test one - clatgyan 2013

CLATGyan | Batch of 2015, 2016 and 2017 – NALSAR University of Law

MOCK TEST ONE – CLAT 2013 PATTERN

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SECTION 1: MATH

1. A group of workers can finish building a barn in 45 days. However, 9 of them catch the flu

and are not able to report to work. The work is then completed in 60 days. Assuming that only

the sick workers had undertaken the project, how many days would it have taken them to

complete the work?

A. 180 B. 360 C. 210 D. 150 2. We have two numbers „a‟ and „b‟. „a‟ is equal to the square of „b‟. If „b‟ is increased by 10%,

by what percent does „a‟ increase?

A. 10% B. 20% C. 100% D. 21% 3. The ratio of the marks scored by Avedh and Shravan is 7:9. If the average of their

percentage is 200/3 %, and double the sum of their individual marks is 160, find out the

maximum marks of the test.

A. 120 B. 60 C. 40


D. 50 4. A class of 50 students gave an exam. 14 students scored 34 marks, 16 students scored 38

marks, 11 students scored 42 marks. If the average marks scored by the class are 39.02, find out

the marks scored by the rest of the students. (given that they all scored the same marks)

A. 46 B. 42 C. 43 D. 45 5. A boat covers a distance of 20 kilometres upstream in 15 minutes. It covers the same

distance downstream in 10 minutes. What is the speed of the river?

A. 30 km/hr B. 50 km/hr C. 100 km/hr D. 20 km/hr 6. A vendor buys croissants from the baker at a rate of six croissants for one dollar. One day a

lady who wants to buy croissants worth 14 $ for her daughter‟s birthday party comes to him.

How many should he give her if he wants to make a profit of 40%?

A. 60 B. 58 C. 62 D. 56 7. A shirt is 40% more expensive than a cravat. The cravat is cheaper than the shirt by

A. 40% B. 20%

C. 28.6% D. 35.6% 8. A shopkeeper mixes 16 kg of soyabean flour costing Rs. 30 per kg with 14 kg of wheat flour

costing Rs. 20 per kg and 16 kg of gram flour costing Rs. 26 per kg. He sells the mixture at a

rate of Rs. 28 per kg. What is his profit or loss percent?

A. 9.5% Profit B. 9.5% Loss C. 11.5% Profit D. 11.5% Loss 9. There are ten rupee notes, five rupee coins and two rupee coins in the ratio of 1:3:7. The

total number of notes and coins is 550. The total amount is

A. 1950 B. 1900 C. 1870 D. 1970


10. The length of a rectangle is increased by 20 % and the breadth is decreased by 20%. What

happens to the area?

A. It remains the same B. It decreases by 4% C. It increases by 4% D. It decreases by 5% 11. In how many ways can the different letters of the word „MINIMUM‟ be arranged?

A. 840 B. 420 C. 5040 D. 1020 12. A wheel with a diameter of 168 cm will be able to cover a distance of 1056 km in these

many revolutions

A. 100000 B. 200000 C. 20000 D. 200

13. How many four digit numbers can be formed using the digits 4,6, 0, 9 without repetition ?

A. 24 B. 4 C. 18 D. 16 14. How many different numbers can be formed with the digits 4, 5, 6 ? 600

A. 6 B. 27 C. 39 D. 36

15. A beam is balanced by attaching a weight of 45 gm at a point which 56 cm from the centre

of the beam. What weight should be attached to a point which is 35 cm from the centre of the

beam, on the other side?

A. 65 B. 80 C. 72 D. 46 16. There are twenty flats in a building, named after the first twenty alphabets of the English

language. The postman has a letter for one of the families. What is the probability that they stay

in an apartment named after a vowel?


A. 5/26 B. 1/4 C. 1/5 D. 1/6 17. The difference between compound interest and simple interest for two years at 10% interest

is Rs. 5. What is the compound interest earned?

A. Rs. 500 B. Rs. 95 C. Rs. 105 D. Rs. 100 18. What is the angle of elevation of the top of a pole from a nearby shack if the distance

between the shack and the base of the pole is the same as the height of the pole?

A. 60 o B. 30 o C. 45 o D. 90 o 19. The mean of six numbers is 20. If one of the numbers is excluded, the average is 8. Find out

the excluded number.

A. 12 B. 22 C. 80 D. 120 20. A tank has four taps. Tap A, tap B and tap C can fill the tank in 15 hours. Tap B, tap C and

tap D can fill it in 20 hours. Tap A and tap C can fill it in 12 hours. In how much time can all

the taps fill the tank?

A. 5 hours B. 10 hours C. 2 hours D. 12 hours


SECTION 2: LEGAL REASONING Questions 21-24 follow from the passage given below. Choose the option that is most in

accordance with the given principles.

Principles:

(i) Bigamy is not permitted under Hindu law.

(ii) A Hindu of sound mind can adopt a child of the gender they don‟t already have a child of.

(iii) Only the child‟s father, mother or guardian has the capacity to give the child up in

adoption, under Hindu law.

Facts: Rangvi comes from a family where from the past 2 generations, all male members have

had 2 wives. He also wants to continue this tradition and thus he married Savitri first and then

Tapasya. Rangvi has a son, Gokul, with Savitri. However, with Tapasya, he is childless. He thus

wishes to adopt some children. Ram is the child of Rangvi‟s brother. However, Ram‟s parents

decide to go off to Dubai for 5 years and they leave their son under the care of Rangvi‟s sister.

Rangvi and Tapasya ask for Ram in adoption from his sister who agrees and Ram is adopted.

Later, Rangvi and Savitri want to adopt a daughter as well and they do adopt a girl – Saraswati

– from an orphanage. However, at the time of signing the adoption deed, Rangvi was dead

drunk.

Rangvi and all of his family member are Buddhists.

Keeping in mind the given principles and facts, solve the following questions.

21. Is Ram‟s adoption a valid adoption? A. No, because Rangvi already has a son. B. No, because Rangvi‟s sister has no authority to give Ram up in adoption. C. Yes, it is a valid adoption because Rangvi has no child with Tapasya and Rangvi‟s sister is Ram‟s guardian for 5 years at least. D. Both (a) and (b) 22. Is Saraswati‟s adoption a valid adoption?

A. No, it is not a valid adoption as a Hindu can‟t adopt more than one child. B. Yes, it is a valid adoption. C. No, it isn‟t a valid adoption because Rangvi was drunk while signing the deed. D. Both (a) and (c)

23. Is Rangvi‟s marriage legal and valid?

A. Yes, Rangvi‟s marriage with Savitri only is valid. B. Ranvgi‟s marriage with Tapasya only is valid C. Both his marriages are valid since Hindu law does not apply to him or his family. D. None of the above.

Principles:


(i) Consent - Two or more persons are said to consent when they agree upon the same thing in

the same sense

(ii)Coercion – Coercion is the committing, or threatening to commit, any act forbidden by

the Indian Penal Code, or the unlawful detaining, or threatening to detain, any property, to the

prejudice of any person whatever, with the intention of causing any person to enter into an

agreement.

(iii) A contract is said to be induced by " undue influence where the relations subsisting

between the parties are such that one of the parties is in a position to dominate the will of

the other and uses that position to obtain an unfair advantage over the other.

(iv)When consent to a contract is caused by Coercion, then the contract is voidable at the

option of the party whose consent was so caused.

24. Use principles (i), (ii) and (iv)

Facts: Rahul goes to a mine to purchase some tones of the high grade coal being mined there.

He meets the mine-owner Karan and they start negotiating on the prices. They are unable to

reach a meeting point and a major altercation ensues between them. At this, Rahul takes out

his gun and at gun point makes Karan sell him the coal at his own price.

Later Rahul realizes that the coal sent by Karan is very low grade coal which is next to useless.

He sues him and asks for compensation for loss suffered.

A. Karan is liable since he sold coal of a quality other than the one he represented he wanted to sell.

B. Karan is not liable because the coal was taken from him at gunpoint. C. If Karan decides to hold the contract void, he may escape liability. Else, he‟ll be liable. D. Both Karan and Rahul are simultaneously liable to each other.

25. Use principles (i), (ii) and (iv)

Facts: Aman was in the shipping business and Biju, Cathy and Dutt were his arch rivals.

Together, the three bought almost 80% stake in Aman‟s company. Then they told him that if he

didn‟t sell his company‟s important assets to them, they would liquidate the company and thus

finish it. Under this stress, Aman was had no choice but to sell his company‟s assets. After

selling 50% of the assets however, he refused to sell anymore. Biju, Cathy and Dutt sue him for

breach.

A. They won‟t succeed because the contract being caused by coercion, is voidable. B. Aman can escape liability only is he decides to hold the contract void. C. Aman has no option but to sell the remaining assets since his rivals have acquired 80% stake

in his company. D. Aman is liable for breach of contract and should compensate his rivals.


26. Use principles (ii) and (iii)

Facts: Raj was an old Hindu man of 65 when his son and daughter-in-law told him that until

and unless he transfer all his property in their name, they won‟t feed him or give him shelter or

maintain him in any other manner.

A. This is a case of coercion since every Hindu is obligated to maintain his parents in old age. B. This is a case of undue influence exercised by the children over the old father. C. This is a case of either coercion or undue influence since the adult son can decide whether he

wants to maintain his father or not. D. None of the above.

Based on Principle 1, 2 and 3 , answer questions 27, 28 and 29.

Principle 1: A statement is defamatory in nature if it is injurious to a person‟s reputation and if

the statement has been published.

Principle 2: The person must have published the defamatory statement himself, or

intentionally made the circumstances such that such publication was inevitable.

Principle 3: The exception to the tort of defamation could be the defence of genuine belief of

the person‟s guilt.

Facts: Lakshmi accuses Malika of stealing her watch because she believes that Malika had

certain malicious reasons to do so. She pens down her allegations and leaves it on the table. She

subsequently forgets about the piece of paper. After a couple of days, Nastassia, Malika‟s arch

enemy chances upon the paper. Finding it to be the perfect opportunity to spite Malika, she

publishes the paper in their monthly building review paper.

27. Applying Principle 1 to the facts of the question-

A. Lakshmi is not liable for defamation since she genuinely did not intend to get the paper published.

B. Lakshmi is not liable for the defamatory statement since she honestly believed it to be the truth.

C. Lakshmi is liable for the defamatory statement since the sentence is published and has damaged Malika‟s reputation in her building.

D. Lakshmi is liable for defamation since she forgot about the piece of paper and negligently left it lying around.

28. Applying Principles 1 and 2. A. Lakshmi is not liable for defamation since she did not doubt the veracity of her claim. B. Lakshmi is liable for the defamatory statement since she made the defamatory statement

that ruined Malika‟s reputation in the building. C. Lakshmi is not liable for the defamatory statement since her act of leaving the paper lying

around was negligent and was not intentional to have it published. D. Lakshmi is liable for defamation since her statement ultimately got published.

