u.s.c.g. merchant marine exam first assistant engineer ... · u.s.c.g. merchant marine exam first...

National Maritime Center Providing Credentials to Mariners

U.S.C.G. Merchant Marine Exam

First Assistant Engineer

Q511 General Subjects I

(Sample Examination)

of 31 Q511 General Subjects I

9/10/2018

U.S.C.G. Merchant Marine Exam First Assistant Engineer Q511 General Subjects I Illustrations: 13

Choose the best answer to the following Multiple Choice Questions.

1. What is the distance between the center of the discharge outlet and the top of the motor illustrated? Illustration GS-0011

o (A) 34 5/8 inches o (B) 35 inches o (C) 35 5/8 inches • (D) 36 inches

If choice D is selected set score to 1.

2. In the pump shown in the illustration, what is the distance from the bottom of the inlet to the bottom end of the motor shaft? Illustration GS-0011

o (A) 45 1/4 inches o (B) 45 5/16 inches o (C) 53 5/8 inches • (D) 57 5/8 inches


3. The type of thread illustrated is a/an __________. Illustration GS-0038

o (A) acme thread • (B) national coarse thread o (C) square thread o (D) cannot be determined from information provided

If choice B is selected set score to 1.

4. Dimension "X" indicated on the architects scale, shown in the illustration, will be equal to __________. Illustration GS-0023

o (A) 5 feet 3/4 inch • (B) 5 feet 4 inches o (C) 83 feet o (D) 93 1/4 feet



9/10/2018


5. After installing a new hydraulic pump in a system, what special attention should be given to the hydraulic system?

o (A) All system pressure should be readjusted. o (B) The relief valves in the system should be readjusted. • (C) The filters and strainers should be checked frequently. o (D) The system should be drained and renewed with a fluid of different operating characteristics.

If choice C is selected set score to 1.

6. Purging air from a hydraulic system is necessary when __________.

• (A) the system has been drained and then filled with new oil o (B) the system has been overheated o (C) the system has been idle for a long period of time o (D) adding small amounts of oil to the system

If choice A is selected set score to 1.

7. If you attempt to tighten a leaking hydraulic fitting with pressure on the system, you will __________.

o (A) be successful every time o (B) dislodge any scale in the tubing, and it will damage the system • (C) find that the pressure will prevent the components from being tightened o (D) cause the system to vibrate


8. To charge a bladder type hydraulic accumulator __________.

o (A) remove all hydraulic system pressure and bring the pneumatic pressure to the system's design pressure

o (B) increase the pneumatic pressure until the hydraulic system reaches its design pressure • (C) remove all hydraulic system pressure and bring the pneumatic pressure to the accumulator

preload pressure o (D) allow the accumulator to completely fill with gas charge at atmospheric pressure, shut off the

air chamber, and add hydraulic fluid until proper pressure is reached


9. If an operating bilge pump is developing good vacuum, but is unable to discharge any water, which of the following problems is the most probable cause?

o (A) The wearing rings are excessively worn. o (B) The shaft is worn. • (C) The suction strainer is clogged. o (D) The discharge valve is clogged.



9/10/2018

U.S.C.G. Merchant Marine Exam First Assistant Engineer Q511 General Subjects I Illustrations: 13 10. If a bilge pump is able to develop vacuum, but is unable to sufficiently pump out the bilges, you

would check for all of the following EXCEPT __________.

o (A) for leaks in the suction piping • (B) the circuit breaker o (C) the suction strainer o (D) relief valve is not properly seated


11. Referring to the illustration, suppose after initiating the oil discharge mode, the oily-water separator fails to come out of the oil discharge mode in a timely fashion. Cracking open the upper sampling valve reveals the presence of oil exiting under positive pressure. What is most likely the cause? Illustration GS-0175

o (A) The upper oil/water interface detection probe fails to end the oil discharge mode. o (B) The clean water supply solenoid fails to open, and as a result provides no discharge pressure. • (C) The oil discharge check valve fails to open, and as a result no oil actually discharges. o (D) The lower oil/water interface detection probe fails to initiate the oil discharge mode.


