Test Date :

Roll Number :

13/07/2020 Test Code : VD20/TS/NEET/03/1307

TEST - 14

VIGYAN DHARA

TEST SERIES NEET-2020

Time : 3 Hours IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS

M.M. : 720

1. This booklet contains 180 Questions.

2. All questions are compulsory and carry 4 mark,

3. There will be 1/4th negative marking.

4. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test

Booklet with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen. Use of pencil is

strictly prohibited.

5. You will not be supplied the Answer-Sheet separetely by

the invigilator. You must complete the details of Roll

Number, Booklet Code etc, on the Answer-Sheet carefully,

as per detailed instructions supplied by Academy, before

you actually start answering the questions, failing which

your Answer-Sheet will not be evaluated and you will be

awarded ‘ZERO’ mark.

6. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material,

printed or written, bits of papers, mobile phone, any

electronic device, etc., except the I - Card, inside the

examination hall/room.

7. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this

purpose in the Test Booklet only. Use of white fluid for

correction is not permissible on the Answer Sheet.

8. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over

the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the Room/

Hall; however, the candidates are allowed to take away

this Test Booklet with them.

9. No rough work is to be done on the Answer-Sheet.

Note: It is compulsory to fill Roll No. and Booklet Code on answer sheet, otherwise your answer sheet will be rejected.

#197-C, Old Court Complex, Lajpat Nagar,

Hisar, Haryana 125001

Contact No. 9812073815,16

(1)

1. The angular momentum of a wheel changes from 2L to 5L in 3 seconds. What is the magnitude of

torque acting on it:

(A) L

(B) L/2

(C) L/3

(D) L/5

2. The radius of gyration of a solid sphere of radius ‘r’ about a certain axis is ‘r’. The distance of this axis

from the centre of the sphere is:

(A) r

(B) 0.5 r

(C) 0.6 r

(D) 0.4 r

3. The radius of a rotating disc is suddenly reduced to half without any change in its mass. Then its

angular velocity will be:

(A) Four times

(B) Double

(C) Half

(D) Unchanged

4. The speed of a homogeneous solid sphere after rolling down an inclined plane of vertical height ‘h’

from rest without sliding is:

(A) 10

gh7

(B) gh

(C) 6

gh5

(D) 4

gh3

5. If the value of virtual voltage across L, C and R in an L–C–R circuit are VL, VC and VR respectively

then the source voltage will be :

(A) 22

R L CV V V V

(B) L C RV V V V

(C) 2 2 2

R L CV V V V

(D) V = VL – VC + VR

6. The Resultant reactance in an L–C–R series circuit is :

(A) XL + XC

(B) XL – XC

(C) 2 2

L CX X

(D) 2 2

L CX X

7. The natural frequency of an L-C circuit is:

(A) 1

2 LC

(2)

(B) 1 C

2 L

(C) 1 L

2 C

(D) LC

8. The true power lost in a series L-C-R circuit is:

(A) 0 0

1L

E I C

2 R

(B) 0 0

2

E I R

2 1C

L

(C) 0 0E I

2

(D) 0 0

2

2

E I R

2 1R L

C

9. The electric field associated with an electromagnetic wave in vacuum is given by

8 ˆE 40cos Kz 6 10 t i where E, z and t are in volt/m, meter and seconds respectively, the value of

wave vector k is :

(A) 6m–1

(B) 3 m–1

(C) 2 m–1

(D) 0.5 m–1

10. 5.6L of helium gas at STP is adiabatically compressed to 0.7L. Taking the initial temperature to be

T1, the work done in the process is

(A) 1

9RT

8

(B) 1

3RT

2

(C) 1

15RT

8

(D) 1

9RT

2

11. Three rods of equal length ℓ are joined to form an equilateral triangle PQR. O is the mid point of PQ.

Distance OR remains same for small changes in temperature. Coefficient of linear expansion for PR and

RQ is same and equal to ‘α1’, but that for PQ is ‘α2’, then

(A) α2 = 3 α1

(3)

(B) α2 = 4 α1

(C) α1 = 3 α2

(D) α1 = 4 α2

12. Two bodies of equal mass m are heated at a uniform rate under identical conditions. Their change in

temperature are shown graphically then what is the ratio of their latent heats (LI/LII). Scale of ‘x’?

