time allowed : 90 minutes total no. of questions : 120 paper – i · 2017-08-07 · directions: in...

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Question Booklet Series :– ç'u iqfLrdk J`a[kyk %& A Question Booklet No. :– ç'u iqfLrdk la[;k %& 390132 Time Allowed: 90 Minutes Total No. of Questions : 120 vuqer le; % 90 feuV PAPER – I ç”uksa dh dqy la[;k % 120 Roll No. : (Paper–I) OMR Answer Sheet No. : vuqØekad % -------------------------------------------- ¼isij&I½ vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj if=dk la[;k : --------------------------- Name of the Candidate (in capital letters) : vH;FkÊ dk uke % ---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- Candidate's Signature Invigilator's Signature vH;FkÊ ds gLrk{kj % ------------------------------- d{k fujh{kd ds gLrk{kj % --------------------------------- POST CODE NAME OF THE POST SUBJECT A, B, C, D, E, F, G & H MT (General)/ MT (Depot)/ MT (Movement)/ MT (Accounts)/ MT (Technical)/ MT (Civil Engineering)/ MT (Mechanical Engineering)/ MT (Electrical Engineering) General Aptitude consisting of Reasoning, Data Analysis, Computer Awareness, General Awareness, Management and Current Affairs. IMPORTANT:– Read the following instructions carefully. Do not mark answers on the question booklet, otherwise you may be debarred from the selection process. 1. Before commencing to answer, check that the Question Booklet has 120 questions. Each Question Booklet will be in different series (combination of question booklet number and series). You must write correct Question Booklet Number and Question Booklet Series on your OMR Answer Sheet. Further check that there is no misprinting, overprinting and/or any other shortcoming in it. If there is any shortcoming in the question booklet, intimate the same to your room invigilator and take a fresh question booklet and a fresh OMR sheet. No complaint in this regard shall be entertained at any later stage. IMPORTANT NOTE: The OMR Answer Sheet will be evaluated with a combination of question booklet series and question booklet number hence you must write correct question booklet series and question booklet number. Any mistake in filling any of them will lead to invalidation of your OMR Answer Sheet. Also in case of non filling of question booklet series and question booklet number the OMR Answer Sheet will not be evaluated and its sole responsibility lies on the candidate. 2. Question paper is bilingual (Hindi/English). In case of any variation in Hindi version, English version will be taken as final for evaluation purposes. 3. Ensure that your admit card and OMR sheet is signed by you and the invigilator. If the same is not signed, your candidature is liable to be rejected. 4. All Multiple Choice Questions carry 1 mark. There will be no negative marking. No Mark will be awarded or deducted for not attempting a question. Darken ONLY ONE OVAL for each answer. If you darken more than one oval or any stray mark is found on more than one oval, no mark will be awarded for that oval. 5. This is an objective type test in which each objective question is followed by four responses serialled (1) to (4). Your task is to choose the correct/best response and mark your response in the OMR Answer Sheet only as per the instructions given and NOT in the Question Booklet. 6. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen for all your work on the OMR Answer Sheet. The ovals on the OMR Answer Sheet are to be completely filled by Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only. ANSWERS ONCE GIVEN CAN NOT BE CHANGED. Cutting/overwriting the answers are not allowed. 7. Use of Calculators, Slide rules, Mobiles, calculator watches or any such devices and any other study/reference material is NOT allowed inside the examination hall and prohibited If found carrying, it shall be punishable offence. 8. Rough Work is to be done in the blank space provided in the Question Booklet, not on the OMR Answer Sheet. No other paper will be allowed/provided for rough work. 9. Handover OMR Answer Sheet to the invigilator on completion of the test. Do not take OMR Answer Sheet outside the examination room. Doing so is a punishable offence. The candidate can retain question paper after exam is over. fgUnh esa vuqns”k vfUre i`’B ¼Back cover½ ij fn;k x;k gSA

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Page 1: Time Allowed : 90 Minutes Total No. of Questions : 120 PAPER – I · 2017-08-07 · DIRECTIONS: In the following question, a question is posed followed by two statements, I & II

Question Booklet Series :– ç'u iqfLrdk J`a[kyk %& A Question Booklet No. :–

ç'u iqfLrdk la[;k %& 390132

Time Allowed : 90 Minutes Total No. of Questions : 120vuqer le; % 90 feuV PAPER – I ç”uksa dh dqy la[;k % 120

Roll No. : (Paper–I) OMR Answer Sheet No. : vuqØekad % -------------------------------------------- ¼isij&I½ vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj if=dk la[;k : ---------------------------

Name of the Candidate (in capital letters) : vH;FkÊ dk uke % ----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Candidate's Signature Invigilator's Signature vH;FkÊ ds gLrk{kj % ------------------------------- d{k fujh{kd ds gLrk{kj % ---------------------------------

POST CODE NAME OF THE POST SUBJECT

A, B, C, D, E, F, G & H

MT (General)/ MT (Depot)/ MT (Movement)/ MT (Accounts)/ MT (Technical)/

MT (Civil Engineering)/ MT (Mechanical Engineering)/ MT (Electrical Engineering)

General Aptitude consisting of Reasoning, Data Analysis, Computer Awareness, General Awareness, Management and Current Affairs.

IMPORTANT:– Read the following instructions carefully. Do not mark answers on the question booklet, otherwise you may be debarred from the selection process. 1. Before commencing to answer, check that the Question Booklet has 120 questions. Each Question Booklet will be in

different series (combination of question booklet number and series). You must write correct Question Booklet Number and Question Booklet Series on your OMR Answer Sheet. Further check that there is no misprinting, overprinting and/or any other shortcoming in it. If there is any shortcoming in the question booklet, intimate the same to your room invigilator and take a fresh question booklet and a fresh OMR sheet. No complaint in this regard shall be entertained at any later stage. IMPORTANT NOTE: The OMR Answer Sheet will be evaluated with a combination of question booklet series and question booklet number hence you must write correct question booklet series and question booklet number. Any mistake in filling any of them will lead to invalidation of your OMR Answer Sheet. Also in case of non filling of question booklet series and question booklet number the OMR Answer Sheet will not be evaluated and its sole responsibility lies on the candidate.

2. Question paper is bilingual (Hindi/English). In case of any variation in Hindi version, English version will be taken as final for evaluation purposes.

3. Ensure that your admit card and OMR sheet is signed by you and the invigilator. If the same is not signed, your candidature is liable to be rejected.

4. All Multiple Choice Questions carry 1 mark. There will be no negative marking. No Mark will be awarded or deducted for not attempting a question. Darken ONLY ONE OVAL for each answer. If you darken more than one oval or any stray mark is found on more than one oval, no mark will be awarded for that oval.

5. This is an objective type test in which each objective question is followed by four responses serialled (1) to (4). Your task is to choose the correct/best response and mark your response in the OMR Answer Sheet only as per the instructions given and NOT in the Question Booklet.

6. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen for all your work on the OMR Answer Sheet. The ovals on the OMR Answer Sheet are to be completely filled by Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only. ANSWERS ONCE GIVEN CAN NOT BE CHANGED. Cutting/overwriting the answers are not allowed.

7. Use of Calculators, Slide rules, Mobiles, calculator watches or any such devices and any other study/reference material is NOT allowed inside the examination hall and prohibited If found carrying, it shall be punishable offence.

8. Rough Work is to be done in the blank space provided in the Question Booklet, not on the OMR Answer Sheet. No other paper will be allowed/provided for rough work.

9. Handover OMR Answer Sheet to the invigilator on completion of the test. Do not take OMR Answer Sheet outside the examination room. Doing so is a punishable offence. The candidate can retain question paper after exam is over.

fgUnh esa vuqns”k vfUre i`’B ¼Back cover½ ij fn;k x;k gSA

Page 2: Time Allowed : 90 Minutes Total No. of Questions : 120 PAPER – I · 2017-08-07 · DIRECTIONS: In the following question, a question is posed followed by two statements, I & II

DIRECTIONS: (Question Nos. 1 to 3) From among the five doctors 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5, four engineers G, H, K, L and six teachers M, N, O, P, Q and R, some teams are to be selected. Of these 1, 2, G, H, O, P, Q are females and the rest are males. The formation of teams is subject to the following conditions.

Wherever there is a male doctor, there will not be a female teacher. Wherever there is a male engineer, there will not be a female doctor. There shall not be more than two male teachers in any team.

1. If the team consists of two doctors, two female teachers and two engineers, then all the following teams are possible except:

(1) 1, 2, K, L, P, Q (2) 1, 2, G, H, P, Q (3) 1, 2, G, H, O, Q (4) O, P, G, H, 1, 2

funsZ'k% ¼ç'u la[;k 1 ls 3½ fuEufyf[kr ik¡p MkWDVj 1, 2, 3, 4, ,oa 5, pkj bathfu;j G, H, K, L ,oa N% f'k{kd M, N, O, P, Q ,oa R esa ls

Vhe dk p;u fd;k tkuk gSA buesa ls 1, 2, G, H, O, P, Q efgyk,a gSa ,oa

ckdh iq:"kA Vhe dk fuekZ.k fuEufyf[kr 'krks± ds v/khu gksuk gSA

tc Hkh dksbZ iq:"k MkWDVj gks rks efgyk f'k{kd ugha gksxhA tc Hkh dksbZ iq:"k

bathfu;j gks rks dksbZ efgyk MkWDVj ugha gksxhA fdlh Hkh Vhe esa nks ls T;knk

iq:"k f'k{kd ugha gksaxsA

1. ;fn Vhe esa nks MkWDVj] nks efgyk f'k{kd ,oa nks bathfu;j gSa] rks

fuEufyf[kr lHkh Vhe laHko gS flok;%

(1) 1, 2, K, L, P, Q (2) 1, 2, G, H, P, Q (3) 1, 2, G, H, O, Q (4) O, P, G, H, 1, 2

2. If the team consists of two doctors, three female teachers and two engineers, then the members of the team are:

(1) 3, 4, O, P, Q, G, H (2) 1, 2, O, P, Q, G, H (3) 3, 4, K, L, O, P, Q (4) 4, 5, G, H, O, P, Q

2. ;fn Vhe esa nks MkWDVj] rhu efgyk f'k{kd ,oa nks bathfu;j gSa] rks

Vhe ds lnL; gksaxs%

(1) 3, 4, O, P, Q, G, H (2) 1, 2, O, P, Q, G, H (3) 3, 4, K, L, O, P, Q (4) 4, 5, G, H, O, P, Q

3. If the team consists of three doctors, two male engineers and two teachers, then the members of the team could be:

(1) 3, 4, 5, K, L, M, N (2) 1, 2, 3, K, L, M, R (3) 3, 4, 5, K, L, P, R (4) 1, 2, H, M, R, P, Q

3. ;fn Vhe esa rhu MkWDVj] nks iq:"k bathfu;j ,oa nks f'k{kd gSa] rks Vhe

ds lnL; gksaxs%

(1) 3, 4, 5, K, L, M, N (2) 1, 2, 3, K, L, M, R (3) 3, 4, 5, K, L, P, R (4) 1, 2, H, M, R, P, Q

4. Pro Kabaddi League 2015 title was won by:

(1) Jaipur Pink Panther (2) Benguluru Bulls (3) U Mumba (4) Dabang Delhi

4. çks dcìh yhx 2015 dk ind fdlds }kjk thrk x;k%

(1) t;iqj fiad iSUFkj (2) cSaxyw: cqYl (3) ;w eqEck (4) ncax fnYyh

5. STATEMENT:

All boys are girls No girl is a father CONCLUSION: I. All girls are boys II. No boy is a father (1) Only I is true (2) Only II is true (3) Only I and II are true (4) None of them is true

5. dFku%

lHkh yM+ds yM+fd;k¡ gSA

dksbZ Hkh yM+dh firk ugha gS

fu’d’kZ%

I. lHkh yM+fd;k¡ yM+ds gSa II. dksbZ Hkh yM+dk firk ugha gS

(1) dsoy I lR; gS (2) dsoy II lR; gS (3) dsoy I ,oa II lR; gS (4) buesa ls dksbZ Hkh lR; ugha gS

6. STATEMENTS:

Some rings are diamonds All fruits are tasty Some tasty are diamonds All diamonds are almonds CONCLUSIONS: I. Some almonds are fruits II. No ring is almond (1) Only conclusion I follows (2) Only conclusion II follows (3) Both conclusion I and II follows (4) None follow

6. dFku%

dqN vaxwBh ghjs gSa

lHkh Qy Lokfn’V gSa

dqN Lokfn’V ghjs gSa

lHkh ghjs cknke gSa

fu’d’kZ%

I. lHkh cknke Qy gSa II. dksbZ Hkh vaxwBh cknke ugha gS

(1) dsoy fu’d’kZ I dk vuqlj.k gksrk gS

(2) dsoy fu’d’kZ II dk vuqlj.k gksrk gS

(3) nksuksa fu’d’kks± I ,oa II dk vuqlj.k gksrk gS

(4) dksbZ Hkh fu’d’kZ vuqlj.k ugha gksrk gS

7. Who among the following were well known for their study on poverty in India:

(1) V.M. Dandekar (2) Neel Kanth (3) Raghuram Rajan (4) Both (1) & (2)

7. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdls Hkkjr esa xjhch ij v/;;u ds fy;s HkyhHkk¡fr

tkuk tkrk gS%

(1) oh-,e- MkaMsdj (2) uhy daB (3) j?kqjke jktu (4) nksuksa (1) ,oa (2)

PAPER – I [ 6 5 2 1 5 7 ] MTFCX5 [ A–1 ]

Page 3: Time Allowed : 90 Minutes Total No. of Questions : 120 PAPER – I · 2017-08-07 · DIRECTIONS: In the following question, a question is posed followed by two statements, I & II

DIRECTIONS: In the following question, a question is posed followed by two statements, I & II. Select the choice as follows.

