PATHOLOGY

The Normal Cell

1. What is the function of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum

a. protein synthesis

b. steroid synthesis – this one

c. mitosis

2. Pinocytosis

a. is a way of transporting large molecules – no small molecules.

b. adds to cellular membrane

3. Mitochondria repeat – read bloody alberts, we still haven’t

4. Regarding SER

a. For protein synthesis

b. Contains electron chain thingy enzymes

c. For lipid synthesis – yes

d. Extracellular pathway through cell – er….

5. Ribosomes

a. have 3 subunits – no, 2 subunits

b. have 30% DNA – no, RNA -65%- and proteins -35%-

c. synthesise haemoglobin – synthesise globin. Not heme group though…

6. Which cell type is found predominantly in the periarteriolar sheaths in the white pulp of the spleen & (somewhere in lymph

nodes)

a. B lymphocyte found in the white pulp of the spleen

b. Neutrophil

c. Mast cell

d. T lymphocyte – periarteriolar sheath of the spleen e. Macrophages

7. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

a. is the site a cell steroid production – this one b. is the site of cell protein synthesis

is the site of cellular cytochrome oxidases

8. Pinocytosis

a. adds to the cell membrane

b. involves the uptake of soluble macromolecules – yes only large molecules

9. Which cell organelle has no basement membrane

a. mitochondrium

b. RER

c. lysosome

d. centriole

e. –Lysozyme _ yes, as this is the enzyme

10. Regarding Mitochondria

a. are self replicative - yes

b. are present in RBC – no, produce enery by fermentation

c. responsible for protein synthesis - no

d. have no membrane – have two membranes

11. Regarding centrioles

a. are responsible for spindle formation in mitosis - indeed

12. Which substance is not subject to passive diffusion

a. PO4 - this one?

b. Na

c. K+

d. H20

e. Cl

13. Regarding ribosomes

a. There are 3 subunits - no, 2

b. they are 65% DNA - 65% RNA

c. They synthesize haemoglobin - globin

d. They contain 30% DNA - 35% protein

14. What is the function of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum; which is incorrect

a. steroid synthesis - yes, and lipid synthesis

b. drug detoxification / cytochrome P450 - yes

c. protein synthesis - INCORRECT

d. role in carbohydrate metabolism - yes

Cell Injury & Adaptation1. Regarding dystrophic calcification; which is correct (deposition of crystalline calcium in damaged tissues – causes major

pathology)

a. causes organ dysfunction – yes,

b. multiple myeloma is a cause – no, this is metatstatic calcification

c. associated with hypercalcaemia – no this is metastatic calcification

2. Regarding atrophy; all are correct except?????

a. persistance of residual bodies - true

b. decreased myofilaments - correct

c. decreased rough endoplasmic reticulum - correct

d. decreased autophagic vacuoles - WRONG, increased numbers

e. decreased smooth endoplasmic reticulum - correct

3. Which of the following is an example of hypertrophy

a. increase in liver size after partial hepatectomy – hyperplasia

b. increased size of female breast –hypertrophy in lactation, hyperplasia in puberty and pregnancy

c. increased respiratory epithelium in response to vitamin A deficiency – squamous metaplasia

d. increase in size of female uterus during pregnancy – partially hypertrophy, partially hyperplasia PROBABLY THIS ONE

e. ?? endometrial – just hyperplasia

4. Hyperplasia

a. Increased mitotic bodies

b. Due to increased function demands - true

c. Distractor

5. Regarding atrophy, all are correct except

a. Persistance of residual bodies

b. Decrease myofilaments

c. Decrease rough endoplasmic reticulum

d. Decreased autophagic vacuoles – increased vacuoles

e. Decreased smooth endoplasmic reticulum

6. Which of the following is an example of hypertrophy

a. Increase in liver size after partial hepatectomy

b. Increase size of female breast

c. Increase respiratory epithelium in response to Vitamin A deficiency – metaplasia (squamous)

d. Increase in size of female uterus in pregnancy – yes

e. ??endometrial

7. Repeat Q regarding wound healing and time frames…‘What occurs at the same time?’

a. Neutrophils and basal epithelial mitoses – both neutrophils and epithelial cells are there in days 1-2,

b. Tensile strength and granulation tissue – false – tensile strength is from collagen, laid down by fibroblasts, later.

c. Neutrophils and granulation tissue – no, neutrophils are replaced by macrophages on day 3, when gran. tiss begins to

appear

8. Which is an example of hypertrophy?

a. the pregnant uterus - yes

b. tissue with a high capillary to myocyte ratio – decreased in cardiac hypertrophy

c. the breast at puberty - hyperplasia

d. the liver post hepatectomy - hyperplasia

9. Which of the following is not associated with atrophy

a. decreased smooth endoplasmic reticulum

b. decreased rough endoplasmic reticulum

c. decreased autophagic vacuoles - yes

10. Examples of hyperplasia include

a. glandular epithelium of pubertal breasts – yes, after puberty the cells don’t increase in number, just in size.

11. Hypertrophy

a. occurs after partial hepatectomy - hyperplasia

b. increases function of an organ exponentionally – probably not

c. is triggered by mechanical and trophic chemicals - true

d. occurs after denervation - false

e. is usually pathological - false

12. All the following are features of apoptosis EXCEPT

a. cell swelling - this one, cell just shrinks nicely, without causing damage to surrounding cells

b. chromatin condensation - is

c. formation of cytoplasmic blebs - is

d. lack of inflammation - is

e. phagocytosis of apoptotic bodies - is

13. Dystrophic calcification

a. is formed only in coagulative necrosis - false

b. does not occur on heart valves - false

c. rarely causes dysfunction – false, eg heart valves

d. is rarely found on mitochondria – false, forms first in mitochondria

e. is formed by crystalline calcium phosphate mineral - true

14. Irreversible cell injury is characterised by

a. dispertion of ribosomes – no, this is in reversible injury

b. cell swelling - reversible

c. nuclear chromatin dumping- clumping, reversible

d. lysosomal rupture - TRUE

e. cell membrane defects - ALSO TRUE

15. Metaplasia

a. can be caused by vitamin B12 deficiency – vit A def in lungs

b. preserves mucus secretion in the respiratory tract - ??

c. is typically an irreversible process - reversible

d. is the process that occurs in Barrett’s oesophagitis - true

e. is an increase in the number and size of cells in a tissue - change from one cell type to another

16. Dysplasia

a. is a feature of mesenchymal cells – don’t think so

b. inevitably progresses to cancer – can, not always

c. is characterised by cellular pleomorphism – yes and also loss of uniformity, architertural orientation loss and anarchy,

usually in epithelia – yes. Hyperchromasia, Mitotic Figures

d. is the same as carcinoma in situ – no - - this is when is marked and full thickness then it is CIS

e. is not associated with architectural abnormalities – no

17. Metastasis

a. unequivocally prove malignancy - yes

b. is the most common presentation of melanoma – change in a mole?

c. is proven by lymph node enlargement adjacent to a tumor – not by TNM staging

d. of breast is usually to supraclavicular nodes – axillary node

e. all of the above

18. Metastatic calcification occurs in (repeat) – stomach, kidney, lungs, arteries. In conditions causing hypercalcemia

Tissue Renewal & Repair

1. With regard to wound healing

a. neutrophils proliferate at the wound margins at the same time as epithelial proliferation occurs –no, neutrophils arrive first.

2. With regard to wound healing

a. Neutrophils proliferate at the wound margins at the same time as epithelial proliferation occurs

3. Platelets

a. contain alpha and beta granules – no, alpha and delta granules – fibrinogen, fibronecton, factors 5 and 8, plt factor 4,

PDGF, TGF-beta in alpha granules. Delta granules – dense – contain ADP, ATP, histamine, calcium, serotonin and

adrenaline

b. are biconcave discs – true

c. contain a nucleus - false

d. are found in the plasma at levels of 200-500 per microliter – no, 150-400 million per microlitre

e. are the main source of thrombin – no – liver.

4. Macrophages may secrete

a. histamine

b. seretonin

c. prostaglandins

d. oxygen free radicals - yes

5. Which of the following cells cannot phagocytose

a. Neutrophils - can

b. Eosinophils – can

c. macrophages - can

d. T-cells – not phagocytic

6. The most common peripheral circulating lymphocyte is

a. B-cell

b. T-cell – nearly 70% of lymphocytes in periph smear are T cells… T helper >cytotoxic

7. Mast cell

a. may discharge independent of IgE - yes - direct injury (e.g physical or chemical), cross-linking of IgE receptors, or

by activated complement proteins

b. release lysosymes – degranulate.

8. Metastatic calcification occurs in

a. old lymph nodes - no

b. gastric mucosa - yes

c. atherosclerotic vessels – no, that’s dystrophic,

d. damaged heart valves – no, dystrophic

9. Concerning the repair of a well opposed, clean surgical incision

a. dermal appendages destroyed by the incision usually recover - unlikely

b. new collagen begins to accumulate after the first week – no, on day 5

c. granulation tissue does not occur – false – begins to appear by day 3

d. there is an initial inflammatory response -TRUE

e. 15% of original tissue strength is attained after 1 week – no, 10% at week 1

10. With respect to wound healing

a. neutrophils proliferate at the wound margins at the same time as epitheleal proliferation occurs

11. Which occurs first in fracture healing

a. neutrophil invasion – yes (to organise the haematoma)

b. procallus formation, - no, second (within organised haematoma)

c. woven bone ossification – woven bone laid down to form fracture callus

d. lamellar bone ossification – all changed to lamellar bone to restore strength

e. collagen deposition –procallus is changed to fibrocartilaginous callus

12. Subchondral necrosis

a. is rarely idiopathic – no, most cases of bone necrosis are idiopathic or after corticosteroid administration

b. associated with diving injuries – true – nitrogen bubbles – bone ischaemia

c. rarely involves ischaemia – false – all forms of bone necrosis result from ischaemia

13. In bone fracture healing

a. woven bone forms in the periosteum of the medullary cavity – no.