29. Applying Principles 1 and 3.


A. Lakshmi is not liable for defamation since she did not doubt the veracity of her claim. B. Lakshmi is liable for the defamatory statement since she made the defamatory statement

that ruined Malika‟s reputation in the building. C. Lakshmi is not liable for the defamatory statement since her act of leaving the paper lying

around was negligent and was not intentional to have it published. D. Lakshmi is liable for defamation since her statement ultimately got published.

Based on Principle 1, 2 and 3 answer questions 30, 31 and 32.

Principle 1: When an act is done by several people in furtherance of a common goal, each one

of them is equally liable for the act done by any one of them/ all of them.

Principle 2: If a member does an act that was not pre-decided to attain the common goal, all

the members would be held guilty of the act.

Principle 3: If an act is done by any one member of the conspiracy is not pursuant to the

common goal, then he alone will be liable for the act so done.

Facts: Aatmin, Aaryaman and Ayush conspire to lock Asad and beat him up because he had

earlier fired them unjustly from working on any of the CLATGyan projects. They make an

elaborate plan complete from abducting Asad from his CLATGyan Office to taking him to a

deserted shack nearby, beating him up and then making an escape. On the concerned day,

Aatmin drives and abducts Asad. He then gets him to the deserted shack where he stands guard

as pre-decided while Aaryaman and Ayush beat him up. They finally run away together.

However, just as Aatmin and Aaryaman are rushing away, Ayush pulls out the pistol in his

pocket and shoots Asad.

The three of them then realise that their car is not working and hence Aatmin suggests stealing

the nearby car. He gets the car and the three drive away in it.

30. Applying Principle 1 to the facts of the question

A. Aatmin, Aaryaman and Ayush are liable for beating up Asad since they jointly conspired to do the said act, and Aatmin standing guard was pursuant to such an agreement.

B. Aatmin, Aaryaman and Ayush are liable for the damage caused by their respective acts and will not be jointly held liable for their individual acts since some clearly had more of a criminal intent than the others.

C. Aatmin is not liable for beating up Asad since he did not actively participate in the criminal act and was merely chauffeuring the other two around. Ayush and Aaryaman are obviously guilty of the principle act of beating up Asad.

D. None of the above.

31. Applying Principles 1 and 3 to the facts of the question.

A. Aatmin, Aaryaman and Ayush are liable for beating up Asad and shooting him since they jointly conspired to do the said act.


B. Aatmin, Aaryaman and Ayush will be jointly responsible for the act of beating up Asad, but only Ayush will be responsible for shooting Asad since it was not an act pursuant to the common goal.

C. Aatmin, Ayush and Aaryaman will be responsible for their individual acts since the degree of criminality of their acts are different.

D. Aatmin was merely driving them around and hence he would not be responsible for anything that happened inside the shack.

32. Applying Principles 1 and 2 to the facts of the question.

A. Ayush Aatmin and Aaryaman would be responsible for all the acts conducted since they were members of the conspiracy.

B. Ayush will be individually responsible for shooting Asad, Aatmin would be individually responsible for stealing a car and jointly the three would be responsible for other acts of abducting Asad and beating him up.

C. Ayush will be individually responsible for the shooting while the three would be responsible for abducting Asad, beating him up and driving away in a stolen vehicle.

D. All three would be individually liable for the degree of criminality of their acts.

Based on Principle 1, 2 and 3 answer questions 33, 34 and 35 Priniciple 1: Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who, at the time of doing it, is,

by reason of intoxication, incapable of knowing the nature of the act, or that he is doing what is

either wrong, or contrary to law: provided that the thing which intoxicated him was

administered to him without his knowledge or against his will.

Principle 2: Voluntary drunkenness is no excuse for commission of a crime

Prinicple 3: Self defence is not an excuse to private defence.

Facts: Akshay and Srijan go to a dhaba for lunch. Srijan orders for a couple of drinks for

himself. He makes two drinks for himself and excuses himself to attend to a call. While away,

Akshay doubles the alcohol content in both his drinks. Srijan does not realise the difference and

continues drinking. This happens a couple of times and Srijan is in an extremely intoxicated

state. In this state, he picks a knife and attempts to stab a fellow customer, Naveen. Naveen in

order to protect himself brandishes his own knife. In the ensuing fight Naveen hurts Srijan.

This makes Srijan put his knife away, but Naveen, suspecting some additional threat, inflicts

another wound on Srijan‟s wrist.

33. Based on Principle 1, decide :

A. Srijan is not liable for attempting to stab Naveen since he was too intoxicated to realise the consequences of his act.

B. Srijan is not liable for attempting to stab Naveen since he was intoxicated beyond his capacity without his knowledge or consent.

C. Srijan would be liable for attempting to stab Naveen since he was willingly consuming the liquor.

D. Srijan would not be liable since he did not accomplish what he set out to do.


34. Based on Principle 1 and 2,

A. Srijan is not liable for attempting to stab Naveen since he was too intoxicated to realise the consequences of his act.

B. Srijan is not liable for attempting to stab Naveen since he was intoxicated beyond his capacity without his knowledge or consent.

C. Srijan would be liable for attempting to stab Naveen since he was willingly consuming the liquor.

D. Srijan would not be liable since he did not accomplish what he set out to do.

35. Applying the three principles,

A. Srijan was intoxicated and hence did not know the consequences of his act. Naveen would be liable for inflicting the wrist injury.

B. Srijan cannot claim for compensation since Naveen was merely protecting himself from the inflicted injury.

C. Srijan can claim compensation for the second injury, but not for the first since it was an act of private defence.

D. Naveen merely took precautions to ensure that he would not be attacked again, and hence he is not liable for either of the wounds.

Principles for Questions 36-38.

Principle (i): Physical or mental cruelty is a ground for divorce.

Principle (ii): When someone has, without reasonable excuse, stopped staying with his or her

spouse, the court can direct the party at fault to start staying with his or her wife.

36. Apply Principle (i):

Facts: Gaja and Riti were married for five years, when he started having an affair with Jaya.

He would regularly meet Jaya and lie about it to his wife. His wife, however, found out about it,

and was very hurt. In addition to this, he would taunt his wife that she did not ever please him

and that she was a lousy wife. Riti, unable to bear it, left her husband, and went to live in her

friend, Karthik‟s house. Can Riti seek divorce?

A. Yes, as this was a ground for mental cruelty. B. No, as this was not a ground of cruelty, but adultery. C. Yes, as this was a ground for physical and mental cruelty. D. No, she can only live separately from her husband till things between them are resolved.

37. Apply Principle (ii):

Facts: Gaja and Riti were married for five years, when he started to become good friends with

Jaya. He would occasionally meet Jaya for lunch and dinner. His wife, being extremely jealous,

found out about it, and was very hurt. Riti, unable to bear it, left her husband, and went to live

in her friend, Karthik‟s house. Can the court direct her to live with her husband?

A. Yes, as Riti did not have a reasonable excuse. B. No, as Riti did have a reasonable excuse. C. Yes, as Gaja should have clarified things with Riti. D. None of the above.


38. Apply Principle (i) and (ii):

Facts: Gaja and Riti were married for five years, when he started to become good friends with

Jaya. Once in a while, he would call Jaya over to his house for lunch and dinner, and play loud

jazz music which they both enjoyed. Riti, being extremely jealous, did not like this. Unable to

bear it, left her husband, and went to live in her friend, Karthik‟s house. She is now demanding

divorce. Will she succeed?

A. Yes, as Riti was subjected to mental cruelty. B. No, as Riti was not subjected to mental cruelty. C. Yes, as Riti has a reasonable excuse for the same. D. No, as Riti does not have a reasonable excuse for the same.


Principle (i): Trespass means entering upon the immoveable property of another.

Principle (ii): Only sufficient force to remove a person from a property may be used.


Facts: Pia was going home from her workplace, when she found a shortcut through the corner

of Jia‟s farm. She walked through the land, and reached her destination. Jia, seeing her in

action, shot her with a dart gun. Is Pia liable?

A. Yes, as she entered into Jia‟s land. B. No, as she had no intention to cause any injury to Jia. C. No, as Jia punished her sufficiently for it. D. No, as she went only through the corner of Jia‟s farm.



of Jia‟s farm. She walked through the land, and walked towards her destination. Meanwhile she

also tried to wheel away a wheelbarrow, with some precious metals which had been dug out

from a hole in the farm. Jia, seeing her in action, shot her with a pistol on her ankle. Is Jia

liable?

A. Yes, as the force was sufficiently larger than the act. B. No, as the force was not sufficient for the act. C. Yes, as she should have informed the police instead. D. None of the above.

41. Apply Principle (i) and (ii):


of Jia‟s farm. Being a narrow path, she would have to get into Jia‟s convertible car, get out of

the back window, jump into Jia‟s neighbour‟s farm, and then proceed. She did so and was


walking to her destination. Jia, seeing her in action, shot her with a dart gun. Are either of them

liable?

A. Pia is liable, Jia is not. B. Pia is not liable, Jia is. C. Both Pia and Jia are liable. D. Neither Pia nor Jia is liable.


Principle (i): Abetment is done when one person instigates another to do something, or

conspires to do any illegal act and intentionally aids any person to commit the same act.

Principle (ii): When two or more persons agree to do, or cause to be done an illegal act, or an

act which is not illegal by illegal means, such an agreement is designated as criminal conspiracy.


Facts: U, V, W, X, and Y are friends who have anarchist views. Their aim is to bomb the

Parliament, and all it stands for. They conduct secret meetings to facilitate their plan, chalk out

a design and assign roles for themselves. U and V will ensure absence of security in the

Parliament on the date of the bombing, W and X will procure the bombs and Y will get them

fake ID cards to enter the premises. Is U liable for abetment?

A. Yes. B. No. C. Maybe. D. None of the above.




a design and assign roles for themselves. U and V will ensure absence of security in the

Parliament on the date of the bombing, W and X will procure the bombs and Y will get them

fake ID cards to enter the premises. However, on that date, the police were alerted and the plan

of U, V, W, X and Y was foiled. Are the five of them liable for criminal conspiracy?

A. No, as the final plan was not executed. B. Yes, as despite the fact that the final plan was not executed. C. They will be liable for all acts leading upto the final act, but none before. D. They will be held individually liable for their acts.

44. Apply Principles (i) and (ii):



a design and assign roles for themselves. U and V will ensure absence of security inside the

Parliament building on the date of the bombing, W and X will procure the bombs and Y will get


them fake ID cards to enter the premises. On that day, Y takes the fake ID cards to the guards

that the Parliament gate and shows it to them. Is Y liable for abetment, criminal conspiracy or

both?

A. Y is liable for criminal conspiracy alone. B. Y is liable for abetment alone. C. Y is liable for criminal conspiracy as well as abetment. D. None of the above.

Principles for questions 45-47:

Principle (i): For defamation, there must be publication of defamatory material. Such

publication constitutes the tort of defamation.

Principle (ii): Truth is a defence to the tort of defamation.

Principle (iii): If injury is caused to a person‟s reputation without any lawful justification, then

the tort of defamation has been committed.

