test bank · chapter 15 the chromosomal basis of inheritance 216 chapter 16 the molecular basis of...

Test Bankfor

Campbell BiologyTenth Edition

Reece • Urry • Cain • Wasserman Minorsky • Jackson

Edward J. Zakisko, Blackburn College

Diane Jokinen, Loyola University Chicago

Rebecca Orr, Collin College

Melissa Fierke, State University of New York,

College of Environmental Science and Forestry

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Vice President/Editor-in-Chief: Beth WilburSenior Acquisitions Editor: Josh FrostSenior Editorial Manager: Ginnie Simione JutsonEditorial Project Editor: Brady GoldenExecutive Marketing Manager: Lauren HarpManaging Editor, Production: Shannon TozierProduction Project Manager: Jane BrundageImage & Text Permissions Coordinator: Alison BrucknerManufacturing Buyer: Jeffrey SargentComposition: S4Carlisle and Tamarack Software, Inc.Cover Design Production: Seventeenth Street StudiosText and Cover Printer: Edwards Brothers MalloyCover Photo Credit: Martin Turner / Getty Images

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ISBN 13: 978-0-321-82371-7ISBN 10: 0-321-82371-0

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Preface

Welcome to the Test Bank for the tenth edition of Campbell Biology. What you will findis a thoroughly revised collection of questions based on the strong foundation establishedin the nine previous editions. Each member of the Test Bank team, along with editors, hasreviewed each question carefully to ensure that the content and terminology of that ques-tion accurately reflects the material in the new edition of the text. We hope that you willfind ample questions from which to choose in compiling your tests and assignments. Wealso hope that you will be guided by the assignment of skill levels.

The Test-Your-Understanding multiple-choice questions found in the review section ofeach textbook chapter have also been included in the Test.

We tried to classify each question according to the complexity of the mental processesinvolved. The model we used is modified from Bloom, Benjamin et al., Taxonomy ofEducational Objectives: The Classification of Educational Goals, Handbook I: CognitiveDomain. New York: Longmans, Green, 1956. The categories in the cognitive domain thatwe used to classify questions are

Level 1: Knowledge/Comprehension Recognizing or recalling information;understanding of facts and ideas by organizing, comparing, contrasting, translating, andinterpreting; giving descriptions; explaining and stating main ideas; using information todeduce a best answer.

Level 2: Application/Analysis Applying previously learned information in newsituations to answer questions that have single or best answers; examining and breakinginformation into parts by identifying motives or causes; making inferences and findingevidence to support generalizations; applying knowledge to new situations; interpretingdata; finding connections from one chapter to another.

Level 3: Synthesis/Evaluation Compiling information in a different way by combiningelements in a new pattern or proposing alternative solutions; making judgments about infor-mation, validity of ideas, or quality of work based on internal evidence or a set of criteria.

We recognize that you may interpret our classifications of the questions differently; therefore, these classifications should be considered only as a rough guide to the knowledge and skills required for answering each question.

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Acknowledgments

The questions in the tenth edition of the Test Bank are built upon questions authored byothers. We are grateful to the following biologists who have contributed questions toprevious editions of the Test Bank (edition numbers are shown in parentheses):

