Unit 7 FRQs

2013 - Question 3: Influence of transportation model on urban growth patterns

2011 - Question 1: Primate Cities/Rank Size Rule

2009 - Question 2: Squatter Settlements in LDCs

2005 - Question 3: Urban Revival

2004 - Question 3: Urban population/demographic structure

2002 - Question 3: Urban population patterns: Female Households

2001 - Question 2: Development of the Suburbs

2008 - Question 1: Von Thunen Model/Burgess Concentric Zone Model Comparison (Agriculture/Industry)

Chapter 12

1) Residents of rural settlements are more likely than

residents of urban settlements to work in

A) agriculture.

B) manufacturing.

C) services.

D) education.

E) cities.

2) A place where farm buildings, homes, and churches are

found close together is what kind of settlement?

A) urban

B) linear rural

C) dispersed rural

D) clustered rural

E) primordial

3) In the United States about ________ of all jobs are in

consumer services.

A) 50 percent

B) 10 percent

C) 5 percent

D) 75 percent

E) 25 percent

4) Consumer services include

A) educational, retail, wholesale, social, leisure, and

hospitality jobs.

B) educational, retail, wholesale, professional, and

financial service jobs.

C) educational, retail, wholesale, and financial service

jobs.

D) health and social, professional, and financial service

jobs.

E) wholesale, social, leisure, and information service jobs.

5) Most people in the world live in what type of

settlement?

A) clustered rural

B) dispersed rural

C) urban settlement

D) agricultural

E) primordial

6) Which of the following is not primarily a consumer

service?

A) transportation services

B) retail and wholesale services

C) education services

D) health services

E) hospitality services

7) The area surrounding a service from which customers

are attracted is the

A) hinterland.

B) range.

C) threshold.

D) median.

E) meridian

8) The maximum distance people are willing to travel for a

service is

A) hinterland.

B) range.

C) threshold.

D) median.

E) meridian

9) A central place is a

A) hinterland.

B) market center.

C) range of a good.

D) rank-size distribution.

E) hexagonal settlement.

10) If a country's largest city has 1,000,000 inhabitants and

the second largest city has 200,000 inhabitants, the country

follows what distribution?

A) central place

B) economic base

C) primate city

D) rank-size

E) equidistant

11) The hierarchical listing of settlements by size is known

as the

A) primate city.

B) economic base.

C) gravity model.

D) rank-size rule.

E) nesting of settlements.

12) A primate city is

A) a city with political, economic, and cultural functions.

B) at least twice as large as the next smaller city.

C) the seat of a Roman Catholic diocese.

D) a rapidly growing city.

E) the center of gravity for a hinterland.

13) If a country follows the rank-size rule, if the largest

city has 1,000,000 inhabitants, how many people live in

the fifth largest city?

A) 50,000

B) 100,000

C) 200,000

D) 500,000

E) 5,000,000

14) The minimum number of people needed to support a

service is called the

A) hinterland.

B) range.

C) threshold.

D) median.

E) meridian.

15) The gravity model predicts that the optimal location of

a service is

A) directly related to the number of people and services in

the area and inversely related to the lengths of highways

and railways that access it.

B) directly related to the range in the area and inversely

related to the hinterland.

C) directly related to the number of people in the area and

inversely related to the distance people must travel to

access it.

D) directly related to the median of people in the area and

inversely related to the meridian of people who travel to

access it.

E) directly related to the distance people must travel and

inversely related to the number of people in the area.

16) The potential use of a service at a location is related

directly to population and inversely to distance in the

A) gravity model.

B) population model.

C) distance decay.

D) gravitational model.

E) threshold model.

17) Periodic markets are likely to feature

A) vendors who move from town to town.

B) prices that change on a seasonal schedule.

C) large sales after the holiday season.

D) a daily offering of business services throughout the

year.

E) consumer goods that change periodically in the central

business district.

18) Central Place Theory predicts larger settlements are

A) more numerous and closer together.

B) more numerous and farther apart.

