time allowed : 90 minutes total no. of questions : 120 90 paper … · 2017-08-07 · 20. which one...

Question Booklet Series :– ç'u iqfLrdk J`a[kyk %& A Question Booklet No. :–

ç'u iqfLrdk la[;k %& 342913

Time Allowed : 90 Minutes Total No. of Questions : 120vuqer le; % 90 feuV PAPER – II ç”uksa dh dqy la[;k % 120

Roll No. : (Paper–II) OMR Answer Sheet No. : vuqØekad % -------------------------------------------- ¼isij&II½ vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj if=dk la[;k : ---------------------------

Name of the Candidate (in capital letters) : vH;FkÊ dk uke % ----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Candidate's Signature Invigilator's Signature vH;FkÊ ds gLrk{kj % ------------------------------- d{k fujh{kd ds gLrk{kj % ---------------------------------

POST CODE NAME OF THE POST SUBJECT

E MT (TECHNICAL) TECHNICAL

IMPORTANT:– Read the following instructions carefully. Do not mark answers on the question booklet, otherwise you may be debarred from the selection process. 1. Before commencing to answer, check that the Question Booklet has 120 questions. Each Question Booklet will be in

different series (combination of question booklet number and series). You must write correct Question Booklet Number and Question Booklet Series on your OMR Answer Sheet. Further check that there is no misprinting, overprinting and/or any other shortcoming in it. If there is any shortcoming in the question booklet, intimate the same to your room invigilator and take a fresh question booklet and a fresh OMR sheet. No complaint in this regard shall be entertained at any later stage. IMPORTANT NOTE: The OMR Answer Sheet will be evaluated with a combination of question booklet series and question booklet number hence you must write correct question booklet series and question booklet number. Any mistake in filling any of them will lead to invalidation of your OMR Answer Sheet. Also in case of non filling of question booklet series and question booklet number the OMR Answer Sheet will not be evaluated and its sole responsibility lies on the candidate.

2. Question paper is bilingual (Hindi/English). In case of any variation in Hindi version, English version will be taken as final for evaluation purposes.

3. Ensure that your admit card and OMR sheet is signed by you and the invigilator. If the same is not signed, your candidature is liable to be rejected.

4. All Multiple Choice Questions carry 1 mark. No Mark will be awarded or deducted for not attempting a question. Darken ONLY ONE OVAL for each answer. If you darken more than one oval or any stray mark is found on more than one oval, no mark will be awarded for that oval.

5. This is an objective type test in which each objective question is followed by four responses serialled (1) to (4). Your task is to choose the correct/best response and mark your response in the OMR Answer Sheet only as per the instructions given and NOT in the Question Booklet.

6. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen for all your work on the OMR Answer Sheet. The ovals on the OMR Answer Sheet are to be completely filled by Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only. ANSWERS ONCE GIVEN CAN NOT BE CHANGED. Cutting/overwriting the answers are not allowed.

7. Use of Calculators, Slide rules, Mobiles, calculator watches or any such devices and any other study/reference material is NOT allowed inside the examination hall and prohibited If found carrying, it shall be punishable offence.

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9. Handover OMR Answer Sheet to the invigilator on completion of the test. Do not take OMR Answer Sheet outside the examination room. Doing so is a punishable offence. The candidate can retain question paper after exam is over.

fgUnh esa vuqns”k vfUre i`’B ¼Back cover½ ij fn;k x;k gSA

1. In what crop Butachlor is used:

(1) Wheat (2) Arahar (3) Potato (4) Paddy

1. C;qVkDyksj fdl Qly esa ç;ksx djrs gSa%

(1) xsgw¡

(2) vjgj

(3) vkyw

(4) /kku

2. Pungency in onion bulb is due to:

(1) Allyl propyl disulphide (2) Capsaicin (3) Curcumin (4) None of these

2. I;kt esa rh[kkiu fdl dkj.k gksrk gS%

(1) ,ykby çksikby MkbZlYQkbM

(2) dSilsflu

(3) dqjD;wfeu

(4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

3. Papaya contains:

(1) Lipase (2) Protease (3) Amylase (4) Invertase

3. iihrk esa fufgr gksrk gS%

(1) ykbZist

(2) çksVh,t

(3) ,ekbZyst

(4) bUoVsZt

4. The vitamin, mainly associated with the vision is:

(1) Vitamin E (2) Vitamin A (3) Vitamin D (4) Vitamin C

4. n`f’V ls eq[;r% lEcfU/kr foVkfeu gS%

(1) foVkfeu E (2) foVkfeu A (3) foVkfeu D (4) foVkfeu C

5. Glucose is a:

(1) Aldose hexose sugar (2) Pyranose pentose sugar (3) Furanose pentose sugar (4) Ketose hexose sugar

5. Xywdkst gS ,d%

(1) ,YMkst gsDlkst “kdZjk

(2) ikbZjkukst isUVkst “kdZjk

(3) ¶;wjkukst isUVkst “kdZjk

(4) dhVkst gsDlkst “kdZjk

6. The acid found in vinegar is:

(1) Oleic acid (2) Acetic acid (3) Butyric acid (4) Palmitic acid

6. fljdk esa ik;k tkus okyk vEy gS%

(1) vksfy;d vEy

(2) ,flfVd vEy

(3) C;wfVfjd vEy

(4) ikfYefVd vEy

7. Out of following vitamin ‘A’ rich food is:

(1) Cabbage (2) Amla (3) Carrot (4) Guava

7. fuEufyf[kr esa dkSu&lk ,d foVksfeu ^A* ls Hkjiwj [kk| inkFkZ gS%

(1) xksHkh (2) vk¡oyk

(3) xktj (4) ve:n

8. Lack of ascorbic acid in diet causes: (1) Rickets (2) Beriberi (3) Scurvy (4) Night blindness

8. vkgkj esa ,DtkfcZd ,flM dh deh ls gksrk gS%

(1) lw[kk jksx

(2) csjh&csjh

(3) LdohZ

(4) jrkSa/kh

9. Antigens are: (1) Carbohydrate (2) Proteins (3) Fat (4) Hormone

9. ,UVhtu gksrs gSa%

(1) dkcksgkbZMªsV (2) çksVhUl (3) olk (4) gkeksZu

10. Which of the following is used as food preservative: (1) Sodium acetate (2) Sodium propionate (3) Sodium oxalate (4) Sodium benzoate

10. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu [kk| laj{k.k ds fy, ç;qä gksrk gS%

(1) lksfM;e ,lhVsV

(2) lksfM;e çksik;ksusV

(3) lksfM;e vkWDtysV

(4) lksfM;e csUtks,V

PAPER – II_Technical [ 3 4 2 9 1 3 ] MTFCX5 [ A–1 ]