(A) 1/2

(B) 1/3

(C) 3/4

(D) 4/3

13. A is a closed vessel of volume V and contains O2 at pressure P and temperature T, B is another

closed vessel of same volume and it contains H2 at same temperature and 2P pressure. Ratio of masses

of ‘O2’ and ‘H2’ in vessel A and B is

(A) 2 : 1

(B) 4 : 1

(C) 8 : 1

(D) 1 : 8

14. P - V plots for Two gases during adiabatic processes are shown in the figure plots 1 and 2 should

corresponding respectively to :

(A) He and Ne

(B) O2 and N2

(C) Ne and N2

(D) O2 and He

15. When a ray of light enters a medium of refractive index µ, it is observed that the angle of refraction is

half the angle of incidence, than angle of incidence is :

(A) 12cos2

(B) 1cos2

(C) 12cos

(4)

(D) 12sin2

16. As shown in figure, where should an object is placed so that image coincide with itself:

(A) 10 cm

(B) 20 cm

(C) 30 cm

(D) 40 cm

17. Calculate the radius of curvature of equi-convex lens of refractive index 1.55 and focal length 20 cm?

(A) 21 cm

(B) 20 cm

(C) 23 cm

(D) 22 cm

18. A astronomical telescope of magnifying power is 10 and distance between two lenses is 110 cm. The

focal length of both lenses are:

(A) 90 cm, 30 cm

(B) 80 cm, 30 cm

(C) 100 cm, 10 cm

(D) 90 cm, 20 cm

19. Water from a tap emerges vertically down with an initial speed of 1 m/s. The cross-sectional area of

tap is 10–4m2. Assume that the pressure is constant throughout the stream of water, and that the flow is

steady. The cross sectional area of the stream 0.15 m below the tap is:

(A) 5.0 × 10–4 m2

(B) 1.0 × 10–5 m2

(C) 5.0 × 10–5 m2

(D) 2.0 × 10–5 m2

20. The liquid inside the container has density ρ. Choose the correct points:

(A) PA – PC = ρgL

(B) PC – PB = 2ρgL

(C) PC – PD = 2ρgL

(D) PA – PD = ρgL

21. A hole is made at the bottom of the tank filled with water (density = 1000 kg/m3). If the total pressure

at the bottom of the tank is three atmospheres then the velocity of efflux is (1 atm = 105 N/m2):

(A) 400m/s

(5)

(B) 200m/s

(C) 600m/s

(D) 500m/s

22. The breaking stress for a wire of radius r of given material is F N/m2. The breaking stress for the wire

of same material of radius 2r is:

(A) F/4

(B) F/2

(C) F

(D) 2F

23. If the density of the material increase, the value of Young's modulus

(A) increases

(B) decreases

(C) first increases, then decreases

(D) first decreases, then increases

24. The intensity of two waves is 7I & 3I. If sources are non-coherent then resultant intensity will be

(A) 10 I

(B) 4 I

(C) 7 I

(D) 3 I

25. Ratio of intensities of light waves is 4 : 1 then fringe visibility will be:

(A) 5

4

(B) 4

5

(C) 1

(D) 1

2

26. In Young’s double slit experiment the ratio of intensity of maxima and minima in the interference

experiment is 25 : 9. The ratio of width of two slits is

(A) 18 : 3

(B) 4 : 1

(C) 8 : 1

(D) 16 : 1

27. Diffraction of sound waves is more evident then light waves in daily life as

(A) λsound > λlight

(B) λsound < λlight

(C) λsound = λlight

(D) sound waves are longitudinal but light waves are transverse

28. A rocket is fired from earth’s surface with a speed v 2 Rg in the upwards direction:

(A) The rocket will remain in earth's gravitational field

(B) The rocket will revolve round the earth

(C) The rocket will escape from the earth

(D) None of the above

(6)

29. A satellite is launched in circular orbit of radius R and another satellite is launched in circular orbit of

radius 1.01 R. The time period of second satellite is different from that of the first satellite by:

(A) 1.5 % increased

(B) 1 % decreased

(C) 1 % increased

(D) 1.5 decreased

30. When a mass is attached to a spring, it normally extends by 0.2m. The mass m is given a slight

additional extension and released, then its frequency is –

(A) 7

(B) 1

(C) 7

2

(D) 3

2

31. The potential energy of a particle executing SHM is 2.5J, when its displacement is one fourth of

amplitude. The total energy of the particle be-

(A) 5J

(B) 10J

(C) 40 J

(D) 2.5 J

32. The time taken by a particle executing SHM to pass from point A to B where its velocities are same,

is 3s. After another 3s, it returns to B. The time period of oscillation is:

