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UPSC Prelims Test Series 2019 DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO TEST BOOKLET GENERAL STUDIES: Test 23 TOPIC: GS Comprehensive test 2 Date: 21-04-2019 Time Allowed: 2 Hr Maximum Marks: 200 I N S T R U C T I O N S 1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOK. 2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode and fill in the Roll Number and Test Booklet Series A, B, C or D carefully without any omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any omission/discrepancy will render the Answer Sheet liable for rejection. 3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the test booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet. 4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item. 5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. 6. See directions in the Answer Sheet. 7. All items carry equal marks. 8. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate. 9. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet. 10. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end. 11. Penalty for wrong answers: 12. THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS. There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question. If a question is left bank i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.

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UPSC Prelims Test Series 2019

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

TEST BOOKLET GENERAL STUDIES: Test 23

TOPIC: GS Comprehensive test 2 Date: 21-04-2019 Time Allowed: 2 Hr Maximum Marks: 200

I N S T R U C T I O N S

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOK.

2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode and fill in the Roll Number and Test Booklet Series A, B, C or D carefully without any omission or

discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any

omission/discrepancy will render the Answer Sheet liable for rejection. 3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the test booklet

in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything

else on the Test Booklet. 4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed in English. Each

item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to

mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response,

mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response

for each item. 5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. 6. See directions in the Answer Sheet. 7. All items carry equal marks. 8. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test

Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent

to you with your Admission Certificate. 9. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the

examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet.

You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet. 10. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end. 11. Penalty for wrong answers: 12. THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE

OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.

There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as wrong answer even if one of the

given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.

If a question is left bank i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.

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1. Consider the following statements about 'Acid Igneous‟ rocks: 1. They are denser than basic igneous

rocks. 2. They have a high percentage of silica

than that of basic igneous rocks. 3. They are darker than basic igneous

rocks. Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

2. Which of the following is the correct

sequence of „Cloud Forms‟ in an

ascending order of their heights from the ground? (a) Cirrus-Altocumulus-Stratus (b) Stratus-Altocumulus-Cirrus (c) Stratus-Cirrus-Altocumulus (d) Altocumulus-Stratus-Cirrus

3. Consider the following statements

regarding „Extra-tropical cyclones‟: 1. Extra-tropical cyclones have a clear

frontal system which is absent in tropical cyclones.

2. Extra-tropical cyclones move from east to west whereas tropical cyclones move from west to east.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

4. With reference to „Oceanic Currents‟,

which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Oceanic currents flow clockwise in

northern hemisphere and anti-clockwise in southern hemisphere.

2. Warm ocean currents are mainly

responsible for high salinity in Dead Sea of Palestine.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

5. Which among the following climate types are conspicuously absent in the southern hemisphere? 1. Mediterranean Climate 2. Siberian Climate 3. Laurentian Climate 4. British Climate

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4

6. Recently some sites have been

accorded „in principle‟ approval by Government of India to set up nuclear

reactors in future. In this context, which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

Nuclear Plant Site State

1 Jaitapur Maharashtra

2 Haripur Madhya Pradesh

3 Bhimpur West Bengal

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

7. The term – „Von Kramer‟ was in news

recently. It refers to _____________ (a) World‟s first artificial intelligence news

anchor. (b) Family of six industry-standard

microprocessors. (c) Crater within the South Pole basin on

the Moon. (d) Polarimetry doppler weather radar.

8. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

Report : Published by

1. Global Status Report : REN21 2. Global Financial Stability Report :

World Economic Forum 3. Global Money Laundering Report :

World Bank Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only

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9. The Union Ministry of Finance has advised banks in India to consider issuing contactless debit cards from end of 2018. Which of the following are the features of a contactless debit cards? 1. The range at which such card can be

read is very large. 2. They have an embedded antenna. 3. They work on infrared technology.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

10. Hypoxia, or oxygen depletion, is an environmental phenomenon where the concentration of dissolved oxygen in the water column decreases to a level that can no longer support living aquatic organisms. Hypoxia can be linked to __________. 1. Lead 2. Nitrogen 3. Phosphorus 4. Arsenic

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only

11. India had launched Project Tiger in

1973 to conserve tigers. Till now, the coverage of “Project Tiger” has increased from 9 reserves to 50 tiger reserves spread across 18 states. Which among the following states do not have a tiger reserve? 1. Punjab 2. Himachal Pradesh 3. Assam 4. Tripura

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 4 only

12. With reference to the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI), consider the following statements. 1. Its origin can be traced to Special

Police Establishment (SPE) set up in 1941 by Government of India.

2. The present provision of selection committee for appointment of its chief is in accordance with the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013.

3. Its jurisdiction to a state or UT is subjected to consent from the concerned state or UT.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1 only (d) 1 and 3 only

13. Angel Tax, recently in the news, is

(a) an income tax payable on capital raised by unlisted companies through shares at price above the fair market value of the shares.

(b) an income tax payable on capital raised by listed companies through shares at price above the fair market value of the shares.

(c) an income tax payable on capital raised by unlisted companies through shares at price below the fair market value of the shares.

(d) an income tax payable on capital raised by listed companies through shares at price below the fair market value of the shares

14. World Social Protection Report 2017 - 19, sometimes seen in the news, is published by (a) World Economic Forum (b) United Nations High Commissioner

for Refugees (c) International Labour Organisation

United Nations Office for the

(d) Coordination of Humanitarian Affairs

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15. The term Haircut, sometimes seen in the news related to banking, is (a) The loss in net revenue of a bank due

to increase in inflation. (b) The difference between the actual

dues from a borrower and the amount one settles with the bank.

(c) The loss in revenue of a bank due to priority sector lending.

(d) The loss in revenue of a bank due to implementation of cybersecurity measures in their system.

16. With reference to the Hunter Commission, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Emphasis on improvement of primary

education. 2. Establishment of a University Grants

Commission. 3. Use of English as a medium of

instruction at all levels Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

17. The term “2 + 1 dialogue”, recently

in news, is related to the affairs of

(a) USA and South Korea with North Korea

(b) China and India with a regional country

(c) Japan and South Korea with North Korea

(d) USA and Canada with regional countries

18. Consider the following pairs: Folk Art State

1. Dollu Kunitha Karnataka 2. Chhapeli Odisha 3. Tamang Selo Sikkim

Which of the pairs given above is/are

correctly matched? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 3 only

19. Consider the following statements regarding Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan -Dhan (Pm- Sym) Yojana. 1. Workers from unorganised sectors

with monthly income of Rs. 15000 or less are eligible for this scheme.

2. Children working in family-based enterprises are eligible to avail benefits.

3. During the receipt of pension, if the subscriber dies, the spouse of the beneficiary is entitled to receive only 50 % of the pension received by the beneficiary.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1 only

20. With reference to Generalised

System of Preferences, consider the following statements: 1. It is a WTO mechanism of preferential

trade to be adopted by member countries.

2. It helps spur sustainable development in beneficiary countries.

Which of the statement given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

21. 82.5 E longitude or the IST line

passes through which of the following set of states in India? (a) Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh and

Jharkhand (b) Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh and

Andhra Pradesh (c) Odisha, Andhra Pradesh and West

Bengal (d) Bihar, Madhya Pradesh and Andhra

Pradesh

22. Colombo Declaration, recently in the news, is related to (a) Bottom trawling (b) Drug trafficking in Indian Ocean

Region (c) Promoting education among Tamil

Minority (d) Cooperation among SAARC countries

in counter terrorism

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23. Which among the following is related to the June 3 plan? (a) Creation of a federal government with

residuary powers to the Governor. (b) Rejection of the demand for a separate

Pakistan. (c) Independence to princely states to join

India or Pakistan (d) Setting up of a Boundary Commission

to demarcate the boundaries between India and Pakistan

24. Consider the following statements regarding Postal Life Insurance (PLI) 1. Both government employee and

working professionals are eligible for PLI.