11. The most appropriate stage for top dressing of nitrogen in rice crop is:

(1) Transplanting stage (2) Panicle initiation stage (3) Flowering stage (4) Grain filling stage

11. /kku dh Qly esa ukbVªkstu VkiMªsflax ds fy, lcls mi;qä le; gS%

(1) jksikbZ ds le;

(2) ckfy;k¡ curs le;

(3) Qwy vkrs le;

(4) nkus Hkjrs le;

12. A persion wheel is a:

(1) Water lifting device (2) A device to generate electricity from water power (3) Wind mill wheel (4) Water distribution device

12. if'kZ;u Oghy gS%

(1) ikuh mBkus dk ;a=

(2) fctyh mRiUu djus dk ;a=

(3) iou pôh dk ifg;k

(4) ikuh forfjr djus dk ;a=

13. How many times the number of teeth should be increased or decreased of driven gear to get the speed double of driving gear:

(1) Increased twice (2) Decreased 1/4 times (3) Decreased 1/2 times (4) Same as driving gear

13. pkfyr xh;j ls nks xquh rhozrk çkIr djus ds fy, pkfyr xh;j ij

nk¡rks dks pkfyr xh;j ds nk¡rks ls fdruk xquk c<+kuk ;k ?kVkuk iM+sxk%

(1) nks xquk c<+kuk iM+sxk

(2) 1/4 xquk ?kVkuk iM+sxk (3) 1/2 xquk ?kVkuk iM+sxk (4) pkfyr xh;j ds leku j[kuk gksxk

14. Olpad thresher is used for the crop:

(1) Paddy (2) Wheat (3) Mustard (4) All of these

14. vkyiSM Fkzslj Qly ds fy, ç;ksx fd;k tkrk gS%

(1) /kku (2) xsgw¡ (3) ljlksa (4) bu lHkh ds fy,

15. Which of the following is the richest source of phosphorus:

(1) Gram chuni (2) Mustard cake (3) Pea husk (4) Wheat bran

15. fuEu esa ls QklQksjl dk loksZÙke lzksr dkSu gS%

(1) pus dh pwuh (2) ljlksa dh [kyh (3) eVj dk fNydk (4) xsgw¡ dh Hkwlh

16. Which one of the following chemical is useful in the ripening of fruits:

(1) Ethylene (2) Gibberellic acid (3) M H (4) None of these

16. fuEu esa ls dkSu lk jlk;u Qyksa ds idus esa lgk;d gS%

(1) bFkhfyu (2) ftcjsfyd vEy

(3) ,e- ,p- (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

17. Cabbage is classified as:

(1) Self pollinated (2) Cross pollinated (3) Often self pollinated (4) Often cross pollinated

17. iÙkkxksHkh oxhZÑr gSa%

(1) Loijkfxr

(2) ijijkfxr

(3) çk;%Loijkfxr

(4) çk;%ijijkfxr

18. Sweet potato belongs to which family:

(1) Euphorbiaceae (2) Araceae (3) Convolvulaceae (4) Solanaceae

18. 'kdjdUn fdl dqy ls lEcfU/kr gSa%

(1) ;wQksjfc,slh

(2) ,jslh

(3) dkUokY;wyslh

(4) lksysuslh

19. Vegetable rich in vitamin 'C' is:

(1) Tomato (2) Cabbage (3) Onion (4) Capsicum

19. çpqj ek=k esa foVkfeu&lh ik;h tkus okyh lCth gSa%

(1) VekVj (2) iÙkkxksHkh (3) I;kt (4) fepZ

20. Which one of the following causes "little leaf" of Brinjal:

(1) Nematode (2) Mycoplasma (3) Virus (4) Bacteria

20. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk ,d cSaxu esa NksVh iÙkh jksx mRiUu djrk

gS%

(1) lwjÑfe (2) ekbdksIykTek (3) okbjl (4) thok.kq


21. Diamond Back Moth is a important insect of:

(1) Lady's finger (2) Cauliflower (3) Chilly (4) Sweet Potato

21. Mk;eaM ßcSd ekWFkÞ çeq[k dhV gS%

(1) fHkaMh dk

(2) QwyxksHkh dk

(3) fepZ dk

(4) 'kdjdan dk

22. 'Water core' is a physiological disorder of:

(1) Apple (2) Banana (3) Ber (4) Papaya

22. ôkVj dksj* nSfgdh; fodkj gSa%

(1) lsc

(2) dsyk

(3) csj

(4) iihrk

23. What is hereditary material in the chromosomes:

(1) RNA (2) ATP (3) DNA (4) ADP

23. ØksekslksEl esa dkSu&lk vkuqokaf'kd inkFkZ gS%

(1) RNA (2) ATP (3) DNA (4) ADP

24. The main enzyme present in gastric juice is:

(1) Pepsin (2) Amylase (3) Nuclease (4) Lipase

24. tBj jl esa mifLFkr çeq[k ,Utkbe gS%

(1) isfIlu

(2) ,ekbyst

(3) U;wfDy,t

(4) ykbZist

25. In insects stomach is a part of:

(1) Fore gut (2) Mid gut (3) Hind gut (4) Proventriculus

25. dhVks esa vkek'k; Hkkx gksrk gS%

(1) iwokZ= dk

(2) e/;kU= dk

(3) i'pkU= dk

(4) çksosUVªhdqyl dk

26. In amoeba the main function of contractile vacuole is:

(1) Respiration (2) Osmo regulation (3) Excretion (4) Circulation

26. vehck esa ladqpu'khy fjfädk dk eq[; dk;Z gS%

(1) 'olu

(2) ijklj.k fu;a=.k

(3) mÙltZu

(4) ifjlapj.k

27. Paramicium belongs to order:

(1) Ciliate (2) Holotricha (3) Celiophora (4) Hymenostomatida

27. iSjkfef'k;e fdl x.k dk gS%

(1) flfy,Vk

(2) gksyksVªkbdk

(3) lsfy;ksQksjk

(4) gkbeuksLVkseSfVMk

28. Which one is the largest in size:

(1) Apis indica (2) Apis dorsata (3) Apis mellifera (4) Apis florea

28. vkdkj esa lcls cM+h dkSu gS%

(1) ,fil bafMdk (2) ,fil MkjlsVk (3) ,fil esyhQsjk (4) ,fil ¶yksfj;k

29. The axis of the flower is known as:

(1) Pedicel (2) Thalamus (3) Bract (4) Peduncle

29. iq"i ds v{k dks dgk tkrk gS%

(1) iq"icÙr (2) iq"iklu (3) lgi= (4) iq"ikofyoÙr

30. Prop roots are found in:

(1) Ficus (2) Loranthus (3) Asparagus (4) Pandanus

30. LrEHk ewy ik;h tkrh gS%

(1) cjxn

(2) yksjsUFkl

(3) ,sLisjsxl

(4) isUMkul


31. For photosynthesis important organelle is:

(1) Nucleus (2) Dictyosome (3) Chloroplast (4) Mitochondria

31. çdk'k la'ys"k.k ds fy;s vko';d vaxd gS%

(1) dsUæd (2) xkYthdk; (3) gfjryod (4) ekbVksdkfUMª;k

32. The common pea (mattar) is:

(1) Pisum sativum (2) Phaseolus aurens(3) Cocos nucifera (4) Cajanus cajan

32. lkekU; eVj gksrh gS%

(1) ikble lsVkboe

(2) QSlhvksyl vkjsUl

(3) dksdl uwlhQsjk

(4) dStsul dStu

33. Sugarcane crop is a:

(1) Short day plant (2) Long day plant (3) Day neutral plant (4) None of these

33. bZ[k ,d%

(1) NksVs fnu dk ikS/kk

(2) yEcs fnu dk ikS/kk

(3) fnu yEckbZ ls mnklhu


34. Which of the following is a herbicide:

(1) Monocrotophos (2) Dithane M–45 (3) Vitavax (4) Glyphosate

34. fuEu esa dkSu&lk r`.kuk”kd gS%

(1) eksuksØksVksQkl (2) MkbZFksu ,e&45 (3) okbVkoSDl (4) XykbZQkslsV

35. Olitorius is a species of:

(1) Cotton (2) Jute (3) Tobacco (4) None of these

35. vksfyVksfj;l fdldh Lihlht gS%

(1) dikl (2) twV (3) rEckdw (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

36. Which of the following is most tolerant to salinity:

(1) Cotton (2) Potato (3) Sugarcane (4) Sugar beet

36. fuEu esa dkSu&lh yo.krk ds fo:) lokZf/kd lgu”khy gS%

(1) dikl

(2) vkyw

(3) xUuk

(4) phuh&pqdUnj

37. Name the equipment used to measure draft of plough:

(1) Hydrometer (2) Dynamometer (3) Lactometer (4) Barometer

37. gy dk f[kpko ukius okys midj.k dk uke crk,a%

(1) gkbZMªksehVj

(2) Mk;ukeksehVj

(3) ysDVksehVj

(4) cSjksehVj

38. Hereditary effect of the pollen parent gene on the endosperm is called:

(1) Maternal effect (2) Apomixis (3) Double fertilization (4) Xenia

38. ,UMksLieZ ij ijkx fir` thu ds vkuqokaf”kd çHkko dks dgrs gSa%

(1) ekr`Ro çHkko

(2) ,iksfefDll

(3) Mcy QfVZykbts”ku

(4) thfu;k

39. Leucine is a:

(1) Non Polar, aliphatic amino acid (2) Polar, aliphatic amino acid (3) Aromatic amino acid (4) Acidic amino acid

39. Y;wlhu%

(1) ukWu iksyj] ,fyQsfVd ,ehuks vEy gS

(2) iksyj ,fyQsfVd ,ehuks vEy gS

(3) ,sjkseSfVd ,ehuks vEy gS

(4) ,flfMd ,ehuks vEy gS

40. A metal or coenzyme which is covalently attached to the enzyme is known as:

(1) Prosthetic group (2) Holoenzyme (3) Apoenzyme (4) None of these

40. ,d /kkrq ;k dks,Utkbe tks ,utkbe ds lkFk lgl;ksatdrk cU/k cukrs

gSa mUgsa%

(1) çksLFksfVd xzqi dgrs gSa

(2) gksyks,Utkbe dgrs gSa

(3) ,siks,Utkbe dgrs gSa



41. Common bread wheat is:

(1) Triticum durum (2) Triticum turgidum (3) Triticum dicoccum (4) Triticum aestivum

41. lk/kkj.k czsM xsgwa gksrk gS%

(1) fVªfVde M~;wje

(2) fVªfVde V~;wjkfxMe

(3) fVªfVde Mkbdksde

(4) fVªfVde vkfLroe

42. Ergot is an important disease of:

(1) Wheat (2) Sorghum (3) Pearlmillet (4) Maize

42. ,jxV fdldk ,d fo[;kr jksx gS%

(1) xsgw¡ (2) Tokj (3) cktjk (4) eôk

43. Which is not a basic cation:

(1) Calcium (2) Magnesium (3) Potash (4) Hydrogen

43. dkSu {kkjh; /kuk;u ugha gS%

(1) dSfY”k;e

(2) eSxusf”k;e

(3) iksVk”k

(4) gkbMªkstu

44. Gypsum is recommended in cultivation of:

(1) Sugarcane (2) Potato (3) Groundnut (4) Sorghum

44. [ksrh ftlesa ftIle dh laLrqfr gS%

(1) xUuk (2) vkyw

(3) ew¡xQyh (4) Tokj

45. What is the best fertiliser for pulses:

(1) Urea (2) Single super phosphate (3) Diammonium phosphate (4) Ammonium sulphate

45. nyguh Qlyksa gsrq loksZÙke mjoZd D;k gS%

(1) ;wfj;k

(2) flaxy lqijQklQsV

(3) MkbZveksfu;e QklQsV

(4) veksfu;e lYQsV

46. Which parts of plough is made wear resistant by using chilled cast iron:

(1) Land side (2) Share (3) Handle (4) Mould

46. gy ds fdu Hkkxksa dks f?klko vojks/kh cukus gsrq æqr “khfrr yksgs dk

ç;ksx fd;k tkrk gS%

(1) Hkwfe nkc vojks/kh (2) Qky (3) gRFkk (4) ia[kk

47. Plough clearance is measured from:

(1) Point of share to underside of beam (2) Length of beam (3) Size of mould board (4) Surface of the soil to HITCH point