Facts: Ritu and Nitu have been good friends for fifteen years. However, when they both decide to

get married on the same day they start to develop problems as they have both wanted exactly the

same marriage since the time they became friends. In order to sabotage Nitu‟s wedding Ritu sends

a letter to Nitu‟s employers telling them about her pathetic work ethic. This leads to Nitu being

fired, and in retaliation she sends out invites for her wedding with a message about Ritu being an

extremely mean person.

45. Apply principles (i) and (iii) and decide which case defamation has been committed.

A. Defamation has been committed only in the first instance. B. Defamation has only been committed in the second instance. C. Defamation has been committed in both the instances. D. Defamation has not been committed in either of the instances.

46. Apply principles (i) and (ii) and decide whether Nitu can succeed in a claim for damages

caused due to the defamation committed by Ritu against her.

A. Nitu can succeed in a claim for damages against the defamation caused by Ritu. B. Nitu can succeed in a claim for damages against the defamation caused by Ritu as it resulted

in an injury to her reputation which resulted in her being fired from her job. C. Nitu cannot succeed as Ritu merely stated the truth, and truth is a defence to defamation. D. None of the above.

47. Apply principles (i),(ii) and (iii) and decide whether defamation has occurred against Nitu.


A. Defamation has been committed against Nitu as there was publication of defamatory material.

B. Defamation has been committed against Nitu as Ritu‟s letter caused an injury to her reputation.

C. Defamation has been committed against Nitu as Ritu was not telling the truth, and truth is the only defence to defamation.

D. All of the above.

Principles for questions 48-50:

Principle (i): When a woman dies in suspicion circumstances within seven years of her marriage and is treated with cruelty before her death it is presumed to be dowry death. Principle (ii): To prosecute a person under criminal law, intention and motive are required to be proved before the court. Principle (iii): Whoever cause death with the intention of causing death, or knowingly causing bodily injury which is sufficient to cause death in ordinary circumstances or knowingly commits an act which he knows is likely to cause death is guilty of the offence of culpable homicide. Facts: Rekha gets married into a loving family, and one which does not believe in dowry and therefore requests her family to not indulge in such practices. After two years of marriage, Rekha‟s sister-in-law pours petrol on her while she sleeps and sets her on fire. Rekha dies as a result of the burns and her family files a complaint of dowry death.

48. Apply principles (i) and (ii) to the above mentioned facts and decide whether this is a case

of dowry death or not.

A. This is not a case of dowry death as there was no cruelty before her death, and in fact the family had refused dowry from her family.

B. This is not a case of dowry death as no intention or motive on the part of the husband‟s family can be proved.

C. This is a case of dowry death as the presumption is that the sister-in-law set her on fire as a result of anger at the absence of any dowry from her family at the time of her marriage.

D. Both (a) and (b).

49. Apply principle (iii) to the above mentioned facts and decide the culpability of Rekha‟s

sister-in-law.

A. She is not guilty of the offence of culpable homicide as she was merely carrying out the wishes of the family.

B. She is not guilty of the offence of culpable homicide as she was not aware of the consequences of her acts.

C. She is guilty of the offence of culpable homicide. D. The entire family is guilty of the offence of culpable homicide.

50. Apply principles (i), (ii) and (iii) to the above mentioned facts and decide who is liable for

the death of Rekha.

A. The entire family is liable for Rekha‟s death as she died under suspicious circumstances within seven years of her marriage, and therefore the natural assumption is that of a dowry death.


B. Only the sister-in-law is liable as she committed the offence of culpable homicide. C. Neither the sister-in-law, nor the family can be held liable as adequate intention or motive

cannot be proved against either of them D. The family and the sister-in-law are both liable for her death as it is assumed that the sister-

in-law set Rekha on fire while acting on behalf of the entire family.

51. Principle I: Whoever, intending to take dishonestly any moveable property out of the

possession of any person without that person‟s consent, moves that property in order to such

taking, is said to commit theft.

Principle II: Whoever enters into or upon property in the possession of another with intent to

commit an offence or to intimidate, insult or annoy any person in possession of such property, is

said to commit criminal trespass.

Facts: Roshan works as a servant for Abhimanyu – a timber tycoon. On Abhimanyu‟s, land

Roshan discovers, are growing trees with a very special and rare fruit. He decides he can sell

them off in the black market and make a lot of money. One week, while his master is away on a

holiday, Roshan decides to cut down many of these special trees and then goes and sells them

off.

A. Roshan is liable for both, criminal trespass and theft.

B. Roshan is liable only for theft since he anyways worked with Abhimanyu and spent most of

his day at Abhimanyu‟s house.

C. Roshan is liable only for criminal trespass since theft involves moveable property which

trees are not.

D. Roshan is liable for civil trespass only.

52. Principle: A contract with a minor is a void contract.

Facts: Varun is extremely fond of watching TV and constantly asks his father to supply him

with one in his room, but his father doesn‟t agree. Varun goes to a shop selling TVs and asks the

owner – Praveen – to sell him one. Praveen asks for his age and Varun manages to convince

him that he is in fact 21 years of age. He then buys the TV from Praveen on credit and proudly

takes it home. A wekk later, when Praveen realizes that Varun has no capacity to pay him for

the TV, he sues Praveen and his father for the loss he suffered.

A. Varun is liable in this case because he made Praveen have an honest belief that he is a

major.

B. Varun is a minor and thus any contract with him is void; Varun isn‟t liable to pay.


C. Varun can‟t be made liable to pay, but his father would be liable since he is the next closest

major,

D. Both Varun and his father are liable.

53. Principle: A contract with a minor is a void contract.

Facts: Guggi is an orphaned boy who is brought up by his uncle and aunt. Owing to some

dispute, his property is under question and with the Court of Wards. When he turns 20, he

decides to treat himself with a new car. He goes to a showroom and decides to buy the car on

credit basis. The showroom owner asks for his age and identity proof which Guggi readily

furnishes. Later, Guggi is unable to pay for the car. The showroom owner takes back his car and

also sues Guggi for compensation a court of law.

A. Guggi is no longer liable to pay the compensation since the showroom owner has already

taken back the car.

B. Guggi is not yet a major and hence the contract with him was void. Thus, the showroom

owner can‟t make Guggi liable to pay.

C. Guggi is liable to compensate the showroom owner for the loss caused to him.

D. Guggi is liable to compensate and if he is unable to, then his guardians are.

54. Principle: Whoever causes death by doing an act with the intention of causing death, or

with the intention of causing such bodily injury as is likely to cause death, or with the knowledge

that he is likely by such act to cause death, commits the offence of culpable homicide.

Facts: Abhinav is an ace shooter and he loves shooting. He doesn‟t his miss his shooting

practice for even a day. One day, his parents organize a pool party at their house, where

Abhinav‟s shooting range is also located. Despite his parents begging him not to, Abhinav

refuses to skip his practice even on the day of the party. As he is practicing shooting, suddenly,

a small child runs right into his range, from the nearby pool. She gets shot and as a result, dies.

A. Abhinav is not liable for culpable homicide since he never intended to „cause anyone‟s

death.

B. Abhinav cannot be made liable, he was simply practicing his sport on his own property and

the small child was at fault for running into out of bound areas. „

C. Abhinav should‟ve listened to his parents and thus he is liable for his wrongs.

D. Abhinav is liable for culpable homicide.


55. Principle: Nuisance is the interference with the enjoyment of one‟s property.

Facts: Ravi is a sitar player who often practices at home, though his room is largely sound

proofed. His neighbor, Shankar, is an old fellow with an extremely sensitive hearing condition

– even the slightest of sounds affect his inner ear and destroy the balance. Once, as Ravi was

practicing at home, Shankar heard the sounds of the sitar. He lost his balance and fell down,

thereby injuring his knee badly. He sued Ravi for damages.

A. Ravi is liable for the injury since he is the direct cause of the injury.

B. Though Ravi can be made liable for nuisance, he can‟t be held liable for the knee injury

caused.

C. Ravi is not liable at all.

D. Ravi is not liable for nuisance, but is liable for the knee injury.

56. Principle: A partner is liable for the acts done by the other partners, or debts incurred by

other partners of a partnership firm in the course of business.

Facts: Megha, Haya and Bhavna decide to get into a partnership business to jointly sell

curtains and bedsheets to the students of NALSAR. They start reaping profits that is jointly

divided between the three of them. However, after some transactions they jointly decide to

dissolve their business. They however do not make this decision public. One day, Megha

approaches Noel for a loan of Rs 10,000 under the guise of needing it for the business. She

misappropriates the money for her personal use.

Noel sues Megha, Haya and Bhavna. Decide

A. All three of them are jointly liable since they never made public their decision to dissolve the

firm and thereby made it impossible for Noel to know that the loan was to con him.

B. All three of them are jointly liable since Noel gave Megha the loan in good faith for the

partnership firm since she approached him under the guise of appearing on behalf of the

partnership firm.

C. Only Megha would be liable since the loan taken was not in the course of business.

D. Haya should have advised the other two about the repercussions of not informing everyone

of their decision to dissolve the firm and hence would be liable along with Megha.

57. Principle : Nobody shall unlawfully interfere with a person‟s use or enjoyment of land, or

some right over, or in connection with it.


Facts: Varun buys a refrigerator for his hostel room. This however consumes a lot of energy

that directly affects the energy supply in his neighbour, Paaras‟s room. Paaras sues Varun.

Decide.

A. Varun is well within his rights to keep a refrigerator in his room, and would not be liable.

B. Paaras has been disturbed by Varun‟s act and can hence seek compensation.

C. Paaras must be more accommodating to his neighbour‟s.

D. None of the above.

58. Principle: Whoever stores a substance which could cause damage on escape shall be

absolutely liable for any damage caused by the escape of the substance from its premises.

Facts: Sahana and Ishan decide to buy a mini- chemical object for their scientific experiments.

The object has great potentiality for damage, if broken, and hence Sahana and Ishan take

complete precautions against its damage. However one day the object breaks due to an

earthquake. Their neighbour Rashmi rushes into their premises to check what caused the loud

sound that accompanied the breakage of the object. Sahana and Ishan ensure that the damage

is contained within the premises of the room. However, their neighbour, Rashmi, sues them for

the damage caused to her due to contact with the toxic object.

A. Rashmi was responsible for entering their premises and cannot sue Sahana or Ishan for her

stupidity.

B. The object did not escape the premises and hence Sahana and Ishan would not be liable.

C. The act of keeping a dangerous object would in itself make Sahana and Ishan absolutely

liable.

D. The dangerous object broke and caused injury to Rashmi and this would make the two of

them absolutely liable.

59. Principle: Whoever, not belonging to a certain class of public servants, wear any garb or

carries any token resembling any garb or token used by that class of public servants, with

the intention that it may be believed, or with the knowledge that it is likely to be believed,

that he belongs to that class of public servants, shall be punished for the act.

Facts: Manasa is a British National who, upon arriving in India is given the attire of a public

servant as a prank by her friend, Shikha. She, unaware of the prank or of the fact that it is

actually a uniform, wears the uniform and roams around the streets of Delhi. She gains access

to several places since the officials in charge believe her to be holding the post of a public

servant. Upon discovery, later in the day, Manasa is arrested for the criminal act. Decide.


A. Manasa wore the garb and gained entry into several places by virtue of it, hence she should be

punished.