A If statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question B If statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question C If statements I & II are required to answer the question D If statements I and II together are insufficient and

more data is needed to answer the question

Question: 8. Will the power position become satisfactory within 3

years due to privatisation of distribution in Delhi: Statements: I Distribution losses will be cut by 30% in the next three

years II Power requirements are growing by 10% each year

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

funsZ”k% fuEufyf[kr ç”u esa ,d ç”u ds ckn nks dFku I ,oa II fn, x, gSaA vki vius fodYiksa dk p;u fuEu çdkj djsaA

A. ;fn dsoy dFku I ç”uksÙkj ds fy, i;kZIr gS B. ;fn dsoy dFku II ç”uksÙkj ds fy, i;kZIr gS C. ;fn dFku I ,oa II nksuksa ç”uksÙkj ds fy, vko”;d gSa

D. ;fn dFku I ,oa II nksuksa ç”uksÙkj ds fy, vi;kZIr gSa vkSj

ç”uksÙkj ds fy, T;knk vkdM+ks dh t:jr gS

ç”u%

8. fnYyh esa fo|qr forj.k futhdj.k gksus ds ifj.kker% D;k fctyh dh

fLFkfr rhu o’kksZa esa larks’ktud gks tk,xh%

dFku%

I forj.k {k; vkxkeh 3 lkyksa esa 30% ?kVsxh II fo|qr vko”;drk 10% çfro’kZ c<+ jgh gS (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

9. In the diagram given below, if the circle F represents women living with families, W represents working women and S represents women who are studying, what does the shaded area represent?

(1) Women who are studying and working (2) Women who are living independently and studying (3) Women who are living with their families and studying (4) Women who are living with their families, studying and

working

9. uhps fn, vkjs[k esa ;fn F o`Rr ifjokj ds lkFk jgus okyh efgykvksa

dk izfrfuf/kRo djrk gS] W dkedkth efgykvksa dk izfrfuf/kRo djrk

gS vkSj S v/;;ujr efgykvksa dk izfrfuf/kRo djrk gS rks Nk;kafdr

Hkkx fdldk izfrfuf/kRo djrk gS\

(1) v/;;ujr vkSj dkedkth efgykvksa dk

(2) Lora= :Ik ls jgus okyh vkSj v/;;ujr efgykvksa dk

(3) vius ifjokj ds lkFk jgus okyh vkSj v/;;ujr efgykvksa dk

(4) vius ifjokj ds lkFk jgus okyh] v/;;ujr vkSj dkedkth

efgykvksa dk

10. One of the pioneering robots, that went missing into space almost a decade ago, has been recently found on the surface of red planet. Name it:

(1) Beagle 2 (2) Mars–2 Prop–M. Rover (3) Mars Rover (4) Spirit (MER–A)

10. çFke iFkçn”kZd jkscksV tks fd ,d n”kd iwoZ vUrfj{k esa [kks x;k Fkk]

vHkh gky gh esa yky xzg ds lrg ij ik;k x;kA bldk uke crk,a%

(1) Beagle 2 (2) Mars–2 Prop–M. Rover (3) Mars Rover (4) Spirit (MER–A)

11. Union Government appointed four brand Ambassaders for Digital India Programme recently. Who among these is an author and ethical hacker:

(1) Pranav Mistry (2) Satwat Jagwani (3) Krati Tiwari (4) Ankit Fadia

11. Hkkjr ljdkj us vHkh gky gh esa fMthVy bafM;k çksxzke ds fy;s pkj

czkWUM ,EcsLMj dh fu;qfä fd;k gSA fuEufyf[kr esa dkSu ,d ys[kd

,oa bFkhdy gSdj gS%

(1) ç.ko feL=h (2) lror txokuh (3) Øfr frokjh (4) vafdr QkfM;k

12. A mountain which was recently renamed ‘Denali’ is in which country:

(1) USA (2) Russia (3) China (4) Australia

12. ,d ioZr] ftldk vHkh gky gh esa iqu% ukedj.k ^nsukyh* fd;k x;k]

fdl ns”k esa gS%

(1) ;w-,l-,- (2) :l (3) phu (4) vkWLVªsfy;k

13. A $ B means ‘A’ is father of B, A # B means ‘A’ is sister of B, A ψ B means ‘A’ is daughter of B and A @ B means ‘A’ is brother of B. Then which of the following expressions indicates the relationship ‘R’ is wife of ‘K’ (1) K @ P $ T ψ R (2) K $ P @ T ψ R (3) K $ P ψ T @ R (4) K $ P # T @ R

13. A $ B dk vFkZ gS ‘A’ firk gS ^B* dk]

A # B dk vFkZ gS ‘A’ cgu gS ^B* dh]

A ψ B dk vFkZ gS ‘A’ csVh gS ^B* dh vkSj

A @ B dk vFkZ gS ‘A’ HkkbZ gS ^B* dk

rks fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lh vfHkO;fä ^R iRuh gS K dh]* dks

n”kkZrk gS\

(1) K @ P $ T ψ R (2) K $ P @ T ψ R (3) K $ P ψ T @ R (4) K $ P # T @ R

PAPER – I [ 6 5 2 1 5 7 ] MTFCX5 [ A–2 ]

Page 4: Time Allowed : 90 Minutes Total No. of Questions : 120 PAPER – I · 2017-08-07 · DIRECTIONS: In the following question, a question is posed followed by two statements, I & II

14. It will require a great deal of courage on part of lawmakers in Delhi to introduce and pass laws for licensing and registration of arms possession. Many feel private ownership of arms is the main cause of sociological ills of the country. The arms lobby in Delhi would describe it as an invasion on personal liberty. Select the best argument against strict registration of arms:

(1) It would be difficult to enforce (2) It would be violation of rights in the constitution (3) Most murders/crimes are committed by the privately

owned arms (4) Some murders are committed without the use of arms

14. fnYyh esa dkuwu fuekZrkvks ds fy, “kL= j[kus ds fy, ykbZlsal ysuk

,oa iathdj.k djokus ds fy, dkuwu çLrkfor ,oa ikfjr djus ds fy,

vnE; lkgl dh vko”;drk gSA dqN yksx ekurs gSa fd “kL=ksa dk

futh ç;ksx ns”k dh lkekftd cqjkbZvksa dk eq[; dkj.k gSA fnYyh fLFkr

“kL= ykWch bls vius O;fäxr Lora=rk ij geyk ekusaxhA “kL=ks ds

l[r iathdj.k ds fo:) lokZf/kd Js’B rdZ okys fodYi dks pqusa%

(1) bls ykxw djuk nq’dj gksxk

(2) blls lafo/kku esa fn, x;s vf/kdkjksa dk guu gksxk

(3) T;knkrj gR;k ,oa tqeZ uhth “kL=ksa ls fd, tkrs gSa

(4) dqN gR;k fcuk “kL=ksa ds ç;ksx ls fd, tkrs gSa

15. In a 20 pages book, pages 1 and 2 face each other, 3 and 4 face each other, 5 and 6 face each other. This pattern is repeated till the end. The product of 2 pages facing each other in this book cannot be:

(1) 184 (2) 132 (3) 90 (4) 56

15. ,d 20 i`’B okyh fdrkc esa] i`’B 1 ,oa 2, 3 ,oa 4, 5 ,oa 6 ,d nwljs ds lEeq[k gSaA ;g çfØ;k vUr rd nqgjkbZ tkrh gSA lEeq[k okys

nks i`’Bksa dk xq.kuQy ugha gks ldrk%

(1) 184 (2) 132 (3) 90 (4) 56

16. There are 50 employees in the office of ABC company. Of these 22 have taken an accounting course, 15 have taken a course in finance, and 4 have taken a marketing course, None of the employees have taken exactly two of the courses, and one employee has taken all of these courses. How many of the 50 employees have taken none of the course?

(1) 9 (2) 11 (3) 12 (4) None of these

16. ABC dEiuh esa 50 deZpkjh gSaA buesa ls 22 us ys[kkadu dk dkslZ fd;k gS] 15 us foÙk dk dkslZ fd;k gS ,oa 4 us foi.ku dk dkslZ fd;k gSA fdlh Hkh deZpkjh us Bhd nks dkslZ ugha fd;k gS ,oa ,d

deZpkjh us lHkh dkslZ fd;s gq, gSaA 50 deZpkfj;ksa esa ls fdrus

deZpkfj;ksa us dksbZ dkslZ ugha fd;k%

(1) 9 (2) 11 (3) 12 (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

17. In a certain code STREAMLINE is written as BFSUTDMHKL. How is SCIENTIFIC written in that code?

(1) OFJDTBHEHS (2) OFJDTDJGJU (3) OFJTBDHESH (4) OFJDTDGJUT

17. fdlh fuf”pr dksM esa STREAMLINE dks BFSUTDMHKL fy[kk tkrk gSA mlh dksM esa SCIENTIFIC dks dSls fy[kk tk;sxk%

(1) OFJDTBHEHS (2) OFJDTDJGJU (3) OFJTBDHESH (4) OFJDTDGJUT

18. In a group of 36 persons, a total of 16 take cold drink while 9 take only cold drink not green coconut drink. How many persons in this group take only green coconut drink but not cold drink. (Every person take drink either cold drink or green coconut or both):

(1) 27 (2) 25 (3) 20 (4) 22

18. 36 O;fä;ksa ds lewg esa] 16 yksx dksYM fMªad ysrs gSa tc fd 9 yksx dsoy dksYM fMªad ysrs gSa] ukfj;y ikuh ughaA bl lewg esa fdrus

O;fä ,sls gSa tks dsoy ukfj;y ikuh ysrs gSa] dksYM fMªad ugha ¼çR;sd

O;fä fMªad ysrk gS pkgs og dksYM fMªad gks ;k ukfj;y ikuh ;k nksuksa½%

(1) 27 (2) 25 (3) 20 (4) 22

19. Which of the following circuit is used as a 'Memory device' in computers?

(1) Rectifier (2) Flip-Flop (3) Comparator (4) Attenuator

19. dEI;wVjksa esa ^eseksjh fMokbl* ds :i esa fuEu esa ls dkSuls ifjiFk dk

iz;ksx fd;k tkrk gS\

(1) fn’Vdkjh (2) f¶yi&¶yki (3) rqyukdkjh (4) ruwdkjh

20. India successfully launched its 1st dedicated satellite for astronomy ‘ASTROSAT’ recently. This success made India a member of elite group of nations having their own space observatory. The elite group does not consist of the following nation:

(1) USA (2) China (3) Japan (4) Russia

20. Hkkjr us gky gh esa viuk igyk iw.kZ :i ls lefiZr [kxksyh;

^ASTROSAT* lQyrk iwoZd NksM+k gSA bl lQyrk us Hkkjr dks mu loksZRÑ’V jk’Vªksa ds leqnk; dk lnL; cuk;k ftudh viuh

os/k”kkyk varfj{k esa gSA fuEufyf[kr ns”k bu loksRÑ’V jk’Vªksa ds

leqnk; esa “kkfey ugha gS%

(1) ;w-,l-,- (2) phu (3) tkiku (4) :l

PAPER – I [ 6 5 2 1 5 7 ] MTFCX5 [ A–3 ]

