an equivalent DFA.

Fig.1

7M

2. a) Construct DFA to accept binary numbers divisible by 4. 8M b) Design NFA to accept strings with a’s and b’s such that the string end with ‘aa’:

7M

Unit – II

3. a) State Arden’s Theorem and gives the proof for the same. 7M b) Give the regular expression for the following DFA.

Fig.2

8M

4. a) Prove that L=aibi | i ≥ 0 is not regular. 8M b) Derive the regular expression for the set of all strings over a,b which contain ab as a

substring is regular.

7M

Unit – III

5. a) Is the following grammar ambiguous? Justify. S → iCtS | iCtSeS | a C → b

6M

b) Transform the grammar with productions. S → abAB A → baB | ɛ B → BAa | A | ɛ Into Chomsky Normal Form.

9M

Cont…2

Page 76: VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERINGb) Discuss briefly the food chain and food web with neat sketches. 8M Unit –III 5. a) Explain the Municipal solid waste management practices. 8M b)

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6. a) State and explain decision properties of CFL. 6M b) Give the GNF grammar for the following CFG

,S A S a A SA b

9M

Unit – IV

7. a) Prove that equivalence of acceptance by final state and empty stack. 7M b) Construct NPDA for the language

L = | , 0n m m n

a b c n m

8M

8. a) Explain different steps to find PDA corresponding to a given CFG. 8M b) Construct a PDA that accepts L = 0n 1n | n ≥ 0.

7M

Unit – V

9. Design Turing machine for the language.

| , , 1, i j k

L a b c i j k i k j

15M

10. a) Show that “Post Correspondence Problem is un-decidable”. 8M b) Write about Universal Turing machine. 7M