William Barstow, University of Georgia (2, 3, 6, 7, 8); Neil Campbell, UC Riverside (3);Angela Cunningham, Baylor University (5); Michael Dini, Texas Tech University (6, 7, 8, 9); Jean DeSaix, University of North Carolina (7, 8); Richard Dohrkopf, BaylorUniversity (4, 5); Gary Fabris, Red Deer College (4); Eugene Fenster, Longview Community College (6); Conrad Firling, University of Minnesota (6, 7); Peter Follette,Science Writer (7); Mark Hens, University of North Carolina (7); Frank Heppner, University of Rhode Island (1); Walter MacDonald, Trenton State University (2); JaniceMoore, Colorado State University (7); Thomas Owens, Cornell University (7); RebeccaPyles, East Tennessee State University (4); Kurt Redborg, Coe College (4, 5, 6); MarcSnyder, Colorado College (5); Richard Storey, The Colorado College (4, 5); MarshallSundberg, Emporia State University (6, 7); Martha Taylor, Cornell University (3); Margaret Waterman, Harvard Medical School (3); Dan Wivagg, Baylor University (3, 4, 5); Catherine Wilcoxson Ueckert, Northern Arizona University (5, 6); Betty AnnWonderly, J. J. Pearce High School (3); Robert Yost, Indiana State University–PurdueUniversity (6, 7); Edward Zalisko, Blackburn College (7); Louise Paquin, McDaniel College (8, 9); John Zarnetske, Hoosick Falls Central School (8, 9); John Lepri, Univer-sity of North Carolina, Greensboro (8, 9); C.O. Patterson, Texas A&M University (8);Ronald Balsamo, Villanova University (9); Jung Choi, Georgia Institute of Technology (9)

We would like to thank Edzard J. Zalisko, Diane Jokinen, Rebecca Orr, and Melissa Fierkefor their work on the tenth edition of the Test Bank.

The authors wish to thank Beth Wilbur, vice president and editor-in-chief for Pearson,and Josh Frost, senior acquisitions editor for Pearson, for assembling and supporting thework of our writing team. Also Brady Golden, supplements project editor, for his im-mense help in coordinating the entire project. Thanks also to Jane Brundage, productionproject manager at Pearson Benjamin Cummings; and Denise Covelli, David Blazinaand the staff at Tamarack for their expertise and hard work on the production side of the project.

Josh FrostSenior Acquisitions EditorPearson Education

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Contents viiCopyright © 2014 Pearson Education, Inc.

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Contents

Chapter 1 Evolution, the Themes of Biology, and Scientific Inquiry 1

Chapter 2 The Chemical Context of Life 12

Chapter 3 Water and Life 27

Chapter 4 Carbon and the Molecular Diversity of Life 41

Chapter 5 The Structure and Function of Large Biological Molecules 56

Chapter 6 A Tour of the Cell 72

Chapter 7 Membrane Structure and Function 86

Chapter 8 An Introduction to Metabolism 103

Chapter 9 Cellular Respiration and Fermentation 121

Chapter 10 Photosynthesis 136

Chapter 11 Cell Communication 153

Chapter 12 The Cell Cycle 168

Chapter 13 Meiosis and Sexual Life Cycles 184

Chapter 14 Mendel and the Gene Idea 199

Chapter 15 The Chromosomal Basis of Inheritance 216

Chapter 16 The Molecular Basis of Inheritance 232

Chapter 17 Gene Expression: From Gene to Protein 247

Chapter 18 Regulation of Gene Expression 263

Chapter 19 Viruses 276

Chapter 20 DNA Tools and Biotechnology 291

Chapter 21 Genomes and Their Evolution 306

Chapter 22 Descent with Modification: A Darwinian View of Life 317

Chapter 23 The Evolution of Populations 335

Chapter 24 The Origin of Species 355

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Chapter 25 The History of Life on Earth 375