Page 5: Time Allowed : 90 Minutes Total No. of Questions : 120 PAPER – I · 2017-08-07 · DIRECTIONS: In the following question, a question is posed followed by two statements, I & II

21. In Microsoft Excel a Worksheet has 65536 rows and:

(1) 200 columns (2) 256 columns (3) 65536 columns (4) 192 columns

21. ekbZØkslkW¶V ,Dlsy odZ'khV esa 65536 drkjsa ,oa%

(1) 200 dkWyEl gksrh gSa (2) 256 dkWyEl gksrh gSa (3) 65536 dkWyEl gksrh gSa (4) 192 dkWyEl gksrh gSa

22. Identify the wrong match.

(1) Vishwanath Tripathi – Vyomkesh Darvesh (2) Narendra Kohli – Na Bhooto Na Bhavishyati (3) Dr. Kamal Kishore Goenka – Prem Chand Ki

Kahaniyon Ka Kaal Kramanussar Adhyayan (4) Ram Vilas Sharma – Aam K Patte

22. fuEufyf[kr esa ls xyr tksM+s dks igpkusaA

(1) fo”oukFk f=ikBh & O;kseds”k nosZ”k

(2) ujsUæ dksgyh & u Hkrks u Hkfo’;fr

(3) MkW- dey fd”kksj xks;sudk & çse pUn dh dgkfu;ksa dk dky

Øekuqlkj v/;;u

(4) jke foykl “kekZ & vke ds iRrs

23. The theme of International day of peace for the year 2015 is:

(1) Association for Peace – Peace for all (2) Peace Initiatives – Prosperity for all (3) Partnership for Peace – Dignity for all (4) Peaceful Resolutions – Solutions for all

23. o’kZ 2015 ds vUrZjk’Vªh; “kkfUr fnol dk Fkhe gS%

(1) ,lksf”k,lu QkWj ihl & ihl QkWj vkWy

(2) ihl buhfl,fVo & çklifjVh QkWj vkWy

(3) ikVZujf”ki QkWj ihl & fMfXuVh QkWj vkWy

(4) ihlQqy fjtksY;w”kUl & lkY;w”ku QkWj vkWy

24. Who will host 2022 Asian games?

(1) Beijing (2) Jakarta (3) Guangzhou (4) Hangzhou

24. 2022 ,f”k;kbZ [ksyksa dh estckuh dkSu djsxk\

(1) chftax (2) tdkrkZ (3) Xokax>km (4) gSax>km

25. To save water and protect environment hybrid vacuum toilets was installed recently by Indian Railways on trial basis in:

(1) Delhi – Mumbai Rajdhani Train (2) Delhi – Kolkata Rajdhani Train (3) Delhi – Dibrugarh Rajdhani Train (4) Delhi – Chennai Rajdhani Train

25. ty ,oa okrkoj.k ds laj{k.k gsrq Hkkjrh; jsyos us vHkh gky gh esa

gkbZfczM oSDd;we çlk/ku ¼”kkSpky;½ dk Vªk;y fdl Vªsu esa fd;k%

(1) fnYyh & eqEcbZ jkt/kkuh Vªsu

(2) fnYyh & dksydkrk jkt/kkuh Vªsu

(3) fnYyh & fMczwx<+ jkt/kkuh Vªsu

(4) fnYyh & pSébZ jkt/kkuh Vªsu

26. 8th edition global innovation index 2015 was released recently. India’s rank in GII 2015:

(1) 76 (2) 81 (3) 82 (4) 86

26. vkBok¡ laLdj.k Xykscy buksos”ku lwpdkad 2015 vHkh gky gh esa

tkjh fd;k x;kA GII 2015 esa Hkkjr dk LFkku gS%

(1) 76 (2) 81 (3) 82 (4) 86

27. An organisation that has developed capacity to adapt and change is described as:

(1) Virtual organisation (2) Learning organisation (3) Changing organisation (4) Developing organisation

27. ftl laxBu us vuqdwyu vkSj cnyko dh {kerk fodflr dj yh gS]

mls fuEu :i esa of.kZr fd;k tkrk gS%

(1) okLrfod laxBu

(2) lh[k jgk laxBu

(3) ifjorÊ laxBu

(4) fodkl”khy laxBu

28. The phenomenon of temporarily closing down the undertaking forcing workers to accept the demands of employer is:

(1) Lay-off (2) Retrenchment (3) Lock out (4) Termination

28. miØe dks vLFkk;h :i ls cUn djds dkexkjksa dks fu;ksäk dh ekaxs

iwjh djus ds fy, foo”k djus dh ?kVuk dks dgrs gSa%

(1) vLFkk;h NaVuh (2) NaVuh (3) rkykcUnh (4) lekiu

29. The theory which explains affiliation in Group formation and dynamics is called:

(1) Proximity theory (2) Balance theory (3) Exchange theory (4) Propinquity theory

29. lewg fuekZ.k vkSj xfr”khyrk ¼MkbuSfeDl½ esa lEc)rk dks Li’V djus

okyk fl)kUr gS%

(1) lkehI; fl)kUr (2) lUrqyu fl)kUr

(3) fofue; fl)kUr (4) lkn`”; fl)kUr

30. Who is the father of Quality Circles?

(1) Lewin (2) Robert Owen Ishikawa (3) Udpa (4) None of above

30. xq.koÙkk pØksa dk tud dkSu gS%

(1) ysfou (2) jkcVZ vksou b”khdkok

(3) mMik (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

PAPER – I [ 6 5 2 1 5 7 ] MTFCX5 [ A–4 ]

Page 6: Time Allowed : 90 Minutes Total No. of Questions : 120 PAPER – I · 2017-08-07 · DIRECTIONS: In the following question, a question is posed followed by two statements, I & II

DIRECTIONS: (Question No. 31 to 35) The following questions are based on graphic information for company A and company B. Figures of gross sales, gross profit and net profit have been provided in crore rupees. The gross profit is arrived after deducting all direct expenses (treat variable where ever required) related to production/sales units and net profit is arrived after deducting all indirect expenses (treat fixed where ever required) which are not directly related to production/sales units.

funsZ”k% ¼ç”u la[;k 31 ls 35½ fuEufyf[kr ç”u dEiuh A ,oa dEiuh B ds fy;s xzkfQd lwpukvksa ij vk/kkfjr gSA ldy fcØh] ldy ykHk ,oa “kq) ykHk

ds vk¡dM+s djksM+ #i;ksa esa fn;s x, gSaA ldy ykHk mRiknu@fcØh bdkbZ;ksa ls lEcfU/kr lHkh çR;{k [kpks± ¼ifjorÊ ekus tgk¡ vko”;drk gks½ dks ?kVkus ds ckn

fudkys x, gSa ,oa “kq) ykHk lHkh vçR;{k [kpks± ¼LFkk;h ekus tgk¡ vko”;drk gks½] tks fd mRiknu@fcØh bdkbZ;ksa ls çR;{kr% lEcfU/kr ugha gS] dks ?kVkus ds

ckn fudkyk x;k gSA

Company A (Rs. in crore) Company B (Rs. in crore)

31. If direct expenses are the criteria to judge inflationary conditions, which year should be under the grip of highest inflation after analysis of the data of both companies during five year:

(1) 2011 (2) 2013 (3) 2014 (4) 2015

31. ;fn çR;{k [kpsZ fLQfr n”kkvksa dk fu.kZ; djus ds fy;s ,d dlkSVh gS]

rks ik¡p o’kks± ds nkSjku nksuksa dEifu;ksa ds vk¡dM+ks dk fo”ys’k.k djus ds

i”pkr~ dkSu&lk o’kZ loksZPp fLQfr dh idM+ esa gS%

(1) 2011 (2) 2013 (3) 2014 (4) 2015

32. After analysing the data of both companies during five years the highest, indirect expenses to gross sales ratio has been achieved by:

(1) Company A, in 2014 (2) Company B, in 2012 (3) Company B, in 2015 (4) Company A, in 2011

32. ik¡p o’kks± ds nkSjku nksuksa dEifu;ksa ds vk¡dM+ks dk fo”ys’k.k djus ds

i”pkr~ loksZPp] vçR;{k [kpsZ ls ldy fcØh vuqikr] fdlds }kjk

çkIr fd;k x;k gS%

(1) 2014 esa] dEiuh A }kjk (2) 2012 esa] dEiuh B }kjk (3) 2015 esa] dEiuh B }kjk (4) 2011 esa] dEiuh A }kjk

33. After analysing data of both companies during five years the highest, net profit to gross sales ratio has been achieved by:

(1) Company A, in 2011 (2) Company B, in 2013 (3) Company A, in 2012 (4) Company B, in 2011

33. ik¡p o’kks± ds nkSjku nksuksa dEifu;ksa ds vk¡dM+ks dk fo”ys’k.k djus ds

i”pkr~ loksZPp] “kq) ykHk ls ldy fcØh vuqikr] çkIr fd;k x;k gS%

(1) 2011 esa] dEiuh A }kjk (2) 2013 esa] dEiuh B }kjk (3) 2012 esa] dEiuh A }kjk (4) 2011 esa] dEiuh B }kjk

34. After analysing data of both companies during five years the highest, gross operating margin percentage has been achieved by:

(1) Comapny B, in 2011 (2) Company B, in 2012 (3) Company A, in 2012 (4) Company A, in 2014

34. ik¡p o’kks± ds nkSjku nksuksa dEifu;ksa ds vk¡dM+ks dk fo”ys’k.k djus ds

i”pkr~ loksZPp] ldy çpkyu ekftZu çfr”kr çkIr fd;k x;k gS%

(1) 2011 esa] dEiuh B }kjk (2) 2012 esa] dEiuh B }kjk (3) 2012 esa] dEiuh A }kjk (4) 2014 esa] dEiuh A }kjk

35. In which two years break even point sales of both the companies will be same:

(1) 2011, 2013 (2) 2012, 2013 (3) 2013, 2014 (4) None of these

35. dkSu&ls nks o’kks± esa nksuksa dEifu;ksa dk fcØh lerk fcUnq ¼break even point½ ,d cjkcj gksxk%

(1) 2011, 2013 (2) 2012, 2013 (3) 2013, 2014 (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

36. If interest payments are subtracted from gross fiscal deficit, the remainder will be:

(1) Revenue deficit (2) Gross primary deficit (3) Capital deficit (4) Budgetary deficit

36. ;fn ldy jktLo ?kkVs ls C;kt dk Hkqxrku ?kVk;k tkrk gS rks “ks’kQy

gksxk%

(1) vk; ?kkVk (2) ldy ç/kku ?kkVk (3) iw¡th ?kkVk (4) ctV ?kkVk

PAPER – I [ 6 5 2 1 5 7 ] MTFCX5 [ A–5 ]

Page 7: Time Allowed : 90 Minutes Total No. of Questions : 120 PAPER – I · 2017-08-07 · DIRECTIONS: In the following question, a question is posed followed by two statements, I & II

37. Which of the following are included in the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?

1. A dispute between the Government of India and one or more states.

2. A dispute regarding elections to either house of the parliament or that of legislative of a state.

3. A dispute between the Government of India and a union territory.

4. A dispute between two or more states.

Select the correct answers using the codes.