2. Low premium and high bonus as compared to private insurance is a unique feature of PLI.

3. It is under the aegis of Ministry of Communications and Information Technology.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

25. With reference to pardoning power

of the President and the Governor, consider the following statements. 1. Pardoning power under Art 72 and

161 is beyond judicial review. 2. Under Art 72, President needs to act

on the advice of council of ministers, however under Art 161, Governor has the right to act on his own discretion.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

26. Money Multiplier refers to how an initial deposit in bank can lead to a bigger final increase in the total money supply. Which of the following has a positive effect on money multiplier? (a) Export earning (b) Import spending (c) Tight monetary policy (d) Increase in currency drain ratio

27. With reference to the Lingayata sect, consider the following statements: 1. It emerged as a reform movement

against Brahmanical social order in the 12th century.

2. It believes in monotheism. 3. Their devotional songs known as

vachanas are composed in Kannada and Sanskrit.

4. Basavanna lived during the reign of the Kalachuri-dynasty king Bijjala I.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 2 and 4 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

28. With reference to “Artificial Moon”, recently in the news, consider the following statements: 1. It will use nuclear fusion technology

to generate energy. 2. It could help rescue efforts by

illuminating disaster zones in blackout areas.

3. It will be jointly launched by China and Russia.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

29. A situation has arised where in the

union is making laws on subjects enumerated in the state list, fundamental rights under Art 19 are suspended and the tenure of the Parliament has been extended by a year. Which of the following best describes the situation above? (a) External Aggression (b) Armed Rebellion

(c) Financial Emergency (d) Both (a) and (b)

30. With reference to the religious

practices in India, the term „Aryikas‟ is related to (a) Buddhism (b) Zoroastrianism (c) Jainism (d) Vaishnavism

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31. Consider the following statements. 1. The Producer Price Index (PPI)

measures the average change in the prices of goods and services, either as they leave the place of production or as they enter the production process.

2. The Consumer Price Index (CPI) measures changes in prices from buyers or consumer‟s perspective.

3. The Wholesale Price Index (WPI) basket tracks prices of bulk transactions at first stage of all intermediate and final products.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 only

(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

32. The term “Meghalayan Age”, seen

recently in the news, describes (a) a period of mega-drought that

devastated civilisations across the world in the Holocene epoch.

(b) a time when continental landmasses were low and sea levels were rising.

(c) era of major extinction event where 60% of marine genera went extinct.

(d) Earth‟s geological history to mark the substantial influence of humans on geology and climate

33. Consider the following statements regarding UNNATI Programme of ISRO: 1. It is a capacity building programme

on Nanosatellite development. 2. It will provide training to Indian

private companies for their enhanced participation in future space programmes.

3. It is an initiative to commemorate the 50th anniversary of UNISPACE+50.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

34. With reference to Hydroponics

Technology, sometimes in news,

consider the following statements:

1. Using this technology, plants are grown in a soil-less medium.

2. The plant roots are submerged in oxygenated water solution containing all essential nutrients and minerals.

3. Plants grown using this technology are free from diseases.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

35. With reference to Maulana Abul

Kalam Azad, which of the following statement is incorrect? (a) He was the youngest to become

President of Indian National Congress. (b) He was the first Education Minister of

Independent India. (c) He is a recipient of Bharat Ratna. (d) He presided over Indian National

Congress three times.