B. Manasa was unaware that she was dressed in the attire of a public official and hence did not

have the requisite mental intention to dupe.

C. Manasa cannot claim the ignorance of law as an excuse, and should have been aware of this

existing law.

D. Manasa should be given a token punishment for her wrongful act.

60. Principle: Every agreement in restraint of the marriage of any person is void.

Facts: Revati and Revila are co-widows. They get into an agreement by which, they agree that

in case one of them gets remarried, they would forfeit the right to claim maintenance from the

property of the deceased husband. Revati remarries. She, however, states that she is entitled to

maintenance since the agreement is void on account of it restricting her right to marry. Decide.

A. The agreement does not restrict marriage, and merely cuts the person who remarries out of

maintenance. Hence the agreement is valid.

B. The agreement is made with an intention to restrict marriage since monetary benefits are cut

short.

C. Revati is now entitled to maintenance out of the property of the new husband and cannot

claim the property of her old husband as per the Hindu Marriage Act,1956.

D. The agreement cannot be valid in the eyes of law since remarriage should be encouraged.

61. Principle: When one party to the contract is in such a relation with the other party as to

be able to dominate his/her will, and uses this superior position to obtain the other party‟s

consent to a contract, he/she is said to have exercised undue influence.

Facts: Arjun wants to take admission into an engineering college, and he manages to secure

the required rank in the entrance exam. During his interview with the principal of the college,

the principal tells him that his admission process would only be completed once he agrees to

coach her son for the same entrance exam for the following year. Having no other option, Arjun

agrees to coach her son for a year. After six months of coaching her son, Arjun tells her that he

cannot coach further as his assignments required too much work and he didn‟t have enough

time to complete them as well as to coach her son. She sued him for breach of contract; will she

succeed?

A. No, she will not succeed as the contract is invalid.


B. Yes, she will succeed as Arjun breached the conditions of a valid contract signed by him.

C. No, she will not succeed as Arjun‟s college assignments are more important than the coaching

for her son.

D. Yes. She will succeed as Arjun should have realised that he would have to mage time properly

when he initially agreed to this arrangement.

62. Principle: There can be no injury unless there is an actual violation of a legal right. If

injury results to a party without there being any violation, the same shall be no ground for

action.

Facts: Nikita was an extremely studious student of NALSAR University of Law, and used to

secure the first rank in all the exams. Malika was a friend of Nikita‟s and this was a known fact

throughout their batch. Before the end semester exams, Malika sold class notes to her batch

mates and wrote “Nikita‟s Notes” on the top of these photocopies. When Nikita confronted her

about the usage of her name, Malika argued saying that there were three other persons with the

name Nikita, and therefore the photocopied notes were not a violation of Nikita‟s legal rights, is

she correct?

A. Malika is not right as the natural assumption on the part of most people who bought the

notes was that they were in fact notes taken down by Nikita.

B. Malika is right since there has been no violation of Nikita‟s legal rights in this particular case.

C. Malika is incorrect as using another person‟s name is violating their legal right.

D. Neither Malika nor Nikita are correct since there is no question of a legal right being violated

in this situation.

63. Principle: To establish assault, intentional causing reasonable apprehension of immediate

harmful or offensive contact is essential.

Facts: Pooja and Aparna were returning from the market in Bangalore when Ashok

approached them and asked if they‟d like to go watch a movie with him. Upon their refusal he

got angry and picked up a banana and threatened to hit them with it. They filed a complaint of

assault against him, will they succeed?

A. They will not succeed as it was their fault that they refused to watch a movie with him.

B. They will succeed as Ashok threatened them with a banana, and that was dangerous enough

to cause reasonable apprehension in the minds of reasonable persons.


C. They will succeed as Ashok was very scary looking and anything in his hands was enough to

cause reasonable apprehension in the minds of reasonable persons.

D. They will not succeed as a person threatening to hit them with a banana is not enough to

cause reasonable apprehension in the minds of ordinarily prudent members of the society.

64. Principle: Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who at the time of doing it by

reason of unsoundness of mind is incapable of knowing the nature of the act, or that he is doing

what is either wrong or contrary to law.

Facts: Ramu suffers from a severe form of schizophrenia. He is walking home alone from his

friend‟s house one summer night when he suddenly starts hurling abuses at people on the

streets and takes out a knife from his pocket and runs around stabbing everyone on the street

with it. Is he liable?

A. Ramu is liable for his actions as it is not proved that at the time of the commission of the act

he was suffering from any attack of medical insanity.

B. Ramu is liable for his actions as he needs to be aware of the consequences of all his actions.

C. Ramu is not liable as he suffers from a severe mental disorder, and his actions are not of a

sane person.

D. Ramu is not liable for his actions as he was not lucid at the time of the commission of the

offence.

65. Principle: A person who actively conceals a fact having knowledge of the fact, with the

intention to deceive or to induce a person to enter into a contract, is said to have committed

fraud.

Facts: Aditya and Lakshmi decide to get married after dating for four years. Two months after

the wedding Lakshmi discovers that Aditya is impotent and that he was aware of the same at

the time of their marriage. Lakshmi sues Aditya for fraud, will she succeed?

A. Lakshmi will succeed as impotency is a material fact when entering into a contract of

marriage.

B. Lakshmi will not succeed as impotency is not a material fact when entering into a contract of

marriage.

C. Lakshmi will not succeed as the onus to discover such material facts lie on her.

D. Lakshmi will succeed as Aditya was careless with regard to the revealing of this particular

fact.


66. Principle: Whosoever does something that causes a reasonable apprehension of bodily

harm in the mind of the plaintiff is said to commit the tort of Conversion.

Facts: PMS John was a teacher in SS School. While returning test answer scripts to Curly he

made a snide comment towards Curly‟s mental capacity. This enraged Curly, who charged at

PMS John with both arms waving wildly, only to crash into the wall as PMS John moved out of

the way. Curly is a rather large boy. He is

A. Liable for assault, as he caused reasonable apprehension of bodily harm in PMS John‟s

mind by his action of charging in a rage.

B. Liable for conversion, as a big guy charging full speed at you in a rage is quite scary and

causes a reasonable apprehension of bodily harm.

C. Not liable for anything, as he was instigated by PMS John‟s snide comments.

D. Not Liable, as no harm was done eventually.

67. Principle: If a person brings a potentially dangerous thing on his land, and if such a thing

escapes and does damage, then such person should be responsible, even if (s)he was not

negligent.

Facts: Manav Taliya was a student of a law school in metropolis. As part of a law school rivalry

their college had with another law school outside the city, he brought a puppy to the hostel

(against the rules of the hostel) and named it after the other law school. Soon the pup turned

into a dog(a big one), and as the novelty had worn off, Taliya stopped taking regular care of it

(He was busy with his new pet-an octopus). One day, this hungry dog tried to nick food from a

first year, Chammach Platewallah, and in the process bit him. Platewallah lost his plate and died

of rabies( the dog was not inoculated). Taliya is

A. Liable, for he has been negligent by not feeding the dog properly and instead spending all

his time with the pet octopus.

B. Not liable, he brought a pup to the hostel, and pups are not dangerous

C. Not liable, it is all part of law school life and what happened was an unfortunate accident

D. Liable, for in bringing the dog, even if it was a pup, he brought to the hostel a dangerous

thing, and as such must be liable for its actions.

68. Principle: Self defence is a valid defence only if there was a reasonable apprehension of

harm to oneself and the act of self defence was proportional to it.

Facts: Hambar was an arrogant guy who took great pleasure in taking people‟s trip and went

out of his way to have a laugh at others‟ expense. One day he cracked a joke on Vishu‟s school to

which Vishu pushed him, Hambar slapped Vishu and then Vishu‟s friends, who were nearby,

came and bashed up hambar to pulp. They are


A. Liable, as the bashing someone up is disproportionate to a slap.

B. Not liable, the court must take into account the anguish and pain felt by Vishu and his

friends when their school was insulted, and anyway it was Humbar who slapped first.

C. Not liable, as this is not self defence considering Humbar‟s slap was disproportionate to

Vishu‟s push, which implies that it is Humber against whom compensation should be

sought and not Vishu or his friends.

D. Liable, as they had no reasonable apprehension of bodily harm to themselves.

69. Principle: Causing unreasonable interruption in your neighbour‟s routine leads to the tort

of Irritation

Facts: Babu Bajrangi, a devout yogi, used to listen to baba Jamdev and do power yoga every

morning at 5. After attending a special seminar on Xtra power yoga, he started playing the

seminar CD at full volume and doing Xtra power yoga at 4 in the morning. This

irritated Matthew, who lived four blocks away. Bajrangi is

A. Liable, Xtra power yoga at 4 AM on loudspeaker is an unreasonable interruption.

B. Not liable, Yoga is good for health, and justice, equity and good conscience says we can‟t

punish him.

C. Liable, Baba Jamdev is a fraud. Justice, equity and good conscience says we should stop

Bajrangi.

D. Not liable, Matthew does not fullfill the criteria mentioned for tort of irritation.

70. Principle 1: .Class action suits can be brought only by the government when it thinks that

the aggrieved are disadvantaged and cannot litigate on their own.

Principle 2: Principle of absolute liability states that there is no defence to such a tort claim.

Facts: Pollute inc. was a bakery which used a novel nuclear oven (certified safe) to cook

thousands of pizzas a day. It opened its first oulet in India in the posh area of

arnamalkabmanam. Due to mysterious circumstances, there was a radiation leak which through

due diligence was corrected in time. However, the surrounding 1 sq Km of area populated by the

who‟s who of Indian businessmen was affected. In response to public outcry, government took

over the case and went whole hog to prosecute Pollute.

A. Pollute took care and performed due diligence, therefore absolute liability does not apply.

B. Mysterious circumstances suggest third party role, valid defence for pollute.

C. Government has no authority to take over the case, aggrieved can take care of themselves,

let them file the suit.


D. It is a question of nuclear accident, technicalities can be overlooked. Case stands, Polute

liable.

SECTION 3: LOGICAL REASONING

Directions: Q.71-72: Each interrogative statement is followed by two arguments. You are to

pick up one of the following:

71. Are we happier than our ancestors?

(M) Yes, because we enjoy all the luxuries of life.

(N) No, because life has become very fast and there is mental strain.

A. Only argument 'M' is forceful.

B. Only argument 'N' is forceful.

C. Both 'M' and 'N' are forceful.

D. Neither 'M' nor 'N' is forceful.

72. Should strikes be banned in all services?

(x) Yes, because strikes cause a lot of inconvenience to the people.

(y) No, because this is the only method of getting grievances redressed.

A. Argument 'x' is forceful.

B. Argument 'y' is forceful

C. Neither 'x' nor 'y' is forceful

D. Both 'x' and 'y' are forceful

Directions: Q.73-75: In each of these questions, a statement is followed by two conclusions

(a) and (b). You have to assume everything in the statement to be true, and consider both the

conclusions together, and then decide which of the two given conclusions logically follow

beyond a reasonable doubt from the information given in the statement. Mark answer:

A. if only conclusion (a) follows,

B. if only conclusion (b) follows,

C. if either (a) and (b) follows,

D. if neither (a) nor (b) follows.


73. Statement: There is a difference between the natural slavery of man to nature and

unnatural slavery of man to man. Nature is kind to her slaves. If she forces you to eat and

drink, she makes eating and drinking pleasant. Instead of resenting our natural wants as

slavery, we take to greatest pleasure in satisfaction. The slavery of man to man is hateful to

the body and spirit of man.

