UPKAR PRAKASHAN, AGRA–2

ByDr. Lal & Jain

Revised & Enlarged Edition

2018

[ For the Post of Inspector (Income-Tax), Inspector (Central Excise),Inspector (Preventive Officer), Inspector (Examiner), Assistant, Sub-Inspector (CBI), Inspector of Posts, Assistant Enforcement Officer,Inspector (CBN)/Sub-Inspector (CBN), Divisional Accountant,Accountant, Junior Accountant and Accountant, Auditors,Statistical Investigator GR.II, Tax Assistant, Compiler, UDCs. etc. ]

© Publishers

Publishers

UPKAR PRAKASHAN2/11A, Swadeshi Bima Nagar, AGRA–282 002Phone : 4053333, 2530966, 2531101Fax : (0562) 4053330E-mail : care@upkar.in, Website : www.upkar.in

Branch Offices :4845, Ansari Road, Daryaganj,New Delhi—110 002Phone : 011–23251844/66

Paras Bhawan(First Floor),Khazanchi Road,Patna—800 004Phone : 0612–2673340

16-11-23/37, Moosarambagh, TeeganGuda, Opp. RTA Office Main Road,Beside–Andhra BankHyderabad—500 036 (T. S.)Phone : 040–66753330

H-3, Block-B, MunicipalPremises No. 15/2, Galiff Street,P. S. Shyampukur,Kolkata—700 003 (W.B.)Mob. : 07439359515

B-33, Blunt Square, Kanpur TaxiStand Lane, Mawaiya,Lucknow—226 004 (U.P.)Phone : 0522–4109080

8-310/1, A. K. House,Heeranagar, Haldwani,Distt.—Nainital—263 139 (Uttarakhand)Mob. : 7060421008

1461, Juni Shukrawari,Sakkardara Road,Opp. Hanuman Mandir,Nagpur—440 009Phone : 0712–6564222

63-64, Kailash Marg,Ground Floor,Shreeji Avenue, Malharganj,Indore—452 002 (M.P.)Phone : 9203908088

● The publishers have taken all possible precautions in publishing this book, yet if any mistakehas crept in, the publishers shall not be responsible for the same.

● This book or any part thereof may not be reproduced in any form by Photographic,Mechanical, or any other method, for any use, without written permission from the Publishers.

● Only the courts at Agra shall have the jurisdiction for any legal dispute.

ISBN : 978-81-7482-481-3

Code No. 489

Printed at : UPKAR PRAKASHAN (Printing Unit) Bye-pass, AGRA

Contents● Previous Years’ Papers—Fully Solved

SECTION-IGeneral Intelligence & Reasoning 1–76

➣ Paper Folding Type Questions 3

➣ Completion of a Figure by itsQuadrant 4

➣ Embeded Figures 5

➣ Figure and Pieces 7

➣ To Make the Figure with PiecesGiven in the Question Part 9

➣ To Find out the Fourth Figure 10

➣ To Find the Concealed Figure 15

➣ Analogy Test 17

➣ Number Analogy Test 21

➣ To Find a Missing Term in aSeries 26

➣ To Find the Odd Number 30

➣ To Make the Meaningful Wordswith the Selected Letters ofa Given Particular Word 33

➣ Coding and Decoding Test 34

➣ Direction Sense Test 38

➣ Blood Relation 39

➣ Arranging in Proper Sequence 41

➣ Assigning Artificial Values andMissing Number 42

➣ Matrix Type Test 46

➣ Logic 49

➣ Problems on Alphabet 53

➣ Questions on Calendar and Clock 55

➣ Venn Diagram Type Test 57

➣ Dice Type Test (Cube Type Test) 58

➣ To Find Figures From the Picture 62

➣ To Find the Number of Diagonalsin a Given Figure 63

➣ To Find Out the Components of theGiven Figure 68

➣ Grouping of Figures into Classes 68

—Miscellaneous Exercise I 72

—Miscellaneous Exercise II 73● Puzzle Test 1–12

● Cause and Effect 13–14

● Decision-Making 15–19

● To Find Hidden Figure 20–25

● Word Building 26–33

● Syllogism 34–40

● Statement and Assumptions 41–47

● Statement and Arguments 48–51

● Clerical Aptitude 1–16

(Small and Capital Letters Coding-decoding; Classification of CentreCodes/Roll Numbers; AddressMatching, Date and City Matching;Capital Letters and Numbers Coding-Decoding; Capital Letters and SmallLetters Classification; Matrix)