C) less numerous and farther apart.

D) less numerous and closer together.

E) more numerous.

19) In a linear community, we can deduce that the best

location for a service is the

A) hinterland.

B) range.

C) threshold.

D) median.

E) meridian.

20) Global cities are identified and ranked by a

combination of

A) economic, political, cultural, and infrastructure factors.

B) economic, service, industrial, and infrastructure factors.

C) central place theory and gravity models.

D) hinterland models.

E) political and infrastructure factors.

21) The geometric pattern which geographers use to

represent market areas is

A) a circle.

B) a hexagon.

C) a square.

D) a pentagon.

E) an octagon.

22) A ________ is an example of a settlement that

specializes in public services.

A) state capital

B) hospital

C) large casino complex

D) shopping mall

E) retirement community

23) The attraction of the outsourced "call center" industry

to locate in India can best be explained by

A) low wages and the wide use of English.

B) low wages and geographic situational factors.

C) the wide use of English and the large number of

working students.

D) Indian students' ability to work at night and geographic

situational factors.

E) low wages and desperate conditions.

24) The attraction of the outsourced "offshore banking"

industry can best be explained by

A) bank secrecy laws and the avoidance of paying taxes in

other countries.

B) low wages, bank secrecy laws, and the avoidance of

paying taxes in other countries.

C) the wide use of English and the large number of

working students in the Cayman Islands.

D) the avoidance of paying taxes in other countries and the

hiding of prostitution and capital crimes.

E) corporate greed and the hiding of unethical and illegal

behaviors, including prostitution.

25) World cities are defined by

A) the number and type of business services found there.

B) their total population.

C) their location relative to other cities.

D) the number of museums, monuments, and universities

they offer.

E) their total population in relation to major capital cities.

26) LDCs specialize in what two types of global business

services?

A) management consulting and staff training

B) regional command and control centers

C) biotechnology and medical research

D) entertainment and recreation

E) offshore financial and back office

27) Two major benefits many LDCs offer in terms of

global financial services are

A) tax breaks and privacy.

B) command and control centers and low wages.

C) dependent centers and tax breaks.

D) command and control centers and dependent centers.

E) privacy and low wages.

28) What factors determine where back office services will

locate in LDCs?

A) political stability and cultural diversity

B) market threshold and service range

C) military training and proximity to command and control

centers

D) low wage rates and workers who can speak English

E) tax advantages and bank secrecy laws

29) Back-office functions are also called

A) business-process offshore banking.

B) market threshold outsourcing.

C) command and control centering.

D) business-process outsourcing.

E) tax advantage outsourcing.

30) What technical development has allowed back-office

functions to relocate to LDCs?

A) telecommunications

B) standard time zones

C) improved public health services in tropical countries

D) financial market reforms

E) effective trademark enforcement

31) Which of the following is most likely a basic economic

activity?

A) video rental store

B) grocery store

C) gas station

D) steel mill

E) travel agency

32) A firm that sells its products primarily to consumers

outside its settlement is a

A) basic industry.

B) functional classification.

C) nonbasic industry.

D) primate city.

E) consumer service.

33) One of the most important basic activities in the

southern Great Lakes region is

A) manufacturing of durable goods.

B) manufacturing of textiles.

C) entertainment and recreation facilities.

D) government and education.

E) high technology services.

34) The French long-lot system was developed primarily

because of

A) collective land ownership.

B) common grazing land.

C) inheritance laws.

D) need for access to a river.

E) long distance between farms.

35) The most significant impact that Great Britain's

enclosure movement made on the rural landscape was to

A) produce more of a dispersed rural settlement pattern.

B) reinforce the traditional clustered rural settlement

pattern.

C) discourage urbanization.

D) increase the rural population.

E) improve transportation.

36) Clustered rural settlements were most common in

which region of colonial America?

A) Middle Atlantic

B) New England

C) Southeast

D) Coastal margins

E) West

37) The most prominent structure in the ancient city of Ur

was the stepped temple called the ________, which was

built about 4,000 years ago.