Conclusions:

(a) Natural slavery means observing natural laws.

(b) Slavery is unworthy of human nature and still it continues in one form or another.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

74. Statement: One research study reveals that children's personality can't be understood

without detailed study about their home environment.

Conclusions:

(a) Teachers' as well as parents' role are equally important for the betterment of the

child.

(b) Schools are ignoring the importance of home atmosphere.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

75. Statement: If you keep the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes out of offices or

factories or frighten them with bad behaviour or assaults, you drive them back to the

undeveloped parts of the country or change their religion or even to forests, where they

breed rapidly. This way you create a problem for future generations.

Conclusions:

(a) Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes should be given preference in jobs.

(b) Uncivilized people should be kept away if quick progress is desired.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

76. Assertion (A): There is excessive detail and ornamentation in Hoysala sculptures.

Reason (R): Hoysala sculptures are carved in soft chloristic schism.

A. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

C. A is true but R is false.

D. A is false but R is true.


77. Assertion (A): There are floods in the lower reaches of the Mississippi river.

Reason (R): The lower reaches of the river are very narrow.

A. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

B. Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.

C. A is correct but R is incorrect

D. A is incorrect but R is correct.

Directions: Q.78-82: In each of the following questions, there is a certain relation

between two given words on one side of:: and one word is given on another side of::

________. Choose the suitable word to be put on the other side from the given

alternatives.

78. Thermal: Hydel :: Coal:?

A. Hydrometer

B. Water

C. Tidal

D. Energy

79. Dessicate: Moisture :: Darken:?

A. Deterioration

B. Dust

C. Contest

D. Light

80. Fissiparous: Oviparous :: Division:?

A. Owl

B. Egg

C. Airway

D. Unification

81. Vicarious: Actual :: Chagrin:?

A. Spacious


B. Intolerance

C. Exaggerated

D. Complacency

82. Syracuse:? :: Carthage : Rome

A. Rochester

B. Geneva

C. Binghamton

D. Goshen

83. Identify the complete meaning of instruction questions should be set in such a way that all

students cannot answer all questions and no student is incapable of answering even a single

question.

A. No student can answer all the questions

B. At least one student cannot answer all question and all students can answer at least one

question

C. All students are capable of answering at least one question

D. Some students are incapable of answering all questions

84. Identify the meaning of the statement 'Non-receipt of bill is an invalid excuse for non-

payment of bill'

A. A bill can be paid only if it is received

B. A bill need not be paid if it is not received

C. For not paying the bill there cannot be any reason

D. Receipt of bill is the only valid reason for payment of the bill

85. Four statements are given below. Among them one is accepted on theoretical

considerations by scientists, but contradicts common sense. Identify the same.

A. The universe is fast expanding

B. Bacteria are invisible to naked eyes

C. According to physicists, fundamental parties have no dimension and admittedly, the

physical objects having dimensions in a myth

D. There is no uncaused event

86. Four statements, each one stating two alternatives are given below. Among them, one

statement admits a third alternative. Identify the same.


A. An unfaithful employee should be reformed or sacked

B. Either democracy is the worst form of government, or man is essentially corrupt

C. Knowledge pertaining to science is acquired either by employing reason or sense

experience

D. If religion is not dogmatic, then it is useful to practise it, or if is not so, then it is harmful

87. Four probable statements are given below. Arrange them in the ascending order of

probability.

1. The Sun may rise tomorrow (A)

2. It is likely that next year there will be third world War (B)

3. The present coalition government may complete five year term (C)

4. In distant future the faculty of humanities may overtake the faculty of applied

sciences in terms of popularity (D)

A. BCAD B. CABD C. BDCA D. ACBD

88. Four statements are given below. Group two of them in such a way that one is subjective

and the other objective in nature.

1. Scenic beauty enjoys precedence over ambience of holiday resorts (A)

2. The nearest star, apart from the Sun, is 80 light years from the Earth (B)

3. Why do men fight? (C)

4. Help men in distress (D)

A. A, C B. A, D C. B, D D. A, B

89. Four statements are given below. One of them reflects belief and the other is a verifiable

assertion. Group of these two together

1. Future resembles past (A)

2. A number is either even or odd (B)

3. Tax-evaders are liable to be punished (C)

4. A cricket team consists of 11 players (D)

A. B, C B. A, D C. A, C D. B, D

90. If it is true that 'All men are honest' and 'All politicians are men' for which among the

following is it impossible to follow from the given premises?

A. Some politicians are not honest


B. All politicians are honest

C. One politician is honest

D. All honest persons are politicians

91. Identify the conclusion which follows from the premises given below:

Premises:

If Rajiv has committed the crime, he will be arrested.

If he is arrested, then he will be prosecuted.

If he is prosecuted, then he will be imprisoned.

Rajiv cannot be a free man if he is imprisoned.

Therefore,

A. If Rajiv cannot be a free man then he has committed the crime

B. If Rajiv has committed the crime, then he cannot be a free man

C. If Rajiv has not committed the crime, then he can be a free man

D. If Rajiv has committed the crime, then he can be a free man

92. Consider a set of premises like this: 'if science and religion clash, then critical thinking and

dogma will clash. Dogma is not acceptable and hence religion. But critical thinking shakes

the foundation of morality'. Identify the conclusion which follows from these premises:

A. If science is not accepted, then the foundations of morality are not shaken

B. If foundations of morality are shaken, then science is acceptable

C. If science is accepted then the foundations of morality are shaken

D. Though science is accepted, it cannot shake the foundation of morality

93. Consider these premises. 'If Ramesh is not nominated, then either Stanley or Joseph will be

nominated. But if either Stanley or Joseph is nominated, then Johr will have to resign. But

John does not resign. 'Identify the conclusion from among the given alternatives.

A. Stanley is not nominated

B. Joseph is not nominated

C. Ramesh is not nominated

D. Both Stanley & Joseph are not nominated


94. Choose the alternative which brings out the correct relation between two arguments listed

below.

Arguments:

1. Whatever exists is not necessarily knowable.

Therefore something exists which may not be knowable.

2. Certain things exist which are necessarily knowable.

Therefore whatever exists is necessarily knowable.

A. Two arguments are complementary to each other

B. Two arguments contradict each other

C. Two arguments exclude each other

D. Two arguments are identical

95. It is universally admitted that logic constitutes the foundation of mathematics and that they

both employ reason as the method if investigation. If it is true that reason does not provide

any knowledge of external world which one of the following alternatives completely explains

the fall-out of the precious statements.

A. Logic and mathematics provide an exhaustive knowledge of external World

B. Mathematics alone provides knowledge of external World

C. Logic cannot provide knowledge of external World

D. Neither logic nor mathematics can provide any knowledge of external World

96. Four statements given below. From among the alternatives provided, choose the correct

combination of statements which are mutually contradictory.

1. All appearance is always deceptive (A)

2. Appearance is not necessarily deceptive (B)

3. Sometimes appearance is not deceptive (C)

4. Appearance may not be deceptive (D)

A. A, B B. A, C C. B, D D. B, C

97. Four statements are given below. Identify the correct combination of two statements which

are mutually exclusive assuming that all statements are true.

1. Euclidean geometry asserts that a straight line is the shortest between any two points.

Accordingly, a plane triangle consisting of three straight lines has two right angles. (A)


2. Non-Euclidean geometry asserts that no straight line is possible and accordingly only

spherical triangle is possible, where the sum of three angles is more than 180° (B)

3. Non-Euclidean geometry asserts that a curve is necessarily longer than an imaginary

straight line (C)

4. A curve stands lot any distance between any two points. If there can be no point, then

neither Euclidean geometry nor non Euclidean geometry is possible (D)

A. A, B B. B, D C. C, D D. B, C

98. Statements:

I. All girls are evil.

II. All evil are bipolar.

Conclusions:

I. All girls are bipolar.

II. All evil are girls.

A. Only conclusion I follows

B. Only conclusion II follows

C. C. Both I and II follow

D. D. Neither I nor II follows

99. Statements:

I. All birds are fish.

II. No fish is cow.

Conclusions:

I. No bird is cow.

II. Some cows are birds.

A. Only Conclusion I follows.

B. Only Conclusion II follows.

C. Neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II follow.

D. Both Conclusion I and II follow.

100. Statements:

I. All balls are red.


II. All red are big.

III. No big is blue.

Conclusions:

I. No ball is big.

II. Some big are red.

A. Only Conclusion I follows.

B. Only Conclusion II follows.

C. Neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II follow.

D. Both Conclusion I and II follow.

101. Statements:

I. All dead are high.

II. All high are mad.

III. Some mad are sad.

Conclusions:

I. All dead are sad.

II. Some sad are dead.

A. Conclusion I follows.

B. Conclusion II follows.

C. Both I and II follow.

D. Neither I nor II follow.

102. Ann, Boobie, Cathy and Dave are at their monthly business meeting. Their occupations are

author, biologist, chemist and doctor, but not necessarily in that order. Dave just told the

biologist that Cathy was on her way with doughnuts. Ann is sitting across from the doctor

and next to the chemist. The doctor was thinking that Boobie was a goofy name for parents

to choose, but didn't say anything. What is Boobie's occupation?

A. Author

B. Biologist

C. Chemist

D. Doctor

103. Next number in the series is 1 , 2 , 4 , 13 , 31 , 112 , ?

-Missing-.


104. Complete the series: 5, 20, 24, 6, 2, 8, ? A. 13 B. 12 C. 20 D. 16

105. Puzzle: A family I know has several children. Each boy in this family has as many sisters as

brothers but each girl has twice as many brothers as sisters. How many brothers and sisters

are there?

A. 2 and 1

B. 3 and 2

C. 4 and 3

D. Data insufficient

Whilst Mr. Black, Mr. Saul and Mr. Hardy travel to work by bus, Mr. Jones and Mr. Peters travel

by train. Mr. Black and Mr. Saul also walk part of the way. Mr. Saul, Mr. Peters and Mr. Hardy

have season tickets.