SECTION-II

General Awareness ⎩⎩⎩⎩⎨⎨⎨⎨⎧⎧⎧⎧1–401–16

SECTION-III

Mathematics 1–1601. Numbers 3–82. Square Root 9–113. Unitary Method 12–154. Work and Time 16–19

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5. Time and Distance 20–256. Percentage 26–287. Simple Interest 29–338. Compound Interest 34–389. Profit and Loss 39–45

10. Ratio and Proportion 46–5111. Variation 52–5512. Partnership 56–5713. Average 58–6014. H. C. F. and L. C. M. 61–6315. Logarithms and their Use 64–6616. Area 67–7017. Cuboid and Cube 71–7218. Cylinder 73–7419. Cone 75–7720. Sphere 78–8021. Factorisation and Remainder

Theorem 81–8222. H. C. F. and L. C. M. of

Polynomials 83–8423. Equations 85–8724. Roots of a Quadratic Equation 88–9025. Set Language and

Notations 91–9226. Laws of Indices 93–9427. Lines and Angles 95–9728. Triangles 98–10229. Quadrilaterals 103–10630. Circle 107–11031. Loci 111–112

32. Trigonometric Ratios 113–11833. Trigonometric Identities 119–12234. Use of Trigonometric Table 123–12335. Height and Distance 124–12836. Data Collection and Tabulation 129–13037. Graphical Representation 131–13138. Calculation of Mean 132–13639. Decimal Fraction 137–14040. Discount 141–14241. Mixture & Allegation 143–14542. Mensuration 146–14843. Triangles 149–15144. Statistical Charts 152–15345. Bar Diagram 154–15746. Pie-Chart 158–160

SECTION-IV

English Language 1–96● Synonyms 3–15

● Antonyms 16–23

● Spellings 24–28

● Homonyms 29–33

● Verbal Analogy 34–38

● Sentence Completion 39–44

● Sentence Structure 45–50

● Sentence Correction/ Improvement 51–66

● Idioms and Phrases 67–81

● Comprehension 82–86

● Model Test Papers 87–96

General Information● Age Limit (As on prescribed date)

Category of posts Age limit

Assistants (Indiffrent depts.) Inspector of Income Tax/Inspector (CentralExcise)/Inspector (Preventive Officer)/ Inspector (Examiner)/Inspector ofPosts/Inspector (CBN)/Compiler/Divisional Accountant/ Auditors/UDCs/TaxAssistants/ Junior Accountant and Accountant

18–27 years

Sub-Inspector (CBN) 18–25 yearsAssistant Enforcement Officer, Sub-Inspector (NIA), Asstt. Audit Officer Upto 30 yearsStatistical Investigator Gr-II Upto 32 yearsAssistant (CSS) 20–27 yearsSub-Inspector in CBI 20–30 years

Note— Relaxation in upper age limit will be permissible as per government’s rule.

Scheme of ExaminationThe Examination will be conducted in three tiers as indicated below :

Tier-I — Written Examination (Objective Multiple Choice Type)

Tier-II — Written Examination (Objective Multiple Choice Type)

Tier-III — Computer Proficiency Test/Skill Test (wherever applicable)/ Document verification.

Posts Tier-I ExaminationTier-II Examination Proficiency/ Skill

TestTotal

Marks

Posts under PayBand-IIR 9,300–34,800other thanStatisticalInvestigatorGrade-II.

A. General Intelligence +Reasoning25 Questions 50 marks

B. Gen.Awareness25 Questions 50 marks

C. Quantitative Aptitude25 Questions 50 marks

D. English Comprehension25 Questions 50 marks

Total Marks : 200

Duration : 75 Minutes

For VH Candidates sufferingfrom Cerebral Palsy : 100minutes

I. Quantitative Abilities

200 marks (100 Questions)

Duration : 2 hours

For VH Candidates sufferingfrom Cerebral Palsy : 2 hours 40minutes whereever eligible.

II. English Language & Comprehension 200 marks.

Total Marks : 400

Duration : 2 hoursFor VH and Candidates sufferingfrom Cerebral Palsy : 2 hours 40minutes wherever eligible.

Computer

Proficiency

Test (CPT)

for post of AssistantSection Officer in

CSS only

600

Posts under PayBand-IIR 5,200–20,200other thancompiler.