(A) 3s

(B) 6s

(C) 9s

(D) 12s

33. The number of photo-electrons emitted per second from a metal surface increases when

(A) The energy of incident photon increases

(B) The frequency of incident light increases

(C) The wavelength of the incident light increases

(D) The intensity of incident light increases

34. A proton and an α-particle are accelerated through a potential difference of 100V. The ratio of the

wavelength associated with the proton to that associated with α particle is

(A) 2 :1

(B) 2 : 1

(C) 2 2 :1

(D) 1

:12 2

35. Half life of radioactive substance is 20 min then time between 33% decay and 67% decay will be

(A) 20 min

(B) 40 min

(C) 50 min

(D) 10 min

(7)

36. 1H1 + 1H1 + 1H2 → X + +1e0 + energy

The emitted particle X is

(A) neutron

(B) proton

(C) α-particle

(D) neutrino

37. A bat emits ultra sonic sound of frequency 100 KHz in air. If this sound meets a water surface. The

wavelength of the reflected and transmitted sound are (speed of sound in air 340 m/sec, speed of sound

in water = 1500 m/sec.)

(A) 3.4 mm, 30 mm

(B) 6.8 mm, 15 mm

(C) 3.4 mm, 15 mm

(D) None

38. A wave of frequency 100 Hz travels along a string towards its fixed end when this wave travel back,

after reflection a node is formed at a distance of 10 cm from the fixed end. The speed of the wave

(incident and reflected) is :

(A) 5 m/s

(B) 10 m/s

(C) 20 m/s

(D) 40 m/s

39. String of mass 2.5 kg is under a tension of 200 N. The length of the stretched string is 20 m. If the

transverse jerk is struck at end of the string. The disturbance will reach the other end is

(A) 0.5 s

(B) 1 s

(C) 1.5 s

(D) 2 s

40. A closed organ pipe of length L and an open organ pipe contain gases of densities ρ1 and ρ2

respectively. The compressibility of gases are equal in both of pipes. Both the pipes are vibrating in their

first overtone with same frequency. The length of the open organ pipe is :

(A) L

3

(B) 4L

3

(C) 1

2

4L

3

(D) 2

1

4L

3

41. Sound waves of wavelength λ travelling in a medium with a speed v enter into another medium

where its speed is ‘2v’. Wavelength of sound waves in the second medium is :

(A) λ

(B) 2

(C) 2 λ

(D) 4 λ

(8)

42. Assuming that the junction diode is ideal then the current through the diode:

(A) zero

(B) 2 mA

(C) 1 mA

(D) 5 mA

43. The following configuration of gates is equivalent to:

(A) NAND

(B) OR

(C) X–OR

(D) NOR

44. In the given circuit current flown through the battery is:

(A) 0.5 A

(B) 1 A

(C) 1.5 A

(D) 2.5 A

45. Dark current concept is used in:

(A) Photo diode

(B) LED

(C) Zener diode

(D) All

46. Which of the following is σ bonded organometallic compounds:

(A) 6

6 6 2Cr C H

(B) 3 2 2 4PtCl C H

(9)

(C) 5

5 5 2Fe C H

(D) 2 5 4C H Pb

47. Excess of AgBr present on photofilm can be removed by using:

(A) Na2S2O3. 5H2O

(B) Na2O

(C) CuSO4. 5H2O

(D) HCl

48. PdCl4 4NH3 on reacting with AgNO3 solution will give have many moles AgCl ppt:

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 4

49. PtCl2, 4 NH3 with AgNO3 solution will give how many moles of AgCl ppt:

(A) 1

(B) 0

(C) 2

(D) 4

50. Which of the following complex is square planar:

(A) [Ni(SCN)4]–2

(B) [NiCl4]–2

(C) [Ni(CN)4]–2

(D) [CuCl4]–2

51. Which is more strong field ligand:

(A) SCN–

(B) C2O4–2

(C) ethylene diamine

(D) CO

52. Iron obtained from reduction zone of the blast furnace is:

(A) wrought iron

(B) cast iron

(C) spongy iron

(D) steel

53. Self-reduction of the sulphide ore takes place during:

(A) Roasting

(B) Smelting

(C) Calcination

(D) Cupellation

54. MnO2 dissolves in concentrated HCl to form:

(A) Mn+4 ion and Cl2

(B) Mn+2 ion and Cl2

(C) [MnCl4]2– and Cl2

(D) only [MnCl4]2–

(10)