A) pyramid

B) Great Pyramid

C) Ziggurat

D) cathedral

E) Parthenon

38) The most prominent structure in the ancient city of

Athens was the ________, which still overlooks the city.

A) pyramid

B) Great Pyramid

C) Parthenon

D) cathedral

E) Ziggurat

39) Because of its centrality in an ancient communications

network, we still have the old saying "All roads lead to

________."

A) Paris

B) Athens

C) Rome

D) Genoa

E) London

40) Which of the following is considered to be a hearth of

urban settlement?

A) Rome

B) North Africa

C) southern Africa

D) Australia

E) Mesopotamia

41) Heterogeneity is more a characteristic of

A) suburban and rural communities.

B) ancient urban centers than modern urban centers.

C) manufacturing centers and rural populations.

D) rural and urban centers.

E) urban centers than rural communities.

42) Urban residents are generally more tolerant of

________ than are the residents of rural communities, but

residents of urban settlements often feel that they are

surrounded by people who are indifferent and reserved.

A) discrimination

B) political insiders

C) tax shelters

D) uniform social behavior

E) diverse social behavior

43) Urbanization can be analyzed by looking at the

increase in the ________ of people living in cities.

A) number and percentage

B) number and homogeneity

C) percentage and density

D) density and heterogeneity

E) size and density

44) Which statement best describes the relationship

between urbanization and the Industrial Revolution in

Europe?

A) Urbanization ultimately promoted the Industrial

Revolution.

B) The Industrial Revolution ultimately promoted

urbanization.

C) Urbanization preceded the Industrial Revolution by

thousands of years.

D) Urbanization preceded the Industrial Revolution by

hundreds of years.

E) Urbanization and the Industrial Revolution are largely

unrelated.

45) Higher social heterogeneity in urban settlements means

that

A) the people you know socially are probably the same

ones you see at work.

B) the people are more alike than in rural settlements.

C) people compete for limited space.

D) there are many different kinds of people in cities.

E) people play a specialized role in the urban economy.

46) The most significant anticipated benefit of the

enclosure movement was to

A) destroy traditional village life.

B) promote agricultural efficiency.

C) replace abandoned villages with new farmsteads.

D) discourage urbanization.

E) create an aristocracy.

47) The fall of the Roman Empire in the fifth century A.D.

brought about what change in urban settlements?

A) development of city-states

B) rapid urbanization

C) reduction in urban population

D) revival of urban life

E) increased trade

48) Typical medieval European urban settlements were

characterized by the

A) dispersal of palaces, churches, and other important

buildings throughout the town.

B) placement of buildings around a central market square.

C) demolition of ancient walls surrounding the town.

D) provision of parks and open space surrounding

important churches.

E) broad avenues in residential districts.

49) The city-state is an example of

A) an early form of rural settlement.

B) a state dominated by its major city.

C) a functional region.

D) a local government of the Roman Empire.

E) diffuse political functions.

Chapter 12 Key

1. A

2. D

3. A

4. A

5. C

6. A

7. A

8. B

9. B

10. C

11. D

12. B

13. C

14. C

15. C

16. A

17. A

18. C

19. D

20. A

21. B

22. A

23. A

24. A

25. A

26. E

27. A

28. D

29. D

30. A

31. D

32. A

33. A

34. D

35. A

36. B

37. C

38. C

39. C

40. E

41. E

42. E

43. A

44. B

45. D

46. B

47. C

48. B

49. b

Chapter 13

1) In a simplified model of a city, the zone where retail and

office activities are clustered is the

A) central business district.

B) central commerce zone.

C) urbanized downtown area.

D) metropolitan statistical area.

E) hub.

2) Retail activities which tend to concentrate in the CBD

include those which have

A) no threshold.

B) no range.

C) services for office workers.

D) a need for rapid transportation.

E) a need for large amounts of horizontal space.

3) Cities tend to situate convention centers and sports

complexes in their CBDs because

A) they hope to lower real estate prices and tax revenues in

their downtown areas.