-do- -do- Data Entry SkillTest at the Speed of

8000 keydepression per hourfor Tax Assistant

600

StatisticalInvestigatorGrade-II

-do- Paper-I & II as above 400 marksPaper-III Statistics200 marks (100 Questions)

— 800

Compiler -do- -do- — 800

Assistant AuditOfficer Group ‘B’Gazetted

–do– Paper-I & II as above 400 marksPaper-IV General Studies (Financeand Economics)200 Marks (Duration : 2 hours)Total Marks : 600

— 800

Note—There will be negative marking of 0·50 marks for each wrong answer in Tier-I.

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In Tier-II, there will be negative marking of 0.25 marks in Paper-II and 0.50 marks in Paper-I and Paper-III foreach wrong answer.Candidates are, therefore, advised to keep this in mind while answering the questions.

(A) Tier-I Examination : Tier-I of the Combined Graduate Level Computer Based Examinationwill be common for all categories of posts.

Part SubjectMax. Marks/

QuestionsTotal Duration forGeneral candidates

Total Duration forVisually Handicapped

and Cerebral Palsycandidates

A. General Intelligence and Reasoning 50

B. General Awareness 50 2 Hours 100 Minutes

C. Quantitative Aptitude 50

D. English Comprehension 50

Note— The Commission also reserves the right to hold the examination in additional batches depending upon the numberof candidates in each State/UT.Questions will be of Objective Multiple Type Choice. The questions will be set both in Hindi and in English in respectof Parts A, B and C.

Syllabus for Tier-I Examination(A) General Intelligence & Reasoning : It would include questions of both verbal and non-verbal type. This

component may include questions on analogies, similarities and differences, space visualization, spatialorientation, problem solving, analysis, judgement, decision making, visual memory, discrimination,observation, relationship concepts, arithmetical reasoning and figural classification, arithmetic number series,non-verbal series, coding and decoding, statement conclusion, syllogistic reasoning etc. The topics are,Semantic Analogy, Symbolic/Number Analogy, Figural Analogy, Semantic Classification, Symbolic/NumberClassification, Figural Classification, Semantic Series, Number Series, Figural Series, Problem Solving, WordBuilding, Coding & decoding, Numerical Operations, Symbolic Operations, Trends, Space Orientation, SpaceVisualization, Venn Diagrams, Drawing inferences, Punched hole/pattern –folding & unfolding, Figural Pattern– folding and completion, Indexing, Address matching, Date & city matching, Classification of centrecodes/roll numbers, Small & Capital letters/numbers coding, decoding and classification, Embedded Figures,Critical thinking, Emotional Intelligence, Social Intelligence, Other sub-topics, if any.

(B) General Awareness : Questions in this component will be aimed at testing the candidates general awareness ofthe environment around him and its application to society. Questions will also be designed to test knowledge ofcurrent events and of such matters of everyday observations and experience in their scientific aspect as may beexpected of any educated person. The test will also include questions relating to India and its neighbouringcountries especially pertaining History, Culture, Geography, Economic Scene, General Policy & ScientificResearch.

(C) Quantitative Aptitude : The questions will be designed to test the ability of appropriate use of numbers andnumber sense of the candidate. The scope of the test will be computation of whole numbers, decimals fractionsand relationships between numbers. Percentage, Ratio & Proportion, Square roots, Averages, Interest, Profitand Loss, Discount, Partnership Business, Mixture and Alligation, Time and distance, Time & Work, Basicalgebraic identities of School Algebra & Elementary surds, Graphs of Linear Equations, Triangle and itsvarious kinds of centres, Congruence and similarity of triangles, Circle and its chords, tangents, anglessubtended by chords of a circle, common tangents to two or more circles, Triangle, Quadrilaterals, RegularPolygons, Circle, Right Prism, Right Circular Cone, Right Circular Cylinder, Sphere, Hemispheres,Rectangular Parallelepiped, Regular Right Pyramid with triangular or square base, Trigonometric ratio, Degreeand Radian Measures, Standard Identities, Complementary angles, Heights and Distances, Histogram,Frequency polygon, Bar diagram & Pie chart.

(D) English Comprehension : Candidates’ ability to understand correct English, his basic comprehension andwriting ability, etc., would be tested.

(The questions in parts A, B & D will be of a level commensurate with the Essential Qualification viz.,graduation and questions in parts C will be of 10th standard level).