b. osteoblasts lay down woven bone over the procallous to repair the fracture line - yes

c. PTH acts directly on osteoclasts to increase absorption – false – indirect, through RANKL release by osteoblasts

d. Haematoma at the fracture site plays little role in the development of procallous - false

e. Inadequate immobilisation aids the formation of normal callous- false

14. In healing by primary intention

a. there is a large tissue defect – no.

b. the tissue defect cannot be reconstituted - no

c. it involves excessive granulation tissue - no

d. an epitheleal spur forms on the first day

Acute & Chronic Inflammation

1. Which occurs first in acute inflammation

a. arteriolar dilation – 2nd

b. arteriolar constriction – this occurs, for a few seconds

c. oedema – 3rd, after extravasation of fluid and protein

d. leucocyte margination – 5th. Leucocytes adhere to the vascular endothelium then leak out into the interstitium

e. stasis of blood flow – 4th after the fluid has left the vasculature

2. Regarding chronic inflammation

a. is characterised by hyperaemia, oedema and leucocyte infiltration – this is acute inflammation

b. monocytes use the same chemotactic pathway as neutrophils - yes

c. is always preceded by acute inflammation - no

d. most frequently results in resolution - no

3. The first thing to occur in acute inflammation is

a. vasodilation

b. increased permability

c. diapedesis

d. vasoconstriction – this one

e. stasis

4. Regarding chronic inflammation ???a. monocytes have a half life of 5 days - ?in blood about 1 day, in tissue – months to years

b. frequently follows acute – ‘may follow acute, but frequently occurs insidiously’ (Kotram)

c. frequently resolves – don’t think so

d. characterised by increased vascular permeability and oedema – this is acute

5. Factor C5a ???a. is chemotactic for neutrophils –yes. Also anaphylotoxin – causes mast cell degranulation

b. stimulates arachidonic acid metabolism – yes. Stimulates lipoxygenase in neutrophils and monocytes

c. same factors that are chemotactic for neutrophils as for macrophages - yes

6. Mast cells

a. are derived from thymus – from bone marrow, made from same precursors as basophils

b. can degranulate without IgE – yes by anaphylotoxins (c3a, c5a), tissue injury, heat, cold, IL1, IL6

c. are only found in mucosal membranes – no found in most tissues near blood supply

7. Regarding chronic inflammation ???a. monocytes have a half live of 5 days – 1 day in blood, months/years in tissue

b. frequently follows acute - no

c. frequently resolves - no

d. characterised by increased vascular permeability and oedema – no this is acute

8. Factor C5a

a. is chemotactic for neutrophils - yes

b. stimulates arachodonic acid metabolism - yes

c. same factors that are chemotactic for neutrophils as for macrophages - yes

9. Bradykinin

a. formed from pre kallikrein – no kallikrein is the enzyme that breaks it from its precursor molecule

b. causes vasodilation – yes. Released by venules, cause vasodilation and inc. permeability. Receptors GProtein coupled.

Mediate chronic pain (B1) and vasodil (B2)

10. What is released by macrophages

a. O2 radicles - yes

11. Mast cells

a. Predominantly in circulation – no in tissue

b. Originate in thymus – no – from bone marrow, mature in tissue

c. Can degranulate without IgE stimulation – this one

12. Which is not chemotactic

a. Histamine – has to be this.

b. C5a – no, this is chemotactic

c. Leukotriene B4 – also chemotactic (product of lipooxygenase pathway

d. Bacterial polypeptides – these are the most common exogenous chemotactic agents

e. Cytokines – all chemotactic

13. phagocytosis

a. occurs in 2 steps – three steps – 1. recognitioin and attachment, 2. engulfing, 3. killing

b. C5a is an opsonin – no – C3b, IgG, certain plasma lectins, esp mannose binding lectin

c. IgM is a potent opsonin - no

d. Bacterial killing occurs by mainly O2 dependant mechanisms - true.

e. Doesn’t occur without opsonisation – false,

14. Regarding Chronic inflammation

a. Freq follows acute inflammation – can do, can occur alone

b. Characterised by oedema, stasis, etc - acute

c. Frequently resolves - no

d. Chemotactic factors for monocytes same as for neutrophils - true

15. Regarding fatty change - which is incorrect

a. May result from protein malnutrition - true

b. Fatty acids are oxidised in the mitochondria - true

c. May result from diabetes mellitus - true

d. May represent unmasking of normal cell fat content - false

Which of the following is an example of an oxygen dependent process?

e. Halogenation – this one – peroxide – myeloperoxidase – halide system = most efficient PMN killing mech

f. MBP

16. What is the correct order of events in acute inflammation

a. v/c, v/d, margination, …… - yes

17. Question regarding Complement pathway….need to know about C3a and C5a effects, and also what initiates the classic and

alternative pathways – C3a, 5a – anaphylatoxins – chemoattractant – pro-inflammatory, C3b opsonises – macrophage

phagocytosis of microbe, C5b – forms MAC – cell lysis

18. In acute inflammation which event occurs first

a. arteriolar dilatation – 2nd

b. arteriolar constriction – this one.

c. oedema

d. leucocyte migration – 3rd

e. blood flow stasis

19. The first vascular response to injury is

a. slowing of the circulation – stasis – prior to leucocyte margination

b. venular dilation

c. recruitment of vascular beds

d. capillary engorgement

e. arteriolar vasoconstriction – this one

20. Leucocytes move into the tissues from the vasculature (extravasation )

a. by the action of actin and myosin -???

b. predominantly as monocytes on the first day post injury – no – PMNs.

c. in response to C3b - no

d. in response to the Fc fragment of IgG - no

e. largely in the arterioles - venules

21. Regarding chemical mediators of inflammation

a. histamine is derived from plasma – no mast cell granules,

b. C3b is within macrophages – part of complement system

c. The kinin system is activated in platelets – no, plasma based / endothelium

d. Nitric oxide is preformed in leukocytes

e. seretonin is preformed in mast cells – true, along with histamine, also from platelets and basophils

22. Chronic inflammation is

a. always preceded by acute inflammation - no

b. characterised by hyperemia, oedema and leukocyte infiltration - no

c. most frequently results in resolution - no

d. the factors underlying monocyte infiltration are the same as for acute inflammation – this one

23. In the triple response the reactive hyperemia is due to 1. red reaction due to capillary dilation, a direct response to pressure. 2.

wheal, local oedema due to increased permeability 3. flare, due to arteriolar dilation

a. blushing

b. excersise

c. arteriolar dilation – this one

d. inflammatory mediators

e. still present after sympathectomy

24. Vascular hyperemia

a. is caused by inflammatory mediators

b. results in cyanosis

c. results in oedema – this one

d. results in brown induration

25. Macrophages are derived from

a. monocytes – this one – monocytes stimuated to become macrophages by chemokines in circulation

b. T-cells

c. B-cells

d. Eosinophils

e. Plasma cells

26. With respect to the changes in acute inflammation, which occurs first

a. Arteriolar dilatation

b. Arteriolar constriction – this one

c. Edema

d. Leucocyte margination

e. Stasis of blood flow

27. Regarding chronic inflammation

a. Is characterised by hyperaemia, edema, and leucocyte infiltration – acute

b. Monocytes use the same chemotactic pathway as neutrophils – this one

c. Is always preceded by acute inflammation – no

d. Most frequently results in resolution

28. The first thing to occur in acute inflammation is

a. Vasodilation

b. Increase permeability

c. Diapedesis

d. Vasoconstriction – this

e. Stasis

29. What is released by macrophages

a. oxygen free radicals – this

b. eicosanoids

Fluid & Haemodynamics

1. Non inflammatory oedema – ‘transudate’

a. has a high protein content – protein poor

b. is caused by low levels of aldosterone – increased aldosterone as per CCF (renin-ang system activated by low renal

perfusion)

c. has a SG > 1.012 – <1.012

d. is associated with high ANP – must be, as per CCF

e. is caused by raised plasma oncotic pressure – low oncotic pressure or raised hydrostatic pressure

2. Non thrombocytopaenic purpura is associated with

a. meningococcaemia – yes

b. HIV – thrombocytopenia

c. Aplastic anaemia – thrombocytopenia

d. SLE

e. Infectious mononucleosis

3. Chronic pulmonary oedema is characterised by

a. haemosidderin loaded macrophages – yes, also fibrosis and brown induration (stiff, firm alveoli)

4. DIC

a. in a patient with malignancy presents as a bleeding diathesis – no, more often in obstetric. In Ca – presents with

thrombotic disorder

b. is due to activation of the fibrinolytic system – yes

5. Non thrombocytopaenic purpura is associated with

a. meningococcaemia – this one

b. HIV

c. Aplastic anaemia

d. SLE

e. Infectious mononucleosis

6. Cause of increased vascular permeability

a. Venular endothelium contraction – this one (also direct endothelial injury, leucocyte mediated, increased transcytosis by

vesicles, leakage from new blood vessels)

b. Basement membrane contraction

c. Insertion of something pino-like into somewhere stupid, probable distractor

d. None of the above

7. Non-inflamm causes of oedema

a. SG > 0.012 – <1.012

b. Commonest cause increased hydrostatic – pressure? yes

8. What isn’t cause of oedema? (probably a phys question)

a. Increased lymph flow – this oneb. Increased venous pressure

c. Increased interstitial colloid pressure

9. amniotic fluid embolus

a. increased in primips – multips

b. occurs in 1/5000 births – 1 in 50,000

c. increased in prolonged labour

d. mortality >80% – according to small robbins. 20-40% in big robbins

e. 20% get DIC – 50% get it

10. Factor VIII (lordy!)

a. Bound to large vWF – yes, large = multimers

b. Joins with inactive factor V to activate thrombin – this is Factor X

c. Useful in haemophilia B – no. factor VIII and Factor IX (defic of which=hemophilia B) join forces to activate Factor X

d. 50% of normal activity gives mild disease – yes

e. monitored by PT – no, PTT

11. Regarding clotting cascade

a. Tissue thromboplastins activation intrinsic cascade – extrinsic

b. Thrombin can activate prothrombin – no

c. Clot retraction is independent of platelets – must be dependent on platelets

d. Increased plasminogen activator extends thrombus – activates plasminogen – ie dissolves clot

e. Thrombomodulin can bind and activate thrombin – ‘modifies thrombin’ - cofactor in activation of Protein C