(1) 1 and 2 (2) 2 and 3 (3) 1 and 4 (4) 3 and 4

37. loksZPp&U;k;ky; ds ekSfyd vf/kdkj {ks= ds vUrZxr fuEufyf[kr esa

ls dkSu&lk lfEefyr fd;k tkrk gS\

1. Hkkjr ljdkj ,oa ,d ;k T;knk jkT;ksa ds e/; ,d fookn

2. laln ds fdlh Hkh lnu ;k jkT;ksa ds fo/kku&lHkk ds pquko ls

lEcfU/kr ,d fookn

3. Hkkjr ljdkj ,oa la?k”kkflr {ks= ds e/; ,d fookn

4. nks ;k vf/kd jkT;ksa ds e/; ,d fookn

dksMks dk ç;ksx djrs gq, lgh mÙkj pqusaA

(1) 1 ,oa 2 (2) 2 ,oa 3 (3) 1 ,oa 4 (4) 3 ,oa 4

38. Enzymes are organic compounds of protein category which:

(1) Acts as catalysts in life process (2) Help in the mechanism of supply of oxygen in blood (3) Help to regulate the manner and rate of use of glucose

in body (4) Help in heredity maintenance

38. ,UtkbZEl çksVhu Js.kh dk ,d vkxsZfud dEikmUM gS tks%

(1) thou çfØ;k esa ,d mRçsjd ds :i esa dk;Z djrk gS

(2) jä esa vkWDlhtu dh vkiwfrZ ds ra= esa lgk;rk djrk gS

(3) “kjhj esa Xywdkst ds ç;ksx ds <ax ,oa nj dks fofu;fer djus esa

lgk;rk djrk gS

(4) vkuqokaf”kdh j[kj[kko esa lgk;rk djrk gS

39. The name of a candidate for the office of President of India is proposed by:

(1) Any five Citizens of India (2) Any five Members of the Parliament (3) Any fifty Members of the Electoral College (4) Any ten Members of the Electoral College

39. Hkkjr ds jk’Vªifr in ds fy;s vH;FkÊ dk uke çLrkfor fd;k tkrk

gS%

(1) Hkkjr ds fdlh ik¡p ukxfjd }kjk

(2) laln ds fdlh ik¡p lnL; }kjk

(3) bysDVksjy dkWfyt ds fdUgha ipkl lnL;ksa }kjk

(4) bysDVksjy dkWfyt ds fdUgha nl lnL;ksa }kjk

40. The principle that a subordinate should receive order and be responsible to only one boss is known as:

(1) Unity of command (2) Unity of direction (3) Span of control (4) Span of direction

40. ;g fl)kar fd v/khuLFk dks vkns”k izkIr djuk pkfg, vkSj dsoy ,d

vf/kdkjh ds izfr tokcnsg gksuk pkfg,] dgykrk gS%

(1) deku dh ,drk (2) funsZ”ku dh ,drk (3) fu;a=.k dh foLr`fr (4) funsZ”ku dh foLr`fr

41. The term ‘gang boss’ is used in:

(1) Line organization (2) Staff organization (3) Line and staff organization (4) All of these

41. Vksyh ljnkj ¼gang boss½ “kCn dk iz;ksx fuEu esa fd;k tkrk gS%

(1) ykbu laxBu (2) LVkQ laxBu (3) ykbu vkSj LVkQ laxBu (4) ;s lHkh

42. Delphi technique is associated with:

(1) Decision Making (2) Planning (3) Staffing (4) Directing

42. MsYQh rduhd fuEu ls lacaf/kr gS%

(1) fu.kZ; ysuk (2) fu;kstu (3) deZpkjh vfHkfoU;kl (4) funsZf”kr djuk

43. One megabyte is:

(1) 1048576 Bytes (2) 1068576 Bytes (3) 1058576 Bytes (4) None of these

43. ,d esxkckbZV gS%

(1) 1048576 ckbZV~l (2) 1068576 ckbZV~l (3) 1058576 ckbZV~l (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

44. The most frequently used instructions of a computer program are likely to be fetched from the:

(1) Hard disk (2) Cache Memory (3) RAM (4) None of these

44. dEI;wVj çksxzke }kjk lokZf/kd ckj ç;qä gksus okys funsZ”k vf/kdkj

fuEufyf[kr ls çkIr gksrs gSa%

(1) gkMZ fMLd (2) dS”k eseksjh (3) RAM (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

45. Which of the following commands is given to lock the computer in windows?

(1) Ctrl + Alt + Del (2) Ctrl + Shift + Tab (3) Ctrl + Shift + Del (4) None of these

45. foUMkst esa dEI;wVj ykWd djus ds fy;s fn;k x;k dekUM gS%

(1) Ctrl + Alt + Del (2) Ctrl + Shift + Tab (3) Ctrl + Shift + Del (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

PAPER – I [ 6 5 2 1 5 7 ] MTFCX5 [ A–6 ]

Page 8: Time Allowed : 90 Minutes Total No. of Questions : 120 PAPER – I · 2017-08-07 · DIRECTIONS: In the following question, a question is posed followed by two statements, I & II

46. In a laboratory study, 100 rabbits in an experimental group were injected with serum D and 100 rabbits in control group were injected with harmless sugar solution. In one week 50% of experimental group contracted jungle fever a very contagious disease. Therefore jungle fever must be caused by a substance similar to substances in Serum D. This argument would be strengthened if:

(1) Normal rate of jungle fever in rabbits is less than 1% (2) 50% of control group rabbits had also contracted

jungle fever in the same time (3) The Serum D has substances extracted from a

poisonous jungle flower (4) The blood samples of fever victims invariably contains

a high level of toxic substances also found in Serum D

46. ç;ksx”kkyk v/;;u esa 100 [kjkxks”k¨a ds ,d ijh{k.k leqnk; dks lhje ^Mh* dh lwbZ yxkbZ xbZ vkSj fu;a=.k leqnk; okys 100 [kjxks”kksa ij gkfujfgr phuh ?kksy dh lwbZ yxkbZ xbZA ,d lIrkg ds vUnj

ijh{k.k leqnk; ds 50% [kjxks”kksa dks taxy Toj uked laØked jksx

gks x;k vFkkZr~ taxy Toj mlh rRo ls gksrk gS tks lhje ^Mh* esa ik;k

tkrk gSA bl rdZ dks l”kä cukrk gS ;fn%

(1) [kjxks”kksa esa taxy Toj dh lkekU; nj 1% ls de gS

(2) fu;a=.k leqnk; okys 50% [kjxks”kksa esa Hkh mlh le; taxy Toj

uked jksx ik;k x;k Fkk

(3) lhje ^Mh* ds rRoksa dks ,d tgjhys taxyh Qwy ls fudkyk tkrk

gS

(4) Toj ihfM+rksa ds jä uewus esa mPp Lrj ds fo’kSys rRo ik, x,

tks lhje ^Mh* esa Hkh ekStwn Fks

47. What is the chronological (first published first and so on) correct sequence of the following books?

1. Richard Attenborough – In search of Gandhi 2. Louis Fischer – The life of Mahatama Gandhi 3. E.H. Erikson – Gandhi’s truth 4. J. Eaton – Gandhi, Fighter without a sword

Select the correct answers from the codes given below.

(1) 4, 2, 3, 1 (2) 4, 3, 1, 2 (3) 2, 4, 3, 1 (4) 1, 2, 4, 3

47. fuEufyf[kr iqLrdksa dks dkyØe ¼igys çdkf”kr igys ,oa blh rjg

mlds ckn½ ds vuqlkj lgh vuqØe esa yxk,a\

1. fjpMZ ,Vucjks & bu lpZ vkWQ xk¡/kh

2. yqbl fQ”kj & n ykbZQ vkWQ egkRek xk¡/kh

3. bZ-,p- ,fjDlu & xk¡/kht&VªwFk

4. ts- bZVu & xk¡/kh] QkbZVj fonkmV , lksMZ

uhps fn;s x, dksMks ls lgh mÙkj pqusaA

(1) 4, 2, 3, 1 (2) 4, 3, 1, 2 (3) 2, 4, 3, 1 (4) 1, 2, 4, 3

48. Who in census of India applied the ‘ternary diagram’ for the functional classification of towns of India:

(1) P. Padamanabha (2) A.R. Nanda (3) Ashok Mitra (4) Chandra Shekhar

48. Hkkjr ds tux.kuk esa Hkkjr ds dLcksa ds dk;kZRed oxÊdj.k gsrq

=;kRed vkjs[k fdlus ç;qä fd;k%

(1) ih- inekukHkk (2) ,-vkj- uUnk

(3) v”kksd fe=k (4) pUæ “ks[kj

49. Which Gharana of classical singing did late Pandit Bhimsen Joshi belong to?

(1) Dhrupad (2) Maihar (3) Kirana (4) Etawah

49. LoxÊ; iafMr Hkhelsu tks”kh “kkL=h; xk;u ds fdl ?kjkus ls lEcfU/kr

gSa\

(1) /kzqin (2) eSgj (3) fdjkuk (4) bVkok

50. Dr. Norman Borlaug is famous as father of the green revolution in 1960’s. His initial goal was to create varities of wheat adapted to the climate of:

(1) India (2) Mexico (3) USA (4) China

50. 1960 esa gfjr ØkfUr ds tud ds :i esa MkW- ukWjeu ckWjykx çfl)

gSaA mudk çkjfEHkd mís”; xsgw¡ ds mu çtkfr;ksa dks iSnk djuk Fkk tks

fuEu ds okrkoj.k ds vuqdwy Fkk%

(1) Hkkjr (2) eSfDldks (3) ;w-,l-,- (4) phu

51. Which of the following in not a Simulation Technique of development?

(1) In-basket (2) Case Study (3) Sensitivity Training (4) Management Games

51. fuEu esa ls dkSu fodkl dk vuqdj.k rduhd ugha gS\

(1) bu&ckLdsV (2) ekeyk v/;;u

(3) laos|rk izf”k{k.k (4) izca/ku [ksy

52. ‘Indian Standard Meridian’ passes through the states of: (1) Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Chhatishgarh,

Odisha, and Andhra Pradesh (2) Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand, Odisha and West

Bengal (3) Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan, Maharashtra, Gujarat and

Madhya Pradesh (4) Tamilnadu, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Odisha and

West Bengal

52. ^bafM;u LVS.MMZ esfjfM;u* fdu jkT;ksa ls gksdj xqtjrk gS%

(1) mÙkj&çns”k] e/;&çns”k] NÙkhlx<+] vksfM”kk ,oa vkU/kz çns”k (2) mÙkj&çns”k] fcgkj] >kj[k.M] vksfM”kk ,oa if”pe&caxky

(3) mÙkj&çns”k] jktLFkku] egkjk’Vª] xqtjkr ,oa e/;&çns”k

(4) rfeyukMw] dukZVd] vkU/kz&çns”k] vksfM”kk ,oa if”pe&caxky

PAPER – I [ 6 5 2 1 5 7 ] MTFCX5 [ A–7 ]

Page 9: Time Allowed : 90 Minutes Total No. of Questions : 120 PAPER – I · 2017-08-07 · DIRECTIONS: In the following question, a question is posed followed by two statements, I & II

53. Pick the choice diagram that best represents the following relationship: Insat 1B, Satellites, Insat 1C, Aircraft, Metsat.

A. B.

C. D.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

53. ml js[kkfp= dks pqus tks fuEufyf[kr lEcU/k dks mfpr :i esa n”kkZrk gS%

bulSV 1B] mixzg] bulSV 1C] ,;jØk¶V] esVlSV

A. B.

C. D.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

54. The control function of management can not be performed without:

(1) Planning (2) Organizing (3) Staffing (4) Directing

54. çcU/ku dk fu;a=.k dk;Z fuEu ds fcuk ugha fd;k tk ldrk%

(1) fu;kstu (2) laxBu (3) LVkfQax (4) funsZ”ku

55. To retain the chief/senior executives in an organization which one is an appropriate strategy:

(1) Silver parachute (2) Golden parachute (3) Bronze parachute (4) None of these

55. laxBu esa eq[;@ofj"B ç'kkld dks jksds j[kus ds fy, mfpr

O;wgjpuk D;k gS%

(1) jtr iSjk'kwV (2) Lo.kZ iSjk'kwV (3) rkez iSjk'kwV (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

56. The grant of Diwani of Bengal, Bihar and Orrisa is associated with:

(1) Shah Alam II (2) Bahadur Shah (3) Nawab Asif-ud-Daula (4) Nawab Shuja-ud-Daula

56. caxky fcgkj ,ao mM+hlk dh nhokuh dk xzkUV lEcfU/kr gS%

(1) “kkg vkye II (2) cgknqj “kkg (3) uokc vkflQ&mn&nkSyk (4) uokc “kqtk&mn&nkSyk

57. The difference in the duration of day and night increases as one move from:

(1) West to East (2) East & West of Prime meridian (3) Poles to equator (4) Equator to poles

57. fnu vkSj jkr ds le; esa vUrj c<+rk gS ;fn dksbZ pyrk gS

(1) if”pe ls iwjc dh vksj

(2) çkbZe esfjfM;u ds iwjc ,oa if”pe

(3) /kzwo ls Hkwe/; js[kk dh vksj

(4) Hkwe/; js[kk ls /kzwo dh vksj

58. The most learned ruler of the Delhi sultanate who was well versed in various branches of learning including Astronomy Mathematics and Philosphy was:

(1) Iltutmish (2) Alauddin Khalji (3) Sikandar Lodhi (4) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq

58. fnYyh lYrur dk lokZf/kd fo}ku “kkld tks f”k{kk dh fofHkUu

“kk[kkvksa ftlesa [kxksy&”kkL= xf.kr ,oa n”kZu&”kkL= “kkfey Fks] ls

HkyhHkk¡fr ifjfpr Fkk%

(1) bYrqrfe”k (2) vykmíhu f[kyth

(3) fldUnj yks/kh (4) ekSgEen fcu rqxyd

59. Identify the ‘spell check’ command in MS Word?

(1) F5 (2) F7 (3) F8 (4) F9

59. ,e-,l- oMZ esa ^spell check* dekUM dks igpkusa%

(1) F5 (2) F7 (3) F8 (4) F9

60. Where the chairman or speaker of the house has become subject to disqualification on ground of defection and where such question has arisen, the question shall be referred:

(1) For the decision of President of India and his decision shall be final.