47. gy dk [kqykiu dgk¡ ls dgk¡ ekirs gSa%

(1) Qky dh uksd ls gfjl ds fupys ry rd

(2) gfjl dh yEckbZ

(3) ia[kk dh eki ¼vkdkj½

(4) Hkwfe ry ls tksM+ fcUnq rd

48. DRAFT of implement is affected by:

(1) Speed of implement (2) Type of soil (3) Size of implement (4) All

48. ;a=ks ds d’kZ.k dks çHkkfor djrk gS%

(1) ;a=ks dh pky

(2) Hkwfe dh çdkj

(3) ;a= dk vkdkj

(4) lHkh

49. Speed of driven pulley is calculated by formulae:

(1) D1×N1 = D2×N2

(2) D1×D2= N1×N2

(3) D1× ×N21N = 2

2D 2

(4) D1×N2 = D2×N1

49. pkfyr f?kjjh dh pky dh x.kuk gsrq lw=%

(1) D1×N1 = D2×N2

(2) D1×D2 = N1×N2

(3) D1× ×N21N = 2

2D 2

(4) D1×N2 = D2×N1

50. Nucleic acids are:

(1) Micro molecular compounds (2) Macro molecular compounds (3) Micro and macro molecular compounds (4) Non-molecular compounds

50. U;wfDyd vEy gSa%

(1) y?kq vk.kfod ;kSfxd

(2) nh?kZ vk.kfod ;kSfxd

(3) y?kq ,oa nh?kZ vk.kfod ;kSfxd

(4) vu vk.kfod ;kSfxd


51. Which one is nonnitrogen fixing bacterium:

(1) Rhzobuim(2) Clostridium(3) Azotobacter(4) Escherichia

51. dkSu ukbVªkstu fLFkjhdj.kghu thok.kq gS%

(1) jk;tksfc;e

(2) DyksfLVªfM;e

(3) vtksVksoSDVj

(4) ,fLpfjfp;k

52. The main plant of Bryophata are:

(1) Gametophytes (2) Sporophytes (3) Gametophytes and sporophytes (4) None of these

52. czk;ksQkbVk dk eq[; ikS/kk gS%

(1) ;qXedksnfHkn

(2) ohtk.kq&mn~fHkn

(3) ;qXedksn~fHkn vkSj ohtk.kq&mn~fHkn


53. Pteridophyta are also called:

(1) Vascular plants (2) Vascular cryptogams (3) Phanesogams (4) None of these

53. VsfjMksQkbZVk Hkh dgykrs gSa%

(1) lEcfguh ikS/ks

(2) lEcfguh viq’iksn~fHkn

(3) iq’iksn~fHkn


54. Meiotic division takes place in:

(1) Leaf (2) Anther (3) Stem (4) Root

54. v)Zlw=h foHkktu gksrk gS%

(1) iÙkh esa (2) ijkxdks’k esa (3) rus esa (4) tM+ esa

55. A true fruit develops from:

(1) Only thalamus (2) Only nucellus (3) Only ovary (4) Only ovule

55. ,d okLrfod Qy fodflr gksrk gS%

(1) dsoy iq’iklu ls (2) dsoy chtk.Mdk; ls (3) dsoy v.Mk”k; ls (4) dsoy chtk.M ls

56. Complex tissue is:

(1) Parenchyma (2) Collenchyma (3) Phloem (4) Sclerenchyma

56. tfVy mrd gS%

(1) e`nwrd (2) LFkwydks.k mrd (3) ¶yks;e (4) n`<+mrd

57. When phloem and cambuim are present on both sides of xylem, the vascular bundle is called as:

(1) Radial (2) Collateral (3) Bicollateral (4) Concentric

57. tc ¶yks;e vkSj dSfEc;e tkbye ¼nk:½ ds nksuksa vksj gksrs gSa rks

lEcgu c.My dgk tkrk gS%

(1) v)ZC;klh

(2) dkSysVjy

(3) ckbdksySVsjy

(4) ladsUæh

58. Maize is a monocious plant in which male flower emerges:

(1) With female flower (2) A week before emergence of female flower (3) A week after emergence of female flower (4) None of these

58. eôk ,d mHk;fyaxh ikS/kk gS ftlesa ujiq’i%

(1) eknk iq’i ds lkFk fudyrk gS

(2) eknk iq’i ds ,d lIrkg igys fudyrk gS

(3) eknk iq’i ds ,d lIrkg ckn fudyrk gS


59. Pegging down in ground nut is the process of:

(1) Elongation of style (2) Elongation of areal roots (3) Development of Brace roots (4) Pressing pegs in soil to support the plant

59. ewaxQyh esa vf/kdhyu ,d çfØ;k gksrh gS%

(1) ofrZdk dk nh?khZdj.k

(2) ok;qoh; tM+ks dk nh?khZdj.k

(3) c¡/kuh tM+ks dk fodkl

(4) ikS/ks dks lgkjk nsus ds fy, [ksr esa [kw¡Vh xkM+uk

60. Cane crusher has how many rollers to crush cane and extract all juice:

(1) Two rollers (2) Three rollers (3) Four rollers (4) One special Grooved roller

60. xUuk dksYgw esa xUuk dks dw¡pdj rFkk lc jl fudkyus gsrq fdrus

csyu yxk;s tkrs gSa%

(1) nks csyu

(2) rhu csyu

(3) pkj csyu

(4) ,d fo”ks’k csyu ftlij [kkaps dVs gksa


61. The division of nucleus is known as:

(1) Cytokinesis (2) Karyokinesis (3) Anaphase (4) Metaphase

61. dsUæd ds foHkktu dks dgk tkrk gS%

(1) lkbVksdkbusfll

(2) dSfj;ksdkbusfll

(3) i”pkoLFkk

(4) e/;koLFkk

62. Siliqua develops from:

(1) Monocarpellary, superior ovary (2) Bicarpellary, syncarpous, superior ovary (3) Polycarpellary, syncarpous, superior ovary (4) Bicarpellary, syncarpous, inferior ovary

62. flfyD;wvk curk gS%

(1) ,dk.Mih] m/oZ v.Mk”k; ls

(2) f}v.Mih] la;qä] m/oZ v.Mk”k; ls

(3) cgqv.Mih] la;qä] m/oZ v.Mk”k; ls

(4) f}v.Mih] la;qä] v/kksv.Mk”k; ls

63. The flower of coriander is known as:

(1) Capitulum (2) Spadix (3) Catkin (4) Umbel

63. /kfu;k ds Qwy dks dgrs gSa%

(1) dSfiVqye (2) LisfMDl (3) dSVfdu (4) vEcsy

64. After fertilization embryo develops from:

(1) Ovary wall (2) Egg cell (3) Ovary (4) Synergids

64. fu’kspu ds ckn Hkzw.k curk gS%

(1) v.Mk”k; dh fHkfÙk ls

(2) v.Mdks”kk ls

(3) v.Mk”k; ls

(4) lgk;d dks”kk,¡ ls

65. The stomata are sunken in:

(1) Hydrophytes (2) Mesophytes (3) Xerophytes (4) Helophytes

65. LVksesVk /kals gksrs gSa%

(1) tyksn~fHkn~ esa (2) e/;ksn~fHkn~ esa (3) “kq’dksn~fHkn~ esa (4) yo.kksn~fHkn~ esa