12. If item "1" in the illustrated oily-water separator indicates an abnormally deep vacuum, which of the following conditions is the most probable cause? Illustration GS-0153

o (A) Process water inlet valve, item "5", is open. • (B) Suction line inlet strainer is obstructed. o (C) Coalescer beds are severely fouled. o (D) No problem exists as a high vacuum should be maintained in the chamber whose vacuum is

to be measured.


13. The component labeled "A", as shown in the illustration, would be identified as the __________. Illustration GS-0175

• (A) oil/water interface level sensing probe o (B) separator vessel vacuum breaker o (C) separator vessel pressure relief valve o (D) oil content monitor probe



9/10/2018


14. The line labeled "E", as shown in the illustration, would be identified as the ______. Illustration GS-0175

o (A) waste oil outlet line o (B) processed water outlet line • (C) oily bilge water inlet line o (D) clean water inlet line


15. The function of item "7" shown in the illustration is to __________. Illustration GS-0153

o (A) direct the flow of the oily-water mixture against the coalescer bed • (B) prevent separated oil from mixing with the incoming bilge water o (C) allow the oil accumulated to exit the device, while remaining separated from the liquid o (D) support the tank access panel


16. Which type of Marine Sanitation Device (MSD) is used solely for the storage of sewage and flushwater at ambient air pressure and temperature?

o (A) Type I o (B) Type II • (C) Type III o (D) Type IV


17. A pneumatic pressure tank is installed in a sanitary system to __________.

o (A) provide a higher pressure in the system than the pump can deliver o (B) prevent the sanitary pump from losing suction • (C) reduce excessive cycling of the sanitary pump o (D) increase water flow through the system


18. What design feature is used to minimize potable water wastage associated with hot water distribution piping for a potable water system?

o (A) Use of instantaneous type hot water heaters only. o (B) Use of storage type hot water heaters only. • (C) Use of hot water recirculation loops. o (D) Use of hot water heaters with multiple heat sources.



9/10/2018

U.S.C.G. Merchant Marine Exam First Assistant Engineer Q511 General Subjects I Illustrations: 13 19. What are the operating characteristics of a "waterlogged" potable water system hydro-pneumatic

header tank that needs to be recharged with compressed air?

• (A) Very short and frequent running and idle periods for the potable water pump. o (B) Failure of the potable water pump to start with demand on the system. o (C) Extremely long running and idle periods for the potable water pump. o (D) Failure of the potable water pump to stop with zero demand on the system.


20. If the bearings of a piece of machinery are fed by a gravity feed lubricating oil system, what statement is true concerning the vertical arrangement of the lube oil tanks?

o (A) The lube oil gravity tank and the lube oil reservoir/sump are both above the points of lubrication.

o (B) The lube oil gravity tank is below the points of lubrication and the lube oil reservoir/sump is above the points of lubrication.

o (C) The lube oil gravity tank and the lube oil reservoir/sump are both below the points of lubrication.

• (D) The lube oil gravity tank is above the points of lubrication and the lube oil reservoir/sump is below the points of lubrication.


21. On a bearing using an oiling ring as a means of static oil feed, how often should the bottom of the bearing sump be drained of impurities?

o (A) Every round o (B) Daily • (C) Bimonthly o (D) Annually


22. In a forced-feed lubrication system, what statement is true concerning lube oil reservoir/sump residence time?

o (A) The higher the oil level, the shorter the residence time, and the cooler the oil will be as delivered by the pump.

• (B) The higher the oil level, the longer the residence time, and the cooler the oil will be as delivered by the pump.

o (C) The higher the oil level, the shorter the residence time, and the hotter the oil will be as delivered by the pump.

o (D) The higher the oil level, the longer the residence time, and the hotter the oil will be as delivered by the pump.



9/10/2018

U.S.C.G. Merchant Marine Exam First Assistant Engineer Q511 General Subjects I Illustrations: 13 23. In a closed-loop process control system, what is meant by the proportional mode of control?

o (A) It is a control mode that produces a control action that is proportional to the accumulation of error over time.

o (B) It is a control mode that produces a control action that is proportional to the gain. • (C) It is a control mode that produces a control action that is proportional to the error. o (D) It is a control mode that produces a control action that is proportional to the rate at which the

error is changing.