12. Passive hyperaemia caused by(what the fuck?)

a. Exercising muscle

b. Inflammatory mediator release

c. Arteriolar dilatation

d. Blushing

e. Portal hypertension – this one – venous obstruction

13. Post mortem features of clot include

a. Lines of Zahn

b. The absence of RBC's in supernatant – this one

c. Adherence to vascular walls

14. What best defines the pathophysiology underlying shock and the resultant

a. Widespread tissue hypoxia as a result of decreased blood volume/effective blood volume

b. Lactic acid production

c. Low cardiac output

d. Decrease blood volume

e. Cellular hypoxia resulting from impaired tissue perfusion – this one

15. White infarcts

a. May be transiently red – can only be this one

b. Occur in the untestine – no, heart, kidney, spleen

c. Result from venous occlusion – arterial occlusion

d. Are always septic – no

e. Occur predominantly in the liver – no

16. Central pathophysiological feature of shock

a. hypotension

b. decreased blood volume

c. cellular hypoxia at a tissue level – this one

d. infection

e. cardiac failure

17. Septic shock may cause all of the following EXCEPT

a. myocardial depression – decreased contractility

b. vasoconstriction – vasodil

c. DIC – yes

d. ARF – yes

e. ARDS – yes

18. Shock results in

a. decreased capillary hydrostatic pressure – no idea

19. The process of blood coagulation involves

a. prothrombin activator converting fibrinogen to fibrin – thrombin converts it

b. alpha 2 macroglobulin – inhibits thrombin, therefore no

c. the action of antithrombin 3 to promote clotting – erm…ANTIthrombin

d. the action of plasmin on fibrin – no

e. the removal of peptides from each fibrinogen molecule – must be

20. DIC is associated with

a. thrombocytosis – thrombocytopenia

b. a bleeding diathesis presentation in a patient with malignancy – yes

21. With respect to the clotting cascade – complement?

a. the alternative pathway is stimulated by Ag-Ab interaction – microbe / polysaccharides

b. C3bBb inhibits the final common pathway – alternative pathway activator

c. As

d. As

e. C5a initiates arachadonic acid metabolite release from neutrophils – anaphylotoxic, yes

22. With regard to embolism

a. arterial emboli most often lodge in the viscera

b. pulmonary emboli are rarely multiple – no

c. amniotic fluid emboli are associated with the highest mortality – think so – 20-40%

d. all emboli consist of either gas or solid intravascular mass – no, amniotic fluid?

e. most pulmonary emboli produce signs of respiratory distress – no

23. Regarding the veins of the lower limb

a. thrombosis in the superficial veins is a common source of emboli – no, DEEP VT

b. phlegmasia alba dolens is associated with iliofemoral vein thrombosis - yes

c. dermatitis is a common consequence of Buergers disease – don’t think so

d. varicosity development has no genetic component

e. 20% of venous thrombi commence in superficial veins

24. Post mortem features of clot include

a. adherence to vascular walls

b. absence of red cells in supernatant – this one

c. lines of Zahn

25. Air embolism – focal ischaemia in brain and other tissues

a. is fatal as air is non-compressible so does not leave the heart

b. 200 ml is the lethal dose - 100ml for clinical symptoms

26. Amniotic fluid embolism

a. is associated with a greater than 80 % mortality – yes according to little robbins

27. Fat embolism syndrome is assocoated with

a. mortality of greater than 20 % - fewer than 10% have any clinical findings

b. petechial rash, non-thrombocytopenic – yes – in 20-50% of patients

28. Non-inflammatory oedema

a. has a high protein content – this is INFLAMMATORY (due to increased vasc perm)

b. has a SG of greater than 1.012 – again – inflammatory >1.012, non-inflamm <1.012

c. is caused by low levels aldosterone – no – high renin-ang-aldosterone = na retention = oedema

d. is caused by elevated oncotic pressure – this would reduce tissue oedema.

e. is associated with elevated levels of ANP – can be – e.g. in CCF

29. Regarding oedema

a. infection does not cause pulmonary oedema - false

b. hereditory angioneurotic oedema involves skin only – no, and laryngeal and intestinal mucosa

c. facial oedema is a prominent component of anasacra – no, severe, generalised oedema

d. hepatic cirrhosis is the most common cause of hypoprotenemia – must be thise. hypoprotenemia is the most common cause of systemic oedema – no, congestive heart failure is the most common cause

30. Pulmonary congestion is associated with

a. haemosiderin deposition in macrophages - yes, any chronic congestion = haemosiderin in macrophages “heart failure

cells”

31. Which of the following factors is part of the intrinsic pathway of coagulation?

a. VIIa – extrinsic – cleaved from VII by thromboplastin

b. Calcium – all dependent on calciumc. II - fibrin – final product

d. Plasmin – anticlotting – causes fibrinolysis

e. X - common to both - final bit is to cleave X to Xa – which then cleaves pro -> thrombin

32. Which are features of a clot at post mortem?

a. lines of Zahn –no this is where blood clots while flowing…

b. adherence to vascular walls - no

c. Supernatant resembling chicken fat - yes

d. absence of red cells in the supernatant – yes.

33. Which is a feature of non-inflammatory causes of oedema (there’s are table)

a. Aldosterone level low - high

b. Right atrial pressure high – yes – CCF is most common cause

c. protein is high - low

d. SG < whatever that ridiculous number is - <0.012

34. Regarding air embolism, What amount is required to produce symptoms

a. 10ml

b. 20ml

c. 100ml – this one

d. 1000ml

e. 1ml

35. The most common haemodynamic mechanism of pulmonary edema is

a. Lymphatic obstruction

b. Decrease oncotic pressure

c. Increase oncotic pressure

d. Increase hydrostatic pressure – this one – part of the mechanism behind CCF

36. Which is most likely to cause thrombocytopaenic purpura

a. Henoch Schonlein purpura – normal platelets essential for diagnosis

b. AIDS – this one – of the 2.

Diseases of Immunity

1. Regarding HIV; which is correct

a. the decrease in CD8+ T cells is greater than the decrease in CD4+ T cells – no – CD4

b. are able to mount antibody response to new antigen – no – have no APCs

c. increased delayed type hypersensitivity – delayed = t-cell mediated – so decreased

d. causes polyclonal hypergammaglobulinaemia – yes - paradoxic

e. increased chemotaxis - decreased

2. Hyperacute rejection

a. can be decreased by prior cross match of blood – yes.

b. associated with the action of fibroblasts – no this is acute rejection – intimal thickening and fibroblast prolif

3. Which is an AIDS defining illness – PCP CMV, candida, Histoplasma, Toxoplasma,

a. Salmonella enteritis – no, disseminated salmonella infections are

b. Hodgkins lymphoma – non-hodgkin’s lymphoma

c. Invasive cervical carcinoma - yes

d. EBV – as a cause of NHL, not alone

4. Which is NOT more common in HIV – all are???????????a. mycoplasma pneumonia – maybe this one

b. atypical mycobacteria

c. HSV

d. CMV

5. hyperacute graft rejection

a. 1 – 4 days - minutes

b. decreased with cross matching - yes

c. cell mediated – Ab mediated – pre-formed.

d. spares vascular endothelium – no – starts at.

6. Hyperacute transplant rejection is due to

a. Vasculitis - acute

b. Fibrosis - chronic

c. Immune-complex deposition – this one

d. Fibroblasts - acute

e. Fibrinoid necrosis in arterial walls - chronic

7. Which is an AIDS defining illness?

a. Salmonella enteritis

b. Hodgkins lymphoma

c. Invasive cervical carcinoma – this one

d. EBV

8. Regarding HIV, which is correct?

a. The decrease in CD8+ T cells is greater than the decrease in CD4+ T cells

b. Are able to mount antibody response to new antigen

c. Increased delayed type hypersensitivity

d. causes polyclonal hypergammaglogulinaemia – this one

e. Increased chemotaxis

9. What are the histological changes of acute graft rejection?

a. vasculitis – yes – but is this histological?

b. fibrosis - chronic

c. mononuclear cells – this too (cellular)

10. Regarding the rhesus blood group system

a. Rh neg people are D and E negative – D only

b. Has very few spontaneous agglutinins within this system – haemagglutinins in ABO system

c. 50% Caucasians are Rh Pos – 84% wiki)

d. can’t get reactions if Rh Neg people are given antigen – not sure what this means

11. IgM: - large, therefore doesn’t diffuse. Only in serum.

a. is a Dimer – pentamer with 10 binding sites

b. comprises 40% of normal circulating antibodies – IgM 5-10%, IgG 75%, IgA 10%

c. is antiviral – it is according to the web, but cant find it in book

d. is an extremely effective agglutinin - yes

12. T lymphocytes

a. contain CD3 proteins – yes – needed to activate TCell Receptor

b. are the basis for type 2 hypersensitivity – delayed type / cell-mediated – type 4

c. differentiate into antibody producing plasma cells – no, that’s B Cells

d. are capable of cytotoxic activity - true

e. are activated in the presence of soluble antigens – only by APCs

13. In transplant rejection the hyperacute rejection is

a. cell mediated - antibody

b. prevented largely by cross-matching blood - yes

c. controlled by immunosuppressive drugs - no

14. All the following are type 1 hypersensitivity primary mast cell mediators EXCEPT – primary mediators – histamine, proteases,

chemotactic factors, proteoglycan. Secondary mediators – leukotriene, PGs, PAF, arachidonic acid, cytokines,

a. histamine - is

b. tryptase – type of protease

c. heparin – type of proteoglycan

d. platelet activating factor - secondary

e. eosinophil chemotactic factor - is

15. Type 2 hypersensitivity

a. involve cell mediated immune responses – type 4

b. explain the tuberculin skin test – type 4

c. involve IgE on mast cells – type 1

d. explain many transfusion reactions – haemolytic anaemia

e. include serum sickness as an example – type 3

16. A man with type B blood

a. has the commonest blood type - no

b. cannot have a child with type O blood - false

c. cannot have a child with type AB blood - false

d. cannot have a child with type A blood - false

e. none of the above - true

17. Passive immunity is achieved by administering

a. live virus

b. attenuated virus

c. adsorbed toxin

d. activated T-cells

e. all of the above – none of the above?