66. Fats and oils are the esters of:

(1) Glycerol with carboxylic acids (2) Glycerol with mineral acids (3) Methanol with Carboxylic acids (4) Methanol with mineral acids

66. olk o rsy fuEu ds ,LVj gksrs gSa%

(1) fXyljky dk dkcksZfDlfyd vEyksa ds lkFk

(2) fXyljky dk [kfut vEyksa ds lkFk

(3) feFksuky dk dkcksZfDlhfyd vEyksa ds lkFk

(4) feFksuky dk [kfut vEyksa ds lkFk

67. Seed plot technique is used in:

(1) Wheat (2) Potato (3) Paddy (4) Maize

67. cht IykV rduhd dk iz;ksx fuEu esa fd;k tkrk gS%

(1) xsgwa

(2) vkyw

(3) /kku

(4) eDdk

68. Phospholipids help the oxidation of:

(1) Glycerol (2) Fatty acids (3) Glycerophosphates (4) Diglycerides

68. QkLQksykbfiM fuEu ds vkDlhdj.k esa enn djrs gSa%

(1) fXyljky

(2) olk vEy

(3) fXyljksQkLQsV

(4) MkbXysljkbM

69. Scutellum is part of:

(1) Mesothorax (2) Head (3) Prothorax (4) Metathorax

69. LD;wVSye fuEu dk ,d vax gS%

(1) e/;o{k

(2) eqaMd

(3) vxzo{k

(4) i”po{k

70. Strawberry is propagated by:

(1) Runner (2) Suckers (3) Bulbs (4) Corms

70. LVªkcsjh fuEu }kjk izof/kZr gksrh gS%

(1) mifjHkwLrkjh

(2) var%HkwLrkjh

(3) cYc

(4) ?kudan


71. Arka Arun is a variety of:

(1) Banana (2) Mango (3) Guava (4) Pine apple

71. vjdk v:.k fuEu dh ,d fdLe gS%

(1) dsyk

(2) vke

(3) ve:n

(4) ikbu ,siy

72. Riciness is a disorder seen in:

(1) Potato (2) Tomato (3) Cauliflower (4) Capsicum

72. Riciness ,d fod`fr gS tks fuEu esa ikbZ tkrh gS% (1) vkyw

(2) VekVj

(3) QwyxksHkh

(4) dSfIlde

73. The fungi, taxonomically comes under:

(1) Protist (2) Prokaryotes (3) Eukaryotes (4) None of these

73. Qaxh] oxhZdj.k oSKkfud n`f’V ls fuEu ds v/khu vkrh gS%

(1) izksfVLV

(2) izkSdsfj;ksV~l

(3) ;wdsfj;ksV~l


74. Sulphate reduction in higher plants occurs in:

(1) The Chloroplast (2) The Cystosol (3) The Microsomes (4) The Mitochondria

74. mPprj ikS/kksa esa lYQsV U;wuhdj.k fuEu esa gksrk gS%

(1) DyksjksIykLV

(2) flLVkslksy

(3) ekbØkslkse

(4) ekbVksdkafMª;k

75. The microrganisms found in the root nodules of legumes are:

(1) Rhizobium (2) Azotobacter (3) Blue green algae (4) Fauna

75. f”kac ds ewy esa xzafFkdkvksa esas ik, tkus okys lw{etho gksrs gSa%

(1) jkbtksfc;e

(2) ,stksVkscSDVj

(3) uhygfjr “kSoky

(4) izkf.ktkr

76. Mites belong to class: (1) Hexapoda (2) Arachnida (3) Myriapoda (4) Crustacea

76. fpafpM+h fuEu oxZ ls lacaf/kr gS%

(1) gSDlkiksMk (2) ,dsfDuMk (3) fefj;kiksMk (4) ØLVsf”k;k

77. Inflorescence of mango is a:

(1) Receme (2) Spadix (3) Spike (4) Corymb

77. vke dk iq’iØe gksrk gS%

(1) jSfueh (2) LiSfMDl (3) Likbd (4) dksjEc

78. Edible part of cauliflower is:

(1) Hypertrophy compressed radical bud (2) Hypertrophy compressed apical bud (3) Heterostyled recemose (4) None of these

78. QwyxksHkh dk [kk| va”k gksrk gS%

(1) vfro`f) laihfMr ewytkHkklh dfydk

(2) vfro`f) laihfMr “kh’kZLFk dfydk

(3) fo’keofrZdk jSlhekst


79. The fruit of Citrus is:

(1) Hesperidium (2) Berry (3) Drupe (4) Pepo

79. fuEcq oa”k dk Qy gksrk gS%

(1) gsLijhfM;e

(2) ljlQy

(3) vf’By

(4) ihiks

80. Which one is the safest fumigant to seed:

(1) Methyl bromide (2) Ethylene dibromide (3) Aluminum phosphide (4) EDCT mixture