36. Which one of the following was not a characteristic of the Quit India Movement? (a) Formation of parallel governments in

parts of the country. (b) Setting up of arbitration courts (c) Absence of communal clashes (d) Active all-India participation of

princely states

37. Who among the following sets of personalities are related with the formulation of the „Bombay Plan‟ of 1944? (a) EMS Namboodiripad, G.D. Birla,

Jawaharlal Nehru (b) Purushottamdas Thakurdas, John

Mathai, Ashok Mehta (c) J.R.D. Tata, G.D. Birla,

Purushottamdas Thakurdas (d) J.R.D. Tata, G.D. Birla, Ram Manohar

Lohia

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38. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the Permanent Settlement System of Bengal? (a) Hereditary rights of succession over

land were abolished. (b) Pattas or title deeds were to be issued

by the British governor in charge. (c) Land ownership rights were given to

the zamindar. (d) Amount paid by the landlords to the

government was fixed for a period of two years.

39. Which of the following had a bearing on the Civil Services during the colonial rule? 1. Aitchison Commission

2. Hunter Committee 3. Lee Commission 4. Montague Chelmsford Reforms

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 3 and 4 only

40. With reference to Living Planet

Report 2018, consider the following statements: 1. It is published by World Wildlife Fund

(WWF). 2. Overexploitation and agricultural

activity are still the dominant causes of current species loss.

3. Biocapacity is the ability of ecosystems to renew themselves.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

41. Which of the following is not

correct about the Indian Councils Act

of 1892? (a) Supplementary questions could be

asked. (b) Budget could be discussed. (c) Increase in the non-official members

in the Imperial Legislative Council (d) Introduction of an element of election

for the first time.

42. “Xylophis indicus”, recently seen in news, is (a) A newly discovered catfish species

endemic to Brahmaputra river system.

(b) Tree frog species rediscovered in Eastern Ghats

(c) Wood snake species recently discovered in Western Ghats.

(d) It is the Scientific name of Gangetic Dolphins

43. Consider the following statements: 1. The polar vortex is a large area of high

pressure and cold air surrounding both of the Earth‟s poles.

2. It always exists near the poles.

3. Portions of Europe and Asia do not experience cold surges connected to the polar vortex.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

44. With reference to the political

associations formed during the colonial rule, consider the following pairs:

Association : Founder 1. Landholders Society: Dwarkanath

Tagore 2. Indian League : Surendranath

Banerjee 3. Indian Association: Anand Mohan

Bose Which of the statements given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only

45. Which one of the following foreign

travellers gave a glowing account of the administration in the empire of Krishnadeva Raya? (a) Ralph Fitch (b) Francois Bernier (c) Captain Hawkins (d) Eduardo Barbosa

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46. With reference to the Fiscal Program of India, consider the following statements: 1. In recent years, non-tax receipts form

a larger part of the Union Government‟s revenue than the tax receipts.

2. According to the Budget-2019, Fiscal Deficit is pegged at 3.4% of the GDP for the year 2019-20 and the target for 2020-21 has been set at 3%.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

47. Which among the following pairs of

national parks in India are the most recent ones to be included in the World Network of Biosphere Reserves? (a) Achanakmar-Amarkantak and

Seshachalam Hills (b) Achanakmar-Amarkantak and

Khangchendzonga (c) Agasthyamalai and Khangchendzonga (d) Achanakmar-Amarkantak and

Agasthyamalai

48. Consider the following statements

regarding Oxytocin: 1. It is also known as cuddle drug 2. It is a reproductive hormone present

in all mammals 3. It is used by farmers to increase the

size of their produce. 4. Farmers use it indiscriminately to

increase milk production in cattle. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 2 and 4 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

49. Asia‟s first EPZ (Export Processing Zone) was set up in. (a) Kandla (b) Kolkata (c) Ambela (d) Ahmedabad

50. Which of the following is/are the applications of laughing gas - nitrous oxide? 1. Medical anaesthetic 2. Fuel additive 3. Food processing

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

51. Recently the Union Cabinet

approved the launch of National Mission on Interdisciplinary Cyber-Physical Systems (NMICPS). In the

context of Cyberphysical system (CPS), which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. They are physical and engineered

systems whose operations are monitored, coordinated, controlled and integrated by a computing and communication core.