24. As a result of a load or setpoint change, in addition to minimizing the maximum value of the error, what are the two additional objectives of a closed-loop control system?

o (A) The closed-loop control system should maximize the settling time and maximize the residual error.

o (B) The closed-loop control system should minimize the settling time and maximize the residual error.

o (C) The closed-loop control system should maximize the settling time and minimize the residual error.

• (D) The closed-loop control system should minimize the settling time and minimize the residual error.


25. In a closed-loop process control system, what is meant by the integral mode of control?

o (A) It is a control mode that produces a control action that is proportional to the gain. o (B) It is a control mode that produces a control action that is proportional to the error. • (C) It is a control mode that produces a control action that is proportional to the accumulation of

error over time. o (D) It is a control mode that produces a control action that is proportional to the rate at which the

error is changing.


26. In a closed-loop process control system, what is meant by gain?

• (A) The ratio of the amplitude of the output signal of a component divided by the amplitude of the input signal.

o (B) The progressive reduction or suppression of oscillation in a component. o (C) The signal in a controller that is obtained by subtracting the measured value of the controlled

value from the setpoint. o (D) The undesirable characteristic in which the error of a control system oscillates with constant

or increasing amplitude.



9/10/2018

U.S.C.G. Merchant Marine Exam First Assistant Engineer Q511 General Subjects I Illustrations: 13 27. Which of the following propulsor types represents the proper terminology for electric propulsion

where the drive motors are outside the ship's hull?

• (A) Azipod propulsor o (B) Azimuthing propulsor o (C) Cycloidal propeller o (D) Jet drive


28. Which of the following propulsor types does not require the use of a separate rudder for steerage?

o (A) Contra-rotating propellers. • (B) Cycloidal propellers. o (C) Tandem propellers. o (D) Conventional fixed-pitch propeller.


29. What type of propulsor is typically used in electric motor driven, transverse, tunnel bow thrusters to limit the starting current of the single speed drive motor?

o (A) Cycloidal propeller o (B) Detachable-blade (built-up) propeller • (C) Controllable-pitch propeller o (D) Fixed-pitch propeller


30. Which set of operating conditions would be most problematic in terms of the deterioration of the insulation resistance of the drive motor of an electric motor driven transverse tunnel bow thruster?

o (A) Frequently used thrusters where the bow thruster machinery compartment is particularly warm.

o (B) Infrequently used thrusters where the bow thruster machinery compartment is particularly warm.

o (C) Frequently used thrusters where the bow thruster machinery compartment is particularly cold. • (D) Infrequently used thrusters where the bow thruster machinery compartment is particularly

cold.



9/10/2018


31. Concerning main propulsion reduction gears, what statement is true?

• (A) The reduction gear allows the prime mover to rotate efficiently at relatively high speed and low torque and allows the propeller to rotate efficiently at relatively low speed and high torque.

o (B) The reduction gear allows the prime mover to rotate efficiently at relatively high speed and high torque and allows the propeller to rotate efficiently at relatively low speed and low torque.

o (C) The reduction gear allows the prime mover to rotate efficiently at relatively low speed and low torque and allows the propeller to rotate efficiently at relatively high speed and high torque.

o (D) The reduction gear allows the prime mover to rotate efficiently at relatively low speed and high torque and allows the propeller to rotate efficiently at relatively high speed and low torque.


32. Of the following propulsion modes, which one would operate with a geared-drive featuring a double reduction?

o (A) Slow speed diesel o (B) Medium speed diesel o (C) High speed diesel • (D) Gas turbine


33. What statement is true concerning the arrangement of line shaft bearing housings?

• (A) Line shaft bearing housings are typically split half pedestal type bearing housings. o (B) Line shaft bearing housings are typically split half flange type bearing housings. o (C) Line shaft bearing housings are typically single-piece flange type bearing housings. o (D) Line shaft bearing housings are typically single-piece pedestal type bearing housings.


34. If a main propulsion shafting arrangement is such that a strut and strut bearing is required, what is the name of the section of shafting that passes through the hull penetration to the closest watertight bulkhead?