Chapter 26 Phylogeny and the Tree of Life 398

Chapter 27 Bacteria and Archaea 422

Chapter 28 Protists 445

Chapter 29 Plant Diversity I: How Plants Colonized Land 463

Chapter 30 Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants 479

Chapter 31 Fungi 498

Chapter 32 An Overview of Animal Diversity 521

Chapter 33 An Introduction to Invertebrates 542

Chapter 34 The Origin and Evolution of Vertebrates 561

Chapter 35 Plant Structure, Growth, and Development 578

Chapter 36 Resource Acquisition and Transport in Vascular Plants 593

Chapter 37 Soil and Plant Nutrition 605

Chapter 38 Angiosperm Reproduction and Biotechnology 615

Chapter 39 Plant Responses to Internal and External Signals 629

Chapter 40 Basic Principles of Animal Form and Function 642

Chapter 41 Animal Nutrition 657

Chapter 42 Circulation and Gas Exchange 672

Chapter 43 The Immune System 686

Chapter 44 Osmoregulation and Excretion 701

Chapter 45 Hormones and the Endocrine System 716

Chapter 46 Animal Reproduction 730

Chapter 47 Animal Development 747

Chapter 48 Neurons, Synapses, and Signaling 760

Chapter 49 Nervous Systems 774

Chapter 50 Sensory and Motor Mechanisms 787

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Chapter 51 Animal Behavior 801

Chapter 52 An Introduction to Ecology and the Biosphere 821

Chapter 53 Population Ecology 839

Chapter 54 Community Ecology 867

Chapter 55 Ecosystems and Restoration Ecology 886

Chapter 56 Conservation Biology and Global Change 906

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Chapter 1 Evolution, the Themes of Biology,and Scientific Inquiry

1) Cells are _____.A) only found in pairs, because single cells cannot exist independentlyB) limited in size to 200 and 500 micrometers in diameterC) characteristic of eukaryotic but not prokaryotic organismsD) characteristic of prokaryotic and eukaryotic organisms

Answer: DBloomʹs Taxonomy: Knowledge/ComprehensionSection: 1.1

2) In comparison to eukaryotes, prokaryotes _____.A) are more structurally complexB) are largerC) are smallerD) do not have membranes

Answer: CBloomʹs Taxonomy: Knowledge/ComprehensionSection: 1.1

3) Which of the following types of cells utilize deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) as their geneticmaterial but do not have their DNA encased within a nuclear envelope?

A) animalB) plantC) archaeanD) fungi

Answer: CBloomʹs Taxonomy: Application/AnalysisSection: 1.1

4) To understand the chemical basis of inheritance, we must understand the molecularstructure of DNA. This is an example of the application of which concept to the study ofbiology?

A) evolutionB) emergent propertiesC) reductionismD) feedback regulation


Copyright © 2014 Pearson Education, Inc. 1, Evolution, the Themes of Biology & Scientific Inquiry 1

5) A localized group of organisms that belong to the same species is called a _____.A) communityB) populationC) ecosystemD) family

Answer: BBloomʹs Taxonomy: Knowledge/ComprehensionSection: 1.1

6) Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the complexity of biologicalsystems?

A) An understanding of the interactions between different components within a livingsystem is a key goal of a systems biology approach to understanding biologicalcomplexity.

B) Knowing the function of a component of a living system can provide insight into itsstructure and organization.

C) Understanding the chemical structure of DNA reveals how it directs the functioningof a living cell.

D) An ecosystem displays complex properties not present in the individualcommunities within it.


7) When a person gets dehydrated while exercising on a hot day, their pituitary glandreleases ADH, a hormone that signals the kidneys to retain more water. This is anexample of

A) Positive feedback regulationB) Negative feedback regulationC) Chemical cyclingD) Emergent properties

Answer: BBloomʹs Taxonomy: Application/AnalysisSection: 1.1

8) Prokaryotes are classified as belonging to two different domains. What are the domains?A) Bacteria and EukaryaB) Archaea and MoneraC) Bacteria and ProtistaD) Bacteria and Archaea


2 1, Evolution, the Themes of Biology & Scientific Inquiry Copyright © 2014 Pearson Education, Inc.

9) Which of these provides evidence of the common ancestry of all life?A) near universality of the genetic codeB) structure of the nucleusC) structure of ciliaD) structure of chloroplasts

Answer: ABloomʹs Taxonomy: Application/AnalysisSection: 1.2

10) Which branch of biology is concerned with the naming and classifying of organisms?A) informaticsB) taxonomyC) genomicsD) evolution


11) The phylogenetic tree below _____.