106. Who has a season ticket, but also walks?

A. Mr. Black

B. Mr. Saul

C. Mr. Hardy

D. Mr. Jones

107. Who does not have a season ticket and does not walk?

A. Mr. Black

B. Mr. Saul

C. Mr. Hardy

D. Mr. Jones

108. Who travels by bus, but does not have a season ticket?

A. Mr. Black

B. Mr. Saul

C. Mr. Hardy

D. Mr. Jones


109. How many people have neither a season ticket nor walk?

A. Mr. Black

B. Mr. Saul

C. Mr. Hardy

D. Mr. Jones

110. Who lives closest to a bus stop?

A. Mr. Black

B. Mr. Saul

C. Mr. Hardy

D. Cannot say

SECTION 4: ENGLISH Medical Waste has been a growing concern because of recent incidents of public exposure to discarded blood vials, needles (sharps), empty prescription bottles, and syringes. Medical waste can typically include general refuse, human blood and blood products, cultures and stocks of infectious agents, laboratory animal carcasses, contaminated bleeding material, and pathological wastes. Wastes are generally collected by gravity chutes, carts, or pneumatic tubes, each of which has its own advantages and disadvantages. Chutes are limited to vertical transport, and there is some risk of exhausting contaminants into hallways if a door is left open during use. Another disadvantage of gravity chutes is that the waste container may get jammed while dropping or it may be broken upon hitting the bottom. Carts are primarily for horizontal support of bagged or containerized wastes. The main risk here is that bags may be broken or torn during transport, potentially exposing the worker to the wastes. Using automated carts can reduce the potential for exposure. Pneumatic tubes offer the best performance for waste transport in large facility. Advantages include high-speed movement, movement in any direction, and minimal intermediate storage of untreated wastes. However, some objects cannot be conveyed pneumatically. Off-site disposal of regulated wastes remain a viable option for smaller hospitals (those with less than 150 beds). Some preliminary on-site processing, such as compaction or hydropulping, may be necessary prior to sending the waste off-site. Compaction reduces the total volume of solid wastes, often reducing transportation and disposal costs, but it does not change the hazardous characteristics of the waste. Compaction may not be economical if transportation and disposal costs are based on weight rather than volume. Hydropulping involves grinding the waste in presence of an oxidizing fluid, such as hypochlorine solution. The liquid is separated from the pulp and discharged directly into the sewer unless local limits require additional pre-treatment prior to discharge. The pulp can often be disposed of at a landfill. One advantage is that waste can be rendered innocuous and reduced in size within the same system. Disadvantages are the added operating burden, difficulty of controlling fugitive emissions, and the difficulty of conducting microbiological tests


to determine whether all organic matters and infectious organisms have been destroyed from the waste. On-site disposal is a feasible alternative for hospitals generating two tons or more per day of total solid waste. Common treatment techniques include steam sterilization and incineration. Although other options are available, incineration is currently the preferred method for on-site treatment of hospital waste. Steam sterilization is limited in the types of medical waste it can treat, but it is appropriate for laboratory cultures and/or substances contaminated with infectious organisms. The waste is subjected to steam in a sealed, pressurized chamber. The liquid that may form is drained off the sewer or sent for processing. The unit is then reopened after a vapour release to the atmosphere, and the solid waste is removed for further processing or disposal. One advantage of steam sterilization is that it has been used for many years in hospitals to sterilize instruments and containers and to treat small quantities of waste. However, since sterilization does not change the appearance of the waste, there could be a problem in gaining acceptance of the waste for landfilling. A properly designed, maintained, and operated incinerator achieves a relatively high level of organism destruction. Incineration reduces the weight and volume of the waste as much as 95% and is especially appropriate for pathological wastes and sharps. The most common incineration system for medical waste is the controlled-air-type. The principal advantage for this type of incinerator is low particulate emissions. Rotary-kiln and grate-type units have been used but use of grate-type units has been discontinued because of high air emissions. The rotary kiln also puts out high emissions, and the costs have been prohibitive for smaller units.

111. The tone of the passage is : A. Argumentative B. Descriptive C. Informative D. Complimentary

112. Which of the following organizational schemes is most prevalent in the passage? A. Chronological order B. Comparison-contrast C. Order by topic D. Hierarchical order

113. One disadvantage of the compaction method of waste disposal is that it A. Cannot reduce transportation costs B. Reduces the volume of solid waste material C. Does not allow hospitals to confirm that organic matter has been eliminated D. Does not reduce the weight of the solid waste material

114. According to the passage, which of the following could be safely disposed of in a landfill but might not be accepted by landfill facilities?

A. Hydropulped material B. Sterilized waste C. Incinerated waste D. Laboratory cultures

115. The two processes mentioned in the passage that involve the formation of liquid are A. Compaction and hydropulping


B. Incineration and compaction C. Hydropulping and sterilization D. Sterilization and incineration

116. According to the passage, two effective methods for treating waste caused by infectious matter are

A. Steam sterilization and incineration B. Hydropulping and steam sterilization C. Incineration and compaction D. Hydropulping and incineration

117. Hospitals can minimize employee contact with dangerous waste by switching from A. A manual cart to a gravity chute B. An automated cart to a hydropulping machine C. A gravity chute to a manual cart D. A manual cart to an automated cart

118. The process that transforms waste from hazardous to harmless and diminishes waste volume is

A. Sterilization B. Hydropulping C. Oxidizing D. Compacting

119. Budgetary constraints have precluded some small hospitals from purchasing A. Pneumatic tubes B. Rotary kilns C. Sterilization equipment D. Controlled air-kilns

120. The underlined word fugitive emissions in the fourth paragraph most nearly means A. Contaminants that are extremely toxic B. Contaminants that are illegally discharged C. Contaminants that escape the disposal process D. Contaminants that come from micro-biological testing

Everybody knows now that Socialism is a proposal to divide-up the income of the country in a new way. What you perhaps have not noticed is that the income of the country is being divided-up everyday and even every minute at present, and must continue to be divided-up everyday as long as there are two people left on the earth to divide it. The only possible difference of opinion is not as to whether it shall be divided or not, but as to how much each person should have, and on what conditions he should be allowed to have it. St Paul said, “He that will not work, neither can he eat”; but as he was only a man with a low opinion of women, he forgot the babies. Babies cannot work, and are shockingly greedy; but if they were not fed there would soon be nobody left alive in the world. So that will not do. Some people imagine that because they can save money the wealth of the world can be stored up. Stuff and nonsense. Most of the wealth that keeps us alive will not last a week. The world lives from hand to mouth. A drawing room poker will last a lifetime; but we cannot live by eating drawing room pokers; and though we do all we can to make our food keep by putting eggs into water-glass, tinning salmon, freezing mutton, and turning milk into dry goods, the hard fact remains that unless most of our food is eaten within a few days of its being baked or


killed it will go stale or rotten, and choke or poison us. Even our clothes will not last very long if we work hard in them; and there is the washing. You may put india-rubber patches on your boot-soles to prevent the soles wearing out; but then the patches will wear out. Every year must bring its own fresh harvest and its new generation of sheep and cattle; we cannot live on what is left of last year‟s harvest; and as next year‟s does not yet exist, we must live in the main on this year‟s, making things and using them up, sowing and reaping, brewing and baking, breeding and butchering (unless we are vegetarians like myself), soiling and washing, or else dying of dirt and starvation. What is called saving is only making bargains for the future. For instance, if I bake a hundred and one loaves of bread, I can eat no more than the odd one; and I cannot save the rest, because they will be uneatable in a week. All I can do is to bargain with somebody who wants a hundred loaves to be eaten on the spot by himself and his family and persons in his employment, that if I give my hundred spare loaves to him he will give me, say, five new loaves to eat every year in future. But that is not saving up the loaves. It is only a bargain between two parties: one who wants to provide for the future, and another who wants to spend heavily in the present. Consequently, I cannot save until I find somebody else who wants to spend. The notion that we could all save together is silly: the truth is that only a few well-off people who have more money than they need can afford to provide for their future in this way; and they could not do it were there not others spending more than they possess. Peter must spend what Paul saves, or Paul‟s savings will go rotten. Between the two, nothing is saved. The nation as a whole must make its bread and eat it as it goes along. A nation which stopped working would be dead in a fortnight even if every man, woman and child in it had houses and lands and a million of money in the savings bank. When you see a rich man‟s wife (or anyone else‟s wife) shaking her head over the thriftlessness of the poor because they do not all save, pity the lady‟s ignorance; but do not irritate the poor by repeating her nonsense to them. 121. What is the tone of the passage? A. Celebratory B. Cynical C. Persuasive D. Informative

122. What does the phrase “live from hand to mouth” in the second paragraph imply? A. Revel in prosperity B. Have enough means to sustain C. Have just enough resources to live on and nothing extra D. Live in abject circumstances

123. What method does the author imply the most in the passage to put forth his view? A. Contrast-illustration B. Example-Argument C. Only arguments D. Draws analogies

124. What is “stuff and nonsense” according to the author? A. That people can save money B. That the wealth of the world is capable of being stored up C. Both a and b D. None of the above


125. What does the author mean when he says, “..and there is the washing” (2nd paragraph)? A. Washing prevents people from saving money B. The clothes will rot if we don‟t wash them C. Continuous washing spoils the clothes D. Washing contributes to the long-lasting of our clothes

126. What does „odd one‟ refer to in the third paragraph? A. A unique way of saving money involving loaves of bread B. A way of preserving the stale bread C. One loaf of bread D. None of the above

127. According to the author, what is essential for a „bargain‟ to succeed?

A. Someone willing to spend in the present B. A desire to save for the future C. Someone willing to provide for the future D. Both a and c

128. What, according to the author, is actually the meaning of „savings‟?

A. Providing for the future B. The act of storing money in a safe place C. Making bargains for the future D. Finding someone to invest heavily in the present

Directions: Q.129-130: Two types of questions are set under this type of multiple choice tests. (a) the first and the last sentence of a short paragraph are given. Other sentences are given in a jumbled form. The examinees are asked to re-arrange the sentences as to make it a readable passage. (b) A few jumbled sentences are given and examinees are to re-arrange them in a natural sequence.

129. 1. Night is dead monotonous period P: under a roof but in the open world Q: and dew and perfumes, and the hours R: are marked by changes S: it passes lightly, with its stars 6: in the face of Nature.

A. RQSP B. SPRQ C. QRPS D. PSQR

130. 1. Corruption is a difficult and delicate task M: It is difficult to prove the charge. N: Those conventions must be respected. O: The law is not effective in dealing with it. P: So some conventions will have to be built up. 6: This is possible if we are men of integrity having honesty of purpose.