55. Which will give same gaseous products with water:

(A) Na, Na2O2

(B) Ca, CaH2

(C) Ca, CaO

(D) Ba, BaO2

56. The difference of water molecules in gypsum and P.O.P is:

(A) 5

2

(B) 2

(C) 1

2

(D) 1

12

57. The oxide that given H2O2 on treatment with dilute H2SO4 is:

(A) PbO2

(B) BaO2 . 8H2O

(C) MnO2

(D) LiO2

58. How many lone pair electrons are present in monomeric phosphorous allotrope:

(A) 2

(B) 4

(C) 8

(D) 16

59. Which of the following species is not diamagnetic:

(A) O2

(B) N2+2

(C) Peroxide ion

(D) O2 and N2+2

60. Tendency of bond formation by equal sharing of electrons is maximum in:

(A) Pyrene

(B) BCl3

(C) Chloroform

(D) BeF2

61. Which of the following compound has four bond pair & one lone pair:

(A) SF4

(B) NH4⊕ & XeF4

(C) ICl4–

(D) None of these above

62. Hybridisation of central atom in tri iodide ion is:

(A) sp3d

(B) sp3d3

(C) sp3d2

(D) All are possible in different conditions of temp. & pressure

(11)

63. Which of the following compound gives yellow solid product when reacts with NaOI?

(A) CH3CH2OH

(B) CH3OH

(C)

(D)

64.

Products B & C are:

(A) Identical

(B) Chain isomers

(C) Functional group isomers

(D) Tautomers

65.

Product A is can be used as:

(A) Analgesic

(B) Anasthetic

(C) Bactericidal

(D) Fire extinguisher

66. Which of the following is most appropriate method to prepare methyl fluoride?

(A) CH3Br + AgF →

(B) CH3OH + HF →

(C) CH4 + F2 h

(D) CH4 + HF →

67. 2 2

4

Cl 2 mole NaNH

CClpH CH CH Ph x y

Identify (y)?

(A)

(B)

(C) Ph–C≡C–Ph

(D) Both (B) and (C)

68.

Identify product (C)?

(12)

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

69.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D) Both (B) and (C)

70.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D) None

71. Arrange the following substrate in decreasing order of electrophilic addition reaction:

(13)

(A) A > B > C

(B) A > C > B

(C) B > A > C

(D) C > B > A

72.

Product (A) will be:

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D) SE reaction is not possible

73. 4LiA H

3 3 2CH CHO CH CH OH

Nucleophile added in this reaction:-

(A) 4AlH

(B) Li

(C) H

(D) H

74. on reaction with cold conc. HBr gives:

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

75. Which of the following gives same product on HBO-reaction, oxymercuration demercuration and acid

catalysed hydration:

(A)

(14)

(B)

(C)

(D)

76. Which of the following is the most acidic alcohol?

(A) CH3–OH

(B) CF3–CH2–OH

(C)

(D)

77.

Which form di-iodide on reaction with HI (excess)?

(A) I, II

(B) II

(C) I

(D) None

78. Removal of soil by the action of wind and water is known as:

(A) Erosion

(B) Fossilization

(C) Leaching

(D) Calcification

79. Which of the following carbohydrate have ‘L’-configuration?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(15)

80. Ozone layer of upper atmosphere is being destroyed by:

(A) Sulphurdioxide

(B) Carbondioxide

(C) Chlorofluorocarbon

(D) Smog

81.

Product C is:

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

82. Which of the following compounds when heated with KOH & primary Amine gives a product with foul

smell.

(A) CHCl3

(B) CH3Cl

(C) CH3OH

(D) CH3CN

83.

Product is:

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(16)

84. Name of given compound is:

(A) THF

(B) Pyran

(C) Furan

(D) Freon

85.

Above reaction involves:

(A) Diazotisation

(B) Sandmeyer reaction

(C) Gatterman reaction

(D) Both (A) & (B)

86.

Product C is:

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

87. Ethyl isocynide on reduction with Na and Alcohol gives:

(A) C2H5NH2

(B) CH3CH2CH2–NH2

(C) (C2H5)2NH

(D) C2H5–NH–CH3

88. MnO4– + C2O4

2– → Mn+2 + CO2

For the above reaction equivalent weight of CO2 is:

(A) 44

(B) 11

(C) 22

(D) 88

89. Equivalent weight of H3PO2 when it disproportionate into PH3 and H3PO3 is:

(A) M

(B) M/2

(17)

(C) M/4

(D) 3M/4

90. A real gas most closely approaches the behavior of an ideal gas at:

(A) 15 atm and 200 K

(B) 1 atm and 273 K

(C) 0.5 atm and 500 K

(D) 15 atm and 500 K

91. Deplasmolysis occurs in cell when it placed in:

(A) Hypotonic solution

(B) Hypertonic solution

(C) Isotonic solution

(D) Buffer solution

92. Sap ascends in woody stems because root pressure and:

(A) Transpiration pull

(B) Guttation

(C) Molecular adhension

(D) Photosynthesis

93. When sugar is added at source water potential of source..........and when sugar is removed at sink,

the wate potential sink.............:

(A) Decreases, Increases

(B) Increases, Increases

(C) Decreases, Decreases

(D) Increases, Decreases

94. Which element is involved in the formation of mitotic spindles?

(A) Mg

(B) P

(C) Ca

(D) K

95. Nitrate present in the soil is also reduced to nitrogen by the process of denitrification it is carried out

by:

(A) Pseudomonas

(B) Nitrobactor

(C) Rhizobium

(D) Nitrococcus

96. The major role of phosphorus in plant metabolism is:

(A) To generate metabolic energy

(B) To evolve oxygen during photosynthesis

(C) To evolve carbondioxide during respiration

(D) To create anaerobic conditions

97. Stroma lamellae lacks all except:

(A) PS-II

(B) NADP reductase

(C) PS–I

(D) Water splitting complex

(18)

98. Similarity between C3 and C4 pathway:

(A) Both are equally efficient

(B) Organic acids are formed as the first product of CO2 fixation

(C) Both require one type of cell to occur

(D) Both takes place in all the plants

99. Water stress leads to:

(A) Opening of stomata

(B) Wilting of leaves

(C) Increase the activity of leaf

(D) Transpiration

100. Which one option is not correct for phosphorilation in mitochondria:

(A) Oxidative phosphorilation

(B) Substrate level phosphorilation

(C) Photophosphorilation

(D) UQ is H carrier

101. In how many steps, CO2 is released in aerobic respiration of pyruvic acid?

(A) 1

(B) 6

(C) 3

(D) 4

102. Which of the following is the correct sequence of glycolysis?

(A) G6P → PEP → 3 PGAL → 3 PGA

(B) G6P → 3 PGAL → 3 PGA → PEP

(C) G6P → PGP → 3 PGA → 3 PGAL

(D) G6P → PEP → 3 PGAL → 3 PGA

103. In expression of exponential growth 'e' is referred to as:

(A) Exponential growth rate

(B) Base at natural log

(C) Relative growth rate

(D) Change in size

104. How many of the following auxins are obtained from plants?

IAA, IBA, NAA, 2,4-D

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 4

105. A plant tissue is undergoing senescence, which PGR would be found in?

(A) Auxins

(B) Gibbrellins

(C) Cytokinins

(D) Ethylene

106. When Apoenzyme is separated from its metal component, its activity is:

(A) Decreased

(B) Increased

(C) Lost

(19)

(D) Remains unaffected

107. Which one of the following is not cofactor?

(A) Co-enzyme

(B) Metal ions

(C) Prosthetic group

(D) Apoenzyme

108. There are some nucleic acids that behaves like enzymes and are called:

(A) DNAse

(B) RNAase

(C) Endonuclease

(D) Ribozymes

109. Which is not correctly matched?

(A) Modern man - First man who started agriculture

(B) Neanderthal man - First man who started to buried dead bodies

(C) Peking man - First man who started use of fire

(D) Cro-Magnon man - First man who painted walls of caves

110. Recapitulation theory stated that:

(A) Phylogeny recapitulates ontogeny

(B) Omnis vivum ex ovo or vivo

(C) Omnis cellula e cellula

(D) Ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny

111. Production of improved varieties of domesticated animals is an example of:

(A) Natural selection

(B) Artificial selection

(C) Sexual selection

(D) All of these

112. Which statement is wrong about big-bang theory?

(A) Big-bang was a singular huge explosion

(B) Big-bang was unimaginable in physical terms

(C) Big-bang theory attempts to explain the origin of life on earth

(D) The gaseous clouds formed due to this big-bang finally condensed to form celestial bodies

113. First form of life arose slowly through evolutionary forces from non living organic molecules. This is

called as:

(A) Chemical evolution

(B) Biological evolution

(C) Organic evolution

(D) Retrogressive evolution

114. Some statements are given for wings of bat and butterfly:

(a) They are anatomically similar

(b) They are homologous structure

(c) They are result of divergent evolution

(d) They perform different functions

(e) They are example of adaptive divergence

(f) They indicates common ancestry

How many statements are correct?

(20)

(A) Zero

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

115. Which statement is correct according to conventional religious literature which believes in the

theory of special creation?