B) of their low ranges and thresholds.

C) they hope to stimulate more business for downtown

restaurants, bars, and hotels.

D) they have a need for the kind of rapid transportation

that is only available in the CBD.

E) the CBD offers large amounts of horizontal space.

4) Even with the diffusion of modern telecommunications,

many lawyers, financial analysts, and public officials in

CBDs still exchange information with colleagues primarily

through

A) face-to-face contact.

B) high-cost influence peddling.

C) interstate highway systems.

D) the Internet.

E) television and radio broadcasts.

5) Land values are high in the CBD primarily because of

A) competition for limited space.

B) high threshold and range.

C) less intensive land use.

D) the lack of skyscrapers.

E) the lack of residential space.

6) As a result of high land costs, the American CBD is

characterized by

A) less intensive land use.

B) the construction of skyscrapers.

C) suburban sprawl.

D) a high threshold and range.

E) the reuse of existing buildings.

7) What activity tends to locate on the street-level floor of

a skyscraper in a typical North American CBD?

A) government

B) industrial

C) office

D) retail

E) education

8) A land use typically excluded from a North American

CBD is

A) public administration.

B) industrial.

C) office.

D) retail.

E) legal.

9) European CBDs are similar to those in North America

because they both contain

A) retail and office activities.

B) extensive residential areas.

C) large numbers of skyscrapers.

D) structures inherited from medieval times.

E) ancient Roman structures.

10) The zone in transition in U.S. cities typically contains

which of the following?

A) legal offices and parking lots

B) skyscrapers, suburbs, agricultural land, parking lots,

and restaurants

C) agricultural land

D) suburbs, agricultural land, parking lots, and

transportation hubs

E) warehouses, industry, and poorer-quality housing

11) According to the concentric zone model, a city

develops in a series of

A) corridors.

B) nodes.

C) rings.

D) sectors.

E) quadrants.

12) According to the sector model, the best housing is

located in

A) a corridor from downtown to the edge of the city.

B) an outer ring surrounding the city.

C) nodes near universities and parks.

D) renovated inner-city neighborhoods.

E) gated communities.

13) According to Homer Hoyt's sector model, once a

district with high-class housing is established, the most

expensive new housing is built

A) on the outer edge of that district, farther out from the

center.

B) on the inner edge of that district, closer to the center.

C) in the skyscrapers of the CBD.

D) in old industrial buildings and retail shops.

E) on the outer edge of the suburban area, farther out from

the center.

14) According to the multiple nuclei model, an airport is

likely to attract nearby

A) hotels and warehouses.

B) residences and highways.

C) retail and wholesale shops.

D) universities and colleges.

E) hospitals and clinics.

15) Chicago is a good location in which to develop urban

models because it is located

A) at the end of the nation's transportation system.

B) in the center of the country.

C) on a relatively flat prairie.

D) on the shore of Lake Michigan.

E) near other primate cities.

16) Social area analysis attempts to explain

A) the changing location of retail and office activities in

North American cities.

B) the development of squatter settlements in developing

countries.

C) the distribution of different types of people in an urban

area.

D) which of the three models of urban structure is the most

accurate in the United States.

E) regions ideal for social services.

17) The multiple nuclei theory

A) involves four linked CBDs.

B) includes nodes such as a port, a university, airport, and

a park.

C) includes a nucleus in the CBD which is connected to a

nucleus in the suburbs.

D) links a seaport, an airport, and a railway station.

E) disregards the use of nodes.

18) A recent change in the typical U.S. density gradient

has been

A) the elimination of the gap traditionally found in the

center.

B) an increase in the extremes between the inner and outer

areas.

C) an increase in the number of people living in the center.

D) a reduction in the differences in densities found within

an urban area.

E) an increase in the differences in densities found within

an urban area.

19) The city plus its surrounding built-up suburbs is the

A) central city.

B) urbanized area.

C) metropolitan statistical area.

D) consolidated metropolitan statistical area.