A. PNMO B. OMPN


C. MPNO D. OPNM

The concepts of power and leadership have much in common. Certain people are leaders because they exercise power. Indeed it is unthinkable that a leader should not have power. Consequently, the exercise of influence is a central part of most definitions of leadership. According to La-Piere, “Leadership is a behavior that affects the behavior of other people more than their behavior affects that of the leader.” Pigor also says “Leadership is a concept applied to the personality environment relation to describe the situation when a personality is so placed in the environment that it directs the feeling and insight and controls others in pursuit of a common cause.” According to Mazumdar, H.T.. “The leader is one who has power and authority.” But that neither means that leadership and power are the same thing nor does it mean that power and influence are equivalent. Power indicates authority or command and in any group these have to be actuated for the accomplishment of certain ends but leadership act represents a choice of these instruments of power. The leader cannot and will not always rely on these instruments, and even if he has to make use of them, he will use them as a last resort. His basic function is to motivate and inspire. According to Allen, “Leadership is the activity of persuading people to co-operate in the achievement of a common objective.” Terry defines it as “the activity of influencing people to strive willingly for mutual objectives.” “Leadership always involves attempts on the part of a leader to affect the behavior of a follower or followers in a situation.” In the words of Seckler-Hudson, “Leadership in large organizations may be defined as influencing and energizing of people to work together in a common effort to achieve the purposes of the enterprise.” According to him, leadership depends on three things – (1) the individual, (2) his followers, and (3) the conditions. Leadership is affected by conditions or situations to which power is sometimes blind. Power is authority which goes from the leader downward. A leader is scarcely ever a “free agent” in leading the group of which he is a part. His followers also influence his behavior. It is a two way affair. In no society do the leaders brandish power in a purely arbitrary way. It has been said that he who leads the mob must follow it. Thus in leadership relations the currents go both ways but in power relations the current goes only one way. Power is not equivalent with influence or with initiating change in another person‟s behavior without regard to the situation in which it occurs. A new born infant can influence and change the behavior of his parents, but this influence is not equivalent with power in the family. It may also be mentioned that the leader is necessarily a part of a group and leadership is status and role in that group. It is obvious that leadership can occur only in relation to other people. No one can be a leader all by himself. The relationships which the leader bears to other individuals are status and role relationships. He is a part of the group structure and as such carries on reciprocal relationship with other members of the group. These relationships often define his role in the group. Many writers have made generalizations about the personal qualities of the leaders. Thus, intelligence, self-confidence, sociability, initiative, persistence, prominence, persuasiveness, decisiveness, vitality, capacity to judge the people, expressiveness and geniality are some of the qualities which may help a person to become a leader. According to Van Tunglein, the qualities of a leader are that he is (i) interested in people; (ii) interesting to people; and (iii) interested with the people in the solution of their problems.

131. According to the above passage which of the following statement(s) is/are true – i. Power necessarily flows out of leadership

ii. The mob wields great power on the leader by the virtue that they have to choose the leader iii. Power indicates authority and command but leadership doesn‟t


iv. Leadership and power are affected by almost the same things

A. i and ii B. ii and iii C. iv D. None

132. How does the author define leadership? A. Leadership is a behavior that affects the behavior of other people more than their behavior

affects that of the leader B. Leadership is a concept applied to the personality environment relation to describe the

situation when a personality is so placed in the environment that it directs the feeling and insight and controls others in pursuit of a common cause.

C. Both a and b D. None of the above

133. According to the author, what is the key element of power that distinguishes it from

leadership? A. Power involves a large-scale dissemination of authority or command B. One who has power is always someone who has been made powerful by everyone‟s consent C. The powerful is under an obligation to listen to what the other people have to say D. Power involves the accomplishment of personal ends

134. What do most definitions of leadership concentrate on? A. The leader being a part of the group and not one who is alone B. The vulnerability of the position of a leader because it is affected by a myriad of conditions C. The exercise of influence D. None of the above

135. According to the author, an infant possesses the qualities of a leader/ does not possess the

qualities of a leader because: A. An infant does not satisfy the three conditions of leadership that the author lays down B. An infant can change the behavior of his parents C. He cannot influence the behavior of anyone beyond his parents D. None of the above

136. According to the author, which of the following statements is true? A. A person can be powerful all by himself B. There are hardly any situations that make a leader susceptible to the voice of his followers C. No one can be leader all by himself D. All of the above

137. What does the word „geniality‟ in the 4th paragraph mean? A. High-handed B. Humble C. Approachable D. Both b and c

138. According to the writer, what are the qualities of a leader? A. He is interested in people B. He is interesting to people C. Both a and b D. None of the above


139. What does the word „actuated‟ in the 1st paragraph mean? A. Spread B. Resisted C. Activated D. None of the above

140. What does the word „brandish‟ in the 1st paragraph mean?

A. Influence B. Exercise C. Hold D. Submit

Every age has its enemies. In the mid-20th century, Fascists were the evildoers. After WW II, Communists became civilization‟s public enemies. The bombings across London of July 7th have shown that terrorists remain today‟s designated masters of evil. The word “terrorism” now appears in law books around the world and is gaining new legislative adoptions. Various civil sanctions apply to “terrorist organizations.” It can be a crime to assist a terrorist organization. But it is sometimes hard to determine who “they” – the terrorists – are. Whether organizations are terrorists or not is largely an administrative determination motivated by politics. Politically divided, the UN repeatedly passes resolutions against terrorism but cannot agree on how to define the term. The standard definitions of terrorism are all off the point. The US Congress has, for example set forth a formula that requires a motive to coerce or intimidate a population or influences a government. But this definition does not even clearly cover the terrorist attacks of September, 2001. Perhaps the motive of the airline hijackers was simply to kill infidels, which would put them outside the Congressional definition. I think it a mistake to try to define terrorism in the same way that we define theft or murder. Too many contested issues exist. A better approach is to identify the questions that arise in thinking about terrorism and clarify why people experience terror as a result of certain acts of violence. Then we can define terrorism with reference to all these variables, but without making any of them decisive. The three primary points of controversy are: identification of the victims, the perpetrators, and the relevance of a just cause. Must terrorism‟s victims be civilians? Some think so, but Alaeda blew up the USS Cole and most people regarded the killing of the sailors onboard a terrorist attack. The same logic applies in the guidelines for President Bush‟s military tribunals, which target terror against military personnel as well as civilians. There is a similar question about the perpetrators. Can terrorists be soldiers or state agents? Islamic states within the UN favour this position, and I think they are right. The International Criminal Court will prosecute heads of states for war crimes. By the same logic, state officials should bear the same responsibility for acts of terrorism committed under their authority. The most controversial issue in defining terrorism is captured by the slogan: “One person terrorist is another‟s freedom fighter.” The problem is whether a good cause justifies using


horrendous means. Islamic states think it does, which puts this group at odds with Western opinion. Those who opt for terror always believe their cause to be just. Sometimes it is, sometimes not. No American would be happy about branding the Boston tea party an act of terrorist aggression against British property. Nor would any Frenchman accept a description of the masquerades of the French resistance as terrorists. Yet both committed acts of violence against property and people, and do so meet the conventional tests of terrorism. There are other troubling borderline cases. What about the Stern gang‟s blowing up of Jerusalem‟s King David Hotel in order to liberate Palestine from the British? Is there good terror and bad terror? For some the political cause counts heavily, but in fact there are only a few historical cases in which most people actually disagree. Behind the phenomenon, the nagging question remains: why is terrorism different, why does it require a special definition, why are we more afraid of this form of violence compared to ordinary criminal acts? One reason is that terrorism is typically organized activity. In July 2002, when an Egyptian opened fire and killed two people waiting in line at the El Al counter at Los Angeles International Airport, the FBI decided the suspect was not a terrorist because he was acting alone. Terrorists are organized, and the group can continue even after the individual is caught. That makes them more frightening than ordinary criminals. For terrorists to strike terror in the public mind they must act in public. Criminals prefer secrecy. Terrorists crave publicity. Effective terrorism always captures headlines. It is unexpected, with great shock value. Like good theatre, it always represents some moral drama acted out on a large stage. The public has additional reason to experience the September 2001 attacks on America as terrifying. Terrorists typically act out of moral or religious conviction: they feel no guilt, no remorse. They are prepared to do it again. But suppose we tried to define the attacks of September 11, 2001 as terrorism by using the following formula: a violent, organized, and public attack by private parties on other civilians without guilt, regardless of the justice of the cause. Problems remain, because of each of these six dimensions admits of counter examples. Sometimes the victims are military and the perpetrators are states. Sometimes the cause appears to be just, and one person with enough weapons but no organization might wreak terror. A conspiracy to lace letters with anthrax might incite terror in private and some terrorists might feel remorse and guilt about their actions. All six dimensions of terrorism admit of counter examples. This should not be surprising. Many definitions face this problem, and the great 20th century philosopher Ludwig Wittgenstein proposed another way of dealing with troublesome definitions: explaining concepts by the analogy of “family resemblances.” Family members might share many characteristics: height, skin, hair colour, various other physical features. Some might have some of these but not all, others might have a different collection of the common characteristics. Though there is no single common feature, are all readily identified as members of the same family.


Terrorism bears these qualities of family relationship. At least six variables are relevant but exceptions occur in each of the six. Complex accounts with built-in exceptions may make lawyers uncomfortable, but in the real world they are perhaps the best we can devise.

141. The writer, though indirectly, admits which of the following in the passage? A. Communists were terrorists B. One person‟s terrorist is another‟s freedom fighter C. Terrorists are sometimes dedicated to further righteous causes D. There is good terror and bad terror.

142. What is the main purpose of the passage? A. To attempt a clear definition of terrorism B. To show that any attempt to define terrorism is doomed to failure as it would admit counter

examples. C. To show that terrorism belongs to the family of violent crimes D. To show that though it is difficult to define terrorism legally, it can be very easily recognized.

143. According to the passage, in which of the following ways are fascism and communism

similar to terrorism? A. Fascism and communism, like terrorism, were violent acts of crime against innocent people B. Fascism and communism, like terrorism, were organized crimes in order to intimidate a

population C. Fascism and communism, like terrorism, indulged in violence in order to influence

governments D. Fascism and communism, like terrorism, were the public enemies of their times

144. According to the passage, which of the following provides the sufficient condition to make

the September attacks an act of terror? A. The attackers had no intention to terrorize Americans or to influence the American

government B. The attackers had the intention to terrorize Americans or to influence the American

government C. The motive of the attackers was simply to kill infidels D. All the victims of the attacks were civilians.

145. The writer is most likely to agree with which of the following: A. In order to be termed terrorism the victims of the act of violence must be civilians B. A good cause can sometimes justify the use of “horrendous” means C. Soldiers can be called terrorists D. The Boston Tea Party and the masquerades of the French resistance do not meet the

conventional tests of terrorism

146. It can be inferred from the passage that the writer considers „the Stern gang‟s blowing up of Jerusalem‟s King David Hotel in order to liberate Palestine from the British….‟

A. Not an act of terrorism B. An act of terrorism C. A political expediency D. Not a troubling cause

147. According to the writer, how is terrorism like “good theatre”? A. Terrorism contains some moral lessons B. Terrorism is acted out on a large stage C. Terrorism captures headlines


D. Terrorism is carried out for its effect on the viewers

148. According to the writer, in which of the following ways does the analogy of “family resemblances” related to terrorism?

A. It is helpful in defining terrorism B. It is helpful in explaining the different forms of terrorism C. It is helpful in identifying terrorism from other forms of violent acts D. It is helpful in identifying the ideologies behind terrorism

149. Why does the author refer to terrorism in double quotes? A. Because it is a foreign term B. Because of its usage for the first time by the author C. Because of the lack of a standard definition of the same D. Because of the folly of trying to define it

150. What is the key ingredient for the terrorists to bring about the maximum impact? A. To work secretly B. Spend great time in the setting the intricacies of the plan C. Act in public D. Sacrifice for their country


SECTION 5: GENERAL KNOWLEDGE 151. X are an archipelago in the South Atlantic Ocean, located more than 250 nautical miles (460 kilometres; 290 miles) east of the coast of mainland South America. The archipelago comprises East X,West X, and 776 lesser islands. Stanley, the capital and only city, is on the East X. On 12 June 2012, the X‟s government announced it would hold a referendum on the political status of the Islands in the first half of 2013. In the year 1982, country Y invaded X, claiming X to be its sovereign territory. Z another country declared war on Y after the invasion which finally led to surrender of all Y forces. Identify X, Y, Z. A. Bermuda, Venezuela, United States. B. American Samoa, Cuba, United States. C. Falkland Islands, Argentina, United Kingdom. D. Tierra del Fuego, Brazil, United Kingdom.