A) depicts the three major domains of lifeB) includes unicellular but not multicellular lifeC) includes unicellular and some forms of multicellular life, but not complex animals

and plantsD) includes noncellular life‐forms

Answer: ABloomʹs Taxonomy: Knowledge/ComprehensionSection: 1.2


12) In the diagram below, ʺAʺ is _____ ; ʺBʺ is _____.

A) the most recent species to evolve on Earth; an ancestor of group ʺAʺB) the most recent species to evolve on Earth; the last common ancestor of Archaea

and EukaryaC) the common ancestor of all life; the common ancestor of Bacteria and ArchaeaD) the common ancestor of all life; the last common ancestor of Archaea and Eukarya


13) You find yourself standing next to a beautiful rose bush. Which of the following do youand the rose have in common?

A) You both are multicellular.B) You both lack a membrane‐bound nucleus.C) You are both prokaryotic.D) You and the rose have nothing in common.


14) Which of the following is (are) true of natural selection?A) It requires genetic variation.B) It results in descent with modification.C) It involves differential reproductive success.D) It requires genetic variation, results in descent with modification, and involves

differential reproductive success.Answer: DBloomʹs Taxonomy: Knowledge/ComprehensionSection: 1.2

15) Charles Darwin proposed a mechanism for descent with modification that stated thatorganisms of a particular species are adapted to their environment when they possess_____.

A) non‐heritable traits that enhance their survival in the local environmentB) non‐heritable traits that enhance their survival and reproductive success in the local

environmentC) heritable traits that enhance their survival and reproductive success in the local

environmentD) heritable traits that decrease their survival and reproductive success in the local

environmentAnswer: CBloomʹs Taxonomy: Knowledge/ComprehensionSection: 1.2


16) Which of the following best describes what occurred after the publication of CharlesDarwinʹs On the Origin of Species?

A) The publisher was pressured to cease distribution.B) The book was banned from schools.C) The book was widely discussed and disseminated.D) The book was discredited by most scientists.


17) Darwinʹs finches, collected from the Galápagos Islands, illustrate which of the following?A) mutation frequencyB) ancestors from different regionsC) adaptive radiationD) vestigial anatomical structuresE) the accuracy of the fossil record


18) Cotton-topped tamarins are small primates with tufts of long white hair on their heads.While studying these creatures, you notice that males with longer hair get moreopportunities to mate and father more offspring. To test the hypothesis that havinglonger hair is adaptive in these males, you should _____.

A) test whether other traits in these males are also adaptiveB) look for evidence of hair in ancestors of tamarinsC) determine if hair length is heritableD) test whether males with shaved heads are still able to mate



The following experiment is used for the corresponding question(s).

A researcher discovered a species of moth that lays its eggs on oak trees. Eggs are laid at two distincttimes of the year: early in spring when the oak trees are flowering and in midsummer when floweringis past. Caterpillars from eggs that hatch in spring feed on oak flowers and look like oak flowers. Butcaterpillars that hatch in summer feed on oak leaves and look like oak twigs.

How does the same population of moths produce such different‐looking caterpillars on the sametrees? To answer this question, the biologist caught many female moths from the same population andcollected their eggs. He put at least one egg from each female into eight identical cups. The eggshatched, and at least two larvae from each female were maintained in one of the four temperature andlight conditions listed below.

In each of the four environments, one of the caterpillars was fed oak flowers, the other oak leaves.Thus, there were a total of eight treatment groups (4 environments × 2 diets).

19) Refer to the accompanying figure. Which one of the following is NOT a plausiblehypothesis to explain the differences in caterpillar appearance observed in thispopulation?

A) The longer day lengths of summer trigger the development of twig‐like caterpillars.B) The cooler temperatures of spring trigger the development of flowerlike

caterpillars.C) Differences in air pressure, due to differences in elevation, trigger the development

of different types of caterpillars.D) Differences in diet trigger the development of different types of caterpillars.