E) regional government federation.

20) In the United States, which of the following definitions

of a city covers the largest land area?

A) central business district

B) central city

C) urbanized area

D) metropolitan statistical area

E) regional government federation

21) According to the sector model, if family X has an

income of $100,000 and family Y has an income of

$40,000 but family Z has an income of $115,000

A) families Y and Z are likely to live in the same sector of

the city.

B) families X and Z are likely to live in the same sector of

the city.

C) families X and Y are likely to live in the same sector of

the city.

D) families X, Y, and Z are likely to live in the same sector

of the city.

E) none of these families are likely to live in the same

sector of the city.

22) Many of the poor on the periphery of cities in less

developed countries live in areas known as

A) squatter settlements.

B) council estates.

C) public housing.

D) the zone in transition.

E) suburbs.

23) The areas on the periphery of cities in less developed

countries are sometimes known as

A) barriadas, favelas bidonvilles, bastees, or kampongs.

B) young city and old city zones.

C) public housing, barmiadelas, fonelongas, or

kuhpinongs.

D) the zone in transition, suburbs, or public zone.

E) suburbs, barmiadelas, fonelongas, or kuhpinongs.

24) The laws enacted in 1573 that specifically outlined

how colonial Spanish cities were to be constructed were

called the

A) Bills of the Americas.

B) Laws of the Indies.

C) American Indian Laws.

D) Colonial Center Laws.

E) Laws of the Real Corona.

25) After 1573, most Spanish colonial cities were designed

to have

A) neighborhoods built around central, smaller plazas with

parish churches and older quarters with narrow, winding

streets and cramped residences.

B) gridiron street plans centered on a church and plaza,

walls around houses, and wider streets than are in the

centers of most European cities.

C) winding street plans centered on a church and plaza,

garden lawns around houses, and wider streets than the

centers of most European cities.

D) gridiron street plans centered on a church and plaza,

walls around houses, and narrower, more winding streets

than are in the centers of most European cities.

E) a gridiron street plan, a cathedral, and at least 20 parish

churches for each city.

26) When the models of urban structure developed in

Chicago are applied to Sao Paulo, one conclusion is that

A) both cities are located near large lakes.

B) Sao Paulo doesn't have high income neighborhoods.

C) the models don't work in Sao Paulo.

D) the poorest people are located in different areas.

E) physical geography has not influenced the distribution

of social classes Sao Paulo.

27) Compared to the United Kingdom, the amount of

sprawl in the United States is

A) greater.

B) less.

C) about the same.

D) better controlled.

E) declining.

28) Sprawl is the

A) change in density within an urban area from the

periphery to the center.

B) development of new housing sites not contiguous to the

existing built-up area.

C) land maintained as open space surrounding an urban

area.

D) period in the morning and evening with the heaviest

volumes of traffic.

E) increasing population density in rings two and three of

the concentric zone model.

29) British cities are surrounded by open space known as

A) greenbelts.

B) public housing.

C) sprawl.

D) squatter settlements.

E) suburbs.

30) The strongest criticism of suburbs argued that

historically,

A) low-income people and minorities are unable to live in

some areas because of the high cost of the housing, the

unfriendliness (or discrimination) of established residents,

and fears that property values would decline if minorities

were allowed to buy property there.

B) low-income people and minorities are able to live in

some areas because of the low cost of the housing, the

friendliness of established residents, and the myth that

property values would decline if minorities were allowed

to buy property there.

C) legal devices, such as requiring several small houses to

sit on a large lot of land amid several different apartments,

prevented low-income families from living in many

suburbs.

D) low-income people and minorities are unable to live in

some areas because of the high cost of the private schools

there, the unfriendliness of African American and Hispanic

minorities there, and the fear that property values would

not change if other minorities were allowed to buy

property there.

E) they encouraged the buying and selling of too many

automobiles.

31) People in the United States are attracted to suburbs in

part because suburbs are characterized by

A) heavy traffic.

B) lower opportunity for home ownership.