(A) Earth is very old

(B) Diversity on earth keeps on change

(C) All organisms were created as such as we see today

(D) Different life forms arose at different periods in history on earth

116. Structures A and B are examples of:

(A) Homologous structures

(B) Analogous structures

(C) Vestigial structures

(D) Atavistic structures

117. Sometimes a sudden change in the allelic frequencies in a population due to natural calamities may

lead to formation of new species, this is called as:

(A) Founder effect

(B) Bottleneck effect

(C) Gene flow

(D) Mutation

118. Which statement is true about the counts of peppered moths in England?

(A) White winged moths were more in post industrialization period

(B) White winged moths were more in pre industrialization period

(C) Dark winged moths were more in pre industrialization period

(D) Dark winged moths were less in post industrialization period

119. Read the following statements carefully (A-E). Choose the incorrect statements.

(a) Cancerous cells show contact inhibition

(b) AIDS is not transmitted through semen and saliva

(c) Coccaine interferes with the dopamine function that is why it causes euphoria

(d) Amphitamine is obtained from flowering plants

(e) Vaccination is based on immunological memory

Options

(A) a, c and e

(B) a, b and d

(C) c, d and e

(D) b and c

(21)

120. Given below are figures of flowering plants. Choose the correct option:

Options

(A) A strong hallucinogenic drug LSD is obtained from figure C

(B) The flower tops, leaves and the resins of figure B are used in various combinations to produce

marijuana, hashish and ganja.

(C) Opiods are obtained from Figure C

(D) Cocaine commonly called crack or coke is usually snorted is usually obtained from figure A

121. Which of the following disease is not produced by cigarette smoking?

(A) Emphysema

(B) Bronchitis

(C) Cancer of Urinary Bladder

(D) Myosarcoma

122. Which of the following options regarding malaria is correct?

(A) Plasmodium completes its sexual reproduction in Human

(B) Malaria is transmitted by bite of female culex mosquito

(C) Malariae falciparum is a malignant malaria

(D) The rupture of R.B.C's is associated with release of a toxin called hirudin

123. Match the columns A and B. Choose the correct option

Options

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 4

124. Which bond is present between heavy chain and light chain of antibody?

(A) Ionic bond

(B) Peptide bond

(22)

(C) Disulphide bond

(D) Dioxide bond

125. If the food source of honey bee is about less than 75 m from the hive, which dance is performed by

honey bees?

(A) Tail wagging dance

(B) Round dance

(C) Spiral dance

(D) (A) and (B) both

126. In multiple ovulation embryo transfer technique, how many eggs are produced as compare to one

egg per cycle generally?

(A) 4 to 5

(B) 6 to 8

(C) 5 to 10

(D) 10 to 20

127. Read the following four statement (I-IV):

(I) Food provides energy and organic materials for growth and repair of tissue

(II) Bio macromolecules in food utilized by our body in their original form

(III) The alimentary canal is tubular structure

(IV) Food is basic requirements of all non living organism

How many statements are correct?

(A) One

(B) Two

(C) Three

(D) All

128. Match the following:

Options:

(A) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii

(B) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii

(C) A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv

(D) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i

129. Which one of the following teeth are protective nature?

(A) Incisor

(B) Canines

(C) Pre molors

(D) Molors

(23)

130. Find out the correct match from the following table?

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 4

131. Read the following statement of (I-IV):

(I) Liver is the largest gland of the body

(II) Liver is situated in the thoracic cavity

(III) Hepatic lobule is covered by connective tissue sheath called as hepatic capsule

(IV) Bile is secreted by the hepatic cell

How many statement/statements is/are correct?

(A) One

(B) Two

(C) Three

(D) All

132. Which enzyme of digestive system act in acidic medium?

(A) Trypsin

(B) Pepsin

(C) Amylase

(D) HCl

133. Read the following statements

a. Respiration is a catabolic process during which CO2 is released.

b. Respiration is a catabolic process during which energy is released.

c. Respiration is a anabolic process during which O2 is utilized.

d. Respiration is a anabolic process during which glucose is utilized

Which of the following in the correct answer?

(A) a & b are correct

(B) c & d are correct

(C) b & c are correct

(D) a & d are correct

134. If CO2 concentration increases in blood then breathing will:

(A) Increases

(B) Decreases

(C) Stop

(D) Remain unchanged

135. The function of surfactant is:

(A) To reduced the surface tension of the alveoli

(B) Facilitating Expiration

(C) Maintaining the size of the trachea

(24)

(D) Maintaining the length of primary bronchi

136. Arrange the following in the order of decreasing volume:

(a) Tidal volume

(b) Residual volume

(c) Inspiratory reserve volume

(d) Vital capacity

(A) a < b < c < d

(B) a < c < b < d

(C) d > c > b > a

(D) a < b < d < c

137. How many statements are incorrect for WBC?

(i) They are colourless due to lack of Haemoglobin

(ii) They are non-nucleated in most of the mammals

(iii) Average count is 6000-8000/mm3 of blood

(iv) Generally long life span in blood

(A) 2

(B) 3

(C) 1

(D) 4

138. Reabsorption and secretion of major substances at different parts of the nephron are shown in the

given figure. In this figure A, B, C and D are respectively?