• (A) Stern tube shaft o (B) Tail or propeller shaft o (C) Thrust shaft o (D) Line shaft



9/10/2018


35. Irregular feeding or surging of the feedwater supply to a flash evaporator may be attributed to __________.

o (A) a clogged vent line from the air eductor condenser o (B) erratic water flow through the air eductor o (C) excessive pressure in the sea water feed heater • (D) a dirty strainer in the salt water feed pump suction line


36. While operating a two-stage flash-type evaporator, designed to operate in sea water of 70°F, the current seawater temperature is 50°F, while the salt water feed temperature is maintained at 170°F. The three-way solenoid valve trips, directing the distillate pump discharge to the bilge. Which of the following conditions is the probable cause for this occurrence?

o (A) Insufficient vacuum developed as a result of the sea temperature. • (B) Excessive and violent flashing in each stage. o (C) Excessive amount of feedwater being supplied to the first stage. o (D) Insufficient brine density being maintained in the second stage.


37. Which of the listed problems could produce a high absolute pressure within a flash type evaporator?

o (A) production of high salinity distillate o (B) a leak in the first stage demister • (C) a cracked distillate pump vent line o (D) seawater feed temperature below 165°F


38. Which of the following conditions can cause high salinity of the distillate due to sea water leakage in the illustrated device? Illustration MO-0110

o (A) Improper venting during start-up. o (B) Improper venting during operation. o (C) Failure to properly tighten the bolts of the evaporator heat exchanger. • (D) Failure to properly tighten the bolts of the condenser heat exchanger.



9/10/2018


39. If the wearing rings of device "7" shown in the illustration become worn, how will the evaporation rate in "23" be affected? Illustration MO-0111

• (A) The rate of evaporation will decrease. o (B) The rate of evaporation is dependent on the level of vacuum maintained within the unit, and

not the flow of water to the unit. o (C) Device "7" does not use wearing rings, as these are normally positive displacement pumps. o (D) The rate of evaporation will not be affected as the standby pump, labeled "8" will be used

instead.


40. What would happen if valve "25" shown in the illustration, vibrated open with the unit in operation? Illustration MO-0111

• (A) The absolute pressure of the unit would increase, causing a decrease in distillate output. o (B) Jacket water would be automatically by-passed around the distiller. o (C) The unit would continue to operate with no adverse effects. o (D) The unit would automatically shut down due to the closing of the low pressure contacts.


41. Under what conditions would the pre-treatment capabilities of a reverse osmosis fresh water generator MOST likely be overloaded, and as a result, these conditions should generally be avoided?

o (A) Entering low temperature seas. o (B) Entering open seas. o (C) Entering high temperature seas. • (D) Entering harbors.


42. If a reverse osmosis fresh water generating unit has a high salinity alarm associated with the fresh water outlet, what should be done?

o (A) The pre-treatment chemical doser should be serviced. o (B) The pre-filters should be serviced by cleaning or replacement. o (C) The post-treatment sterilizer should be serviced. • (D) The membrane modules should be flushed and cleaned.



9/10/2018


43. In a flash-type evaporator, an electrical salinity cell would be installed in the __________.

o (A) distillate inlet to the distillate cooler o (B) distillate outlet from the distillate cooler o (C) condensate drains from the distiller feedwater heater • (D) all of the above


44. Which of the following statements represents the basic principle of operation of an electrical salinity indicator?

o (A) Measures the voltage of the chloride ions. o (B) Measures the hydrogen ion concentration. • (C) Measures the electrical resistance of the water. o (D) Determines the conductivity of the dissolved oxygen.


45. Referring to the illustrated motor ship fresh water cooling system drawing, what statement is true concerning the main engine jacket water cooling temperature control system? Illustration MP-CW-06

o (A) The main engine jacket water 3-way temperature control valve is setup as a diverter and is used to control the main engine jacket water inlet header temperature.

o (B) The main engine jacket water 3-way temperature control valve is setup as a mixer and is used to control the main engine jacket water outlet header temperature.

o (C) The main engine jacket water 3-way temperature control valve is setup as a diverter and is used to control the main engine jacket water outlet header temperature.

• (D) The main engine jacket water 3-way temperature control valve is setup as a mixer and is used to control the main engine jacket water inlet header temperature.