152. M died on August 16th 2012. He was considerd to be one of best cimetographers of India having worked with the acclaimed directors such as Shyam Benegal, Girish Karnad and Shekhar Kapur to the hugely popular Subhash Ghai and Anees Bazmee. Some of the notable movies that he was a part of were Gaja Gamini, Bandit Queen, Utsav, Mandi, 36 Chowringhee Lane etc. Born in Punjab in 1947, M, given to a flamboyant way of dressing right down to cowboy boots, also acted in a couple of films. In recent times, he kept himself occupied making short films. The only movie which he directed was Moksha with Manisha Koirala as the lead actress. Identify M. A. Tyeb Mehta B. Ashok Mehta C. Madan Mohan D. Manmohan Desai

153. The International Olympic Committee suspended X in 2010 because of immense political interference. The IOC said in May, 2012 that athletes from X may participate at the games despite the dispute, but would have to compete and march in the opening ceremony under the “Olympic flag” as international independent athletes. However on July 15th 2012 it was announced by the IOC that athletes from X will be allowed to compete under their country's flag at the London Games. X sent 11 athletes the the Olympics this year. A. Palestine B. South Ossetia C. Tiwan D. Kuwait

154. X is from Budhana a small town of Muzaffarnagar district in Uttar Pradesh, where his father is a farmer. After graduating in science from a local college, he worked as a chemist in a petrochemical company for a short while. But boredom set in soon, and he moved to Delhi, here in the next one and a half year period, he started watching plays. He got associated with Sakshi Theatre Group and worked with actors like Manoj Bajpai and Saurabh Shukla. Eventually he graduated from the The National School of Drama (NSD), New Delhi in 1996. After working in a number of acclaimed films such as Black Friday, Peepli Live and Paan Singh Tomar, his major breakthrough came in the Gangs of Wasseypur series playing the role of faisal. Identify X. A. Nawazuddin Siddiqui B. Omkar Das Manickpuri C. Tigmanshu Dhulia D. Piyush Mishra

155. X is a low-cost airline headquartered in Chennai, India currently owned by Billionaire Kalanithi Maran. It began service in May 2005 and by 2008, it was India's second-


largest low-cost airline in terms of market share. The origins of X track back to February 1993 when ModiLuft, one of India's first post-deregulation airlines that was launched by the Indian industrialist S K Modi, in technical partnership with the German flag carrier Lufthansa. The airline's market share at the time was a little over 16% making it the fourth largest airline in India. In the month of August, 2012 this airline carrier achieved a feat which was considered impossible in the current market scenario. Id X. A. Indigo B. Spice Jet C. Jet Airways D. Go Air

156. On January 6th 2012, the word X was chosen as the word of the year for 2011 by the American Dialectic Society. Word of the Year is interpreted in its broader sense as “vocabulary item”-not just words but phrases. According to Ben Zimmer, Chair of the New Words Committee of the American Dialect Society “It‟s a very old word, but over the course of just a few months it took on another life and moved in new and unexpected directions, thanks to a national and global movement, The movement itself was powered by the word.” Id X. A. Arab Spring B. Vendetta C. Occupy D. Slumdog

157. X is a Russian feminist punk-rock band based in Moscow. Founded in August 2011, the band stages politically provocativeimpromptu performances about Russian political life in unusual locations, such as on top of a trolleybus or on a scaffold in the Moscow Metro. On February 21, 2012, four members of the group staged a performance on the soleas of Moscow‟s Cathedral of Christ the Saviour, motivated by their opposition to the Russian President Vladimir Putin and the politics of the Russian Orthodox Church. On August 17, 2012, the three members were convicted of hooliganism (article 213.2 of the Criminal Code) motivated by religious hatred and each sentenced to two years imprisonment. What was the name of the band? A. Pussy Galore B. Pussy Cat Baby C. Chicks Galore D. Pussy Riot

158. India celebrates its Independence Day every year on the 15th August to commemorate its freedom from the United Kingdom. On the same day there are two other countries which celebrate their Independence. One is South Korea, the other country is a Kingdom which has seen a massive uprising from 2011 to this date as a result of the domino effect of the Arab Spring. Which is the country? A. Syria B. Bahrain C. Oman D. Lebenon

159. The book „Controversially Yours‟ is the autobiography of: A. Shoiab Akhtar B. Taslima Nasreen C. Sanjay Dutt D. Shashi Tharoor


160. Which of following Indian State/Union Territory has become first in the country to issue e-Stamp papers in all denominations? A. Delhi B. Puducherry C. Karnataka D. Maharashtra

161. The Great Victorian Desert is located in? A. Canada B. Australia C. West Africa D. North America

162. The Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology is located at?

A. Patna B. Hyderabad C. New Delhi D. Bangalore

163. The infrared radiations by the sun are greatly absorbed by? A. Carbon dioxide B. Oxygen C. Ozone D. Water vapours

164. Amjad Ali Khan is associated with which of the following instruments? A. Sarod B. Veena C. Violin D. Sitar

165. The theory of economic drain of India during the British Raj was propounded by? A. Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru B. Mahatma Gandhi C. Dadabhai Naoroji D. RC Dutt

166. Washing soda is the common name for? A. Sodium carbonate B. Calcium bicarbonate C. Sodium bicarbonate D. Calcium carbonate

167. The Battle of Plassey was fought in the year? A. 1757 B. 1748 C. 1764 D. 1782

168. What is the first month of the national calendar of India? A. Vaishakha B. Chaitra C. Jyeshtha


D. Ashada

169. What is the capital of Lakshadweep? A. Kavaratti B. Silvassa C. Port Blair D. Yana

170. Who designed the Rashtrapati Bhavan? A. Charles Correa B. Le Corbusier C. Maxwell Fry D. Edwin Landseer Lutyens

171. What is the capital city of Venezuela? A. Lima B. Buenos Aires C. Vientiane D. Caracas

172. Which continent is Tunisia located in? A. Asia B. Africa C. Europe D. Australia

173. When was the Magna Carta signed? A. 1257 B. 1521 C. 1215 D. 1251

174. Which of the following is not a chief organ of the United Nations Organisation? A. International Labour Organisation B. Security Council C. General Assembly D. International Court of Justice

175. In which year was the Pulitzer Prize established? A. 1922 B. 1928 C. 1917 D. 1915

.

176. What did JB Dunlop invent? A. Pneumatic Rubber Tire B. Rubber Boot C. Model Airplanes D. Erasers

177. What is the ratio of the width to the length of the National Flag of India? A. 1:2


B. 2:3 C. 3:4 D. 1:3

178. Who composed the song „Saare Jahaan se Accha‟? A. Rabindranath Tagore B. Bankim Chandra Chatterjee C. Gulzar D. Mohammed Iqbal

179. Which day is observed as No Smoking Day? (CLAT 2009) A. March 31 B. April 30 C. May 31 D. June 30

180. The first recipient of the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award is A. Kapil Dev B. Leander Paes C. Geet Sethi D. Vishwanathan Anand

181. Which among the following was fined Rs. 1.47 crore, the highest fine on any insurer for the

disobedience of regulatory provisions? A. HDFC insurance B. LIC C. IRDA D. ICICI Prudential Life Insurance

182. Who has been appointed as the new commissioner of Delhi Police? A. BK Gupta B. GD Khosla C. Neeraj Kumar D. Dhiren Kumar Khosla

183. Which was the country where the President survived an impeachment? Identify the person

as well. A. Basecu Thomal Alvares, Romania B. Thomas Pecos del Amore, Romania C. Bashar al Assad, Syria D. Traian Basecu, Romania

184. Who has been appointed the head of the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Awards Committee? A. Gagan Narang B. Rajyawardhan Singh Rathore and Yogeshwar Raj Dutt C. P. Gopichand D. RS Rathore

185. Ecuador recently granted asylum to Julian Assange. Who is the President of Ecuador? A. Hulos Carlos Rafael B. Correan Santos C. Rafael Correa


D. Hulos Santos

186. DRDO recently tested their supersonic cruise missile. What type of payloads can it carry? A. Conventional B. Nuclear C. Both D. Conventio-nuclear (a technology indigenously developed by India)

187. Who has been appointed as the head of Deutche Bank India? A. Manpreet Gill B. Ranjit Gill C. Jasmeet Gill D. Ravneet Gill

188. World Bank recently approved a Rs. 1100 crore to promote green initiatives in which state? A. Jammu and Kashmir B. Madhya Pradesh C. Himachal Pradesh D. Bihar

189. Who among the following is the winner of the Magsaysay award for 2012? A. Harish Hande B. Kulandei Francis C. Neelima Mishra D. Kalandei Theorat

190. Which organization recently released a Red List of Threatened Species for 2012? A. WWF B. IUCN C. UNEP D. PETA

191. What is Nik Wallenda famous for? A. Swam across the English Channel in a record time. B. Jumped from the top of Angel Falls and did a record number of summersaults in the

process C. Crossed the Atlantic Ocean without a shark cage D. Successfully walk across the Niagra Falls on a Tightrope

192. Fatou Bensouda is who? A. Chief Justice of the ICC B. Chief Prosecutor of the ICC C. Gambia‟s representative to the ICC D. The only African to have ever been appointed as Chief Prosecutor of the ICC

193. „Very Very Special‟. Who? A. Usain Bolt B. VVS Lakshman C. Sir Gary Sobers D. Michael Phelps (after winning a record number of medals at London ‟12)

194. Which, among the following, is a district known for illegal iron mining in Karnataka? A. Kolar


B. Kudremukh C. Bellary D. Bastara

195. What is the expansion of BCCC? A. Board for Control of Cricket in Canada B. Bar Council Counsels Committee C. Broadcasting Contents Complaints Council D. Bar for Content Censoring and Censuring

196. In which event did India‟s Vijay Kumar win silver medal at the Olympics? A. 50m Air Pistol Rapid Fire . B. 25m Rapid Fire Pistol. C. 10m Air Pistol. D. 10m Air Rifle.

197. Who currently is India‟s home secretary? A. Sushil Kumar Shinde B. R.K. Singh C. G.K. Pillai D. Madhukar Gupta

198. Name the former Governor of Massachusetts who is most likely to be Republican nominee

for the upcoming Presidential elections. A. Newt Gingrich B. John Kerry C. Bobby Jindal D. Mitt Romney

199. Who was the winner of Miss World 2012? A. Kelly Cheng. B. Jessica Kahawaty C. Yu Wenxia. D. Sophie Moulds.

200. To which state does P. A. Sangma belong? A. Assam. B. Mizoram. C. Nagaland. D. Meghalaya

test one - clatgyan 2013

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