2. CPS engineering has a strong emphasis on uniquely identifiable and internet connected devices and embedded system.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

52. NASA‟s Visualizing Ion Outflow via

Neutral Atom Sensing-2 (VISIONS-2) was in news recently. In this context which of the following is the objective of this mission? (a) To get a closer look at how the Earth's

atmosphere is slowly leaking into space.

(b) To study the sun during solar maximum, researching energetic

particles, coronal mass ejections and interplanetary shocks in the inner heliosphere.

(c) To study cosmic X-rays emitted from neutron stars.

(d) To study Gravitational waves caused by massive objects moving with extreme accelerations

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53. Consider the following statements about „Joint Forest Management‟ (JFM) in Indian context: 1. The objectives of JFM find no mention

in the National Forest Policy of 1988. 2. Under JFM, village communities are

entrusted with protection and management of nearby forests.

3. Forest departments with the help of local community form a committee to manage and protect forests.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

54. Which of the following components is/are comprised of the „National Initiative on Climate Resilient Agriculture (NICRA)‟? 1. Research on adaptation and

mitigation 2. Technology demonstration on farmers‟

field 3. Additional subsidies to fertilizer

industries Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

55. A woman visited a few Indian states

in a particular sequence during her official tour. She encountered one unique wildlife species in each state in the following order: 1. Asiatic Lion 2. Hangul 3. Red Panda 4. Great Indian Bustard

Select the correct order of the Indian

states visited by the woman from the code given below:

(a) Rajasthan - Jammu & Kashmir - Arunachal Pradesh - Gujarat

(b) Gujarat - Arunachal Pradesh - Jammu & Kashmir - Rajasthan

(c) Gujarat - Rajasthan - Jammu & Kashmir - Arunachal Pradesh

(d) Gujarat - Jammu & Kashmir - Arunachal Pradesh – Rajasthan

56. Consider the following statements with reference to „Sea Grasses‟: 1. Like seaweeds, sea grasses are also

macroscopic algae. 2. Sea grasses usually grow in brackish

water. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

57. This protected site mostly consists

of tropical forests along with unique genetic reservoir of cultivated plants like cardamom and pepper. It

constitutes three wildlife sanctuaries and one tiger reserve. It is home to Kani tribes and occupies a prominent place in the epic Ramayana. Which of the following protected areas could be this? (a) Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve (b) Pachmari Biosphere Reserve (c) Agasthyamalai Biosphere Reserve (d) Achanakamar-Amarkantak Biosphere

Reserve

58. With reference to Indian Network Climate Change Assessment (INCCA),

Which of the following regions does not come under „4X4 Assessment‟? (a) Himalayan region (b) North-East region (c) Central India (d) Coastal plains

59. With reference to Regional

Integrated Multi-Hazard Early Warning System for Africa and Asia (RIMES), consider the following statements: 1. It is evolved from the efforts of

countries in Africa and Asia, in the aftermath of the 2004 Indian Ocean tsunami.

2. RIMES operates from its regional early warning centre located at Hyderabad.

3. Currently, India chairs the RIMES Council.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

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60. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding 'Arrow 3', that was in the news recently? 1. It is India‟s highest-altitude missile

interception system. 2. It is capable of shooting down

satellites. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

61. The 'International North–South

Transport Corridor (INSTC) project', was in the news recently. With

reference to it, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. INSTC project was initiated by India,

Pakistan, Russia and Iran. 2. Each member state has to sign the

Ashgabat agreement to become the part of the project.

3. Afghanistan is not a member of the INSTC project.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) None of the above

62. A parliamentary panel has recently

recommended that necessary steps must be taken to open new uranium mines to ensure sufficient amount of uranium in India. In this context, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Imported uranium in India is used

both for weapons and civil nuclear programmes.