18. The majority of AIDS cases are reported from

a. homosexual males – yes, 50%

b. IV drug abusers – 25%

c. Haemophilliacs – 0.5%

d. Heterosexual contact – 10%

e. Recipients of blood products – 1%

19. The following are opportunistic AIDS infections EXCEPT

a. PCP - yes

b. Atyoical mycobacterium - yes

c. CMV - yes

d. Mycoplasma pneumonia – not sure

20. HIV is associated with

a. polyclonal hypergammaglobulinemia – unusual activation of B Cells

21. Which of the following reactions is cell mediated

a. SLE – immune complex

b. Arthus reaction – immune complex

c. Anaphylaxis – antibody mediated

d. Graft rejection – cell-mediatede. Goodpastures -antibody

Neoplasia1. Regarding the oral contraceptive pill, it is protective against

a. venous thrombosis

b. breast carcinoma

c. cervical carcinoma

d. ovarian carcinoma – this one, and uterine

e. hepatic adenoma

2. The most common type of thyroid cancer is

a. medullary - third – 5%

b. anaplastic – fourth - nasty

c. follicular – second – 10%

d. papillary – this one – 75%

e. squamous

3. Oncogene expression

a. proto-oncogene regulation

4. Skin stigmata of internal malignancy

a. Acanthosis nigrans - gastric

5. To which 2 organs do tumours most commonly spread to haematogenously

a. Lungs & brain

b. Liver & lungs – this one

6. Regarding the oral contraceptive pill - it is protective against

a. Venous thrombosis

b. Breast carcinoma

c. Cervical carcinoma

d. Ovarian carcinoma – this and uterine

e. Hepatic adenoma

7. Internal carcinoma is associated with which of the following skin disorders

a. acanthosis nigricans - yes

8. The commonest cause of thyroid carcinoma is

a. medullary

b. follicular

c. papillary - yes

d. anaplastic

e. squamous

9. Mesothelioma is associated with all, EXCEPT

a. bronchial carcinoma

b. siderosis – this one

c. pneumoconiosis

d. pleural plaques

e. fibrosis

10. Which is a skin manifestation of malignancy

a. acanthosis nigrans - yes

b. melanoma

Infectious Disease

1. TB’s pathogenicity

c. Type IV hypersensitivity reaction - yes

d. Decreased antibody response - no

e. Ability to replicate in caseous necrosis – replicate inside macrophages

f. Expanding granuloma causing necrosis – not sure

11. Secondary syphillus

a. Lesions spare palms and soles – most common site

b. Popular lesions on genitals – papular on skin, erosions on mucus membranes

c. Infectious because they contain spirochetes - indeed

d. Occurs 5 – 12 months post primary infection – 2-10 weeks

12. Ashkoff bodies – granuloma with necrotic centre in myocardium

a. Rheumatic carditis - yes

b. Etc

13. Hep B

a. HBeAG = active replication – think so

b. Surface antigen occurs after symptoms – surface antibodies not antigen

c. Anti-HBe something something

d. IgG = recent infection - IgM

14. Which of the following is not transmitted by arthropods

a. scrub typhus rickettsial – arthropod transmission

b. endemic typhus rickettsial – arthropod transmission

c. pediculosis - is

d. Q fever – inhalational transmission

e. Rocky mountain spotted fever – rickettsial – arthropod transmission

15. Aschoff bodies are classically seen in

f. rheumatic fever - is

g. non-Hodgkins lymphoma

h. AML

2. Regarding Hepatitis E

a. mortality of 20% in pregnant females – according to wiki

b. incubation of 5 days – 2-9weeks

c. faecal oral transmission - yes

3. Staph can cause

a. food poisoning, tonsilitis, Scarlet fever – is this strep in fact?

4. All of the following are DNA viruses except

a. CMV

b. HIV – RNA virus

c. VZV

d. HSV

e. EBV

5. Which is the most common peripheral site for TB – primary – upper lower lobe, or lower upper lobe. Secondary – apical, under

pleura

a. sub pleural - secondary

b. above fissure of upper lobe - primary

6. Regarding Hepatitis E

a. mortality of 20% in pregnant females - yes

b. incubation of 5 days – 16-60days

c. faecal-oral transmission - yes

7. What is an RNA virus

a. HIV - yes

8. What is a cause of non-thrombocytopenic purpura

a. Meningococcal - obviously

9. Most common cause of fungal endocarditis

a. Repeat

10. All of the following are DNA viruses except

a. CMV

b. HIV – this one

c. VZV

d. HSV

e. EBV

11. Rickettsial infections – gram-neg cocci, arthropods, endothelium

a. Involve the endothelial cells – this is true…

12. Regarding Hepatitis E infection, which is true?

a. pregnant women have a 20% mortality - yes

b. It has a parenteral mode of transmission - oral

13. Rickettsia…which is true?

a. endothelial cell option…they love this bloody question!! - righto

14. What is true regarding polio virus?

a. it is an RNA paramyxovirus - enterovirus

b. it lives in the dorsal root ganglion – can do, but usually anterior root ganglia

c. it causes a viraemia and then spreads to the spinal cord and brainstem - yes

d. it causes symptoms in 40% of people – rarely causes symptoms -1%

15. Staph aureus

a. has enterotoxins which stimulate emetic receptors in the abdominal viscera

b. has a lipase which degrades lipids on the skin surface

c. has a capsule that allows it to attach to artificial materials

d. has receptors on it’s surface which allow binding to host endothelial cells

e. all of the above - indeedy

16. Staph aureus can cause all of the following EXCEPT

a. food poisoning

b. osteomyelitis

c. carbuncles

d. scarlet fever – yes – strep only

e. scalded skin syndrome

17. Which of the following is NOT a DNA virus

a. HSV

b. HBV

c. HIV – this one

d. EBV

e. VZV

18. With respect to streptococcal infection

a. may result in glomerulonephritis 3 weeks post infection - yes

19. Non-thrombocytopenic purpura is associated with

a. aplastic anemia - thrombocytopenic

b. SLE – no idea

c. Meningococcemia - yes

d. HIV - ?kaposi’s

e. EBV – no idea

20. With hepatitis B infection

a. HbeAg is associated with viral replication – yes. Appears after HBsAg and before the Abs appear

21. In hepatitis B

a. Anti-HBs appears soon after HbsAg – straight after HbsAg disappears

b. Infection does not play a role in hepatocellular carcinoma – it does

c. HbsAg appears soon after overt disease – before symptoms

d. The majority of cases of persistent infection result in cirrhosis – no – 70-90 still recover, 10-30 develop chronic hepatitis,

only 20-50% of those - cirrhosis

e. Acute infection causes sub-clinical disease in 65% of cases – yes.

22. Hepatitis C

a. is acquired by faecal-oral transmission – parenteral, sexual,

b. has it’s highest prevelance in heamodialysis patients – 60% -IVDU, only 5% dialysis / healthcare workers

c. transmission by sexual contact is at a high rate -15%

d. exposure confers effective immunity to subsequent infection – no – mutates ++

e. causes chronic hepatitis at a higher rate than hepatitis B – yes, 70% cf 4%

23. With hepatitis C infection

a. Associated with sexual transmission primarily – 15% only

b. More than 50 % become chronic – this one is true

c. Transmission increases in pregnancy – lower than in hep B…

24. With hepatitis E infection

a. it is transmitted primarily parenterally – fecal - oral

b. it accounts for a greater than 20 % mortality in pregnant mothers - true

25. Clostridium species

a. are all spore producing - true

b. C.tetani produces an endotoxin which causes muscle spasm – convulsive contraction…

c. Vaccination against C.tetani has not significantly reduced the incidence of tetanus - false

d. C.botulinum toxin blocks seretonin and dopamine receptors – cleaves synaptobrevin at skeletal and resp neuromusc

junctions, preventing release of acetylcholine

e. C.perfringens causes wound infections 10 days post operatively – 1-3 days

26. All the following infections are associated with splenomegaly EXCEPT

a. leprosy - notb. toxoplasmosis – can have splenic abscesses

c. tuberculosis – in miliary

d. typhoid fever - hepatosplenomegaly

e. CMV – hepatosplenomegaly due to extramedullary haematopoiesis

27. Bacterial endotoxin

a. is exemplified by streptokinase - ???

b. si the cause of the severe form of diptheria - exotoxin

c. is the cause of gas gangrene – no – clostridial (perfringens) exotoxin

d. induces the production of TNF - yese. is the outer cell wall of gram positive bacteria – lipopolysaccharide component of outer cell wall of gram negative bugs

28. In aseptic meningitis

a. the glucose in the CSF is raised - normal

b. the most commonly identified agent is an enterovirus – this one

c. there is a more fulminant course than bacterial meningitis

d. there is no brain swelling – does swell

e. microscopically there is a large infiltration of leukocytes – few leuks

29. In infectious disease

a. bacterial endotoxin is inner cell wall mucoprotein – cell wall lipopolysaccharide

b. exotoxin molecular mechanisms are mostly unknown – lots are well known.

c. microbes propagating in the gut lumen are accessible to IgA antibodies

d. macrophages in bronchi play a major role in protecting the lungs from infection

e. bacterial adhesins which bind bacteria to host cells have a broad range of host cell specificity

30. In malaria

a. plasmodium vivax causes severe anemia

b. parasites mature in red blood cells

c. innoculated sporozites immediately invade the spleen

d. plasmodium falciparum initially causes hepatomegaly

e. cerebral malaria is caused by parasites invading grey matter

31. Ricketsial infection

a. principally affects the endothelium – yes.