C) private land surrounding the house.

D) row houses and apartments.

E) closer proximity to cultural institutions.

32) Factories have moved to suburban locations in part

because of

A) access to main highways.

B) adequate space to build vertical structures.

C) availability of large tracts of high-priced land.

D) good rail connections.

E) access to cheap labor.

33) Compared to the United States, poor families in

European cities are more likely to be

A) clustered in inner-city neighborhoods.

B) dispersed throughout the city.

C) clustered in suburbs.

D) distributed uniformly in the city.

E) living along major boulevards.

34) A legal form of segregation in U.S. cities is achieved

through

A) blockbusting.

B) redlining.

C) zoning.

D) greenbelts.

E) busing.

35) The largest number of daily trips are made primarily

for

A) legal reasons.

B) shopping.

C) social meetings.

D) work.

E) recreational endeavors.

36) The U.S. government has encouraged the use of cars in

part by

A) building interstate highways.

B) charging high gasoline taxes.

C) constructing new subways.

D) protecting prime agricultural land.

E) tax credits for automobile owners.

37) Compared to the private automobile, public

transportation offers more

A) energy efficiency.

B) flexibility.

C) pollution.

D) privacy.

E) range.

38) Hybrid automobile sales in the United States increased

during the early 2000s primarily because of the success of

Toyota's

A) line of fuel-efficient SUVs.

B) Tundra.

C) Prius.

D) Prion.

E) Honda Civic.

39) The energy efficiency of a hybrid car is tied to

A) the use of hybrid gasoline.

B) the generation of electricity from rooftop solar panels

and wind turbines affixed to the sides and undercarriage of

the car.

C) the use of a gasoline engine at high speeds, whereas at

low speeds an electric motor takes over; moreover, energy

that would have otherwise escaped as heat is captured and

stored while the car is coasting and braking.

D) the use of a gasoline engine at low speeds, whereas at

high speeds an electric motor takes over; moreover, energy

that would have otherwise escaped as heat is captured and

stored while the car is coasting and braking.

E) the use of a gasoline engine at high speeds, and at low

speeds, when the gas engine is at its most efficient, an

electric motor takes over. Energy that would otherwise be

gained while coasting and braking is lost as electricity and

heat when it would otherwise be needed.

40) Public transit is more extensive in Western European

cities than in the United States primarily because

A) Europeans can't afford cars.

B) European governments subsidize public transit.

C) density is lower in the United States than in Europe.

D) the typical European central city contains fewer high-

rises.

E) suburbs are built at subway terminals.

41) Large numbers of employees of suburban businesses

may suffer hardships because they do not

A) commute to the CBD on privately funded transportation

systems.

B) experience sprawl.

C) own automobiles, although in this new urban landscape

public transportation is widely available.

D) own automobiles, in an urban landscape where public

transportation is limited.

E) have new school districts, in an urban landscape where

public schools are almost nonexistent.

42) The process that includes subdividing a house from

single-family owner occupancy to multiple occupancy, is

A) blockbusting.

B) filtering.

C) gentrification.

D) redlining.

E) urban blight.

43) During the process of ________, the owner may

abandon the property because the rents that can be

collected are less than the costs involved in upkeep.

A) blockbusting

B) filtering

C) gentrification

D) redlining

E) urban blight

44) A process by which banks designate an area within

which they refuse to lend money for improvements is

A) blockbusting.

B) filtering.

C) gentrification.

D) redlining.

E) zoning.

45) The city of ________ declined from 1.8 million

inhabitants in 1950 to 700,000 in 2010.

A) San Diego

B) St. Louis

C) Miami

D) Detroit

E) Chicago

46) Detroit is trying to figure out how to shut down and

close off ________ because the city cannot afford to pay

for street lights, garbage pickup, and police protection for

the entire 360 square kilometers (139 square miles).

A) advertising revenue

B) the rap video industry

C) corporate investment

D) entire neighborhoods

E) the entire CBD

47) Public housing is

A) a conversion of low-income housing to middle-class

housing.