80. fuEu esa ls dkSu cht ds fy, lokZf/kd lqjf{kr /kwed gksrk gS\

(1) eSfFky czksekbM

(2) ,sFkhyhu MkbczksekbM

(3) ,sY;wehfu;e QkLQkbM

(4) bZMhlhVh ?kksy


81. Which of the following is an entomophilus crop:

(1) Wheat (2) Gram (3) Onion (4) Sugarcane

81. fuEu esa ls dkSu ,d dhV&ijkfxr Qly gS\

(1) xsgwa (2) puk (3) dikl (4) xUuk

82. The male and female flowers are present separately on same plants known as:

(1) Protogynous (2) Dioecious (3) Monoecious (4) Hermaphrodite flower

82. uj vkSj eknk&Qwy dqN ikS/kksa esa vyx&vyx ekStwn gksrs gSa] ;s

dgykrs gSa%

(1) L=h iwohZ

(2) i`Fkdfyaxh

(3) mHk;fyaxkJ;h

(4) mHk;fyaxh Qwy

83. An imperfect flower lacks:

(1) Petals (2) Sepals (3) Both stamens and pistils (4) Either stamens or pistils

83. ,d viw.kZ Qwy esa fuEu dh deh gksrh gS%

(1) i.kZ

(2) ckg~;ny

(3) iqadslj vkSj L=h dslj & nksuksa

(4) iqadslj ;k L=hdslj

84. The portion of embryo which give rise to the shoot of the plant is called:

(1) Radicle (2) Suspensor (3) Plumule (4) Root cap

84. Hkzw.k dk og fgLlk tks ikS/ks ds izjksg dks Åapk mBkrk gS] dgykrk gS%

(1) ewykadqj (2) fuyacudkjh (3) izkadqj (4) ewyxksi

85. Maturation of anther before maturation of pistil known as:

(1) Protogyny (2) Monogyny (3) Protoandry (4) Prematurity

85. ijkxdks”k dk L=hdslj ls igys ifjiDo gks tkuk dgykrk gS%

(1) L=hiwoZrk (2) ,dtk;rk (3) izksVks,UMªh (4) izkDiDork

86. Which of the following plant has tap root system:

(1) Maize (2) Sugarcane (3) Soybean (4) Rice

86. fuEu esa ls dkSu&ls ikS/ks eas ewlyk tM+ iz.kkyh gksrh gS\

(1) edbZ

(2) xUuk

(3) lks;kchu

(4) pkoy

87. Which insect transmit leaf curl-virus diseases in tomato:

(1) Grasshopper (2) Moth (3) White fly (4) Honeybees

87. dkSu&lk dhM+k VekVj esa i.kZ D;wjh&fo’kk.kq jksx lapfjr djrk gS\

(1) fVM~Mk (2) “kyHk (3) “osr eD[kh (4) “kgn dh eD[kh

88. Microbodies found in the cells of green leaves are called:

(1) Chloroplasts (2) Mitochondria (3) Peroxisomes and glyoxysomes (4) None of these

88. gjh ifRr;ksa dh dksf”kdkvksa esa ik, tkus okys lw{etho dgykrs gSa%

(1) DyksjksIykLV

(2) lw=df.kdk

(3) ijkfDllkse rFkk XykbvkfDllkse


89. The membrane separating vacuolar content from the cytoplasm is known as:

(1) Protoplast (2) Tonoplast (3) Chromoplast (4) None of these

89. lkbVksIykTe ls ?kkuh va”k vyx djus okyh dyk dgykrh gS%

(1) izksVksIykLV

(2) VksuksIykLV

(3) ØkseksIykLV


90. In plant cell cytosol contains:

(1) Starch grain only (2) Enzyme lipase only (3) Cytokinins only (4) Protein, aminoacid, organic acids and inorganic ions

90. ouLifr dksf”kdk lkbVkslksy esa gksrk gS%

(1) dsoy eaM nkus

(2) dsoy ,Utkbe ykbisl

(3) dsoy lkbVksfdfuu

(4) izksVhu] ,sfeuk vEy] dkcZfud vEy rFkk vdkcZfud vEy


91. It is now universally accepted that enzymes being organic catalysts are:

(1) Starch (2) Sucrose (3) Proteins (4) Flavin

91. vc ;g loZ= Lohdkj fd;k tkrk gS fd ,sUtkbe ds dkcZfud mRizsjd

gksus ds dkj.k gksrs gSa%

(1) ekaM (2) L;wØksl (3) izksVhu (4) ¶ySfou

92. Magnitude of frost injury during winter is more in the crops:

(1) Pigeonpea (2) Barley (3) Linseed (4) Wheat

92. lfnZ;ksa esa rq’kkj {kfr dh ek=k fuEu Qlyksa esa vf/kd jgrh gS%

(1) vjgj (2) tkS (3) vylh (4) xsgwa

93. Generally stomata of leaf is open when:

(1) Plant exposed to light (2) Plant exposed to windy day (3) Plant exposed to cloudy day (4) None of these

93. vkerkSj ij iRrs dk ja/kz [kqyk gksrk gS tc%

(1) ikS/kk] izdk”k ds fy, vuko`r dj fn;k tkrk gS

(2) ikS/kk] okfrd fnu ds fy, vuko`r dj fn;k tkrk gS

(3) ikS/kk] es?kkPNkfnr fnu ds fy, vuko`r dj fn;k tkrk gS


94. Most of the crop plants obtain (or absorb) nitrogen from the soil in the form of:

(1) Free nitrogen gas (2) Nitrites (3) Nitrates (4) Nitric acid

94. vf/kdka”k Qlyh ikS/ks e`nk ls fuEu :i esa ukbVªkstu izkIr ¼vFkok

vo”kksf’kr½ djrs gSa%

(1) eqDr ukbVªkstu xSl

(2) ukbVªkbV

(3) ukbVªsV

(4) ukbfVªd vEy

95. Mineral absorbed by roots moves to leaf through:

(1) Xylem (2) Phloem (3) Sieve tube (4) None of these

95. tM+ksa }kjk vo”kksf’kr [kfut inkFkZ fuEu ek/;e ls iRrs rd igqaprs gaS%

(1) nk:

(2) iks’kokg

(3) pyuh ufydk


96. Chlorosis in plants occur due to:

(1) High sun light intensity (2) Low sun light intensity (3) Deficiency of Mg and Fe in the soil (4) Absorption of carotene from soil

96. ikS/kksa esa gfjr jksx fuEu dkj.k ls gksrk gS%

(1) mPp lw;Z izdk”k rhozrk

(2) U;wu lw;Z izdk”k rhozrk

(3) e`nk esa Mg rFkk Fe dh deh (4) e`nk ls dSjksVhu dk vo”kks’k.k

97. Which of the element is found in abundant quantity after ashing of tobacco leaf:

(1) Potassium (2) Boron (3) Zinc (4) Copper

97. rackdw ds iRrs ds HkLehdj.k ds ckn dkSu&lk rRo Hkkjh ek=k esa ik;k

tkrk gS\

(1) iksVSf”k;e (2) cksju (3) tLrk (4) rkack

98. Instantaneous source of energy is:

(1) Fat (2) Protein (3) Amino acid (4) Glucose

98. ÅtkZ dk rkRdkfyd lzksr gksrk gS%

(1) olk (2) izksVhu (3) ,sfeuks vEy (4) Xywdksl

99. Which element is maximum in black soil:

(1) Nitrogen (2) Phosphorus (3) Potash (4) Sulphur

99. dkyh feV~Vh esa dkSu&lk rRo vf/kdre gksrk gS\

(1) ukbVªkstu

(2) QkLQksjl

(3) iksVk”k

(4) xa/kd

100. Which is a contact herbicide:

(1) 2, 4-D (2) 2, 4, 5-T (3) MCPA (4) Paraquat

100. dkSu laLi”kZ “kkduk”kh gS\ (1) 2, 4-D (2) 2, 4, 5-T (3) MCPA (4) iSjkDoSV


101. Which is a useful herbicide for sunflower:

(1) 2, 4-D (2) Isoproturon (3) Lasso (4) TokE25

101. lwjteq[kh ds fy, dkSu ,d mi;ksxh “kkduk”kh gS\ (1) 2, 4-D (2) vkblksizksV~;wjksu

(3) Lasso (4) TokE25

102. Identify the weed of family Gramineae:

(1) Phalaris minor (2) Cyperus rotundus (3) Chenopodium album (4) Melilotus alba

102. ?kkl ifjokj dk vir`.k vfHkKkr djsa%

(1) QSysjsfll ekbuj

(2) lkbihul jksVUMl

(3) dhuksiksfM;e ,Yce

(4) esfyyksVl ,sYck

103. Molya disease of wheat is caused by:

(1) Anquina tritici(2) Aphelenohoides averot(3) Heterodera aveni(4) Meliidogyne sp.