Environmental Pathology

1. Which deficiency causes diarrhoea, dermatitis and dementia

a. pyridoxine

b. vitamin B1

c. niacin – this one

d. vitamin A

e. riboflavin

2. A deficiency of which can cause heart failure

a. pyridoxine

b. vitamin D

c. Vitamin C

d. Zinc

e. Thiamine – this one – wet beriberi

3. A question on scurvy and its effects

4. Which of the following is NOT associated with B12 deficiency – all are

a. Crohn’s disease

b. Autoimmune gastritis

c. Subacute degeneration of the spinal cord

d. Megaloblastic anaemia

5. Smoking is related to all the following except

a. chronic liver disease – this one

b. ca lung

c. ca larynx

d. ca oesophagus

e. ca bladder

6. Which tissue is the most sensitive to radiation injury

a. haematopoeitic – this one

b. mucosal cells

c. thyroid

7. A deficiency of which can cause heart failure

a. Pyridoxine

b. Vitamin D

c. Vitamin C

d. Zinc

e. Thiamine – this one

8. Cigarette smoking doesn’t increase risk of

a. Spont abortion

b. Chronic liver diease – this one

c. Oesophageal cancer

d. Pancreatic cancer

9. In pure Fe deficiency anaemia

a. Decreased plt counts

b. Decreased TIBC

c. Decreased transferrin saturation - this

d. Increased ferritin

10. Regarding electrical injuries

a. Death usually assoc with extsensive burns

b. Lightning doesn’t cause thermal injury

c. All body compartments conduct electricity – this one

d. Amperage not important

11. Regarding electrical/hyperthermic injuries, which is correct

a. All body tissues conduct equally

b. Amperage is not important

c. Massive skin burns may cause death – they may

d. Dry skin is a good electrical conductor

12. Thiamine deficiency - ??

a. Myocardial ischaemia

b. Vitamin B6 deficiency

c. B12 deficiency

d. Arrythmia

13. A deficiency of which can cause heart failure

a. Pyridoxine

b. Vitamin D

c. Vitamin C

d. Zinc

e. Thiamine – this one

14. Which is not a cause of megaloblastic anaemia

a. Pregnancy

b. Folate/B12 deficiency

c. EBV infection – this one. Others do

d. Neoplasms

e. Hyperthyroidism

15. In iron deficiency

a. Increased serum ferritin

b. Decreased transferrin saturation – this one

c. Decreased total iron binding capacity

16. Heroin overdose can give all, EXCEPT

a. coma

b. pulmonary edema

c. acute myocardial infarction due to vasospasm – this one

d. miosis

e. confusion

17. Deficiency of which of the below causes diarrhea, dermatitis and dementia ?

a. riboflavin

b. niacin – this one

c. Vitamin A

d. Pyridoxine

e. Vitamin B1

18. Which is true of Iron?

a. it is absorbed in the stomach

b. it has increased absorption in the presence of Vitamin C – this one

c. it causes pulmonary fibrosis

19. Which of the following tissues is the most susceptible to radiation injury

a. GI mucosa

b. CNS

c. Lymph and haemopoetic - this

d. Bone

e. Lungs

20. With electrical injury

a. death is always due to thermal burn

b. dry skin is a good electrical conductor

c. ampage of the current is important - yes

d. all body tissues conduct electricity - yes

21. Which of the following is an anti-oxidant

a. Vitamin D

b. vitamin B12

c. vitamin E – yes – in skin cream

d. vitamin K

e. vitamin B6

22. Which deficiency causes diarrohea, dermatitis and dementia

a. pyridoxine

b. vitamin A

c. riboflavin

d. vitamin B1

e. niacin – this one

23. Decreased levels of B12 are associated with all the following EXCEPT – none of these

a. autoimmune gastritis

b. crohns disease

c. subacute combined degeneration of the cord

24. Regarding Iron which of the following is INCORRECT

a. absorption is increased by vitamin C

b. most is found in myoglobin – most in Hb

c. most is absorbed in the duodenum

d. women have smaller iron stores than men

e. transferrin is usually 33% saturated

Blood Vessels

1. Cells in centre of atheromatous plaque

a. Repeat – foamy macrophages, smooth muscle cells, leucocytes

2. Atherosclerosis

a. Predominantly affects large and medium sized arteries - yes

b. Characterised by thickening of the media of arteries - intima

3. Which combination represents the major risk factors for atherosclerosis

a. Hypertension, male gender, age, family history

b. Hypertension, sedantary lifestyle, obesity, and family history

c. Increased lipids, Cigarette smoking, hypertension, dibetes mellitus – this one (and family history) p268

4. Regarding Atherosclerosis:

a. The severity of lesions cannot be predicted elsewhere (?? Or some weird statement similar to this) - true

b. coronary arteries have the worst lesions – abdominal aorta

c. lesions in Thoracic aorta more common than in abdo aorta - no

d. there are 2 components: cells and CT matrix – and necrotic core

5. The major Risk factors for atherosclerosis are:

a. hypertensive, hypercholersterolaemia, smoking and sedentary life

b. hypertensive, diabetes, smoking and hyperchoesterolaemia – this one

c. hypertensive, male sex, smoking and hypercholesterolaemia

d. hypertension, obesity, male and family history

6. In atherosclerosis the cells at the centre of the plaque are

a. Macrophages - yes

b. foam cells – yes

c. leukocytes - yes

d. smooth muscle cells - yes

7. All of the following are major risk factors for atherosclerosis EXCEPT

a. Obesity – this one

b. hyperlipidemia

c. smoking

d. hypertension

e. diabetes

8. Which risk factors have the greatest association with atherosclerosis

a. hypertension, diabetes, smoking , hyperlipidemia – this one

b. hypertension, male, family history

c. hypertension, obesity, sedentary lifestyle

d. hypertension, female, OCP

e. age, family history, sex

9. Malignant hypertension

a. 75 % recover with no loss of renal function who knows…

b. is associated with abnormal renin levels - yes

c. affects 1 to 5 % of sufferers – of hypertension? – this one if so. p504

10. regarding atherosclerosis

a. coronary arteries equally affected as renal arteries – no more

b. exclusively affects medium and large arteries - yes

c. increased incidence in hypothyroidism – according to google, yes, but not mentioned in book

d. decreased incidence in nephrotic syndrome?

11. Regarding hypertensive crisis

a. 75% will recover if treated promptly

b. 1-5 % of hypertensive patients will develop - yup

c. (onion skinning was not an option)

12. Regarding the plaque in atherosclerosis; which is correct

a. mixture of cells and connective tissue matrix – this one

b. rarely causes microemboli - commonly

c. coronary arteries are the most affected – abdo aorta

d. thoracic aorta is more affected than the abdominal aorta nope

13. Which combination represents the major risk factors for atherosclerosis

a. hypertension, male, age, family history

b. hypertension, sedentary lifestyle, obesuty, family history

c. hyperlipidaemia, smoking, hypertension, diabetes mellitus – this one

The Heart

1. Regarding consequences after an MI; which is correct

a. loss of contractility in less than 60 seconds

b. collaterals do not flow for 4-6 hours

c. 50% recanalise spontaneously

d. ischaemia occurs after 60 minutes

2. What is the most common histological change seen in MI less than 24 hours

a. pallor and oedema – this one

b. haemorrhage – ?

c. hyperaemic border – day 2 onwards

d. liquefactive necrosis – coagulation necrosis in first day?

3. A man who has chest pain and is thought due to coronary artery vasoconstriction; this is most likely due to

a. hypoxia

b. Ach

c. Decreased ATP in cells

d. The action of catecholamines on alpha 1 receptors

e. Increased CO2

4. A patient with a normal blood pressure post MI has an associated

a. increased cardiac output

b. increased systolic filling pressure

c. increased right atrial pressure

5. In compensated cardiac hypertrophy, changes include

a. diffuse fibrosis

b. ventricular dilation

c. an increased capillary to myocyte ratio

d. decreased sarcomeres

e. hyperplasia

6. A common cause of fungal endocarditis is

a. Actinomyces

b. Candida – 2 thirds of endocarditis is candidal - emedicine

Aspergillus

7. What is the most common histological change seen in myocardial infarction less than 24 hrs duration

a. pallor and oedema –pallor, 12 hrs to 3 days, oedema 6 hrs onwards

b. haemorrhage – 4-12 hours

c. hyperaemic border – day 2

d. liquefactive necrosis – no, its coagulative necrosis – 3-24 hrs.

8. With regards to acute coronary occlusion

a. collaterals do not flow for 4-6 hrs

b. striking loss of contractility within 60 secs – no, <2 mins

c. 50% recannalize spontaneously

d. ischaemia occurs after 60 mins – no, very quickly

9. Aschoff bodies are classically seen in

a. rheumatic fever

b. non-Hodgkins lymphoma

c. AML

10. High output failure in (repeat, thiamine)

a. Vit B12 def

b. Atrophic gastritis

11. Regarding cardiac stuff (tricky – wording likely to be pretty average)

a. Asymptomatic have little change of catastrophic cardiac event

b. Chronic obstructing lesions have increased flow leading to increased chance of damage/fissure etc

c. Mild to moderate obstructions have higher risk of something

d. Mural thrombus rarely embolises

e. Predominant cause of cell death is apoptosis

12. In compensated hypertensive heart disease

a. Interstitial fibrosis

b. Left ventricular dilatation

c. Increased capillary

13. In AMI

a. Striking loss contractility with 60 seconds

14. Another AMI

a. ATP depletion starts in seconds

b. Irreversible damage in 20mins

c. ATP depletion X% in Ymins (wrong probably)

d. Spont recanalisation in 2 hours in 50%

15. A man is brought to the ED with heart failure & has a cardiac index of 8l. Which is most likely to cause this

16. A man who has chest pain and is thought due to coronary artery vasoconstriction, this is likely to be due to

a. Hypoxia

b. ACh

c. Decrease ATP in cells

d. The action of catecholamines on alpha 1 receptors

e. Increase CO2

17. Infective endocarditis

a. Is most commonly caused by Staph aureus

b. Is most commonly caused by streptococci

18. Regarding Bradykinin, which is correct?

a. it is formed from prekallikrein

b. it causes smooth muscle vasodilation

19. What is the key microscopic feature of Rheumatic fever?

a. Aschoff bodies

b. Curshmans spirals

c. Reed-Sternberg cells

20. Repeat MI question from 2 tables regarding:

- onset of ATP depletion – seconds

- loss of contractility <2 minutes

- ATP to 50% normal – 10minutes

- ATP to 10% normal – 40minutes

- Irreversible damage – 20-40minutes

- Microvascular damage - >1hour

a. ATP and time frame in an MI

b. Anatomy of blood supply in an infarct:

c. option was : ‘atrial damage as well as left lateral ventricle damage)