20) Refer to the accompanying figure. In every case, caterpillars that feed on oak flowers looklike oak flowers. In every case, caterpillars that were raised on oak leaves looked liketwigs. These results support which of the following hypotheses?

A) The longer day lengths of summer trigger the development of twig‐like caterpillars.B) Differences in air pressure, due to elevation, trigger the development of different

types of caterpillars.C) Differences in diet trigger the development of different types of caterpillars.D) The differences are genetic. A female will either produce all flowerlike caterpillars

or all twig‐like caterpillars.Answer: CBloomʹs Taxonomy: Application/AnalysisSection: 1.3

21) Refer to the accompanying figure. Recall that eggs from the same female were exposed toeach of the eight treatments used. This aspect of the experimental design tested which ofthe following hypotheses?

A) The longer day lengths of summer trigger the development of twig‐like caterpillars.B) Differences in air pressure, due to elevation, trigger the development of different

types of caterpillars.C) Differences in diet trigger the development of different types of caterpillars.D) The differences are genetic. A female will either produce all flowerlike caterpillars

or all twig‐like caterpillars.Answer: DBloomʹs Taxonomy: Application/AnalysisSection: 1.3

22) Recall the caterpillar experiment in which caterpillars born in the spring looked likeflowers, and caterpillars born in the summer looked like twigs. What is the most likelyselective advantage for this difference in body shape?

A) Looking like their food sources allows the caterpillars to move through theirenvironment more efficiently.

B) Development into the adult moth form is faster for caterpillars shaped like twigsthan like flowers.

C) Looking like their food source lets the caterpillars blend into their surroundings,reducing predation.

D) Looking like their food source will increase the caterpillarsʹ feeding efficiency; thiswould increase their growth rate and survival rate.


23) How does a scientific theory differ from a scientific hypothesis?A) Theories are proposed to test scientific hypotheses.B) Theories are usually an explanation for a more general phenomenon; hypotheses

typically address more specific issues.C) Hypotheses are usually an explanation for a more general phenomenon; theories

typically address more specific issues.D) Confirmed theories become scientific laws; hypotheses become theories.



24) A friend of yours calls to say that his car would not start this morning. He asks for yourhelp. You say that you think the battery must be dead. If so, then jump‐starting the carfrom a good battery will solve the problem. In doing so, you are _____.

A) testing a theory for why the car will not startB) making observations to inspire a theory for why the car will not startC) stating a hypothesis and using that hypothesis to make a testable predictionD) comparing multiple hypotheses for why the car will not start


25) Agrobacterium infects plants and causes them to form tumors. You are asked to determinehow long a plant must be exposed to these bacteria to become infected. Which of thefollowing experiments will provide the best data to address that question?

A) Determine the survival rate of Agrobacteriumwhen exposed to differentconcentrations of an antibiotic.

B) Measure the number of tumors formed on a plant when exposed to variousconcentrations of Agrobacterium.

C) Measure the concentration of Agrobacterium in different soil environments where theplants grow.

D) Measure the number of tumors formed on plants, which are exposed toAgrobacterium for different lengths of time.

Answer: DBloomʹs Taxonomy: Application/AnalysisSection: 1.3

26) Agrobacterium infects plants and causes them to form tumors. You determine that tumorformation requires a large amount of the plantʹs energy for tissue formation. How mightthis change the number of offspring a plant produces, and what is the most likelyexplanation for this change?

A) The number of offspring should increase, because in general, illness increases thereproductive output of organisms.

B) The number of offspring should increase, because the bacteria will provide energyfor the plant.

C) The number of offspring should decrease, because the plant will divert energy fromreproduction to tumor formation.

D) There should be no effect of infection on offspring production because energy forreproduction is independent of infection.



Use the following information when answering the corresponding question(s).

In 1668, Francesco Redi performed a series of experiments on spontaneous generation. He began byputting similar pieces of meat into eight identical jars. Four jars were left open to the air, and four weresealed. He then did the same experiment with one variation: Instead of sealing four of the jarscompletely, he covered them with gauze (the gauze excluded the flies while allowing the meat to beexposed to air). In both experiments, he monitored the jars and recorded whether or not maggots(young flies) appeared in the meat.