46. What provision is made for sea chests for removal of air ingested into the sea chest of a machinery space sea water cooling system?

o (A) The air may be continuously removed by an open valve located in the drain line originating from the bottom of the sea chest and terminating above the deep-draft load line.

o (B) The air may be continuously removed by an open valve located in the drain line originating from the bottom of the sea chest and terminating in the bilges.

• (C) The air may be continuously removed by an open valve located in the vent line originating from the top of the sea chest and terminating above the deep-draft load line.

o (D) The air may be continuously removed by an open valve located in the vent line originating from the top of the sea chest and terminating in the bilges.



9/10/2018

U.S.C.G. Merchant Marine Exam First Assistant Engineer Q511 General Subjects I Illustrations: 13 47. Referring to the illustrated motor ship fresh water cooling system drawing, which cooling system has

cooling water passing through passages within components that are continuously undergoing motion? Illustration MP-CW-06

o (A) The main engine injector cooling water system. • (B) The main engine piston cooling water system. o (C) The main engine jacket water cooling system. o (D) The SSDG cooling water systems


48. A hydraulic fluid flow control circuit, controlling linear actuator speed during extension, with the pump operating at system pressure, is known as a __________.

o (A) bleed-off circuit • (B) metered-in circuit o (C) bleed-in circuit o (D) metered-out circuit


49. A hydraulic system flow control circuit is shown in the illustration and is known as a __________. Illustration GS-0106

o (A) metered-in circuit o (B) bleed-in circuit • (C) metered-out circuit o (D) bleed-off circuit


50. A hydraulic flow control circuit is shown in the illustration, and is known as a __________. Illustration GS-0107

o (A) metered-out circuit o (B) metered-in circuit • (C) bleed-off circuit o (D) bleed-in circuit


51. If it is necessary to prevent the rudder from moving while a repair is made on the steering system using the illustrated actuator __________. Illustration GS-0116

• (A) secure the valves in the supply and return lines o (B) tighten the locking pins, item "H" at each position of item "I" to keep the rudder from swinging o (C) tighten the locking screws in item "S" o (D) screw in the locking pin, item "J"



9/10/2018

U.S.C.G. Merchant Marine Exam First Assistant Engineer Q511 General Subjects I Illustrations: 13 52. In the illustrated schematic, the device used to replace the six-way valve, as found on many older

type steering gears, is the component labeled as __________. Illustration GS-0123

• (A) "A" o (B) "B" o (C) "F" o (D) "H"


53. The action necessary to use the steering gear room trick wheel when transferring the steering control from the wheelhouse to local control, is to __________.

• (A) align the trick wheel to the rudder angle position before engaging o (B) set the six-way control valve in the trick wheel position o (C) open the power transfer switch before engaging the trick wheel o (D) always place the rudder in the amidships position to engage the trick wheel


54. A command signal input to the steering gear has initiated rudder movement for 20° right rudder. The follow-up mechanism at the beginning of the rudder movement will __________. Illustration GS-0123

• (A) be in motion with a null input o (B) not be in motion, thus a null input o (C) be in motion providing an input to place the variable stroke pump on maximum stroke o (D) be in motion providing an input to place the variable stroke pump at null stroke


55. A horizontal electro-mechanical anchor windlass is equipped with two warping heads, two wildcats, two manual brake handwheels, two clutch control levers, and a multipoint lever-operated, pedestal-mounted controller. What statement is true as it pertains to the operation of the manual brake handwheels?

o (A) The manual brake handwheels control band brakes that are associated with either the wildcats or the warping heads, depending upon the windlass design.

o (B) The manual brake handwheels control band brakes that are associated with both the wildcats and the warping heads.

o (C) The manual brake handwheels control band brakes that are associated with the warping heads only.

• (D) The manual brake handwheels control band brakes that are associated with the wildcats only.



9/10/2018

U.S.C.G. Merchant Marine Exam First Assistant Engineer Q511 General Subjects I Illustrations: 13 56. In attempting to start the hydraulic pump drive motor of a horizontal electro-hydraulic anchor

windlass, what condition would prevent the electric motor from starting?

o (A) Failure to start could be the result of an electrical interlock associated with the wildcat clutches being disengaged.

o (B) Failure to start could be the result of an electrical interlock associated with the hydraulic pump stroke control being in the neutral position.

o (C) Failure to start could be the result of an electrical interlock associated with handwheel operated wildcat band brakes being set.