(2) For the decision of such member of the house as the house may elect in this behalf and his decision shall be final

(3) For the decision of leader of house and his decision shall be final

(4) For the decision of the leader of opposition and his decision shall be final

60. tgk¡ ij lnu ds v/;{k vFkok lHkkifr ny&cny ds dkj.k v;ksX;rk

ds v/khu gS] ,oa tgk¡ ij ,slk ç”u mRiUu gqvk gS] rks ,sls ç”u dks

lanfHkZr fd;k tk;sxk%

(1) Hkkjr ds jk’Vªifr }kjk fu.kZ; ysus ds fy;s ,oa mudk fu.kZ;

vafre gksxk

(2) lnu ds ml lnL; ds fu.kZ; dks ftls bl gsrq p;u fd;k x;k

gS ,oa mldk fu.kZ; vafre gksxk

(3) lnu ds usrk ds fu.kZ; gsrq ,oa mudk fu.kZ; vafre gksxk

(4) lnu ds usrk foi{k ds fu.kZ; gsrq ,oa mudk fu.kZ; vafre gksxk

PAPER – I [ 6 5 2 1 5 7 ] MTFCX5 [ A–8 ]

Page 10: Time Allowed : 90 Minutes Total No. of Questions : 120 PAPER – I · 2017-08-07 · DIRECTIONS: In the following question, a question is posed followed by two statements, I & II

DIRECTIONS: (Question No. 61 to 65) Answer these questions on the basis of the information available in the graph below providing GDP and the percentage of GDP for education in the given years.

funsZ”k% ¼ç”u la[;k 61 ls 65½ uhps fn;s x, xzkQ esa miyC/k lwpukvksa ds vk/kkj ij ç”u dk mÙkj nsaA fn;s x, o’kks± esa xzkQ GDP ,oa f”k{kk gsrq GDP dk çfr”kr n”kkZrk gSA

GDP in Rs. Thousand Crore ¼GDP gtkj djksM+ esa½ Percentage of GDP for Education ¼f”k{kk ij GDP dk çfr”kr½

61. In how many years has actual educational spending reduced as compared to that of the previous year?

(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) None of these

61. xro’kZ dh rqyuk esa fdrus o’kks± esa okLrfod f”k{kk [kpZ ?kVk gS%

(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

62. Between the given years, both inclusive, what percentage of the country’s total GDP has gone into education:

(1) 4.3% (2) 3.6% (3) 5.4% (4) 4.9%

62. fn;s x, o’kks± ds e/;] nksuksa lfEefyr] ns”k dh dqy GDP dk fdruk çfr”kr f”k{kk ij [kpZ gqvk gS%

(1) 4.3% (2) 3.6% (3) 5.4% (4) 4.9%

63. The total amount given to education would be how many times the total amount given to defence, if every year 2% of GDP is given to defence (for the entire period)?

(1) 2.15 times (2) 1.55 times (3) 1.35 times (4) 1.80 times

63. f”k{kk ij nh dqy jde j{kk ij nh xbZ dqy jde dh fdruh xquh

gksxh] ;fn çR;sd o’kZ j{kk ij GDP dk 2% fn;k tkrk gS ¼lEiw.kZ

dky ds fy;s½\

(1) 2.15 times (2) 1.55 times (3) 1.35 times (4) 1.80 times

64. If due to an HR ministry report it is obligatory for the government to allocate at least Rs. 3200 Crore for education in 2013, provided educational spending, as a percentage of GDP does not exceed 6.5% then what is the least desirable GDP for the year 2013? (in Rs. 000 Crore)

(1) 51.52 (2) 48.24 (3) 49.23 (4) 42.72

64. ;fn ekuo laLkk/ku ea=ky; ds fjiksVZ ds dkj.k ljdkj ds fy;s f”k{kk

ij 2013 esa de ls de #i, 3200 djksM+ vkoafVr djuk gS] c”krsZ

fd f”k{kk [kpZ GDP ds 6.5% ls T;knk u gks rks o’kZ 2013 ds fy;s de ls de GDP dh fdruh jde okafPNr gksxh\ ¼#i, esa djksM+ 000½

(1) 51.52 (2) 48.24 (3) 49.23 (4) 42.72

65. In which year was the spending on education the lowest?

(1) 2010 (2) 2009 (3) 2008 (4) 2007

65. fdl o’kZ esa f”k{kk ij [kpZ lcls de jgk\

(1) 2010 (2) 2009 (3) 2008 (4) 2007

66. Proposal to prefer charge for impeachment of president of India contained in a resolution in writing is to be signed by not less than ____ total number of members of the house giving their intention to move such resolution:

(1) 2/3 (2) 1/4 (3) 3/4 (4) 1/2

66. Hkkjr ds jk’Vªifr ij jktvfHk;ksx yxkus ds fy;s vfHk;ksx çLrko

ykus ds fy;s ,sls çLrko dk bjknk nsus okys lnu ds lnL;ksa ls çLrko

fyf[kr esa gLrk{kfjr gksuk pkfg, tks lnu ds dqy lnL;ksa dh la[;k

ds ----- ls de u gks%

(1) 2/3 (2) 1/4 (3) 3/4 (4) 1/2

PAPER – I [ 6 5 2 1 5 7 ] MTFCX5 [ A–9 ]

Page 11: Time Allowed : 90 Minutes Total No. of Questions : 120 PAPER – I · 2017-08-07 · DIRECTIONS: In the following question, a question is posed followed by two statements, I & II

67. A victim of a road accident is unconscious. Put in correct order the steps in first aid:

I. Treating for cardiac arrest II. Treating for asphyxia III. Arrest Hemorrhage (bleeding) IV. Cleanse and cover wounds

(1) II, I, III, IV (2) I, II, III, IV (3) III, II, I, IV (4) IV, III, II, I

67. lM+d nq?kZVuk ihfM+r ,d O;fä vpsrk voLFkk esa gSA çFke mipkj esa

fy;s x, lgh Øeksa dks crk,a%

I. ân; xfr :dus dk mipkj

II. “olu ra= dk mipkj

III. jä lzko dks jksduk

IV. ?kko dks lkQ djuk o <dus dk mipkj

(1) II, I, III, IV (2) I, II, III, IV (3) III, II, I, IV (4) IV, III, II, I

68. Which command will be used to carry out ‘superscript’ of words/letters in MS Word?

(1) ctrl+shift+minus (2) ctrl+shift+plus (3) ctrl+shift+p (4) None of these

68. ,e-,l- oMZ esa “kCn@v{kj dks ^superscript* djus ds fy;s

dkSu&lk dekUM ç;qä djsaxs\

(1) ctrl+shift+minus (2) ctrl+shift+plus (3) ctrl+shift+p (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

69. Which command will be used to carry out ‘subscript’ of words/letters in MS Word?

(1) ctrl+plus (2) ctrl+shif+minus (3) ctrl+shif+p (4) None of these

69. ,e-,l- oMZ esa “kCn@v{kj dks ^Subcript* djus ds fy;s dkSu&lk dekUM ç;qä djsaxs\

(1) ctrl+plus (2) ctrl+shif+minus (3) ctrl+shif+p (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

70. Annual payment to certain Devaswom funds as enumerated under Article 290A of the constitution of India shall be charged on and paid out of the consolidated fund of states. This Article refers which states:

(1) State of Kerala, State of Tamilnadu (2) State of Andhra Pradesh, State of Telangana (3) State of Karnataka, State of Tamilnadu (4) State of Rajasthan, State of Uttar Pradesh

70. Hkkjrh; lafo/kku ds vUnj of.kZr vuqPNsn 290A esa fuf”pr nsokLoke

uhf/k dk okf’kZd Hkqxrku jkT; ds dUlkyhMsVsM QaM ij pktZ ,oa

Hkqxrku fd;k tk;sxkA lafo/kku dk ;g vuqPNsn fdu jkT;ksa dks lanfHkZr

djrk gS%

(1) dsjy jkT;] rfeyukMw jkT;

(2) vkU/kz&çns”k jkT;] rsyaxkuk jkT;

(3) dukZVd jkT;] rfeyukMw jkT;

(4) jktLFkku jkT;] mÙkj&çns”k jkT;

71. Which one of the following date is a valid date for testing the citizenship as enumerated under Article–5 of the Constitution of India?

(1) 24-01-1950 (2) 26-11-1949 (3) 26-01-1950 (4) None of these

71. Hkkjr ds lafo/kku ds vuqPNsn&5 esa of.kZr ukxfjdrk dk ijh{k.k djus ds fy;s dkSu&lh rkjh[k ,d oS/k rkjh[k gS\

(1) 24-01-1950 (2) 26-11-1949 (3) 26-01-1950 (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

72. Horizontal, Vertical, and Random Cliques are parts of which of the following groups:

(1) Core Groups (2) Informal Groups (3) Formal Groups (4) Closed Groups

72. vuqizLFk] Å/okZ/kj vkSj ;kn`fPNd fDyd fuEu esa ls dkSuls lewg ds

fgLls gSa\

(1) dksj lewg (2) vukSipkfjd lewg

(3) vkSipkfjd lewg (4) c) lewg

73. As per Keith Davis, which leadership skills are not required at the junior management position in an organization to be an effective leader:

(1) Conceptual skills (2) Human skills (3) Technical skills (4) Specialist skills

73. dhFk Msfol ds vuqlkj ,d laxBu esa çHkkoh usrk gksus ds fy, dfu"B

çcU/ku Lrj ij usr`Ro dh dkSu lh fuiq.krk dh vko';drk ugha

gksrh%

(1) oSpkfjd fuiq.krk

(2) ekuo fuiq.krk

(3) rduhdh fuiq.krk

(4) fo'ks"kK fuiq.krk

74. These oceanic resources belong to open ocean and no individual country can utilize these without the concurrence of International institutions:

(1) Beyond 200 nautical miles of exclusive economic zone (2) Beyond 100 nautical miles of exclusive economic zone (3) Beyond 19.2 nautical miles of exclusive economic

zone (4) Beyond 12 nautical miles of exclusive economic zone

74. ;g egklkxjh; lzksr [kqys egklkxj ls lEcfU/kr gksrs gSa ,oa dksbZ Hkh

,d ns”k fcuk vUrjkZ’Vªh; lgefr ds budk mi;ksx ugha dj ldrk%

(1) vuU; vkfFkZd {ks= ds 200 leqæh ehy ls ijs (2) vuU; vkfFkZd {ks= ds 100 leqæh ehy ls ijs (3) vuU; vkfFkZd {ks= ds 19.2 leqæh ehy ls ijs (4) vuU; vkfFkZd {ks= ds 12 leqæh ehy ls ijs

PAPER – I [ 6 5 2 1 5 7 ] MTFCX5 [ A–10 ]

Page 12: Time Allowed : 90 Minutes Total No. of Questions : 120 PAPER – I · 2017-08-07 · DIRECTIONS: In the following question, a question is posed followed by two statements, I & II

INSTRUCTIONS: (Question No. 75 & 76) An argument is followed by two statements I and II. Pick the choice as follows.

A. If statement I strengthens the arguments B. If statement II strengthens the arguments C. Both the statements I & II strengthen the arguments D. Neither statement I nor II strengthens the arguments

75. The number of people dying in train accident per year has increased in the last five years:

I. A railway official on television stated that since larger number of people travel by train, however the percentage of killed in accident to number of travelers has remained the same as five years ago.