27) Refer to the paragraph on Rediʹs experiments. What hypothesis was being tested in theinitial experiment with open versus sealed jars?

A) Spontaneous generation is more likely during the long days of summer.B) The type of meat used affects the likelihood of spontaneous generation.C) Maggots do not arise spontaneously, but from eggs laid by adult flies.D) Spontaneous generation can occur only if meat is exposed to air.


28) Refer to the paragraph on Rediʹs experiments. In both experiments, flies appeared in allof the open jars and only in the open jars. Which one of the following statements iscorrect?

A) The experiment was inconclusive because Redi used only one kind of meat.B) The experiment was inconclusive because it did not run long enough.C) The experiment supports the hypothesis that spontaneous generation occurs in

rotting meat.D) The experiment supports the hypothesis that maggots arise only from eggs laid by

adult flies.Answer: DBloomʹs Taxonomy: Application/AnalysisSection: 1.3

29) The best experimental design _____.A) includes a large sample size for each conditionB) includes a controlC) alters only one condition between the controls and the experimental conditionD) includes a large sample size and a control, and alters only one condition between

the controls and the experimental conditionAnswer: DBloomʹs Taxonomy: Knowledge/ComprehensionSection: 1.3

30) In the process of science, which of these is tested?A) a resultB) an observationC) a hypothesisD) a control group



31) A controlled experiment _____.A) is repeated many times to ensure that the results are accurateB) includes at least two groups, one of which does not receive the experimental

treatmentC) includes at least two groups, one differing from the other by two or more variablesD) includes one group for which the scientist controls all variables


32) Which of the following are qualities of any good scientific hypothesis?I. It is testable.II. It is falsifiable.III. It produces quantitative data.IV. It produces results that can be replicated.

A) I onlyB) III onlyC) I and IID) III and IV


33) In presenting data that result from an experiment, a group of students show that most oftheir measurements fall on a straight diagonal line on their graph. However, two of theirdata points are ʺoutliersʺ and fall far to one side of the expected relationship. Whatshould they do?

A) Do not show these points because clearly something went wrong in the experiment.B) Average several trials, rule out the improbable results, and do not show them in the

final work.C) Show all results obtained and then try to explore the reason(s) for these outliers.D) Change the details of the experiment until they can obtain the expected results.

Answer: CBloomʹs Taxonomy: Synthesis/EvaluationSection: 1.3

34) Which of the following is the best description of a control for an experiment?A) The control group is kept in an unchanging environment.B) The control group is matched with the experimental group except for one

experimental variable.C) The control group is exposed to only one variable rather than several.D) Only the experimental group is tested or measured.



35) Which of these is an example of inductive reasoning?A) Hundreds of individuals of a species have been observed and all are

photosynthetic; therefore, the species is photosynthetic.B) These organisms live in sunny regions. Therefore, they are using photosynthesis.C) If protists are all single‐celled, then they are incapable of aggregating.D) If two species are members of the same genus, they are more alike than each of

them could be to a different genus.Answer: ABloomʹs Taxonomy: Application/AnalysisSection: 1.3

36) The application of scientific knowledge for some specific purpose is known as _____.A) technologyB) deductive scienceC) inductive scienceD) pure science


37) Which of the following best describes a model organism?A) It is often pictured in textbooks and easy for students to imagine.B) It is well studied, it is easy to grow, and results are widely applicable.C) It is small, inexpensive to raise, and lives a long time.D) It has been chosen for study by early biologists.


38) Why is a scientific topic best discussed by people of varying points of view, fromdifferent subdisciplines, and representing diverse cultures?