Note— I. Part C (Quantitative Aptitude) of Test booklet for Tier-I and Paper-I (Quantitative Abilities) of Tier-II will containseparate set of Questions for VH candidates only, (who have opted for assistance of scribe) which will not have

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any components of Maps/Graphs/ Statistical Data/Diagrams /Figures/ Geometrical problems. However,components for other papers will be the same for other candidates.

II. The Commission shall have the discretion to fix different minimum qualifying standards in each Component of theTier-I Examination taking into consideration among others, category-wise vacancies and category-wise number ofcandidates. Only those candidates, who have scored above the cut-off marks fixed by the Commission would berequired to appear in the Tier-II Examination.

III. Tier-I Examination is used to screen the candidates for appearing in Tier-II Examination for various papers whichwill be specifically required for different groups of posts. However, marks of such screened candidates in Tier-IExamination will be taken into account for final ranking of candidates for selecting them for the interview/skill testand also for final selection.

(B) Combined Graduate Level (Tier-II) Examination (Computer Based)Tier-II of the Combined Graduate Level Examination will be of Objective Type Multiple Choice and will beconducted over a period of two days.

Tier-II Written Examination

PaperNo.

Subject/Paper Max.Marks

Number ofQuestions

Duration & Timings forGeneral Candidates

Duration & Timings forVH & Cerebral Palsy

CandidatesI Quantitative Abilities 200 100 2 Hours

10.00 A.M. to 12.00 Noon2 Hours 40 mins10.00 A.M. to 12.40 PM

II English Language &Comprehension

200 200 2 Hours2.00 P.M. to 4.00 PM

2 Hours and 40 mins2.00 P.M. to 4.40 PM

III Statistics 200 100 2 Hours2.00 P.M. to 4.00 Noon

2 Hours 40 mins2.00 P.M. to 4.40 PM

IV General Studies (Financeand Economics)

200 To benotified later

2 Hours2.00 P.M. to 12.00 Noon

2 Hours 40 mins10 A.M. to 12.40 PM

Note— Paper-I and II are compulsory for all the categories of posts.Paper-III is only for those candidates who apply for the posts of Statistical Investigators Gr-II and Compiler.Paper-IV is only for those candidates who apply for the posts of Assistant Audit Officer.

Candidate opting for the post of Compiler and and/or statistical Investigator Gr. II and Assistant Audit Officermust ensure that they possess the requisite qualification as mention above. Commission reserves the right totake appropriate action against applicants who do not possess the requisite eligibility while opting for the post ofCompiler and/or Statistical Investigator Gr. II and Assistant Audit Officer.

Syllabus for Tier-II of the ExaminationPaper-I : Quantitative Ability : The questions will be designed to test the ability of appropriate use of

numbers and number sense of the candidate. The scope of the test will be the computation of wholenumbers, decimals, fractions and relationships between numbers, Percentage, Ratio & Proportion,Square roots, Averages, Interest, Profit and Loss, Discount, Partnership Business, Mixture andAlligation, Time and distance, Time & Work, Basic algebraic identities of School Algebra &Elementary surds, Graphs of Linear Equations, Triangle and its various kinds of centres, Congruenceand similarity of triangles, Circle and its chords, tangents, angles subtended by chords of a circle,common tangents to two or more circles, Triangle, Quadrilaterals, Regular Polygons , Circle, RightPrism, Right Circular Cone, Right Circular Cylinder, Sphere, Hemispheres, RectangularParallelepiped, Regular Right Pyramid with triangular or square base, Trigonometric ratio, Degreeand Radian Measures, Standard Identities, Complementary angles, Heights and Distances, Histogram,Frequency polygon, Bar diagram & Pie chart.

Paper-II : English Language & Comprehension : Questions in this components will be designed to test thecandidate’s understanding and knowledge of English Language and will be based on spot the error,fill in the blanks, synonyms, antonyms, spelling/detecting mis-spelt words, idioms & phrases, oneword substitution, improvement of sentences, active/passive voice of verbs, conversion intodirect/indirect narration, shuffling of sentence parts, shuffling of sentences in a passage, close passage& comprehension passage.

Paper-III : Statistics for Investigator Grade-II, Ministry of Statistics & Programme Implementation andCompiler for Registrar General of India. (For more details please see detailed advertisement)

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Paper-IV : General Studies (Finance and Economics) for the post of Assistant Audit Officer in Indian Audit andAccounts Departments under CAG. (For details see detailed advertisement).