II. The railway official also stated in term of numbers that the number killed in accident per year in last five years was 2000 compared to 990 per year 5 years ago.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

funsZ”k% ¼ç”u la[;k 75 ,oa 76½ ,d rdZ ds i”pkr nks dFku I ,oa II fn, x, gSaA vki vius fodYi fuEu çdkj pqusaA

A. ;fn dFku I rdZ dks lqn`<+ djrk gS B. ;fn dFku II rdZ dks lqn`<+ djrk gS C. ;fn dFku I ,oa II nksuksa rdZ dks lqn`<+ djrs gSa D. u rks dFku I vkSj u gh II rdZ dks lqn`<+ djrk gS

75. foxr 5 o’kksZa esa Vªsu nq?kZVukvksa esa çfro’kZ ejus okyksa dh la[;k c<+h

gS%

I. ,d jsy vf/kdkjh us nwjn”kZu ij crk;k fd pwafd T;knkrj yksx

Vªsu ls ;k=k djrs gSa] gkyk¡fd nq?kZVuk esa ekjs tkus okys ;kf=;ksa

dk çfr”kr dqy ;k=h la[;k ds lanHkZ esa foxr ik¡p o’kksZa esa

;Fkkor jgk gSA

II. jsy vf/kdkjh us ;g Hkh crk;k fd la[;kvksa ds lanHkZ esa foxr

ik¡p o’kks± esa ekjs tkus okyks dh la[;k çfro’kZ 2000 Fkh tks ik¡p o’kZ iwoZ 990 çfro’kZ FkhA

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

76. The metrological department had predicted a more than average rainfall during 2001 monsoons. Has their predictions been successful.

I. 50% of the states have already got their average value of rainfall while one month of monsoon still left.

II. The remaining states have already received 60% of their average value of rainfall.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

76. ekSle foKku lEcU/kh foHkkx us ;g Hkfo’;o.kh dh gS fd 2001 ekulwu ds nkSjku vkSlr ls T;knk o’kkZ gksxhA D;k mudh Hkfo’;ok.kh

lQy jgh gS\%

I. 50% jkT;ksa esa vkSlr o’kkZ vHkh rd gks pqdh gS tcfd vHkh

ekulwu dk ,d eghuk cpk gS

II. ckdh jkT;ksa esa vkSlr o’kkZ dk 60% o’kkZ vHkh rd gks pqdh gS

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

77. Permanent instructions that the computer uses when it is turned on and that can not be changed by other instructions, are contained in:

(1) ROM (2) RAM (3) ALU (4) None of these

77. tc dEI;wVj vkWu fd;k tkrk gS rks ;g LFkkbZ funsZ”k ç;qä djrk gS

ftls cnyk ugha tk ldrk ,oa tks fufgr gksrk gS%

(1) ROM esa (2) RAM esa (3) ALU esa (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

78. The harmone which controls the process of burning fats, proteins and carbohydrates to liberate energy in the body is:

(1) Cortisone (2) Adrenaline (3) Thyroxine (4) Insulin

78. olk çksVhu ,oa dkcksZgkbZMªsV dks tykus dh çfØ;k] tks fd “kjhj esa

ÅtkZ NksM+rk gS] dks fu;af=r djus okyk gkeksZu dgykrk gS %

(1) dkWfVZlksu (2) ,UMªsukfyu (3) FkkbZjkWfDlu (4) bUlqyhu

79. Match the pair correctly.

State Governors (as on 31st Aug., 2015)A. Assam 1. Kesari Nath Tripathi B. Uttarakhand 2. Tathagat Roy C. West Bengal 3. K.K. Paul D. Tripura 4. Padmanabha B. Acharya (1) A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2 (2) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4 (3) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2 (4) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3

79. tksM+ksa dks lgh lqesfyr djsaA

jkT; jkT;iky ¼31 vxLr 2015 rd½A. vle 1. dsljh ukFk f=ikBh

B. mÙkjk[kaM 2. rFkkxr jkW;

C. if”pe caxky 3. ds-ds- ikSy

D. f=iqjk 4. ineukHk ch- vkpk;Z

(1) A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2 (2) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4 (3) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2 (4) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3

80. Which enzymes is used as catalyst to convert glucose into ethanol?

(1) Zymase (2) Invertase (3) Maltase (4) Diastase

80. ,UtkbZe tks Xywdkst dks bZFkuky esa ifjofrZr djus ds fy, mRçsjd ds

:i esa ç;qä gksrk gS\

(1) tkbesl (2) bUoVsZt (3) ekYVsl (4) Mk;LVsl

PAPER – I [ 6 5 2 1 5 7 ] MTFCX5 [ A–11 ]

Page 13: Time Allowed : 90 Minutes Total No. of Questions : 120 PAPER – I · 2017-08-07 · DIRECTIONS: In the following question, a question is posed followed by two statements, I & II

81. Find the wrong statement:

(1) Pakistan recently became the first Asian country to become associates member of CERN

(2) ‘SAMANVAY’ Portal was recently launched by Ministry of Rural Development

(3) International Olympic committee has officially recognised Frisbee as an Olympic sport recently

(4) Laos has become 206th member of Olympic family

81. xyr dFku igpkusa%

(1) vHkh gky gh esa ikfdLrku CERN dk ,lksfl,V lnL; cuus

okyk çFke ,f”k;kbZ ns”k cuk

(2) ^SAMANVAY* iksVZy vHkh gky gh esa Ñf’k fodkl ea=ky;

}kjk “kqHkkjEHk fd;k x;k

(3) vUrjkZ’Vªh; vksfyfEid desVh us vHkh gky gh esa “kkldh; rkSj

ij fÝlch dks ,d vksfyfEid [ksy ds :i esa ekU;rk nh

(4) ykvksl vksfyfEid ifjokj dk 206ok¡ lnL; cu x;k gS

82. For empowerment of women, ‘Women–20 (W–20)’ group has been launched by G–20. Newly appointed president of W–20 group belongs to which country?

(1) Germany (2) South Africa (3) Turkey (4) China

82. efgyk l”kfädj.k gsrq G–20 us ^Women–20 (W–20)* xzqi dk “kqHkkjEHk fd;k gSA W–20 xzqi dh u;h fu;qä v/;{k fdl ns”k ls

lEcfU/kr gS\

(1) teZuh (2) nf{k.k&vÝhdk

(3) VdÊ (4) phu

83. What would be the number of bytes transferred at the rate of 1 kilobit per second:

(1) 100 (2) 108 (3) 125 (4) 128

83. ,d fdyksfcV çfrlsds.M dh nj ij vUrfjr ckbZVksa dh la[;k D;k

gksxh%

(1) 100 (2) 108 (3) 125 (4) 128

84. Venus Williams of United States has won the 2015 Wuhan open single titles defeating:

(1) Garbine Muguruza of Spain (2) Angelique Kerber of Germany (3) Martina Hingis of Switzerland (4) Sania Mirza of India

84. ;wukbZVsM LVsV~l dh ohul fofy;El us 2015 owgku vksiu ,dy

çfr;ksfxrk fdldks gjkdj thrk%

(1) Lisu dh xkfcZu eqxqj:>k

(2) teZuh dh vatyhd djcsj

(3) LohV~tjyS.M dh ekfVZuk fgfUxl

(4) Hkkjr dh lkfu;k fetkZ

85. Arvind Pangariya has been chosen next G–20 Sherpa. Who was Just earlier G–20 India’s Sherpa?

(1) Suresh Prabhu (2) Sindhusri Khullar (3) Shusma Swaraj (4) None of these

85. vjfoUn iuxfM+;k dks vkxkeh G–20 ds fy, “ksjik pquk x;k gSA buls Bhd igys G–20 Hkkjrh; “ksjik dkSu Fkk@Fkh%

(1) lqjs”k çHkq (2) flU/kwJh [kqYyj (3) lq’ek Lojkt (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

86. Chapchar cut, Mim cut and pawl kut festivals are related to which states of India:

(1) Nagaland (2) Mizoram (3) Sikkim (4) Arunachal Pradesh

86. pkIpj dV] fee dV ,oa ikWy dV R;kSgkj Hkkjr ds fdl jkT; ls

lEcfU/kr gS%

(1) ukxkyS.M (2) fet+ksje (3) flfôe (4) v:.kkpy çns”k

87. The well-known book “The Rediscovery of India” has been written by:

(1) L.K. Advani (2) Anita Desai (3) Vikram Seth (4) Meghnad Desai

87. çfl) fdrkc ßn fjfMLdojh vkWQ bafM;kÞ fdlds }kjk fy[kh xbZ gS%

(1) ,y-ds- vkMokuh (2) vuhrk nslkbZ

(3) foØe lsB (4) es?kukn nslkbZ

88. Fusion process theory is related to:

(1) Motivation (2) Coordination (3) Direction (4) Goal congruency

88. lay;u izfØ;k fl)kar fuEu ls lacaf/kr gS%

(1) vfHkizsj.k (2) leUo; (3) funsZ”ku (4) y{; loZlerk

89. Bureaucratic model of management was developed by:

(1) Max Weber (2) Mooney and Raiby (3) E. F. L Breach (4) Robert L. Katz

89. çcU/ku dk n¶rj'kkgh ekWMy fdlds }kjk fodflr fd;k x;k%

(1) eSDl oscj (2) ewuh ,oa jsch (3) bZ- ,Q- ,y- czhp (4) jkWoVZ ,y- dV~t

90. Which of the following elements occur predominately in crude oil:

(1) Hydrogen (2) Oxygen (3) Carbon (4) Nitrogen

90. fuEu esa ls dkSu&lk rRo dPps rsy eas izHkkoh rkSj ij ?kfVr gksrk gS\

(1) gkbMªkstu (2) vkDlhtu

(3) dkcZu (4) ukbVªkstu

PAPER – I [ 6 5 2 1 5 7 ] MTFCX5 [ A–12 ]

Page 14: Time Allowed : 90 Minutes Total No. of Questions : 120 PAPER – I · 2017-08-07 · DIRECTIONS: In the following question, a question is posed followed by two statements, I & II

DIRECTIONS: In the following question a number series is given. After the series a number is given followed by (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e). You have to complete the series starting with the number given following the sequence of the given series and answer the question given below the series.

91. )e()d()c()b()a(1

1945364751643

What will come in place of (c) (1) 63 (2) 64 (3) 65 (4) None of these

funsZ”k% fuEufyf[kr ç”u esa ,d la[;k Ja`[kyk nh xbZ gSA Ja`[kyk ds i”pkr

,d la[;k nh xbZ gS ftlds i”pkr (a), (b), (c), (d) ,oa (e) fn;k x;k gSA vkidks Ja[kyk dks mlh la[;k ls çkjEHk djrs gq, iw.kZ djuk gS tks ml

Ja[kyk dk vuqlj.k djrh gks tks fd Åij esa nh xbZ gS ,oa vius ç”u ds

mÙkj uhps fn;s x, Ja[kyk ds vuqlkj nsuk gSA

91. )e()d()c()b()a(1

1945364751643

(c) ds LFkku ij D;k vk,xk

(1) 63 (2) 64 (3) 65 (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

92. Match the correct election symbols of political parties and identify the mismatched one:

(1) Indian National Congress (I) : Hand (2) Communist Party of India (Marxist) : Ears of corn and Sickle (3) Nationalist Congress party : Clock (4) Bhartiya Janta Party : Lotus

92. jktuSfrd nyksa dkss muds lgh pquko fpUgksa ls lqesfyr djsa ,oa xSj

lqesfyr dks igpkusa%

(1) Hkkjrh; jk’Vªh; dkaxzsl ¼vkbZ-½ % gkFk

(2) Hkkjrh; dE;wfuLV ikVÊ ¼ekfDZlLV½ % tkS dh ckyh ,oa g¡fl;k

(3) jk’Vªhoknh dkaxzsl ny % ?kM+h

(4) Hkkjrh; turk ikVÊ % dey

93. 9, 9 leadership style as per managerial grid is called:

(1) Country club style (2) Team style (3) Middle road style (4) Task style

93. eSusftj;y xzhM esa 9, 9 usr`Ro “kSyh dks dgrs gSa%

(1) dUVªh Dyc “kSyh (2) Vhe “kSyh (3) e/; ekxZ “kSyh (4) VkLd “kSyh

94. “Horizontal loading of a job” indicates which one of the phenomenon: (1) Job rotation (2) Job enlargement (3) Job enrichment (4) Job design

94. ^dk;Z dh {kSfrt ynku* fdl ,d lao`fÙk dh vksj bafxr djrk gS%

(1) dk;Z pØ.k (2) dk;Z ifjo/kZu

(3) dk;Z /kuhdj.k (4) dk;Z lajpuk

95. The following is the top most need in the hierarchy as per Maslow’s theory –

(1) Esteem (2) Self actualization (3) Safety (4) Social

95. eSlyks fl)kar ds vuqlkj inkuqØe esa fuEu lokZf/kd t:jh gS%

(1) lEeku (2) Lo&dk;kZUo;u

(3) lqj{kk (4) lkekftd

96. The French industrialist who first identified the basic management functions is:

(1) Weber (2) Taylor (3) Herzberg (4) Fayol

96. Ýkalhlh m|ksxifr ftlus ewy çcU/ku dk;ks± dh lcls igys igpku

dh] og gS%

(1) oscj (2) Vsyj (3) gtZcxZ (4) QS;kWy

97. Organization chart is an important technique of:

(1) Analysis of any organization (2) Analysis of non-formal organization (3) Analysis of formal organization (4) Analysis of informal organization