A) Robust and critical discussion between diverse groups improves scientific thinking.B) Scientists can coordinate with others to conduct experiments in similar ways.C) This is a way of ensuring that everyone gets the same results.D) People need to exchange their ideas with other disciplines and cultures because

everyone has a right to an opinion in science.Answer: ABloomʹs Taxonomy: Synthesis/EvaluationSection: 1.4


Chapter 2 The Chemical Context of Life

1) About twenty-five of the ninety-two natural elements are known to be essential to life.Which four of these twenty-five elements make up approximately 96 percent of livingmatter?

A) carbon, sodium, hydrogen, nitrogenB) carbon, oxygen, phosphorus, hydrogenC) oxygen, hydrogen, calcium, nitrogenD) carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen


2) Trace elements are those required by an organism in only minute quantities. Which of thefollowing is a trace element that is required by humans and other vertebrates, but not byother organisms such as bacteria or plants?

A) calciumB) iodineC) sodiumD) phosphorus


3) Which of the following statements is FALSE?A) Carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen are the most abundant elements of living

matter.B) Some naturally occurring elements are toxic to organisms.C) All life requires the same essential elements.D) Iron is needed by all humans.


4) Which of the following are compounds?A) H2O, O2, and CH4B) H2O and O2C) O2 and CH4D) H2O and CH4, but not O2


12 2, The Chemical Context of Life Copyright © 2014 Pearson Education, Inc.

5) Knowing the atomic mass of an element allows inferences about which of the following?A) the number of electrons in the elementB) the number of protons in the elementC) the number of protons plus neutrons in the elementD) the number of protons plus electrons in the element


6) In what way are elements in the same column of the periodic table the same? They havethe same number of _____.

A) protonsB) electrons when neutralC) electrons in their valence shells when neutralD) electron shells when neutral


7) Molybdenum has an atomic number of 42. Several common isotopes exist, with massnumbers from 92-100. Therefore, which of the following can be true?

A) Molybdenum atoms can have between 50 and 58 neutrons.B) Molybdenum atoms can have between 50 and 58 protons.C) Molybdenum atoms can have between 50 and 58 electrons.D) Isotopes of molybdenum have different numbers of electrons.


8) Carbon‐12 is the most common isotope of carbon and has a mass number of 12. However,the average atomic mass of carbon found on a periodic table is slightly more than 12daltons. Why?

A) The atomic mass does not include the mass of electrons.B) Some carbon atoms in nature have an extra proton.C) Some carbon atoms in nature have more neutrons.D) Some carbon atoms in nature have a different valence electron distribution.


Copyright © 2014 Pearson Education, Inc. 2, The Chemical Context of Life 13

9) Which of the following best describes the relationship between the atoms describedbelow?

Atom 1 Atom 211H

31H

A) They are isomers.B) They are isotopes.C) They contain 1 and 3 protons, respectively.D) They each contain only 1 neutron.


10) The atomic number of nitrogen is 7. Nitrogen‐15 has a greater mass number thannitrogen‐14 because the atomic nucleus of nitrogen‐15 contains _____.

A) 7 neutronsB) 8 neutronsC) 8 protonsD) 15 protons


11) From its atomic number of 15, it is possible to predict that the phosphorus atom has_____.

A) 5 neutrons, 5 protons, and 5 electronsB) 15 neutrons and 15 protonsC) 8 electrons in its outermost electron shellD) 15 protons and 15 electrons


12) Fluorine has an atomic number of 9. Which of the following would you do to a neutralfluorine atom to complete its valence shell?

A) add 1 electronB) add 2 electronsC) remove 1 electronD) Nothing. If fluorine is neutral, it has a complete valance shell.



13) Magnesium has an atomic number of 12. What is the most stable charge for a magnesiumion?

A) a +1 chargeB) a +2 chargeC) a ‐1 chargeD) a ‐2 charge

Answer: BBloomʹs Taxonomy: Application/AnalysisSection: 2.2

Refer to the following figure to answer the questions below.

14) Refer to the figure above (first three rows of the periodic table). What element hasproperties most similar to carbon?