103. xsgwa dk eksY;k jksx fuEu }kjk iSnk fd;k tkrk gS% (1) ,sUdfouk fVªfVlh

(2) ,sQsysdkbMht ,sosjksV

(3) gSVsjksMsjk vosuh

(4) eSyhMkthu ,lih

104. Following is a good source of retinol:

(1) Papaya (2) Carrot (3) Spinach (4) Cow’s milk

104. fuEu jSVhuksy dk ,d mRre lzksr gS% (1) iihrk (2) xktj (3) ikyd (4) xk; dk nw/k

105. Milk has a sugar called:

(1) Sucrose (2) Glucose (3) Lactose (4) Maltose

105. nw/k esa ,d “kdZjk gksrh gS tks dgykrh gS% (1) lqØksl (2) Xywdksl (3) ySDVksl (4) ekYVksl

106. The mineral acting as antagonist to calcium is:

(1) Iron (2) Copper (3) Manganese (4) Magnesium

106. dSfY”k;e ds izfr fojks/kh ds :i esa dke djus okyk [kfut inkFkZ gksrk gS% (1) yksgk

(2) rkack

(3) eSaxuht

(4) eSXuhf”k;e

107. Following anti nutritional factor is present in green leafy vegetables:

(1) Phytates (2) Oxalates (3) Tannins (4) None of these

107. gjh iRrhnkj lfCt;ksa esa fuEu iks’k.kfojks/kh rRo ekStwn jgrk gS% (1) QkbVsV

(2) vkDlkysV

(3) VSfuu


108. Chemical name of vitamin D is:

(1) Ergocalciferol (2) Cholecalciferol (3) Ergosterol (4) Cholesterol

108. foVkfeu Mh dk jklk;fud uke gS% (1) vxksZdSfYlQsjky

(2) dksysdSfYlQsjky

(3) vxksZLVsjky

(4) dksysLVjy

109. Citrus dieback disease is associated with the element:

(1) Copper (2) Potassium (3) Phosphorus (4) Calcium

109. flVªl i”pekjh jksx fuEu rRo ls tqM+k gS% (1) rkack

(2) iksVSf”k;e

(3) QkLQksjl

(4) dSfY”k;e

110. An essential component of enzyme ascorbic acid oxidase is associated with the element:

(1) Cu (2) Mn (3) Mg (4) Fe

110. ,sUtkbe ,sLdkfcZd vEy vkDlhMsl dk ,d vfuok;Z ?kVd fuEu rRo

ls tqM+k gS%

(1) Cu (2) Mn (3) Mg (4) Fe


111. An essential component of enzyme carbonic Anhydrase is associated with element:

(1) Ca (2) Zn (3) Cu (4) S

111. ,sUtkbe dkcZfud ,sugkbZMªsl dk ,d vfuok;Z ?kVd fuEu rRo ls tqM+k

gS%

(1) Ca (2) Zn (3) Cu (4) S

112. Form of nitrogen element required for uptake of rice plant in early stage of growth is:

(1) NO3 (2) NH4

(3) Amino acid (4) None of these

112. pkoy ds ikS/ks ds fodkl dh izkjafHkd voLFkk esa mn~xzg.k ds fy,

visf{kr ukbVªkstu dk rRo gksrk gS%

(1) NO3 (2) NH4

(3) ,sfeuks vEy (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

113. Element which maintains electroneutrality in plant cell is:

(1) Sodium (2) Nitrogen (3) Calcium (4) Potassium

113. tks rRo ikni dksf”kdk esa fo|qr mnklhurk cuk, j[krk gS] og gS% (1) lksfM;e (2) ukbVªkstu (3) dSfY”k;e (4) iksVSf”k;e

114. Which of the following plant is monoecious:

(1) Sorghum (2) Groundnut (3) Cotton (4) Maize

114. fuEu esa ls dkSu&lk ikS/kk mHk;fyaxkJ;h gS\ (1) lks?kZe (2) ewaxQyh (3) dikl (4) edbZ

115. In green plants the most conspicuous plastids in which photosynthesis takes place is:

(1) Chromoplast (2) Leucoplast (3) Chloroplast (4) Tonoplast

115. gjs ikS/kksa esa lcls /;kukd’khZ yod ftlesa izdk”k la”ys’k.k gksrk gS] gS% (1) ØkseksIykLV

(2) Y;wdksIykLV

(3) DyksjksIykLV

(4) VksuksIykLV

116. In potato plant, leaves appear green because they:

(1) Absorb green light (2) Reflect only green light and absorbs other (3) Both absorb and Reflect green light (4) None of these

116. vkyw ds ikS/ks esa iRrs gjs fn[kkbZ nsrs gSa D;ksafd os%

(1) gjs izdk”k dks vo”kksf’kr dj ysrs gSa

(2) dsoy gjs izdk”k ijkofrZr djrs gSa vkSj nwljs dks vo”kksf’kr djrs

gSa

(3) gjs izdk”k dks vo”kksf’kr vkSj ijkofrZr & nksuksa djrs gSa


117. In classification of flowering behaviour of plants, the most important point to note is:

(1) Critical day length (2) Critical temperature length (3) Critical nutrition (4) Critical plant growth stage

117. ikS/kksa ds iq’iu O;ogkj ds oxhZdj.k esa] /;ku fn, tkus okyk lokZf/kd egRoiw.kZ fcanq gS%