97. laxBu pkVZ fuEu dk ,d egRoiw.kZ rduhd gS%

(1) fdlh laxBu dk fo”ys’k.k

(2) xSj&vkSipkfjd laxBu dk fo”ys’k.k

(3) vkSipkfjd laxBu dk fo”ys’k.k

(4) vukSipkfjd laxBu dk fo”ys’k.k

98. Goal-setting theory states that:

(1) Difficult goals lead to higher performance (2) Easy goals lead to higher performance (3) Difficult goals lead to lower performance (4) Easy goals lead to lower performance

98. y{; fu/kkZj.k fl)kUr of.kZr djrk gS fd%

(1) eqf”dy y{; mPp çnZ”ku dh vksj mUeq[k djrk gS

(2) ljy y{; mPp çnZ”ku dh vksj mUeq[k djrk gS

(3) eqf”dy y{; fuEu çnZ”ku dh vksj mUeq[k djrk gS

(4) ljy y{; fuEu çnZ”ku dh vksj mUeq[k djrk gS

99. A program written in assembly language converts the source program into:

(1) Assembly program (2) Machine language program (3) Object program (4) None of these

99. ,lsEcyh Hkk’kk esa fy[kk gqvk ,d çksxzke lzksr çksxzke dks fuEufyf[kr

esa ifjofrZr djrk gS%

(1) ,lsEcyh çksxzke

(2) e”khu Hkk’kk çksxzke

(3) vkWtsDV çksxzke

(4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

PAPER – I [ 6 5 2 1 5 7 ] MTFCX5 [ A–13 ]

Page 15: Time Allowed : 90 Minutes Total No. of Questions : 120 PAPER – I · 2017-08-07 · DIRECTIONS: In the following question, a question is posed followed by two statements, I & II

100. Match the following:

Field Nobel Prize winner 2015A. Economics 1. Svetlana Alxievich B. Peace 2. Angus Deaton C. Literature 3. Takaaki Kajita & Arthur B. McDonald D. Physics 4. Tunisian National Dialogue Quartet (1) A3, B4, C1, D2 (2) A3, B1, C2, D4 (3) A1, B4, C3, D2 (4) A2, B4, C1, D3

100. fuEufyf[kr dks lqesfyr djsa%

{ks= 2015 ukscsy iqjLdkj fotsrkA. vFkZ”kkL= 1. Losrykuk ,ysDlhfop

B. “kkfUr 2. ,Uxl MhVu

C. lkfgR; 3. rdkdh dthVk ,oa vkFkZj ch- eSdMksukYM

D. HkkSfrdh 4. V;wfuf”k;u us”kuy Mk;ykx DokVsZV

(1) A3, B4, C1, D2 (2) A3, B1, C2, D4 (3) A1, B4, C3, D2 (4) A2, B4, C1, D3

DIRECTIONS: (Question No. 101 to 104) Answer these Questions based on the following information. The graph given below represents the sales and profit in Rs. Crore of xyz ltd. for five years from 2007–08 to 2011–12. During this period the sales increased from Rs. 150 Crore to 800 Crore. Correspondingly, the net profit increased from Rs. 4.2 Crore to Rs. 15 Crore. Net profit is defined as the excess of sales over total costs.

Sales & Profit of xyz Ltd.

101. The highest percentage of growth in sales, relative to previous years occured in:

(1) 2008–09 (2) 2009–10 (3) 2010–11 (4) 2011–12

funsZ”k% ¼ç”u la[;k 101 ls 104½ fuEufyf[kr lwpukvksa ds vk/kkj ij bu

ç”uksa ds mÙkj nsaA uhps fn;s x, xzkQ esa xyz fyfeVsM ds ik¡p o’kks± dk 2007–08 ls 2011–12 dk fcØh ,oa ykHk djksM+ #i;ksa esa çnf”kZr djrk gSA bl dky esa fcØh c<+dj #i, 150 djksM+ ls #i, 800 djksM+ gks xbZA blds lekukUrj “kq) ykHk 4.2 djksM+ ls c<+dj 15 djksM+ gks x;kA “kq)

ykHk dks dqy ykxr ij fcØh ds vkf/kD; ds :i esa ifjHkkf’kr fd;k tkrk

gSA

xyz fyfeVsM dk fcØh ,oa ykHk

101. xro’kZ ds lkis{k fcØh esa o`f) dk loksZPp çfr”kr fdl o’kZ esa gS%

(1) 2008–09 (2) 2009–10 (3) 2010–11 (4) 2011–12

102. The highest percentage of growth in net profit, relative to the previous years was achieved in:

(1) 2008–09 (2) 2009–10 (3) 2010–11 (4) 2011–12

102. xro’kZ ds lkis{k “kq) ykHk esa o`f) dk loksZPp çfr”kr fdl o’kZ çkIr

fd;k x;k%

(1) 2008–09 (2) 2009–10 (3) 2010–11 (4) 2011–12

103. Defining profitability as the ratio of net profit to sales, xyz ltd. recorded the highest profitability in:

(1) 2007–08 (2) 2009–10 (3) 2010–11 (4) 2011–12

103. “kq) ykHk ls fcØh ds vuqikr ds :i esa ykHknk;drk dks ifjHkkf’kr

djrs gq, xyz fyfeVsM us loksZPp ykHknk;drk fdl o’kZ vftZr dh%

(1) 2007–08 (2) 2009–10 (3) 2010–11 (4) 2011–12

104. With profitability as defined as the ratio of net profit to sales, it can be concluded that:

(1) Profitability is non decreasing during the five years from 2007–08 to 2011–12

(2) Profitability is non increasing during the five years from 2007–08 to 2011–12

(3) Profitability remained constant during the five years from 2007–08 to 2011–12

(4) None of these

104. “kq) ykHk ls fcØh dk vuqikr ds :i esa ykHknk;drk ifjHkkf’kr djrs

gq, ;g fu’d’kZ fudkyk tk ldrk gS fd%

(1) ykHknk;drk ik¡p o’kks± 2007–08 ls 2011–12 ds nkSjku fcuk ?kVs jgh gS

(2) ykHknk;drk ik¡p o’kks± 2007–08 ls 2011–12 ds nkSjku fcuk c<+s jgh gS

(3) ykHknk;drk ik¡p o’kks± 2007–08 ls 2011–12 ds nkSjku fLFkj jgh gS

(4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

PAPER – I [ 6 5 2 1 5 7 ] MTFCX5 [ A–14 ]

Page 16: Time Allowed : 90 Minutes Total No. of Questions : 120 PAPER – I · 2017-08-07 · DIRECTIONS: In the following question, a question is posed followed by two statements, I & II

105. A program that places programs into main memory and prepares them for execution:

(1) Linker (2) Assembler (3) Loader (4) Absolute entity

105. ,d çksxzke tks çksxzke dks eq[; eseksjh esa j[krk gS ,oa mls fu’iknu ds fy;s rS;kj djrk gS%

(1) fyadj (2) ,lsEcyj (3) yksMj (4) ,clksY;wV ,ufVVh

DIRESTIONS: (Question No. 106 to 110) There are six IPL players from six different states UP, Jharkhand, Haryana, Rajasthan, Delhi and West Bengal staying in three different hotels of Delhi. Two players in each hotel are roommates. Every player reads one of the following newspaper. The Times of India, The Asian Age, The Hindustan Times, The Pioneer, The Hindu and the Indian Express. Dhoni stays in Ashoka and he is from Jharkhand. He does not read the Asian Age and The Hindustan Times. R.P. Singh from U.P. reads The Indian Express. He does not stay with Amit. Youvraj Singh stays with a player from Rajasthan. The Asian Age is read by a player in Le Meridian Hotel. Rahul is not from Haryana and West Bengal and he reads The Pioneer. A player from hotel Samrat reads The Hindu. Sachin is neither from Delhi nor from West Bengal. The Hindustan Times and The Indian Express do not come in Ashoka. Players from U.P. and Haryana stay together. The pioneer comes to Ashoka. The player who reads The Indian Express resides at Le Meridian Hotel.

106. Who stays in Samrat Hotel:

(1) Youvraj Singh and Dhoni (2) Youvraj Singh and Amit (3) Sachin and Amit (4) None of the above is correct

funsZ'k% ¼ç'u la[;k 106 ls 110½ IPL ds N% f[kykM+h N% fofHkUu jkT;ksa] mÙkj çns'k] >kj[k.M] gfj;k.kk] jktLFkku] fnYyh ,oa if'pe caxky ls fnYyh

ds rhu fofHkUu gksVy esa Bgjrs gSaA çR;sd gksVy esa nks f[kykM+h ,d :eesV

gSaA çR;sd f[kykM+h ,d v[kckj i<+rk gS&VkbZEl vkWQ bfUM;k] n ,f'k;u

,t] n fgUnqLrku VkbZEl] n ikW;fu;j] n fgUnw ,oa n bfUM;u ,DlçslA /kksuh

v'kksdk esa Bgjrs gSa ,oa og >kj[k.M ls gSaA og n ,f'k;u ,t ,oa

fgUnqLrku VkbZEl ugha i<+rs gSaA vkj-ih- flag mÙkj çns'k ls gSa ,oa n

bfUM;u ,Dlçsl i<+rs gSaA og vfer ds lkFk ugha Bgjrs gSaA ;qojkt flag

jktLFkku ds f[kykM+h ds lkFk Bgjrs gSaA yh eSfjfM;u esa Bgjus okyk ,d

f[kykM+h n ,f'k;u ,t i<+rk gSA jkgqy gfj;k.kk ,oa if'pe caxky ls ugha gSa

,oa og n ikW;fu;j i<+rs gSaA lezkV gksVy dk ,d f[kykM+h n fgUnw i<+rk gSA

lfpu u rks fnYyh ls gSa vkSj u gh if'pe caxky lsA n fgUnqLrku VkbZEl

,oa n bfUM;u ,Dlçsl v'kksdk esa ugha vkrk gSA mÙkj çns'k vkSj gfj;k.kk

ds f[kykM+h lkFk&lkFk Bgjrs gSaA n ikW;fu;j v'kksdk esa vkrk gSA f[kykM+h tks

n bfUM;u ,Dlçsl i<+rk gS og yh eSfjM;u gksVy esa Bgjk gqvk gSA

106. lezkV gksVy esa dkSu Bgjk gqvk gS%

(1) ;qojkt flag ,oa /kksuh

(2) ;qojkt flag ,oa vfer

(3) lfpu ,oa vfer

(4) mi;qZä esa dksbZ Hkh lgh ugha gS

107. Who reads the Times of India:

(1) Sachin (2) Rahul (3) Dhoni (4) None of these

107. n VkbZEl vkWQ bfUM;k dkSu i<+rk gS%

(1) lfpu (2) jkgqy (3) /kksuh (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

108. Who stays with Sachin:

(1) R.P. Singh (2) Dhoni (3) Youvraj Singh (4) Rahul

108. lfpu ds lkFk dkSu Bgjk gqvk gS%

(1) vkj-ih- flag (2) /kksuh (3) ;qojkt flag (4) jkgqy

109. Which state does Amit belong to:

(1) Delhi (2) Jharkhand (3) West Bengal (4) Rajasthan

109. vfer fdl jkT; ls lEcfU/kr gS%

(1) fnYyh (2) >kj[k.M (3) if'pe caxky (4) jktLFkku

110. In which Hotel does Rahul stay?

(1) Le Meridian (2) Samrat (3) Ashoka (4) Data Inadequate

110. jkgqy fdl gksVy esa Bgjk gqvk gS%

(1) yh eSfjfM;u (2) lezkV (3) v'kksdk (4) vk¡dM+s vi;kZIr

111. Which of the following is not used as a data structure?

(1) Array (2) Linked list (3) Graph (4) Directory

111. fuEufyf[kr esa dkSu&lk ,d MkVk lajpuk ds :i esa ç;qä ugha gksrk\

(1) Array (2) Linked list (3) Graph (4) Directory

112. Microsoft Access is:

(1) RDBMS (2) DBMS (3) Table (4) Text Editor

112. ekbZØkslkW¶V ,sDlsl gS%

(1) RDBMS (2) DBMS (3) Vscy (4) VsDLV ,MhVj

113. ‘The year of the Runaways’ has been written by:

(1) Hanya Yanagihara (2) Marlen James (3) Sanjeev Sahota (4) Tom Mc Carthy

113. ^The year of the Runaways* fdlds }kjk fy[kk x;k%

(1) gkU;k ;kukfxgkjk (2) ekjysu tsEl (3) latho lgksrk (4) VkWe eSd dkFkÊ

PAPER – I [ 6 5 2 1 5 7 ] MTFCX5 [ A–15 ]

Page 17: Time Allowed : 90 Minutes Total No. of Questions : 120 PAPER – I · 2017-08-07 · DIRECTIONS: In the following question, a question is posed followed by two statements, I & II

DIRECTIONS: Each face of a cube has a different colour. Its top face is painted BLACK. BLUE is between RED and YELLOW. GREEN is between BLACK and WHITE. WHITE is between YELLOW and RED.