21. What is true regarding hypertensive heart disease?

a. it causes pulmonary fibrosis

22. Regarding the changes to myocardium after MI

a. pallor at 24 hours

b. wavy fibres are found centrally

c. decreased contractility after 5 minutes

d. liquefactive necrosis is typical

sarcoplasm is resorbed by leukocytes

23. In compensated cardiac hypertrophy changes include

a. diffuse fibrosis

b. hyperplasia

c. decreased sarcomeres

d. increased capillary density

e. increased capillary/myocyte ratio

24. Endocarditis in IV drug abusers typically

a. involves the mitral valve

b. is caused by candida albicans

c. does not cause fever

d. has a better prognosis than other types of endocarditis

e. is caused by staph aureus

25. The commonest cause of fungal endocarditis is

a. actinomycosis

b. candida

c. blatomycosis

26. With regard to MI

a. gross necrotic changes are present within 3-5 hours

b. irreversible cell injury occurs in less than 10 minutes

c. fibrotic scarring is completed in less than 2 weeks

d. death occurs in 20 % of cases in less than 2 hours

e. is most commonly caused by occlusion of the left circumflex coronary artery

27. Regarding pericarditis

a. constrictive pericarditis only rarely follows suppurative pericarditis

b. primary pericarditis is usually bacterial in origin

c. serous pericarditis may be due to ureamia

d. haemorrhagic pericarditis is most commonly due to Klebsiella infection

e. fibrinous pericarditis is due to TB until proven otherwise

28. Patient who has a normal blood pressure post MI must have

a. increased cardiac output

b. increased systolic filling pressure

c. increased right atrial pressure

29. Acute endocarditis

a. has a less than 20 % mortality

b. is caused by virulent micro-organisms

c. 30 % is caused bacteria

30. Congestive cardiac failure may be caused by

a. vitamin A deficiency

b. niacin deficiency

c. vitamin D deficiency

d. thiamine deficiency

e. vitamin C deficiency

31. Following myocardial infarction

a. ATP is down to 50% at 10 minutes

b. Irreversible cell injury occurs within 5 minutes

c. ATP depletion begins at 2 minutes

d. Microvascular injury occurs within 30 minutes

e. Wavy fibres are present within 20 minutes

32. A young man presents with central chest pain presumed to be assoc with vasoconstriction. Most likely cause of pain is local

a. hypoxia

b. decreased ATP

c. increased CO2

d. catecholamines acting on alpha 1 receptors

e. acetylcholine stimulation

33. An adult male with an ejection fraction of 80 % could be due to

a. myocardial ischaemia

b. arrhythmia

c. thiamine deficiency

34. The cause of fluid retention peripherally with congestive cardiac failure is

a. increased renin

b. increased GFR

c. increased angiotensin 2

d. increased aldosterone

35. Rheumatic carditis is associated with

a. Curschmann spirals

b. Ito cells

c. Aschoff bodies

d. Nutmeg cells

e. Reed-sternberg cells

36. Bradykinin

a. causes smooth muscle dilatation

b. kallikrein causes prohormone degredation to produce bradykinin

Blood Cell Disorders

1. Myelofibrosis

a. causes leukoerythroblastic anaemia

b. casues a decrease in megakaryocytes

c. stimulates erythropoetin production

2. Myelofibrosis repeat

a. Leukoerythroblastic anaemia

3. Thromboctopenia

a. occurs commonly in HIV

b. causes spontaneous bleeding at levels of less than 90,000/mm

c. occurs with hyposplenism

d. is related to platelet survival in paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria

e. is not associated with megaloblastic anaemia

4. Macrocytic anaemia is associated with all the following except

a. Hyperthyroidism

b. Neoplasm

c. Folate and B12 deficiency

d. Pregnancy

e. EBV

5. Regarding pernicious anaemia

a. it is associated with low B12

The Lung

1. In lobar pneumonia

a. it is more common in the young and elderly

b. get a change from red to grey hepatisation – yes, congestion – red – grey – resolution.

c. not usually associated with a productive cough

d. rarely caused by streptococcus – no, this is the main organism (pneumococcus – alpha haemolytic.

2. Regarding nonatopic (intrinsic) asthma

a. is mainly triggered by viral respiratory illnesses – this one, also cold, aspirin…

b. is associated with atopy – no, IgE not involved in intrinsic asthma

c. decreases vagal afferent responsiveness

3. Which type of emphysema is most commonly associated with smoking and chronic bronchitis

a. centrilobular – this one

b. panacinar – associated with alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency

c. irregular – scarring from healed inflammatory processes

d. paraseptal – adjacent to areas of scarring or fibrosis – causes spontaneous pneumothorax

e. bullous – refers to any form of emphysema which produces large subpleural blebs – usually apical - pneumothorax

4. The black colour seen in chronic smokers lungs is due to

a. pigment in alveolar macrophages – yes, dusty brown pigment – granular iron in macrophage cytoplasm

5. Regarding resorption atelectasis; which is correct

a. involves oxygen absorption - Resorption atelectasis is the consequence of complete obstruction of

an airway, which in time leads to resorption of the oxygen trapped in the dependent alveoli,

without impairment of blood flow through the affected alveolar walls.

6. Which type of emphysema is most commonly associated with smoking and chronic bronchitis

a. centiacinar – this one

b. panacinar

c. irregular

d. paraseptal

7. Chronic pulmonary oedema is characterised by

a. haemosidderin loaded macrophages – yes.

8. All cause compressive atelectasis EXCEPT

a. asthma – cannot

b. pleural effusion – this will

c. ascites – this will

d. pneumothorax – this will

9. Which is the most common form of emphysema in smokers

a. Centriacinar – this one

b. panacinar

c. irregular

d. paraseptal

10. The black colour seen in chronic smokers lungs is due to

a. pigment in alveolar macrophages – yes

11. Emphysema due to smoking causes

a. Centrilobular – yes

12. Most characteristic COAD changes

a. Increased thickness of mucous layer – yes – mucous gland hyperplasia and hypersecretion

b. Decreased goblet cell number – no – increased numbers

c. Increase in smooth muscle thickness – this is asthma

13. Black pigment in lungs repeat

14. Coal causes all except repeat

a. Steatorrhea

b. Can progress to cirrhosis

c. Accumulation starts somewhere central and obscure in cytoplasm

d. Is irreversible

e. Not caused by protein malnutrition

15. Which type of empysema is most commonly associated with smoking and chronic bronchitis

a. Centriacinar – yes

b. Panacinar

c. Irregular

d. Paraseptal

16. Regarding squamous cell carcinoma

a. Has a 5 year survival of 60% – no, much less. Overall lung cancer 5 yr survival 15% (better for adeno and squamous)

b. Is commonly associated with cigarette smoking – yes

c. Is most commonly seen in females – no, men

d. Is most commonly peripheral – lung hilar

17. The type of emphysema most commonly associated with smoking is

a. Centrilobular – yes

b. Paraseptal

c. Panacinar

d. Bullous

e. Irregular

18. What happens to particles 1-5 micrometers in diameter

a. Deposited in nose – 5-10um

b. Lodge in trachea and bronchi – >5um

c. Phagocytosis by pulmonary alveolar macrophages – yes – get to alveoli, most pathologically significant

19. The pathogenicity of M. Tb is due to

a. Impaired antibody response/cell mediated

b. Hypersensitivity response to products of Tb bacteria – this one

c. Due to expanding granuloma

d. Due to caseous necrosis

e. Direct host cell killing by the bacillus

20. Obstructive atelectasis

a. The mediastinum moves away from lesion – towards side of collapse

b. involves the reabsorption of air – this one

c. Is caused by pleural fluid – no – this causes compressive atelectasis

21. Regarding non atopic asthma

a. Is mainly triggered by viral respiratory illnesses – true

22. Regarding the use of steroids in Asthma

a. they inhibit cytokines – this one

b. cause bronchodilation – no effect on smooth muscle

c. given nocte because of diurnal variation – given mane for same reason

23. All of the below are changes seen in Asthma EXCEPT:

a. Charcot cells - eosinophils and Charcot-Leyden crystals are present; the latter are collections

of crystalloid made up of eosinophil membrane protein.

b. Hurschmann’s spirals -The most striking macroscopic finding is occlusion of bronchi and

bronchioles by thick, tenacious mucous plugs. Histologically, the mucous plugs contain

whorls of shed epithelium, which give rise to the well-known Curschmann spirals.

24. All of the below are changes seen in Chronic Bronchitis EXCEPT:

a. smooth muscle hypertropohy – no, smooth muscle hypertrophy occurs in asthma

b. mucus gland hypertrophy – true

c. decreased goblet cell number – no – goblet cells increased

25. Regarding the pathogenicity of TB…it is due to:

a. increasing granuloma

b. hypersensitivity reaction – this one

c. caseous necrosis

d. poor antibody response

26. Repeat Q about causes of Atelectasis:

a. obstructive

b. oxygen resorption

c. Asthma

d. Ca Lung

27. ABG to interpret:

This was a crappily worded question that I think they will have ditched for the future, I think there were 2 correct options as

well…but, nevertheless…suggests you should learn clinical ABG interpretation and related pathology. Is covered better in

Ganong

An ABG shows: ph 7.5, PCO2 50, HCO3 – 10 (ie: a metabolic alkalosis)

a. may be due to diuretics

b. pyloric stenosis is the most common cause – no – prolonged vomiting, or ingestion of sodium bicarb…

28. The type of emphysema associated with smoking is

a. panacinar

b. centriacinar – this one

c. distal acinar

d. irregular

e. none of the above

29. Squamous cell lung carcinoma

a. has a 5 year survival rate of 60% – somewhere around 15%

b. is most commonly associated with smokers – this one

c. is commonest peripherally – becoming more common, but hilar

d. is commonest in females – no, men

30. Intrinsic asthma is commonly triggered by

a. viral infections – yes

31. TB pathogenicity is due to – hypersensitivity reaction

32. Lobar pneumonia

a. is more common in the young and the elderly – no, this is broncho

b. involves morphological changes of red to grey hepatisation – true

c. not usually associated with a productive cough –

d. is associated with immunosuppression

e. rarely caused by streptococcus – false – most common organism

33. Chronic bronchitis is characterised by

a. smooth muscle hypertrophy – no, asthma.

b. leucocyte infiltration – macrophages and neutrophils in smokers….

c. mucus gland hypertrophy – this one

d. increased size of goblet cells – goblet cell metaplasia

34. All the following cause compressive atelectasis EXCEPT

a. pneumothorax

b. asthma – rhis one

c. CCF

d. Peritonitis

e. Pleural effusion

35. Which is not true of bronchogenic cysts

a. they may become dysplastic – yes, may exhibit metaplasia in inflammation.

b. they occasionally cause pneumothorax – yes.

c. they have an epithelial layer – yes lined by pseudostratified columnar epithelium

d. they may contain mucus – yes, as contain bronchial glands

e. they are often associated with bronchioles – no, rarely connected to trachobronchial tree

36. Chronic bronchitis major morphological change involves

a. leukocyte infiltration

b. decreased goblet cell number

c. smooth muscle hypertrophy

d. increased mucosal gland depth ( REID index) – sounds good.