A) boronB) siliconC) nitrogenD) phosphorus

Answer: BBloomʹs Taxonomy: Synthesis/EvaluationSection: 2.2


15) How many neutrons are present in the nucleus of a phosphorus‐32 (32P) atom (see thefigure above)?

A) 15B) 16C) 17D) 32


16) How many electrons will a single atom of sulfur with no charge and no bonds have in itsvalence shell (see the figure above)?

A) 6B) 8C) 16D) 32


17) Based on electron configuration, which of the elements in the figure above would exhibita chemical behavior most like that of oxygen?

A) carbonB) nitrogenC) sulfurD) phosphorus



18) Which one of the atoms shown would be most likely to form a cation with a charge of +1?A)

B)

C)

D)



19) Which one of the atoms shown would be most likely to form an anion with a charge of‐1?

A)

B)

C)

D)


20) Oxygen has an atomic number of 8 and most commonly, a mass number of 16. Thus,what is the atomic mass of an oxygen atom?

A) approximately 8 gramsB) approximately 8 daltonsC) approximately 16 gramsD) approximately 16 daltons



21) If you change the number of neutrons in an atom, you create _____.A) a cationB) an anionC) an isotopeD) a different element


22) Can the atomic mass of an element vary?A) No, it is fixed. If it changes at all then you have formed a different element.B) Yes. Adding or losing electrons will substantially change the atomic mass.C) Yes. Adding or losing protons will change the atomic mass without forming a

different element.D) Yes. Adding or losing neutrons will change the atomic mass without forming a

different element.Answer: DBloomʹs Taxonomy: Knowledge/ComprehensionSection: 2.2

23) Which of the following is the best description of an atomʹs physical structure?A) An atom is a solid mass of material.B) The particles that form an atom are equidistant from each other.C) Atoms are little bubbles of space with mass concentrated at the center of the bubble.D) Atoms are little bubbles of space with mass concentrated on the outside surface of

the bubble.Answer: CBloomʹs Taxonomy: Knowledge/ComprehensionSection: 2.2

24) A salamander relies on hydrogen bonding to stick to various surfaces. Therefore, asalamander would have the greatest difficulty clinging to a _____.

A) slightly damp surfaceB) surface of hydrocarbonsC) surface of mostly carbon‐oxygen bondsD) surface of mostly carbon‐nitrogen bonds

Answer: BBloomʹs Taxonomy: Synthesis/EvaluationSection: 2.3


25) A covalent chemical bond is one in which _____.A) electrons are removed from one atom and transferred to another atom so that the

two atoms become oppositely chargedB) protons and neutrons are shared by two atoms so as to satisfy the requirements of

both atomsC) outer‐shell electrons of two atoms are shared so as to satisfactorily fill their

respective orbitalsD) outer‐shell electrons of one atom are transferred to fill the inner electron shell of

another atomAnswer: CBloomʹs Taxonomy: Knowledge/ComprehensionSection: 2.3

26) What is the maximum number of covalent bonds that an oxygen atom with atomicnumber 8 can make with hydrogen?

A) 1B) 2C) 4D) 6


27) Nitrogen (N) is more electronegative than hydrogen (H). Which of the following is acorrect statement about the atoms in ammonia (NH3)?

A) Each hydrogen atom has a partial positive charge; the nitrogen atom has a partialnegative charge.

B) Ammonia has an overall positive charge.C) Ammonia has an overall negative charge.D) The nitrogen atom has a partial positive charge; each hydrogen atom has a partial

negative charge.Answer: ABloomʹs Taxonomy: Knowledge/ComprehensionSection: 2.3

28) Bonds between two atoms that are equally electronegative are _____.A) hydrogen bondsB) polar covalent bondsC) nonpolar covalent bondsD) ionic bonds



test bank · chapter 15 the chromosomal basis of inheritance 216 chapter 16 the molecular basis of...

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