114. Which colour is at the bottom:

(1) Red (2) White (3) Black (4) Yellow

funsZ'k% ,d ?ku dk çR;sd eq[kM+k fHké jax dk gSA bldk 'kh"kZ eq[kM+k dkys

jax ls jaxk x;k gSA yky vkSj ihys ds chp esa uhyk gSA dkys vkSj lQsn ds

chp esa gjk gSA ihys vkSj yky ds chp esa lQsn gSA

114. ry esa dkSu&lk jax gS%

(1) yky (2) lQsn (3) dkyk (4) ihyk

115. ‘C’ is a place which is located 2 km away in the north-west direction from the capital Z. R is another place that is located 2 km away in the south-west direction from ‘C’. ‘M’ is another place and that is located 2 km away in the north-west direction from ‘R’. ‘T’ is yet another place that is located 2 km away in the south-west direction from ‘M’. In which direction is ‘T’ located in relation to ‘Z’?

(1) South-West (2) West (3) North (4) None of these

115. jkt/kkuh Z ls mÙkj&if”pe fn”kk esa 2 fdeh- dh nwjh ij ^C* dk

LFkku fLFkr gSA ^R* ,d nwljk LFkku] ^C* ls nf{k.k&if”pe fn”kk esa

2 fdeh- dh nwjh ij gSA ^M* ,d nwljk LFkku] tks fd ^R* ls

mÙkj&if”pe fn”kk esa 2 fdeh- dh nwjh ij gSA ^T* ,d vkSj vU;

LFkku] ^M* ls nf{k.k if”pe fn”kk esa 2 fdeh- dh nwjh ij gSA Z ls] ^T* fdl fn”kk dh vksj gS\

(1) nf{k.k&if”pe (2) if”pe (3) mÙkj (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

116. Arjun is Arvind’s brother. Swati is Arvind’s mother. Prakash is Swati’s father. Malti is Prakash’s mother. How Arjun is related to Malti?

(1) Grand Son (2) Great Grand Son (3) Son (4) Cannot be determined

116. vtqZu vjfoUn dk HkkbZ gSA vjfoUn dh ek¡ Lokrh gSA çdk”k Lokrh dk

firk gSA çdk”k dh ek¡ ekyrh gSA ekyrh dk vtqZu ls D;k laca/k gS\

(1) ikS= (2) iM+ikS=

(3) iq= (4) fu/kkZfjr ugha fd;k tk ldrk

117. Tide caused by the gravitional pull of the moon and sun together in the same direction is called:

(1) Spring Tide (2) Neap Tide (3) Tidal Wave (4) Tidal Bore

117. Tokj HkkVk] tks ,d lkFk ,d gh fn”kk esa pUæek ,oa lw;Z ds

xq:Rokd’kZ.k f[kpk¡o ds dkj.k gksrk gS] dgykrk gS%

(1) o`gn Tokj HkkVk (2) y?kq Tokj HkkVk (3) Tokjh; rjax (4) Tokjh; fHkfÙk

118. A non violent revolution called velvet revolution and whose hero was Vaclav Havel took place in 1989 in:

(1) Czechoslovakia (2) Indonesia (3) Myanmar (4) Egypt

118. ,d vafglkRed ØkfUr ftls osyosV ØkfUr dk uke fn;k x;k ,oa

ftlds ghjks oSDyo gSosy Fks] 1989 esa gqvk%

(1) psdksLyksokfd;k esa (2) bUMksusf”k;k esa (3) E;kuekj esa (4) felz esa

DIRECTIONS: Answer the following question according to the instructions given.

A$B means A is not smaller than B A#B means A is not greater than B A@B means A is neither smaller nor equal to B A*B means A is neither greater than nor smaller than B A%B means A is neither greater than nor equal to B

119. STATEMENT:

M@J, J$T, T*N CONCLUSION: I. N#J II. T%M III. M@N

(1) Only I and II are true (2) Only II is true (3) Only I and III are true (4) All are true

funsZ'k% fn;s x, funsZ”kksa ds vuqlkj fuEu ç”u dk mÙkj nsaA

A$B dk rkRi;Z gS A] B ls NksVk ugha gS A#B dk rkRi;Z gS A] B ls cM+k ugha gS A@B dk rkRi;Z gS A] u rks B ls NksVk vkSj u gh B ds cjkcj gS A*B dk rkRi;Z gS A] u rks B ls cM+k vkSj u gh B ls NksVk gS A%B dk rkRi;Z gS A] u rks B ls cM+k vkSj u gh B ds cjkcj gS

119. dFku% M@J, J$T, T*N fu’d’kZ%

I. N#J II. T%M III. M@N (1) dsoy I ,oa II lR; gS (2) dsoy II lR; gS (3) dsoy I ,oa III lR; gS (4) lHkh lR; gSa

120. In a certain code language,

‘cro te na’ stands for ‘elephants are huge’; ‘mee cro da’ stands for ‘animals are dark’ and ‘mee cro te dana’ stands for ‘huge animals are lovable’. How is ‘elephants are lovable’ written in this code language?

(1) mee dana cro (2) na mee dana (3) na dana cro (4) te da mee

120. ,d fuf”pr dksM Hkk’kk esa]

‘cro te na’ dk rkRi;Z gS ‘elephants are huge’; ‘mee cro da’ dk rkRi;Z gS ‘animals are dark’ ,oa ‘mee cro te dana’ dk rkRi;Z gS ‘huge animals are lovable’. ‘elephants are lovable’ dks bl dksM Hkk’kk esa dSls fy[kk tk,xk\

(1) mee dana cro (2) na mee dana (3) na dana cro (4) te da mee

PAPER – I [ 6 5 2 1 5 7 ] MTFCX5 [ A–16 ]

Page 18: Time Allowed : 90 Minutes Total No. of Questions : 120 PAPER – I · 2017-08-07 · DIRECTIONS: In the following question, a question is posed followed by two statements, I & II

bl iqfLrdk ij dqN Hkh fy[kus ls igys fuEufyf[kr funsZ'k /;kuiwoZd i<+sa

egRoiw.kZ%& fuEufyf[kr funsZ'k /;kuiwoZd i<+saA vius ç”uksa ds mÙkj ç”u&iqfLrdk esa u yxk,a vU;Fkk p;u çfØ;k ls vkidh ik=rk oafpr

dj nh tk;sxhA 1. viuk mÙkj fy[kuk çkjEHk djus ls igys viuh ç'u iqfLrdk dh Hkyh&Hkk¡fr tk¡p dj ysa] ns[k ysa fd blesa 120 ç'u gSaA çR;sd ç'u

iqfLrdk dh fljht fHké gksxh ¼ç”u&iqfLrdk la[;k ,oa ç”u&iqfLrdk fljht dk la;kstu½A vkidks OMR mÙkj if=dk ij lgh

ç'u&iqfLrdk fljht ,oa ç”u&iqfLrdk la[;k fy[kuk gSA iqu% ;g Hkh ij[k ysa fd blesa fçafVax laca/kh vFkok vU; fdLe dh dksbZ deh

ugha gSA ;fn fdlh çdkj dh dksbZ deh gks rks i;Zos{kd dks lwfpr djsa vkSj ç”u&iqfLrdk cnydj ,d u;h iqfLrdk ,oa ,d u;h OMR

ysaA bl lanHkZ esa fdlh Hkh çdkj dh dksbZ f'kdk;r ij ckn esa dksbZ fopkj ugha fd;k tk,xkA

egRoiw.kZ uksV% vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj if=dk vH;FkÊ ds ç”u&iqfLrdk fljht ,oa ç”u&iqfLrdk la[;k ds la;kstu ls ewY;kafdr dh

tk;sxhA vr% vkidks vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj if=dk ij lgh ç”u&iqfLrdk fljht ,oa ç”u&iqfLrdk la[;k fy[kuh pkfg,A buesa ls fdlh

,d esa Hkh xyrh gksus ij vkidh vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj if=dk fujLr gks ldrh gSA vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj if=dk esa ç”u&iqfLrdk la[;k

,oa ç”u&iqfLrdk fljht ugha Hkjus ij vH;FkÊ ds mÙkj if=dk dk ewY;kadu ugha fd;k tk;sxk ftldh ftEesnkjh Lor% vH;FkÊ dh

gksxhA

2. ç”u i= f}Hkk’kh; ¼fgUnh ,oa vaxzsth½ esa gSA fgUnh laLdj.k esa fdlh Hkh fHkérk gksus ij ewY;kadu ds fy, vaxzsth laLdj.k dks vfUre

ekuk tk;sxkA

3. lqfuf”pr djsa fd vkids ços”k&i= ,oa vks-,e-vkj “khV dks vkids }kjk ,oa d{k fujh{kd ds }kjk gLrk{kj fd;k x;k gSA ;fn

gLrk{kj ugha fd;k@djok;k x;k gS rks ik=rk fujLr gks tk;sxhA

4. lHkh cgq&fodYi ç”uksa ds 1 vad gSaA vuqÙkfjr ç”uksa ds fy, u rks dksbZ vad fn;k tk,xk vkSj u gh dkVk tk,xkA çR;sd mÙkj ds

fy, dsoy ,d vksoy dks dkyk djsaA ;fn vki ,d ls T;knk vksoy dkyk djrs gSa ;k ,d ls T;knk vksoy ij dksbZ LVªs ekDZl

feyrk gS] ,sls vksoy ds fy, dksbZ vad ugha feysxkA

5. ;g ,d oLrqijd fdLe dh ijh{kk gS ftlesa çR;sd ç'u ds uhps Øekad (1) ls (4) rd pkj çLrkfor mÙkj fn;s gSaA vkids fopkj

esa tks Hkh mÙkj lgh@loZJs"B gS mldks vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj i= esa fn;s funsZ'k ds vuqlkj fpfUgr dhft,A vius mÙkj ç'u iqfLrdk esa

u yxk,A 6. vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj if=dk ij lHkh dk;ks± ds fy, uhys@dkys ckWy Iokb±V isu ls fy[ksaA vks-,e-vkj mÙkj if=dk ij vksoy dks iw.kZ

:i ls dsoy uhys@dkys ckWy Iokb±V isu ls HkjsaA ,d ckj fn, x, mÙkj dks cnyk ugha tk ldrkA mÙkj dh dfVax ,oa vksojjkbZfVax

dh vuqefr ugha gSA 7. dsYdqysVj] LykbM:y] eksckbZy] dsYdqysVj ?kfM+;k¡ ;k bl çdkj dh dksbZ Hkh ;qfä ,oa fdlh Hkh v/;;u@lanHkZ lkexzh vkfn dk ç;ksx

ijh{kk d{k esa oftZr gS ,oa nUMuh; vijk/k gSA 8. jQ+ dk;Z iqfLrdk esa fdlh Hkh [kkyh LFkku esa fd;k tkuk pkfg,] vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj if=dk ij dksbZ Hkh jQ+ dk;Z u djsaA fdlh vU;

dkx+t ij bls djus dh vuqefr ugha gSA 9. ijh{kk dh lekfIr ds i'pkr~ viuh mÙkj&if=dk ¼OMR½ i;Zos{kd dks lkSai nsaA vks-,e-vkj- ¼OMR½ mÙkj&if=dk dks ijh{kk d{k

ls ckgj ys tkuk oftZr gS ,slk djuk nUMuh; vijk/k gSA ijh{kkFkÊ ijh{kk ds mijkUr viuk ç”u&i= ys tk ldrk gSA