2. Major portion of uranium for domestic production in India comes from the Jaduguda mines in Jharkhand.

3. Uranium Corporation of India Ltd is the only organisation responsible for mining and processing of uranium ore for commercial purposes.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

63. Which of the following is/are correct regarding Champaran Satyagraha? 1. Peasants were forced to grow indigo

on 3/10 of the total land under Tinkathia system.

2. Raj Kumar Shukla requested Mahatma Gandhi to look into the problem.

3. Gandhi used Non-Cooperation to solve the matter.

Select the correct code (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 2 and 3 only

64. Iltutmish is considered to be the real founder of Delhi Sultanate. Which of the following statements are correct about Iltutmish 1. He was the first king in India to mint

coins in Arabic. 2. He completed the famous Qutub

Minar in praise of his predecessor Qutub ud din Aibak .

3. He was dethroned by his daughter Razia Sultan.

Select the code from following: (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) None of the above

65. Which of the following statements

are correct regarding „Vayoshreshtha Samman‟? 1. It is conferred by Ministry Culture. 2. It is conferred to senior citizens and

institutions in recognition for their service to senior citizens.

3. It was elevated to the level of National Awards under different categories.

Select the code from below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only (d) All of the above

66. Like Minded Developing Countries

(LMDC) group includes: Select one:

(a) India, China, Venezuela and Iran. (b) Brazil, China, India, South Africa. (c) Chile, Qatar, Pakistan, China. (d) India, China, South Africa, Indonesia.

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67. Which of the following statements are correct about the Army reforms of Alauddin khilji ? 1. He was the first Sultan to have a

standing army. 2. He used to give salaries to his army in

form of grains and land grants. 3. He organized his army on decimal

pattern i.e. multiples of 10. 4. In order to check fraud, he introduced

the concept of „ Dagh ‟ – branding of horse and „ Chehra ‟ – identification of soldiers.

Select the code from below: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 1 and 3 only

(d) All of the above

68. Consider the following statements about Australia group 1. It is an informal bloc of countries that

keeps a tight control over exports of conventional weapons.

2. India is a member of the group. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

69. Which of the following statements

with respect to Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI) is/are correct? 1. The Directorate of Revenue

Intelligence is the apex antismuggling agency of India working under Ministry of Finance.

2. Its functions include detecting and curbing illicit international trade in wildlife and environmentally sensitive items.

3. It is tasked with combating commercial frauds related to international trade and evasion of

Customs duty. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

70. Consider the following statements regarding Buddhist literature: 1. Suttapitaka is a compilation of

sayings of Buddha. 2. Vinaypitaka is a compilation of rules

of Sangha. 3. Abhidhamma pitaka is a compilation

of philosophies of Dhamma. Identify the incorrect statement:

(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None of above

71. Identify the correct statement:

1. The crowd gathered in Jallianwala Bagh in support of non-cooperation

movement. 2. Rabindranath Tagore renounced his

knighthood in protest against Jallianwala Bagh incident.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

72. Cholas were undoubtedly the

greatest of the South Indian rulers with largest kingdom at their peak.

Which of the following statements are correct regarding Cholas? 1. Cholas had a strong navy and they

invaded and annexed Sri Lanka. 2. The Brihadeshwara temple at Tanjore,

built by Rajraja Chola is the first granite temple in the World.

3. Cholas were first Indian rulers to install their and their wife‟s statues in the temple, showing divinity of the ruler.