(A) HCO3– , Nutrients, Urea, NaCl

(B) NaCl, Urea, K+, HCO3–

(C) NaCl, Urea, HCO3–, Ammonia

(D) H2O, Urea, NaCl, HCO3–

139. The conducting part of respiratory tract does not help in:

(A) Transport the atmospheric air to the alveoli.

(B) Clear air from foreign particles

(C) Humidify and bring the air to body temperature

(D) Diffusion of O2 and CO2 between blood and air

140. Arytenoid cartilage is found in:

(A) Hyoid

(B) Sternum

(C) Larynx

(D) Nose

(25)

141. When temperature decreases oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve will become:

(A) More steep

(B) Right shift

(C) Left shift

(D) Straight

142. Which one is the first step of respiration?

(A) Breathing

(B) Transport of gases

(C) Release of energy

(D) Diffusion of gases across alveolar membrane

143. The haemoglobin of a human foetus:

(A) Has only 2 protein subunits instead of 4

(B) Has a higher affinity for oxygen than that of an adult

(C) Has a lower affinity for oxygen than that of the adult

(D) Its affinity for oxygen is the same as that of an adult

144. Mark the true statement among the following with reference to normal breathing:

(A) Inspiration is a passive process where as expiration is active

(B) Inspiration is a active process where as expiration is passive

(C) Inspiration and expiration both are active processes

(D) Inspiration and expiration both are passive processes

145. Which of the following country have maximum biodiversity?

(A) Brazil

(B) South Africa

(C) Rusia

(D) India

146. Which of the following is the main cause for the loss of biodiversity?

(A) Habitat loss

(B) Invasion of Alien species

(C) Keeping Animals in zoological parks

(D) Overexploitation of natural Resource

147. Which of the following is not an Alien Species in India:

(A) Lantana

(B) Doob grass

(C) Carrot grass

(D) Hycinth

148. At which of the following place you will find Pitcher plant?

(A) North-East Rainforest of India

(B) Sundervan

(C) Thar desert

(D) Runn of Katch

149. Which of the following character is not related to biodiversity hot spot?

(A) High species richness

(B) High Endeonism

(C) Lesser inter specific interaction

(D) Habitate loss

(26)

150. Match the animal given in column I with their place in column II:

(A) i-a,ii-c,iii-b,iv-d

(B) i-d,ii-c,iii-a,iv-b

(C) i-c,ii-a,iii-b,iv-d

(D) i-c,ii-a,iii-d,iv-b

151. Which one of the following is an example of ex-situ conservation?

(A) biosphere reserve

(B) national park

(C) sacred groove

(D) wildlife safari

152. Which of the following is the reason for loss of Passenger Pigeon?

(A) Habitate loss

(B) Over exploitation

(C) Alien Species invasion

(D) All of the above

153. Which of the following is not an example of positive pollution?

(A) Excessive use of biofertilizer

(B) Deforestation

(C) Dumping of nuclear wastin soil

(D) Land filling

154. The species found in majority in nature:

(A) Birds

(B) Fishes

(C) Fungi

(D) Insect

155. Nitrate is converted into free nitrogen by which process?

(A) Nitrogen fixation

(B) Ammonification

(C) Denitrification

(D) Nitrification

156. Which of the following is incorrect match?

(A) Kyotoprotocol –Climate change

(B) Rio-de-jenerio – Biodiversity conservation

(C) Minimata disease – Mercury

(D) Air (Preservation & control of pollution) Act– 1987

157. Which protocol have laid down definite road maps, separately for developed and developing

countries, for reducing the emission of CFC & other ODS?

(A) Montreal protocol

(27)

(B) Kyoto protocol

(C) Earth summit

(D) Air pollution act

158. Mammals from colder climate generally have shorter ear & limbs to minimise heat loss. This is

known as:

(A) Burgmann Rule

(B) Allen Rule

(C) Rivet popper hypothesis

(D) None of the above

159. The relationship between Orchid and Bumble bee is:

(A) Commensalism

(B) Mutualism

(C) Predation

(D) Parajitism

160. Which of the following is structural unit of ecosystem?

(A) Stratification & Species diversity

(B) Productivity & decomposition

(C) Stratification & mineral cycle

(D) Energy flow & Species diversity

161. Which of the following is not the factor responsible for decreasing the process of decomposition?

(A) Low temperature

(B) Sugar solution

(C) Chitin

(D) Lignin

162. Energy of 10000 Kcal is stored in producer in an area then energy present in secondary consumer

will be:

(A) 10 kcal

(B) 100 kcal

(C) 1 kcal

(D) 0.1 kcal

163. Match column I with column II:

(A) a→iv, b→iii, c→iii, d→i

(B) a→ii, b→iv, c→iii, d→i

(C) a→iv, b→ii, c→i, d→iii

(D) a→ii, b→iv, c→i, d→iii

(28)

164. Which statement is Incorrect regarding to skeletal Muscles?

(A) they have stripped appearance under microscope

(B) they are Primarily involved in locomatory actions and change of body posture

(C) their activities are under the contral of autonomic nervous system

(D) closely associated with the skeletal component of body

165. Which of the following is incorrect match of muscles with their action and structure:

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 4

166.

Choose correct A,B,C?

(A) A→Perilymph, B→Perilymph, C→Endolymph

(B) A→Perilymph, B→Endolymph, C→Perilymph

(C) A→Perilymph, B→Perilymph, C→Perilymph

(D) A→Endolymph, B→Perilymph, C→Perilymph

167. __A__ is a condition in which __B__ diameter is increase due to __C__ of __D__ muscle of Iris.

Choose A, B, C, D?

(A) A→Miosis,B→Pupil,C→Contraction,D→ Circular Sphincter

(B) A→Mydriasis,B→Pupil,C→Relaxation,D→ Radial dilatory

(C) A→Miosis,B→Iris,C→Contraction,D→ Radial dilatory

(D) A→Mydriasis,B→Pupil,C→Contraction,D→ Radial dilatary

168.

Choose Incorrect option

(A) A→Movement Permitted in Infinite axis

(B) B→Present between carpals

(C) C→Slightly Movable joints

(D) A→It is type of Diarthrosis

(29)

169. Which of the following Item give Its correct total number?

(A) Cranial Nerve→12

(B) Cervical vertebrae in human→7 Pairs

(C) Floating ribs in human→4

(D) Collar bone→ 2 Pairs

170. Myasthenia gravis which affecting neuro-Muscular junction is a:

(A) Genetic disorder

(B) Inflammatory disorder

(C) Age-related disorder

(D) Auto-Immune disorder

171.

Imagine that it is a cut section of cerebellum, 'A' and 'B' denote Inner and outer part respectively. ‘A’ and

‘B’ made up of:

(A) A→Gray matter,B→White matter

(B) A→White matter,B→Gray matter

(C) Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are made up of gray matter

(D) Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are made up of white matter

172. Nerve Impulse is also known as:

(A) Resting Membrane Potential

(B) Graded Potential

(C) Action Potential

(D) Nerve Potential

173. Read the following statement carefully:

(i) Chemical is transmitted from one neuron to another neuron through a junction called synapse

(ii) At electrical synapse membrane of Pre and post synaptic neurons are in very close Proximity

(iii) Transmission of an Impulse across chemical synapse is very similar to conduction along a single

neuron

(iv) At Post synaptic Membrane, the new Potential developed may be excitatory or Inhibitary

How many statements are not Incorrect?

(A) one

(B) two

(C) three

(D) four

174.

Sketch showing some eyeball muscles. A, B, C are the cranial nerve which supply that muscle A, B, C

is:

(A) A→4, B→6, C→6

(30)

(B) A→4, B→3, C→3

(C) A→3, B→6, C→4

(D) A→4, B→6, C→3

175. Hormone are:

(A) Internal secretion mostly discharged in the blood by endocrine gland

(B) Secretion of exocrine gland

(C) Chemical substances secreted in to gut

(D) Inorganic catalyst

176. Toxic agent Present in food which interfere with thyroxine synthesis lead to development of:

(A) Simple goiter

(B) Thyrotoxicosis

(C) Toxic goiter

(D) Cretinism

177. Which hormone is responsible for maintenance of Pregnancy?

(A) HCG

(B) Progesteron

(C) Estrogen

(D) Prostaglandin

178. Read the following statements carefully:

(i) Cortisol is only diabetogenic Hormone of body

(ii) Cortisol Facilitate Inflammation so used in disease like Arthritis

(iii) Cortisol is contrain dication in case of Allergy

(iv) Cortisol may used in organ transplantation

(v) Cortisol stimulate RBC production

How many statements are Incorrect?

(A) one

(B) two

(C) three

(D) four

179.

Hormone ‘A’ is:

(A) ADH

(B) Aldosterone

(C) Cortisol

(D) Glucocorticoides

180. Which hormone is/are secreted from thyroid follicle:

(A) Thyroxine

(B) Calcitonin

(C) both A and B

(D) PTH