• (D) Failure to start could be the result of an electrical interlock associated with the hydraulic pump stroke control being in other than the neutral position.


57. A horizontal electro-mechanical anchor windlass is equipped with two warping heads, two wildcats, two manual brake handwheels, two clutch control levers, and a multipoint lever-operated pedestal-mounted controller. What statement is true as it pertains to the operation of the windlass clutch control levers?

o (A) The clutch control levers are used to engage and disengage either the warping heads or the wildcats, depending upon the windlass design.

• (B) The clutch control levers are used to engage and disengage the wildcats only. They have no control over the warping heads.

o (C) The clutch control levers are used to engage and disengage both the warping heads and the wildcats.

o (D) The clutch control levers are used to engage and disengage the warping heads only. They have no control over the wildcats.


58. As it pertains to the automatic hoist winch brake of an electro-hydraulic cargo-handling pedestal-type deck crane, what statement is true?

o (A) The brake is hydraulically set and spring released, and the brake automatically sets when the hoist pump is brought to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power hydraulic pressure.

• (B) The brake is spring set and hydraulically released, and the brake automatically sets when the hoist pump is brought to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power hydraulic pressure.

o (C) The brake is spring set and hydraulically released, and the brake automatically releases when the hoist pump is brought to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power hydraulic pressure.

o (D) The brake is hydraulically set and spring released, and the brake automatically releases when the hoist pump is brought to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power hydraulic pressure.



9/10/2018


59. Which capstan drive arrangement requires a flexible coupling between the reduction gear output shaft and the capstan head input shaft?

o (A) The drive arrangement where the drive motor, electric brake, gear reducer, and capstan head are all located on the weather deck.

• (B) The drive arrangement where the drive motor, electric brake, gear reducer are mounted on the deck below the weather deck, and only the capstan head is located on the weather deck.

o (C) The drive arrangement where the drive motor, electric brake, gear reducer are hung from the underside of the weather deck, and only the capstan head is located on the weather deck.

o (D) A flexible coupling is required on all three drive arrangements listed above.


60. What statement is true concerning the door interlock devices associated with a winding drum or traction drive passenger elevator onboard ship?

• (A) Door interlocks are used to prevent elevator operation if the doors are still open and only allow elevator operation if the doors are proved closed.

o (B) Door interlocks are used to prevent elevator operation if the doors are still closed and only allow elevator operation if the doors are proved open.

o (C) Door interlocks are used to over-ride elevator emergency status in a shipboard emergency when elevators are required to be used.

o (D) Door interlocks are used to prevent elevator operation in a shipboard emergency when elevators are not to be used.


61. Antifriction bearings can be removed undamaged from a shaft by using an arbor press, or wheel puller with a ________.

o (A) split die • (B) split washer or backup ring o (C) ring gage o (D) jack screw


62. The emergency bilge suction valve is typically used __________.

o (A) to connect the rose box to the independent bilge suction • (B) if the bilges become flooded and they cannot be emptied by any other means o (C) when the main condenser becomes fouled, in order to provide additional cooling water

circulation o (D) to inject cleaning additives when the bilges are extremely dirty



9/10/2018


63. Accidental flooding of the engine room bilges through the bilge system is prevented by __________.

o (A) installing a swing check before each bilge valveo (B) using a positive displacement reciprocating bilge pump• (C) stop-check valves installed in the bilge suction manifoldso (D) installing eductors in all bilge rose boxes


64. Which of the following lube oil filters would be considered acceptable for use with today's highdetergent additive type oils?

o (A) Chemically treated paper and waste in cartridges.• (B) Cotton waste packed in perforated metal containers or cylindrical cartridges.o (C) Cylindrical elements containing fullers earth combined with cellulose.o (D) Foamed polyurethane of the impingement type supported on perforated metal rings.