Select the code from below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only

(d) All of the above

73. 'Global Risks Report' is prepared by the _________. (a) European Central Bank (b) International Monetary Fund (c) World Economic Forum (d) Organization for Economic

Cooperation and Development

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74. Which of the following Bhakti Saints preached the „Nirguna‟ philosophy? 1. Nanak 2. Kabir 3. Surdas 4. Tulsidas

Select the code from below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) All of the above

75. Which of the following statements

are correct about Dr. B.R. Ambedkar? 1. He was author of books like „The

Annihilation of Caste‟ and „Pakistan or

the Partition of India‟. 2. He was founder of Independent

Labour Party. 3. His death anniversary is observed as

Mahaparinirvan Divas. Select the correct code

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

76. Consider the following statements

regarding suspension of MPs in Lok Sabha :

1. The Speaker is empowered to suspend a member for the remaining part of the day or remainder of the session

2. The Speaker alone has the authority to revoke such suspension

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

77. Which of the following are members

of selection committee of Lokpal? 1. Prime Minister

2. Union Cabinet Minister nominated by PM

3. Chief Justice of India 4. Leader of Largest Opposition Party 5. Eminent jurist

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 3 and 4 only (b) 1 and 4 only (c) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

78. Consider the following statements related to Fugitive Economic Offenders : 1. A person can be named as a fugitive

economic offender if an arrest warrant is made against him/her for involvement in economic offences involving at least Rs.100 crore and has fled from India to escape legal action

2. A person declared as a fugitive economic offender can challenge such declaration in a High Court within 30 days

3. Even after a person returns to India, the declaration continues to be in operation

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

79. Which of the following is not

correct with regards to private members bill? (a) Private Member‟s Bill requires a one

month notice to be introduced in the floor of the House

(b) They can be introduced only in Lok Sabha

(c) As a convention, they are introduced only in Fridays

(d) Private Member Bill can also be a Constitutional Amendment Bill

80. With reference to the Katowice Climate Talks, Consider the following statements: 1. It refers to UNFCCC COP- 23 which

took place in 2018. 2. The conference welcomed the IPCC

report on 1.5°c. 3. The participating Nations came up

with a detailed “operating manual” of

2015 Paris Agreement. Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 3 only

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81. Which one among the statement given below best describes about “Cobots”? (a) They were designed to replace

humans presence completely in the working site.

(b) Suitable for executing an automated task without human interaction.

(c) Closed area of operation is ensured with fences and cages.

(d) Easy programming nature makes it to fit for customized tasks.

82. Everything in this universe is made up of atoms but every atom is made up of atomic and subatomic particles. With this context. Consider the

following pairs: Particles Special features/names

1. Bosons : Force particles 2. Protons : Electromagnetic particles 3. Electrons : More stable Particles 4. Neutrons : Baryonic particle

Which of the above given pairs is/are correctly matched?

(a) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only

83. Which among the following is a

kind of naturally occurring radio isotopic material which is non self fissionable by thermal neutrons but can be converted into a fissile material by neutron absorption and subsequent nuclei conversions. 1. Thorium - 232 2. Uranium - 235 3. Uranium - 238 4. Plutonium - 239

Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

84. Treaty of Pelindaba is associated with which of the following? (a) Agreement to ensure that Russia and

US won‟t deploy nuclear missiles in Cuba

(b) Ensuring denuclearization of Africa (c) Keeping Latin America as a nuclear

weapon free zone (d) Establishment of African Union

85. Recently during the General Conference on Weights and Measures all the member scientists had voted to define the International System of Units (SI) in terms of fundamental constants that describes the natural world. With respect to this which among the following pairs is correctly matched? Units : New representation 1. Kilogram : Planck‟s constant 2. Kelvin : Avagadro‟s constant 3. Mole : Boltzmann‟s constant 4. Metre : Speed of light

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 4 only

(b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only

86. With reference to the International

Criminal Court (ICC), which of the following statements is correct? (a) ICC forms part of the United Nations

Organisation (b) In the cases of genocide, crimes

against humanity and war crimes, if ICC decides to take up the case and national judicial systems has to abide by the decision