B) illegally established low-income housing.

C) housing that has changed from single-family owner

occupancy to abandonment.

D) low-income government-owned housing.

E) buildings housing public services, such as government

agencies.

48) Gentrification

A) is the process by which lower-class people move into

deteriorated middle-income neighborhoods and subdivide

the housing.

B) allows lower income families to remain in their homes

through public subsidies.

C) is the process by which upper-class people move into

deteriorated middle-income neighborhoods and subdivide

the housing so that lower-income people can move in.

D) is the process by which middle-class people move into

deteriorated inner-city neighborhoods and renovate the

housing.

E) has almost no influence on housing prices and taxes.

49) A process of converting a neighborhood from low-

income to middle-class or upper-class is

A) blockbusting.

B) filtering.

C) gentrification.

D) redlining.

E) zoning.

50) Megalopolis refers to

A) adjacent, overlapping Metropolitan Statistical Areas.

B) central cities.

C) consolidated Metropolitan Statistical Areas and their

CBDs.

D) central cities plus urbanized areas.

E) regional government federation.

51) Under certain conditions, according to U.S. law when

a family is forced by a city to relocate,

A) old houses are renovated for them, and the government

must help them find new jobs.

B) moving expenses and rent increases are paid by the

government for up to four years.

C) new public housing is built for them in a neighborhood

of their choosing.

D) middle-class families are attracted to the inner-city by

government policies for four years.

E) public transportation is provided for up to four years

unless they have wealthy relatives.

52) The underclass is characterized in part by high rates of

A) drug addiction and illiteracy.

B) employment and illiteracy.

C) fire protection and police protection.

D) literacy and education.

E) social mobility and government services.

53) In U.S. cities, the underclass is largely

A) clustered in inner-city neighborhoods.

B) dispersed throughout the city.

C) clustered in suburbs.

D) distributed even between the suburbs and the city.

E) distributed across the commuter zone.

54) Compared to whites, African Americans in U.S. cities

are more likely to be

A) clustered in inner-city neighborhoods.

B) dispersed throughout the city.

C) clustered in suburbs.

D) distributed uniformly in the city.

E) distributed across the commuters zone.

55) The U.S. government estimated in 2011 that the

number of homeless people on any given night was about

A) 636,000.

B) 836,000.

C) 216,000.

D) 10,116,000.

E) 2,436,000.

56) Most people are homeless because they

A) cannot afford housing and lack a regular source of

income, perhaps because of job loss, mental illness, or

family problems.

B) cannot afford medicine and lack a middle-class source

of income, usually because of mental illness, pregnancy,

and family problems.

C) fail to achieve the level of "survival of the fittest" as

prescribed by social Darwinism.

D) cannot afford a college education, which is required in

order to obtain and maintain a steady job in the United

States.

E) are lazy or lack the kind of work ethic that wealthy

people have.

57) About ________ of the homeless people in the United

States are single men, and the remainder are women and

children.

A) two-fifths

B) nine-tenths

C) one-tenth

D) three-fourths

E) half

58) U.S. inner cities face fiscal problems because

A) federal and state funds are available.

B) low-income people are concentrated there.

C) middle-class families are attracted there.

D) redlining is no longer legal.

E) blockbusting has strengthened ethnic neighborhoods.

59) Because so few people live in the CBD, urban areas

are characterized by a high degree of

A) blockbusting.

B) commuting.

C) threshold.

D) skyscrapers.

E) restrictive zoning.

60) The process of legally adding land area to a city in the

United States is

A) annexation.

B) accreditation.

C) an application of eminent domain.

D) defined by urbanized area.

E) zoning.

61) The attractions of shopping malls include all but which

of the following?