Note— (I) Question in Paper-I will be of 10th standard level, Paper-II of 10 + 2 level and Paper-III of graduation level.

(II) (i) The Commission will have the full discretion to fix separate minimum qualifying marks in each of the papersin Tier-II and in the aggregate of all the papers separately for each category of candidates [viz.,SC/ST/OBC/PH/ExS/ General (UR) ]. Only those candidates who qualify in all the papers as well as inthe aggregate would be eligible to be considered for being called for Data Entry Skill Test/ComputerProficiency Test/Document Verification.

(ii) There will be different set of Questions for Visually Handicapped (VH) candidates in Paper-I—QuantitativeAbility, which shall not have any component of Maps / Graphs / Statistical Data / Diagrams /Figures/Geometrical problems / Pie-chart etc. However, components of other papers will be the same as thatfor general candidates.

(III) Any representation to key of the examination will be scrutinized with the help of experts, wherever necessary,and evaluation in that case will be done with modified answer key. The decision of the Commission in this regardwill be final and no further representation will be entertained.

● Skill TestFor the Post of Tax Assistants ( Central Excise & Income Tax) :

Data Entry Speed Test (DEST) at 8,000 Key Depression per hour on Computer.The ‘Data Entry Speed’ Skill Test at 2000 key depressions for a duration of 15 minutes will be of qualifyingnature. Computer will be provided by the Commission at the Centre/venue notified for the purpose. Candidatesshall not be allowed to bring their own keyboard.

The Commission will hold a Computer Proficiency Test (CPT) for the post of Assistants(CSS) which willbe of qualifying nature and have components of Word Processing, Spread Sheets and generation of slides.Detailed instructions on DEST and CPT are/will be available on the Commission’s website.

S.S.C.Combined Graduate Level

Exam., 2016Solved Paper

(Tier-I)

2016(Held on 8 September, 2016)

Section–AGeneral Intelligence &

Reasoning1. Select the related word from the alternatives :

Pig : Sty : : Dog : ?(A) Burrow (B) Hives(C) Shed (D) Kennel

2. Select the related letters from the alternatives :BDGK : ACFJ : : ? : DFIM

(A) FKGH (B) EGJN(C) EGIK (D) FGHI

3. Select the related numbers from the alternatives :01 : 36 : : 02 : ?

(A) 48 (B) 49(C) 69 (D) 70

4. Find the odd word from the given alternatives.(A) House (B) Stable(C) Hut (D) Cottage

5. Find the odd letters from the given alternatives.(A) BDGK (B) JLOS(C) NPSW (D) MORU

6. Find the odd number from the given alternatives.(A) 484 (B) 529(C) 625 (D) 566

7. Amongst the given responses choose the meaningfullogical series.1. College 2. Infant3. Child 4. School5. Youth(A) 2, 4, 3, 1, 5 (B) 2, 3, 4, 1, 5(C) 2, 4, 3, 5, 1 (D) 2, 3, 4, 5, 1

8. A series is given, with one term missing. Chooseamongst the given responses choose the meaningfulone :

CUS, DVT, EWU, ………(A) FXV (B) VXF(C) XFV (D) XVF

9. A series is given, with one term missing. Chooseamongst the given responses choose the meaningfulone :

206, 221, 251, 296, ?, 431(A) 326 (B) 356(C) 311 (D) 341

10. If A is the mother of B and K, D is the husband ofA. E is the son of D’s brother. What is the relationof A with E ?(A) Mother in law (B) Sister in law(C) Aunt (D) Sister

11. Kathir is senior of Ganesh, Ganesh is senior ofApparu. Apparu is junior of Raju. Raju is junior ofGanesh. Who is the most senior ?(A) Ganesh (B) Raju(C) Kathir (D) Apparu

12. Select the word which cannot be formed using theletters of the given word :

REJUVENATION(A) Jute (B) Nation(C) Revision (D) Native

13. If A = 1, HAT = 29, then PAN = ?(A) 21 (B) 31(C) 41 (D) 28

14. If “×” means ‘addition’, “–” means ‘division’, “/”means ‘subtraction’ and “+” means ‘multiplication’,then which of the equation is correct :(A) 25 + 10 – 5/10 × 3 = 43(B) 25 – 10 × 5 + 10/3 = 72(C) 25 × 10/5 + 10 – 3 = 12(D) 25/10 + 5 × 10/3 = 18

15. In this question, some equations are solved on thebasis of a certain system. On the same basis find outthe correct answer from amongst the fouralternatives for the unsolved equation.