(c) India is not a member of ICC (d) ICC sits in Rome, Italy

87. With reference to Bharat Stage

Emission Norms, consider the following statements : 1. It is based on European regulations 2. India is currently using BS-V norms

and it has decided to skip BS-VI and adopt BS-VII by 2020

3. Along with reducing air pollution, BS norms also has the potential to decrease the cost of vehicles

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None of the above

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88. Consider the following statements regarding Government e-Marketplace : 1. It is the National Public Procurement

Portal for India 2. It is used for procurement of common

goods and services 3. Local bodies can also use GeM for

procurement Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3

89. Which of the following countries

are involved in a dispute over the

control of Migingo Island? (a) Italy and Greece (b) Kenya and Uganda (c) United Kingdom and Argentina (d) Australia and Papua New Guinea

90. Recently BSNL had announced its VoIP service in our country in the name of BSNL Wings app. Which one among the following statements best describes about this BSNL‟s “VoIP technology”? (a) Mobile app is mandatory for making a

call through internet. (b) Call connectivity is not possible with

other private companies Wi-Fi hotspots.

(c) Voice calling is possible even in the absence of SIM card.

(d) It‟s the first technology which provides Video calling facility to the landlines to mobile phone and vice versa.

91. With reference to the Muziris Heritage Project, which among the following statements is/are correct? 1. Muziris was an ancient port located

on the east coast of India.

2. Muziris port is being mentioned in the Sangam literature.

3. The Muziris Heritage Project is the largest conservation project in the country.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) Only 1 and 2 (b) Only 1 and 3 (c) Only 2 and 3 (d) All of the above

92. What did the 'Tanzeem' and 'Tabligh' movements aimed for? (a) To create a nationalistic militant force

among Muslims. (b) To have communal consolidation and

do religious conversions (c) To impart liberal ideology among

Muslim Youths. (d) To fight for the formation of an

independent Pakistan. 93. Which of the following leaders

participated in 'Individual Satyagraha'? 1. Vinoba Bhave 2. C. Rajagopalachari 3. Jawaharlal Nehru

4. Sarojini Naidu Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) Only 1, 2 and 3 (b) Only 1, 3 and 4 (c) Only 2 and 4 (d) All of the above

94. Which of the following taxes form

part of receipts of revenue account of budget in India? 1. Income tax 2. Corporation tax 3. Customs duty

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) Only 1 and 2 (b) Only 2 and 3 (c) Only 1 and 3 (d) All of the above

95. Consider the following statements

regarding National Financial Reporting Authority: 1. It is headed Union Finance Minister 2. It can make recommendations on the

foundation and laying down of accounting and auditing policies and standards

3. It also enjoys the powers of a civil court in some matters

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(a) Only 1 (b) Only 1 and 2 (c) Only 2 and 3 (d) All of the above

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96. Consider the following statements about Non Banking Financial Companies: 1. NBFCs are regulated by RBI 2. NBFCs cannot accept demand

deposits 3. NBFCs cannot issue cheques drawn

on itself Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(a) Only 1 (b) Only 1 and 2 (c) Only 2 and 3 (d) All of the above

97. Consider the following regarding

the concept of Engel‟s law:

1. It states that as income rises, the proportion of income spend on food falls,

2. According to this law, smaller a person‟s income, greater the proportion of it that he will spend on food and vice versa.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

98. Consider the following statements:

1. Vote on Account deals only with the expenditure side of the government‟s budget.

2. Interim Budget does not give the complete financial statement, like a full Budget.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

99. Foreign exchange reserves in India

includes: 1. Foreign Exchange Assets of RBI 2. Gold stock of RBI 3. SDR holding of the Government.

Correct answer code is: (a) Only 1 and 2 (b) Only 2 and 3 (c) Only 1 and 3 (d) All of the above

100. Which one of the following inscriptions of Asoka refers to his name as “Devnampiyadasi” or “Priyadarshi”? (a) Maski rock edict (b) Sarnath pillar edict (c) Rummindei pillar edict (d) Nigalisagar pillar edict

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Important Takeaways From the session