37. In males the relative risk of cigarette smoking causing a cancer is highest for

a. lung – must be????

b. larynx

c. oesophagus

d. pancreas

e. lip, oral, and pharynx

38. Cessation in cigarette smoking causes a prompt reduction in the risk of – surely all of them???

a. lung cancer

b. stroke

c. cancer of the bladder

d. MI

e. COPD

39. Regarding bronchogenic carcinoma

a. it most often arises around the hilum of the lung – scc and small cell are hilar, but adeno = peripheral (most common)

b. distant spread occurs solely by lymphatic spread – no, also haematogenous

c. metastasis are most common to the liver – yes – in 30-50%

d. small cell carcinoma is the most common type – no – adeno in men / smokers, scc in women

e. surgical resection is often effective for small cell carcinoma – no, metastasizes early,

40. In emphysema

a. a deficiency of alpha 1 antitrypsin is protective – no.

b. centriacinar destruction leads to obstructive overinflation – no, this is a different type of emphysema – neonates or 2o to

tumours

c. the protease—antiprotease mechanism is the most plausible explanation of the disease – yes

d. smokers have an increased number of macrophages in the bronchi – increased macrophages at various parts of lung…

e. elastase activity is unaffected by oxygen free radicals – has to be false

41. In chronic bronchitis

a. the hallmark is hypersecretion of mucus in the large airways – yesb. there is a marked increase in goblet cells in the main bronchi – slight increase only

c. infection is a primary cause – no

d. cigarette smoke stimulates alveolar leukocytes – macrophages. (monocytes not leucocytes)

e. dysplasia of the epitheleum leads to emphysema – destruction of elastase leads to emphysema,

42. In bronchial asthma

a. extrinsic asthma is initiated by diverse non-immune mechanisms – no, type 1 hypersensitivity to extrinsic allergens

mediated by IgE

b. sub-epitheleal vagal receptors in respiratory mucosa are insensitive to irritants – no.

c. IgG plays a role – just IgE

d. Bronchial wall smooth muscle is atrophic – no, hypertrophic

e. Primary mediators include eosinophilic and neutrophilic chemotactic factors – yes, late phase is when these cells turn up.

43. In bacterial pneumonia

a. patchy consolidation of the lung is the dominant feature of bronchopneumonia

b. a lobar distribution is a function of anatomical variations

c. Klebsiella pneumonia is a common virulent agent

d. Alveolar clearance of bacteria is achieved by lymphocytes

e. The nasopharynx is inconsequential in defending the lung against infection

44. Smoking is associated with all the following diseases EXCEPT

a. spontaneous abortion

b. atherosclerosis

c. bladder carcinoma

d. chronic liver disease

45. Smoking is associated with

a. particle deposition in alveolar macrophages

46. In pulmonary tuberculosis

a. the Ghon complex is a parenchymal peri-hilar lesion

b. bacilli establish themselves in sites of low oxygen tension

c. liquefactive necrosis precedes granuloma formation

d. Langhans cells occur in coalescent granulomas

e. Primary TB causes more damage to lungs than secondary TB

47. The commonest site of primary TB lesion in lung is

a. apex

b. base

c. hilum

d. lower zone of upper lobe

e. peripherally

Liver & Biliary Tract

1. Conjugated hyperbilirubinaemia results from

a. Gilberts syndrome

b. Physiologic jaundice

c. Excess production of bilirubin

d. Decreased hepatic uptake

e. Cholestasis

2. Regarding jaundice

a. unconjugated produces bilirubin in the urine

b. conjugated produces kernicterus in adults

c. unconjugated does not colour the sclera

d. in unconjugated, bilirubin is tightly bound to albumin

3. Repeat on bilirubin combinations

a. Unconjugated tightly bound to albumin

4. Regarding hepatitis C

a. Has a high association with sexual transmission

b. Transmission increases in pregnancy

c. Greater than 50% become chronic

5. Conjugated hyperbilirubinaemia results from

a. Gilberts syndrome

b. Physiologic jaundice

c. Excess production of bilirubin

d. Decreased hepatic uptake

e. Cholestasis

6. Regarding hepatic failure

a. Occurs with loss of functional liver capacity of approximately 60%

b. Encephalopathy is a result of increased ammonia formation

c. The liver is the predominant site of synthesis of albumin

7. Regarding liver failure

a. has a 20-40% mortality

b. can be caused by tetracyclines

c. rarely results in cirrhosis

d. not associated with ascites

8. With regard to jaundice:

a. Unconjugated BR is tightly bound to albumin

b. Unconjugated BR does not colour the sclera

c. Conjugated BR is tightly bound to albumin

d. conjugated BR causes kernicterus in adults

e. unconjugated hyperBRaemia will result in BR in the urine

9. What is the cause of fatty liver?

a. protein malnutrition

b. is usually due to unmasking a normal cell constituent

10. Regarding the morphology of Cirrhosis

a. there is disrupted vascular architecture

b. it is reversible if cryptogenic

c. the left lobe is most often affected

11. With regards to jaundice

a. Conjugated bilirubin causes kernicterus in adults

b. Unconjugated bilirubin does not colour sclera

c. Unconjugated bilirubin is tightly bound to albumin

d. Unconjugated bilirubin produces bilirubin in urine

e. Conjugated bilirubin is tightly bound to albumin

12. In cirrhosis

a. fibrosis is confined to the delicate bands around central veins

b. nodularity is uncommon

c. vascular architecture is preserved

d. the Ito cell is a major source of excess collagen

e. the left lobe of the liver is most affected

13. Cirrhosis is associated with

a. reorganised liver vasculature with scarring

14. Oesophageal varices

a. occur in one third of all cirrhosis patients

b. account for more than 50 % of episodes of haematemesis

c. are most often associated with hepatitis C cirrhosis

d. have a 40 % mortality during the first episode of rupture

e. lie primarily in the middle portion of the oesophagus

Pancreas

1. Which of the following may occur in acute pancreatitis

a. Hypercalcaemia - hypocalcaemia

b. glycosuria - yes

2. In acute pancreatitis

a. trypsin activates the bradykinin system – yes, by activating kallikrein

b. less than 5% are idiopathic – 10-20%

c. 35% of patients with gall stones develop pancreatitis – 5%

d. gall stones are present in 80% of cases – 35-60%

3. Chronic pancreatitis causes

a. Hypercalcaemia - hypo

b. Hypermagnesiumaemia - ???

c. Steatorrhoea - yes

d. Hypoglycaemia - hyperglycaemia

4. Acute pancreatitis

a. Affects intraperitoneal fat only - no

b. Alcohol and gallstones cause 60% - 80%

c. Backflow of bile is a sig risk factor – more obstruction at ampulla – raised pressure rather than backflow

d. Intraductal activation of enzymes is important - true – trypsin – activates everything else

e. Proteases, trypsin etc released from Alpha islet cells – no – exocrine pancreas

5. In acute pancreatitis

a. Less than 5% are idiopathic – 10-20%

b. 35% of patients with gallstones develop pancreatitis – no 5 %

c. Gallstones are present in 80% of cases – 35-60%

d. Trypsin plays a central role in the activation of the kinin system - yes

6. Which of the following may occur in acute pancreatitis

a. Hypercalcaemia

b. Glycosuria – this one

7. All are true about chronic pancreatitis, EXCEPT

a. 10% develop pseudocysts - true

b. diabetes may develop - true

c. is associated with pancreatic carcinoma - unclear

d. alcohol is the main etiologic factor - true

8. Regarding acute pancreatitis, all are ACUTE effects EXCEPT:

a. DM - no

b. pseudocyst – this does

c. ARDS - true

d. low platelets - true

9. Regarding acute pancreatitis:

a. the pathogenesis is to do with trypsin activation - true

b. 80% of cases are due to alcohol – no.5% UK / france, 65% in USA

10. Regarding pancreatitis

a. the second most common cause is infectious agents – no, EtOH

b. trypsin is implicated as an activator of the kinin system - yes

c. the chronic form is usually due to gallstones - no

d. duct obstruction is not the mechanism in alcoholic pancreatitis – no – inspissated protein plugs in ducts

e. elastase is the only pancreatic enzyme that acts to limit pancreatitis – no – SPINK – serum protease inhibitor

11. In acute pancreatitis

a. fat necrosis occurs in other intra-abdominal fatty deposits - yes

b. trauma is the precipitating cause in 30 % of cases – ‘less common’

c. alcohol is directly toxic to the Islets of Langerhans - no

d. Kallikrein converts trypsin to activate the complement system – no – trypsin activates everything, including kallikrein

system to activate bradykinin

e. Erythromycin has been implicated in severe cases - not

12. In pancreatitis,

a. trypsin activates the bradykinin system - true

Renal System

1. Regarding acute tubular necrosis

a. non-oliguric renal failure follows a more benign course – true

2. In the diagnosis of renal hypertension

a. 60% of cases are due to fibromuscular dysplasia – no. 70% of RAS due to atheroma

b. malignant hypertension only occurs in patients with previous hypertension – false

c. onion skinning is proportional th the degree of renal failure – possibly this one?

d. associated with immune suppression –??