65. Which of the filter/strainer units listed permits you to clean the element while leaving the system onthe line?

• (A) Duplexo (B) Canistero (C) Simplexo (D) Bypass


66. The pump in a hydraulic system mounted on the unit in the illustration may begin to cavitate if__________. Illustration GS-0118

o (A) "A" is allowed to remain openo (B) "B" is over tightenedo (C) "H" were to be removed and the system operated for thirty minutes without it being replaced• (D) "D" is not kept clean


67. Air trapped in the hydraulic fluid of a steering system may be indicated by __________.

• (A) a constantly occurring improper rudder responseo (B) the steering pumps overspeedingo (C) a jammed open relief valveo (D) excessive ram pressure



9/10/2018


68. If a radial piston hydraulic pump fails to deliver rated fluid volume, the cause can be __________.

• (A) obstructed suction passageo (B) contaminated fluido (C) pitted thrust ringso (D) worn pintle bearings


69. Which statement is true concerning the term "isochronous" as it applies to prime mover speedcontrol governors?

o (A) Isochronous governors are able to maintain constant prime mover load regardless of speedby employing temporary speed droop.

o (B) Isochronous governors are able to maintain constant prime mover load regardless of speedby employing permanent speed droop.

• (C) Isochronous governors are able to maintain constant prime mover speed regardless of loadby employing temporary speed droop.

o (D) Isochronous governors are able to maintain constant prime mover speed regardless of loadby employing permanent speed droop.


70. Which of the following speed control devices is used strictly as a safety device to prevent primemover damage and acts by shutting down the prime mover?

o (A) Speed-limiting governoro (B) Underspeed tripo (C) Overspeed governor• (D) Overspeed trip



9/10/2018


9/9/2015

GS-0011

Adapted for testing purposes only

Further reproduction prohibited without permission

MOTOR CHARACTERISTICS Characteristic Specification

Motor (A. C.) Electro Dynamic

Rating H. P. 25

Speed R. P. M. (SYN.) 1200

Frame 365 VY

Type TN

Volts 440

Cycles 60

Phase 3

PUMP CHARACTERISTICS Characteristic Specification

Capacity G. P. M. 400

Speed R. P. M. 1150

Suction Lift “HG 10

B, H, P. @ 1200 SSU-75° F 24.9

Oil viscosity Range, SSU 74-7000

Viscosity Normal SSU @ 140° F 155

Discharge Normal PSIG 55

Fluid Handled, Lube Oil 2190 TEP.

Navy Specification MIL-L-17331

Oil Temperature Range ° F

40-180

Illustration scale: 1” = 1’



9/23/2015

GS-0023

Adapted for testing purposes only from GIACHINO, Engineering

Technical Drafting & Graphics, Third Edition

Copyright © 1972 by American Technical Society

Further reproduction prohibited without permission of 31 Q511 General Subjects I


10/22/2015

GS-0038

Adapted for testing purposes only from COOVER-HELSEL Programmed

Blueprint Reading, Second Edition

Copyright © 1970 by McGraw-Hill, Inc.



10/27/2015

GS-0107





3/23/2016

GS-0116

Adapted for testing purposes only from HUNT, Modern Marine Engineer’s Manual, Volume II




11/9/2015

GS-0123





5/24/2016

GS-0153

Adapted for testing purposes only from Operator, Unit and Direct Support Maintenance Manual

Including Repair Parts and Special Tools List for Oil Water Separator

TM 55-1925-285-13 & P


National Maritime CenterProviding Credentials to Mariners

2/21/2018

GS-0175

Adapted for testing purposes only from Heli-Sep Model 550/OCD Technical ManualCopyright © by Coffin World Water Systems



10/10/2017

MO-0110

Adapted for testing purposes only from Instruction Manual for

Freshwater Generator Type VSP-36-100/125 CC/SWC

Copyright © Alfa Laval Desalt

Further reproduction prohibited without permission


National Maritime CenterProviding Credentials to Mariners

2/21/2018

MO-0111

Adapted for testing purposes only from KNAK, Diesel MotorShips' Engines and Machinery Diagrams

Copyright © 1979 The Institute of Marine Engineers.Further reproduction prohibited without permission. of 31

Q511 General Subjects I

u.s.c.g. merchant marine exam first assistant engineer ... · u.s.c.g. merchant marine exam first...

Documents