53 – 34 = 533465 – 46 = 645675 – 24 = ?

(A) 7542 (B) 7524(C) 7452 (D) 7254

16. Select the missing images from the given responses :

6 5 26

4 7 32

? 9 44

(A) 8 (B) 31(C) 32 (D) 36

17. Deepak starts walking straight towards east. Afterwalking 75 metres, he turns to the left and walks 25metres straight. Again he turns to the left, walks a

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distance of 40 metres straight, again he turns to theleft and walks a distance of 25 metres. How far is hefrom the starting point ?(A) 35 m (B) 50 m(C) 115 m (D) 140 m

18. Consider the given statement/s to be true and decidewhich of the given conclusions/ assumptions candefinitely be drawn from the given statement.Statements :1. All fish are tortoise.2. No tortoise is a crocodile.Conclusion :I. No crocodile is a fish.II. No fish is a crocodile.(A) Only conclusion I follows(B) Only conclusion II follows(C) Both conclusions I & II follows(D) Neither conclusion I nor II follows

19. How many triangles can be found out from thefollowing figure :

(A) 17 (B) 21

(C) 24 (D) 25

20. Identify the diagram that best represents therelationship among classes given below : Universe,Stars, Sun :

(A) (B) (C) (D)

21. Which answer figure will complete the pattern inthe question figure ?

Question Figure :

Answer Figures :

(A) (B) (C) (D)

22. Select the one in which the question figure ishidden/embedded.Question Figure :

Answer Figures :

(A) (B) (C) (D)

23. A piece of paper is folded and cut. From the figuresgiven, indicate how it will appear when opened ?Question Figure :

Answer Figures :

(A) (B) (C) (D)

24. Mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of theanswer figures is the right image ?Question Figure :

Answer Figures :

(A) (B) (C) (D)

25. In the question, a word is represented by only oneset of numbers as given in any one of thealternatives. The sets of numbers given in thealternatives are represented by two classes ofalphabets as in two matrices given below. Thecolumns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9.A letter from this matrix can be represented first byits row and next by its column ex “A” can berepresented by 03, 10, etc. and “P” can berepresented by 55, 67, etc. Similarly, you have toidentify the set for the word “REST”.

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MATRIX I MATRIX II

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

0 L N E A C 5 P T O R S

1 A C L N E 6 R S P T O

2 N E A C L 7 T O R S P

3 C L N E A 8 S P T O R

4 E A C L N 9 O R S P T

(A) 96, 33, 44, 87 (B) 58, 21, 85, 75(C) 89, 40, 31, 56 (D) 77, 10, 55, 68

Section–BGeneral Awareness

26. CENVAT is related to which of the following ?(A) Sales Tax (B) Excise Duty(C) Custom Duty (D) Service Tax

27. Malthusian theory is associated with which of thefollowing ?(A) Poverty (B) Employment(C) Diseases (D) Population

28. An amendment of the constitution may be initiated…………(A) by introduction by the President of India(B) by introduction of a Bill in Rajya Sabha(C) by the Governors of States(D) by the introduction of a bill in either House of

Parliament

29. Kamarup is an ancient name of which region ofIndia ?(A) Bihar (B) Rajasthan(C) Karnataka (D) Assam

30. Which is the parameter for the economicdevelopment ?

(A) Per capita monetary income

(B) National income

(C) Per capita rural income

(D) Population

31. Equinox occurs when the sun is vertically above…………

(A) Tropic of Capricorn (B) Tropic of Cancer

(C) Poles (D) Equator

32. Which battle led to the downfall of the Vijayanagarempire ?

(A) Battle of Takkolam (B) Battle of Talikota

(C) Battle of Kanwah (D) Battle of Panipat

33. The antibiotic penicillin is obtained from which ofthe following ?

(A) synthetic process (B) a bacterium

(C) fungus (D) virus infected cells

34. Among the world oceans, which ocean is having thewidest continental shelf ?(A) Antarctic Ocean (B) Arctic Ocean(C) Indian Ocean (D) Atlantic Ocean