A) frequent concerts and exhibitions

B) generous parking lots

C) place to meet friends

D) sheltered environments

E) walking distance from homes

Chapter 13 Key

1. A

2. C

3. C

4. A

5. A

6. B

7. D

8. B

9. A

10. E

11. C

12. A

13. A

14. A

15. C

16. C

17. B

18. D

19. B

20. D

21. B

22. A

23. A

24. B

25. B

26. D

27. A

28. B

29. A

30. A

31. C

32. A

33. C

34. C

35. D

36. A

37. A

38. C

39. C

40. B

41. D

42. B

43. B

44. D

45. D

46. D

47. D

48. D

49. C

50. A

51. B

52. A

53. A

54. A

55. A

56. A

57. A

58. B

59. B

60. A

61. E

Unit 7 Review Questions

1. Explain Urban Geography

2. Identify and Explain a Metropolitan Area

3. What is the difference between a metropolitan and metropolitan area

4. Explain Urban Hierarchy and give an example of each type of settlement

5. Identify and explain what was necessary for the emergence of the city

6. Identify and explain the function and location of ancient cities

7. Identify and explain Bochert’s Epochs of Urban Transportation

8. Explain the British Enclosure Movement

9. Explain the difference between Basic Sector Jobs and Non-Basic Sector Jobs. Provide Examples of each

10. Identify 3 functions of central places

11. Explain Central Place theory and Identify who developed it

12. Define Range

13. Define Threshold

14. Contrast Low Order and High Order Goods

15. Explain a Sphere of Influence

16. Explain the idea of Network Cities

17. Explain the Rank-Size Rule and what type of countries have the pattern

18. Define a Primate City and Identify how it can function as a centripetal force

19. Identify 6 Primate Cities

20. Identify 2 negative impacts of a Primate City

21. Identify 2 positive impacts of a Primate City

22. Explain Friction of Distance

23. Explain Distance Decay

24. Explain the Gravity Model

25. Define a World City and Identify 5 examples

26. Identify and explain the 4 Characteristics of a World City

27. Define a Megacity and Identify 5 examples

28. Define a Mercantile City and Identify 2 examples

29. Define a Manufacturing City and Identify 2 examples

30. Explain the uniqueness about the design of cities such as Washington D.C. and Brasilia

31. Identify and Explain 4 factors of city development

32. Identify the 4 Urban Land Use Models

33. Explain the Burgess Model

34. Explain the Hoyt Model

35. Explain the Harris and Ullman Model

36. Explain the Harris Model

37. Based upon age and marital status, explain where people live in relation to cities

38. Based upon gender, explain where people live in relation to cities

39. Explain the feminization of poverty

40. Based upon race and ethnicity, explain where people live in relation to cities

41. Define Urban Blight

42. Define Ghettoization

43. Explain the reasons behind the Sunbelt growth

44. Identify and explain the 3 practices of Ghettoization

45. Define Zoning and give an unintended consequence of it

46. Explain the purpose of Smart-Growth Policies

47. Define Gentrification

48. Explain the Economic Factors of Gentrification

49. Explain the Demographic Composition of Gentrification

50. Explain the Urban Policy of Gentrification

51. Explain the sense of place derived from Gentrification

52. Explain with an example a Zone of Abandonment

53. Explain the purpose of a census tract

54. Explain the purpose of a gated community

55. Explain the purpose of New Urbanism

56. Identify the negative views of New Urbanism

57. Explain why urbanization occurred after WWII

58. Define an Edge City and identify what they may be known for

59. Define a Greenfield

60. Define a Boomburg

61. Define an Uptown

62. Identify the environmental concerns of city planners

63. Explain Urban Sprawl and Identify what is causes

64. Identify the issues that city planners most solve in order to create urban sustainability

65. Define an informal economy and explain why they emerge

66. Explain the characteristics of a European City

67. Identify how European Cities are different from North American cities

68. Explain the characteristics of a Latin American City

69. Identify how Latin American Cities are different from North American cities

70. Explain the Disamenity Sector

71. Explain Barrios/Barridas/Favelas

72. Define a squatter settlement and explain the conditions of them

73. Explain the characteristics of an African city

74. Explain the Characteristics of a Muslim city

75. Explain the characteristics of an Asian city