(1) Økafrd fnol nh?kZrk

(2) Økafrd rkieku nh?kZrk

(3) Økafrd iks’k.k

(4) Økafrd ikni o`f) voLFkk

118. In living plants the organic substances of plant origin that trigger growth and modify form are referred to as:

(1) Phytohormones (2) Auxin (3) Phenolic (4) Ethrel

118. ltho ikS/kksa esa ikni ewy ds dkcZfud inkFkZ tks o`f) dks izsfjr djrs

gSa vkSj :i dks ifjofrZr djrs gSa] mudk mYys[k fuEu :i esa fd;k

tkrk gS%

(1) QkbVksgkeksZu (2) vkfDlu

(3) Qhukfyd (4) bZFkjh

119. Movement in plant in response to external stimuli as touch is referred as:

(1) Tropism (2) Geotropism (3) Phototropism (4) Thigmotropism

119. Li”kZ tSls ckg~; mn~nhid dh izfrfØ;k ds :i esa ikS/ks ds lapyu dk mYys[k fuEu :i esa fd;k tkrk gS%

(1) vuqorZu (2) xq#RokuqorZu (3) izdk”kkuqorZu (4) Li”kkZuqorZu

120. Rudimentary plant within the seed is called:

(1) Embryo (2) Cotyledon (3) Endosperm (4) Coleoptile

120. cht ds Hkhrj vYiof/kZr ikS/kk dgykrk gS%

(1) Hkzw.k

(2) chti=

(3) Hkzw.kiks’k

(4) izkadqjpksy


bl iqfLrdk ij dqN Hkh fy[kus ls igys fuEufyf[kr funsZ'k /;kuiwoZd i<+sa

egRoiw.kZ%& fuEufyf[kr funsZ'k /;kuiwoZd i<+saA vius ç”uksa ds mÙkj ç”u&iqfLrdk esa u yxk,a vU;Fkk p;u çfØ;k ls vkidh ik=rk oafpr

dj nh tk;sxhA 1. viuk mÙkj fy[kuk çkjEHk djus ls igys viuh ç'u iqfLrdk dh Hkyh&Hkk¡fr tk¡p dj ysa] ns[k ysa fd blesa 120 ç'u gSaA çR;sd ç'u

iqfLrdk dh fljht fHké gksxh ¼ç”u&iqfLrdk la[;k ,oa ç”u&iqfLrdk fljht dk la;kstu½A vkidks OMR mÙkj if=dk ij lgh

ç'u&iqfLrdk fljht ,oa ç”u&iqfLrdk la[;k fy[kuk gSA iqu% ;g Hkh ij[k ysa fd blesa fçafVax laca/kh vFkok vU; fdLe dh dksbZ deh

ugha gSA ;fn fdlh çdkj dh dksbZ deh gks rks i;Zos{kd dks lwfpr djsa vkSj ç”u&iqfLrdk cnydj ,d u;h iqfLrdk ,oa ,d u;h OMR

ysaA bl lanHkZ esa fdlh Hkh çdkj dh dksbZ f'kdk;r ij ckn esa dksbZ fopkj ugha fd;k tk,xkA

egRoiw.kZ uksV% vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj if=dk vH;FkÊ ds ç”u&iqfLrdk fljht ,oa ç”u&iqfLrdk la[;k ds la;kstu ls ewY;kafdr dh

tk;sxhA vr% vkidks vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj if=dk ij lgh ç”u&iqfLrdk fljht ,oa ç”u&iqfLrdk la[;k fy[kuh pkfg,A buesa ls fdlh

,d esa Hkh xyrh gksus ij vkidh vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj if=dk fujLr gks ldrh gSA vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj if=dk esa ç”u&iqfLrdk la[;k

,oa ç”u&iqfLrdk fljht ugha Hkjus ij vH;FkÊ ds mÙkj if=dk dk ewY;kadu ugha fd;k tk;sxk ftldh ftEesnkjh Lor% vH;FkÊ dh

gksxhA

2. ç”u i= f}Hkk’kh; ¼fgUnh ,oa vaxzsth½ esa gSA fgUnh laLdj.k esa fdlh Hkh fHkérk gksus ij ewY;kadu ds fy, vaxzsth laLdj.k dks vfUre

ekuk tk;sxkA

3. lqfuf”pr djsa fd vkids ços”k&i= ,oa vks-,e-vkj “khV dks vkids }kjk ,oa d{k fujh{kd ds }kjk gLrk{kj fd;k x;k gSA ;fn

gLrk{kj ugha fd;k@djok;k x;k gS rks ik=rk fujLr gks tk;sxhA

4. lHkh cgq&fodYi ç”uksa ds 1 vad gSaA vuqÙkfjr ç”uksa ds fy, u rks dksbZ vad fn;k tk,xk vkSj u gh dkVk tk,xkA çR;sd mÙkj ds

fy, dsoy ,d vksoy dks dkyk djsaA ;fn vki ,d ls T;knk vksoy dkyk djrs gSa ;k ,d ls T;knk vksoy ij dksbZ LVªs ekDZl

feyrk gS] ,sls vksoy ds fy, dksbZ vad ugha feysxkA

5. ;g ,d oLrqijd fdLe dh ijh{kk gS ftlesa çR;sd ç'u ds uhps Øekad (1) ls (4) rd pkj çLrkfor mÙkj fn;s gSaA vkids fopkj

esa tks Hkh mÙkj lgh@loZJs"B gS mldks vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj i= esa fn;s funsZ'k ds vuqlkj fpfUgr dhft,A vius mÙkj ç'u iqfLrdk esa

u yxk,A 6. vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj if=dk ij lHkh dk;ks± ds fy, uhys@dkys ckWy Iokb±V isu ls fy[ksaA vks-,e-vkj mÙkj if=dk ij vksoy dks iw.kZ

:i ls dsoy uhys@dkys ckWy Iokb±V isu ls HkjsaA ,d ckj fn, x, mÙkj dks cnyk ugha tk ldrkA mÙkj dh dfVax ,oa vksojjkbZfVax

dh vuqefr ugha gSA 7. dsYdqysVj] LykbM:y] eksckbZy] dsYdqysVj ?kfM+;k¡ ;k bl çdkj dh dksbZ Hkh ;qfä ,oa fdlh Hkh v/;;u@lanHkZ lkexzh vkfn dk ç;ksx

ijh{kk d{k esa oftZr gS ,oa nUMuh; vijk/k gSA 8. jQ+ dk;Z iqfLrdk esa fdlh Hkh [kkyh LFkku esa fd;k tkuk pkfg,] vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj if=dk ij dksbZ Hkh jQ+ dk;Z u djsaA fdlh vU;

dkx+t ij bls djus dh vuqefr ugha gSA 9. ijh{kk dh lekfIr ds i'pkr~ viuh mÙkj&if=dk ¼OMR½ i;Zos{kd dks lkSai nsaA vks-,e-vkj- ¼OMR½ mÙkj&if=dk dks ijh{kk d{k

ls ckgj ys tkuk oftZr gS ,slk djuk nUMuh; vijk/k gSA ijh{kkFkÊ ijh{kk ds mijkUr viuk ç”u&i= ys tk ldrk gSA

time allowed : 90 minutes total no. of questions : 120 90 paper … · 2017-08-07 · 20. which one...

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