35. Data in database at a particular point of time iscalled as ?(A) Intension (B) Extension(C) Back up (D) Application

36. Which is largest peninsular river in India ?(A) Krishna (B) Godavari(C) Cauvery (D) Mahanadi

37. Red soil is normally found in India in whichregions ?(A) Eastern Region only(B) Southern Region only(C) Eastern & Southern part of the Deccan Plateau(D) None of these

38. Who introduced Mansabdari system in India ?(A) Babur (B) Humayun(C) Akbar (D) Jahangir

39. Limestone is a raw material used by whichindustry ?(A) Aluminium (B) Fertilizers(C) Cement (D) Petrochemicals

40. The Directivee Principles of State Policy has beenadopted from which Constitution ?(A) U.S. Constitution (B) British Constitution(C) Irish Constitution (D) French Constitution

41. Which of the following is indicated by the colour ofa star ?(A) weight (B) distance(C) temperature (D) size

42. Atomic number of an atom gives the number ofwhich of the following ?(A) electron (B) protons(C) neutrons (D) neutrons and protons

43. DPT vaccine is categorized as which of thefollowing ?

(A) Anti viral vaccine

(B) Anti protozoan vaccine

(C) Anti rickettsial vaccine

(D) A combined vaccine

44. Which is the highest quality of hard coal ?

(A) Anthracite (B) Bituminous

(C) Lignite (D) Peat

45. For which one of the following, ‘Diodes’ aregenerally used for ?

(A) Rectification (B) Amplification

(C) Modulation (D) Filtration

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46. An anemometer measures which of the following ?(A) Speed of light(B) Speed of wind(C) Speed of water current(D) Speed of satellites

47. ‘Mission Indradhanush’ Campaign in India isassociated with ?(A) Nutrition to Pregnant Women(B) Awarness of Diabetes(C) Eradication of blindness(D) Vaccination of children

48. Who is the new Director of Film and TelevisionInstitute of India (FTII) ?(A) Prashant Pathrabe(B) Amol Palekar(C) Shabana Azmi(D) Bhupendra Kainthola

49. Which cell disorder in our body is responsible forcolour blindness ?(A) WBC (B) Cone cell(C) Red Cell (D) Neuron

50. Who is the recipient of Man Booker InternationalPrize 2016 for the novel ‘The Vegetarian’ ?(A) Orhan Pamuk (B) Han Kang(C) Elena Ferrante (D) Tonkin

Section–CQuantitative Aptitude

51. A can finish a work in 7 days. B can finish the samework in 9 days. The days required to finish the workby both of them together.

(A) 11516

(B) 21516

(C) 31516

(D) 41516

52. If the successive discounts be 20%, 10% and 5%,then the single equivalent rate of discount is—(A) 31·6% (B) 31·5%(C) 31% (D) 31·4%

53. The ratio of number of boys and girls in a school of720 students is 7 : 5. How many more girls shouldbe admitted to make the ratio 1 : 1 ?

(A) 90 (B) 120(C) 220 (D) 240

54. The selling price of 6 bananas is equal to the costprice of 8 bananas. Then the percentage of profitis—

(A) 20 (B) 3313

(C) 25 (D) 30

55. A basket contains 300 mangoes. 75 mangoes weredistributed among some students. Find thepercentage of mangoes left in the basket.(A) 70% (B) 72%(C) 76% (D) 75%

56. A man goes to a place on bicycle at speed of 16km/hr and comes back at lower speed. If the averagespeed is 6.4 km/hr in total, then the return speed (inkm/hr) is—(A) 10 (B) 8(C) 6 (D) 4

57. The simple interest on a certain sum of money at therate of 5% per annum for 8 years is R 840. Rate ofinterest for which the same amount of interest canbe received on the same sum after 5 years is—(A) 7% (B) 8%(C) 9% (D) 10%

58. If c + 1c = 3, then the value of (c – 3)7 +

1c7

is—

(A) 2 (B) 0(C) 3 (D) 1

59. If 2x + 14x

= 1, then value of x2 + 1

64x2 is—

(A) 0 (B) 1(C) 1/4 (D) 2

60. O is the orthocentre of ΔABC, and if ∠BOC = 110°then ∠BAC will be—(A) 110° (B) 70°(C) 100° (D) 90°

61. BE and CF are two altitudes of a triangle ABC. IfAB = 6 cm, AC = 5 cm and CF = 4 cm, then thelength of BE is—(A) 4·8 cm (B) 7·5 cm(C) 3·33 cm (D) 5·5 cm

62. The circular measure of the included angle formedby the hour hand and minute hand of a clock at 3PM will be—(A) π/4 (B) π/3(C) 5π/12 (D) π/2

63. The value of (2·3)3 + 0·027

(2·3)2 – 0·69 + 0·09.