3. Morphological features of chronic renal failure include –???a. glomerular hyperplasia with dilation of tubules

b. slowing of filtrate through loop of Henle

c. decreased pressure in the glomerulus

4. Regarding acute tubular necrosis

a. non-oliguric renal failure follows a more benign course – yes

b. (casts blocking tubule was not an option)

5. ATN

a. Casts in lumen blah blah

6. Acute glomuleronephritis (tricky)

a. Occurs post 1 – 4 weeks impetigo – strep

b. Due to toxic effect of streptolysin on basement membrane – Antistrep Ab

c. Due to Group B alpha-haemolytic strep. – group A β-hemolytic

d. Leads to renal failure ?usually ?mostly - related to prognosis – 95% recover. (5% children, 40% adults suffer RF)

7. In chronic renal failure morphology includes

8. In the diagnosis of renal hypertension

a. 60% cases of renovascular hypertension are due to fibromuscular dysplasia – no most atheroma

b. Malignant hypertension only occurs in patients with previous hypertension – false

c. Onion skinning is proportional to the degree of renal failure – apparently so

9. Ischaemic ATN

a. Is associated with tubular cast obstruction – ‘s true

10. Which of the following is true in Nephrotic syndrome

a. Albumin lost, other globulins unaffected – false

b. Hypertension – nephritic syndrome

c. Alteration to serum lipid levels – yes

d. Sodium and water excretion –??

11. In chronic renal failure, morphology includes

12.

13. Regarding Acute Renal failure, which is true?

a. A Strep B infection may occur 3 -4 weeks beforehand – group A β haemolytic strep

b. May have abnormal renal parenchyma secondary to Strep

14. Which of the following is NOT a nephrotoxic cause of ATN?

a. erythromycin – isn’t mentioned

b. contrast – is

c. CCL4 – is

d. Aminoglycosides – is

e. Lead – is

15. What are pathological changes of ATN?

a. casts in lumen – yup

16. Concerning acute tubular necrosis

a. cephalosporins are not a causative agent – false

b. nephrotoxic causes are associated with a poor prognosis – false, providing other organs not damaged

c. casts are found in the loop of Henle – true I guess

d. rhabdomyolysis is not a cause – certainly is a cause

e. ischaemic tubular necrosis is uncommon after haemorrhagic shock – no, common

17. Regarding acute tubular necrosis

a. it is associated with hyperkalemia not hypokalemia in recovery – no, hypokalaemia in recovery

b. non-oliguric has a better recovery – probably

c. it is associated with ischaemic cortical cells – outer medulla

d. 80 % are associated with anuria – oliguria surely

18. Ischaemic tubular necrosis is associated with

a. maintenance stage with polyuria – oliguria in maintenance phase. Polyuria in recovery phase

b. predominantly proximal necrosis – patchy in PCT and LoH

c. intact basement membranes – often assoc with rupture. Intact in toxic ATN

d. tubular cast obstruction – true

e. distal necrosis only – no

19. Hypertensive renal disease

a. 60 % of renovascular hypertension is due to fibromuscular hyperplasia – atheroma in RAS

b. malignant hypertension only arises if previous hypertension – nope

c. onion skinning correlates with degree of renal failure – probably

20. The morphology of renal failure includes

21. Regarding the hepatorenal syndrome

a. it is irreversible – false. Needs liver transplant though

b. one loses the ability to concentrate urine – false

c. urine has a high sodium concentration – low in sodium

d. the urine is hyperosmolar – true

e. the favoured theory of it’s generation involves increased renal blood flow – decreased

22. Urolithiasis

a. presence of hypercalcemia implies renal insufficiency – think not

b. a patient with leukemia is likely to make cystine calculi – uric acid stones

c. calcium is the major component of 35% of calculi – 70%

d. struvite stones are made up of magnesium-ammonium-phosphate – true

e. the commonest cause of calcium oxalate stones is hypercalciuria – true

23. In pyelonephritis

a. 85 % of infections are caused by G-ve bacteria – true

b. uretral obstruction makes haematogenous infection less likely – false, more likely

c. uretral obstruction allows bacteria to ascend the ureter into the pelvis – no, incompetence of vesico-ureteric valve

d. infection is less likely during pregnancy – more likely

e. papillary necrosis and perinephric abscess are common seqelae – uncommon

Endocrine

1. Which is correct for the pituitary gland – acidophil cells are somatotrophs – make GH – and lactotrophs – make prolactin

a. LH – anterior – basophil – yes, made by gonadotrophs (basophils are gonadotrophs, corticotrophs, thyrotrophs)

b. VP – posterior – basophil – posterior, made by

c. Prolactin – posterior – acidophil – anterior, acidophil

2. Which is characteristic of Type 2 diabetes

a. early insulinitis – early in Type 1

b. it is not affected by pregnancy – insulin requirements up in pregnancy

c. get a decrease in peripheral insulin receptors - yes

d. 50% concordance in twins – think so 50-90% concordance

3. Pituitary adenomas cause

a. Graves’ disease

b. Hypothyroidism – secondary to compression of thyrotrophs, hence no TSH secretion

c. Acromegaly - yes

4. The pathogenesis of Type 1 diabetes includes

a. decreased insulin sensitivity – no, type 2

b. abnormal glucokinase activity – (yes according to wiki), not mentioned in book

c. auto immune insulinitis - yes

d. no antibodies found at diagnosis – no, anti-insulin Abs and anti-islet cell Abs

5. Which is correct for the pituitary gland

a. LH: anterior: basophil – yes, gonadotroph

b. VP: posterior: basophil – posterior, not basophil

c. Prolactin: posterior: acidophil – anterior acidophil

6. Cushings disease is associated with

a. osteoporosis - yes

b. hair loss – hirsutism in 75%

c. general obesity - centripetal

7. Which is more common in people with diabetes mellitus

a. mucomycoses

b. TB

c. Gas gangrene

d. Carbuncles

e. All of the above – must be

8. Diabetes mellitus type 2

a. have a decreased no of receptors - yes

b. is worse in pregnancy – not sure

c. is not familial – is familial

9. Cushings disease

a. Increased neutrophil discharge from bone marrow – don’t think so

b. Generalised obesity - centripetal

c. Hair loss - hirsutism

d. Osteoporosis - yes

10. Regarding glucocorticoids (physiology ques)

a. Neutrophils something bone marrow – lower basophils, increase neutrophils, platelets, RBCs

b. Decrease capillary permeability - ? anti-inflammatory

11. Regarding type II diabetes

a. Is due to decreased insulin receptors - yes

12. Which is true of the pituitary gland

a. anterior—LH—basophils - yes

b. posterior—vasopressin—basophils – not basophils

c. anterior—GH—basophils - acidophils

13. Pituitary adenoma may cause

a. graves disease

b. hypothyroidism - secondary

c. acromegaly - yes

14. Which is true of the pituitary

a. posterior—prolactin—acidophils – anterior acidophil

b. posterior—vasopressin—basophils – posterior, not basophil

c. anterior—LH—basophils - yes

15. Diabetes is associated with

a. carbuncles

b. mucormycosis

c. all of the above - yes

16. Pathogenesis of type 1 diabetes is associated with

a. decreased insulin sensitivity

b. abnormal glucokinase activity

c. no antibodies found at diagnosis

d. auto-immune insulitis – this one

e. twin concordance greater than 70 % - 30-70%

17. Which of the following is characteristic of type 11 diabetes

a. early insulinitis – type 1

b. not affected by pregnancy – is affected by pregnancy

c. decreased peripheral receptor sensitivity – this one

d. less than 50 % concordance in twins – 50-90%

e. 90 % of patients displaying antibodies to insulin receptors within 1 year of diagnosis – 70-80% in TYPE 1 at diagnosis

18. Type 11 diabetes is characterised by

a. onset in early adulthood - no

b. 50 % concordance in twins – 50-90%

c. severe beta cell depletion – no, type 1. mild in type 2

d. islet cell antibodies – type 1

e. normal or increased blood insulin levels - yes

19. In type 1 diabetes

a. associated organ-specific auto-immune disorders are common - yes

b. a genetic susceptibility is not supported by evidence - false

c. Finnish children have a 70 fold increase compared with Korean children - ???

d. Influenza and varicella viruses are suspected as initiators of the disease – CMV and cocksackie

e. Children who ingest cows milk early in life may have a lower incidence - ???

20. Cushing syndrome is associated with

a. osteoporosis - yes

b. general obesity

c. hypotension

Musculoskeletal System

1. Which of the following is a disturbance of bone mineralisation

a. ricketts – this one in kids, osteomalacia in adults

b. osteoporosis – normal mineralisation, reduced bone mass

c. osteopetrosis – increased bone mass, normal mineralisation

d. Paget’s disease – increased osteoclast / osteoblast activity

e. HPOA - clubbing and periosteal thickening

2. Myositis ossificans in skeletal muscle

a. follows resolution of a muscle tear – yes – injury

b. resembles osteosarcoma in the elderly – yes.

c. resembles bone - yes

3. Which of the following is a disturbance of mineralization homeostasis

a. Ricketts – this one

b. Osteoporosis

c. Osteoporosis

d. Pagets disease

e. HPOA

4. Osteomalacia

a. Decreased PTH - hyperparathyroidism causes calcium reabsorption from bone

b. Decreased osteiod matrix deposition – no – decreased mineralisation on matrix

c. Increased Ca absorption from gut – no.

d. (1,25)2DH3-calciferal deficiency – yes.

5. Stress fractures

a. Do not incite a periostial reaction – false

b. Result from repetitive stressors or abnormal axial loading - yes

6. Hypothyroidism is associated with all of the following EXCEPT

a. cretinism – only if hypothyroid during development

b. decreased hair growth - hair loss

c. cold intolerance – certainly associated.

7. Myelofibrosis

a. causes decreased megakaryocytes – increased megakaryocytes, large platelets,

b. stimulates erythropoetin production - no

c. causes leukoerythroblastic anaemia – this one

8. Stress fractures

a. do not incite a paracortical reaction - false

b. result from repetitive stresses or abnormal axial loading - true

9. Myositis ossificans

a. Morphologically resembles osteosarcoma – this one

b. Resembles the repair process following a muscle tear – no.