(A) 2 (B) 2·27(C) 2·33 (D) 2·6

64. The average of 100 observations was calculated as35. It was found later, that one of the observationwas misread as 83 instead of 53. The correctaverage is—(A) 32·7 (B) 34·7(C) 35·7 (D) 36·7

65. If √⎯ x – √⎯ y = 1, √⎯ x + √⎯ y 17 then √⎯⎯xy = ?

(A) √⎯⎯72 (B) 72(C) 32 (D) 24

6 | CGL (T-1-2016)

66. If x = √⎯ 3 + 1√⎯ 3

, then the value of ⎝⎜⎜⎛

⎠⎟⎟⎞

x – √⎯⎯126√⎯⎯42

⎝⎜⎜⎜⎛

⎠⎟⎟⎟⎞x – 1

x – 2√⎯ 3

3

is—

(A) 5√⎯ 36

(B)2√⎯ 3

3(C) 5/6 (D) 2/3

67. In a Δ ABC, BC is extended upto D :

∠ACD = 120°, ∠B = 12 ∠A. Then ∠A

(A) 60° (B) 75°(C) 80° (D) 90°

68. O is the centre of a circle and AB is the tangent to ittouching at B. If OB = 3 cm, and OA = 5 cm, thenthe measure of AB in cm is—

(A) √⎯⎯34 (B) 2(C) 8 (D) 4

69. If sin 31° = xy the value of sec 31° – sin 59° is—

(A)x2

y √⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯y2 – x2(B) –

x2

y√⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯y2 – x2

(C) – y2

√⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯y2 – x2(D) –

x2

√⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯y2 – x2

70. The volume of the largest sphere (in cm3) that canbe drawn inside a cube of side 18 cm is—(A) 972 π (B) 11664 π(C) 36 π (D) 288 π

71. A tower is 50 meters high. Its shadow is x metresshorter when the sun’s altitude is 45° than when it is30°. The value of x in metres is—

(A) 50√⎯ 3 (B) 50( )√⎯ 3 – 1(C) 50( )√⎯ 3 + 1 (D) 50Directions—(Q. 72–75) The following pie-chart

shows the study-time of different subjects of a studentsin a day. Study the pie chart and answer the followingquestions—

72. The time spent to study history and chemistry is 4hours 30 minutes, Then the student studied physicsfor—

(A) 1 hour 30 min (B) 2·9 hour (approx)

(C) 2 hours (D) 3 hours

73. If the student studied chemistry for 3 hours, thenhe/she studied geography for—

(A) 1 hour (B) 2 hours

(C) 1 hour 30 minutes (D) 2 hours 30 minutes

74. If the student studied 10 hours in a day, then he/shestudied mathematics for—

(A) 3 (B) 10/3

(C) 1/3 (D) 3/10

75. Instead of 10%, if the student spends 15% to studyother subjects and the time is taken from the timescheduled to study mathematics and if he/she usedto study 20 hours per day, then the difference oftime for studying mathematics per day is—

(A) 30 minutes (B) 45 minutes

(C) 1 hour (D) 1 hour 30 minutes

Section–DEnglish Comprehension

76. In the following question, out of the fouralternatives, choose the word which best expressesthe meaning of the given word and click the buttoncorresponding to it.

CONSCRIPT

(A) DRAFT (B) DRAW

(C) ENCIRCLE (D) None of these

77. In the following question, out of the fouralternatives, choose the word which is opposite inmeaning to the given word and click the buttoncorresponding to it.

CAPTIVITY

(A) SLAVERY (B) PERMISSION

(C) FREEDOM (D) LIMITATION

78. Four words are given, out of which only one word isspelt correctly. Choose the correctly spelt word andclick the button corresponding to it.

(A) Vivacious (B) Vivascious

(C) Vivasious (D) Vivacouse

Directions—(Q. 79–81) In the following questions,one part of the sentence may have an error. Find outwhich part of the sentence has an error and click thebutton corresponding to it. If the sentence is free fromerror, click the “No error” option.

79. The job for drawing water / from the village well is(A) (B)

usually / carried out by the women and young girls.(C)

No error(D)

continue

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