subject: science, mcq life processes nutrition

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Subject: Science, MCQ

Life Processes

Nutrition

1. This energy comes from outside the body of the individual organism, process is called

………

a. Respiration b. Nutrition

c. Digestion d. Excretion

2. Which of the following are maintenance process in the living organisms?


c. Digestion d. All of these.

3. In which of the following process oxygen is acquired for breakdown of food?


c. Digestion d. Circulation

4. The outside source of energy is quite variable it need to be converted into uniform source

of energy, with the help of different oxidizing-reducing reaction called as

a. Excretion b. Nutrition

c. Digestion d. Respiration

5. The undigested food is removed from the body process is called ….


c. Excretion d. Circulation

6. The process of complex, non-diffusible, non- absorbable food material is converted into

simple, diffusible, absorbable is called …..

a. Respiration b. Transportation

c. Digestion d. Excretion

7. The process of acquiring oxygen and releasing carbon dioxide is called as ……

a. Nutrition b. Respiration

c. Excretion d. Digestion.

8. The unicellular organisms get the food by process of …..

a. Transportation b. Transpiration

c. Translocation d. Diffusion.

9. What is criteria to decide something is alive?

a. Breathing b. Respiration

c. Metabolism d. All of these

10. What is raw materials required for the photosynthesis?

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a. Carbon dioxide b. Water

c. Oxygen d. All of these.

11. What leaves contain that is important for photosynthesis?


c. Oxygen d. Chlorophyll

12. What is taken up by stomata during day time?

a. Carbon dioxide b. Oxygen

c. Water d. Food.

13. What is released by stomata during night time?


c. Water d. Food.

14. Which of the following is autotroph?

a. Malarial parasite b. Virus

c. Neem tree d. Bacteria

15. The organisms which prepare their food from inorganic substance are called …….

a. Autotrophs b. Heterotrophs

c. Parasite d. Insectivorous

Autotrophic Nutrition

16. What are the important steps involved in the photosynthesis?

a. The absorption of light by the chlorophyll.

b. The conversion of light energy into chemical energy.

c. Splitting of water molecules into hydrogen and oxygen.

d. All of these.

17. In which of the following part photosynthetic pigment is present which has capacity to

harvest sunlight?

a. Roots b. Stems

c. Leaves d. Flowers

18. With the help of which part gases like oxygen and carbon dioxide comes in and out of

plant?

a. Guard cells b. Stomata

c. Epidermal cells d. roots

19. The appearance of stomata in dicot is like

a. Dumbbell shaped b. Kidney shaped

c. Bubble shaped d. All of these.

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20. The appearance of stomata in Monocot is like

a. Dumbbell shaped b. Kidney shaped

c. Bubble shaped d. All of these.

21. Who governs closing and opening of guard cells?

a. Oxygen b. Carbon dioxide

c. Water d. other gases

22. Which of the following is present in leaf?

a. Chloroplast b. guard cells

c. Epidermis d. all of these.

23.What are the names of green dot that contain chlorophyll?

a. Leucoplast b. Chloroplast

c. Chromoplast d. Tonoplast.

24. The tiny pores that is present leaves are called…

a. Guard cells b. Stomata

c. Mesophyll d. Xylem fibers

25. Excess water is lost by the tiny pores present in the aerial parts of plants is called

a. Transportation b. Translocation

c. Transpiration d. Translation

26. When water enters into guard cells, leaves the guard cell ….

a. Swell and shrink b. Shrink and swell

c. Shrink d. Swell

27. By the end of photosynthesis food is prepared in the form of

a. Nitrogen b. Phosphorus

c. Glucose d. Calcium

28. Which of the following is essential element used in synthesis of proteins.

a. Phosphorous b. Potassium

c. Nitrogen d. None of these

Nutrition in Unicellular organisms

29. Which of the following organism’s breakdown the food material outside the body and

then absorb it.

a. Fungi b. Bread mould

c. Both a & B d. Plants

30. Some other organisms derive the food without killing animals such organisms are called

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a. Symbiotic b. Parasitic

c. Autotrophic d. Insectivorous

31. Which of the following is an example of parasitic organisms?

a. Cuscuta b. Leeches

c. Ticks d. All of these

32. Amoeba acquires the food by temporary finger like projection called as

a. Nucleus b. Cytoplasm

c. Pseudopodia d. Vacuole

33. What is correct sequence of nutrition in amoeba?

a. Egestion—Absorption—digestion –Assimilation – Ingestion

b. Ingestion—Absorption—digestion –Assimilation – Egestion

c. Absorption –Assimilation –digestion-- Egestion

d. Digestion –Assimilation – Egestion—Ingestion

Human Digestive system

34. In which of the following part of alimentary canal saliva is added?

a. Stomach b. Small intestine

c. large intestine d. Buccal cavity

35. Which enzyme is present is saliva?

a. Pepsin b. Lipase

c. amylase d. Protease

36. …….. biological catalyst which enhances the rate of reaction.

a. Enzyme b. saliva

c. Bile juice d. Intestinal juice

37. The food from esophagus goes to ……… part of alimentary canal.

a. Small intestine b. Large intestine

c. Stomach d. Pharynx

38. Salivary amylase act on ….

a. Sugars b. proteins

c. Fats d. All of these

39. Which of the following is not part of alimentary canal?

a. Liver b. Pancreas

c. Both a & b d. Intestines

40. Which of the following are associated digestive parts?

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c. Salivary glands d. All of these

41. Pancreatic amylase is secreted by …..



42. Bile juice is secreted by …….



43. The enzyme which is responsible for emulsification of fat is……

a. Salivary amylase b. Lipase

c. Pancreatic amylase d. Pepsin

44. In which of the following organ action of HCl favors the conversion of complex food

into simpler food?

a. Small intestine b. large intestine

c. Stomach d. Esophagus

45. The exit of food from the stomach is regulated by the……

a. Organs b. Tissues

c. Cells d. Sphincters

45. Where the complete digestion of food happens?

a. Stomach b. pharynx

c. Small intestine d. large intestine

46. Which of the following animals have longer small intestine?

a. Lion b. Tiger

c. Deer d. wolf

47. Which of the following animals have shorter small intestine

a. Herbivore b. Carnivore

c. Omnivore d. All of these

48. Why some animals need longer small intestine find out most appropriate matching line

from the given options.

a. They like to eat food for more time.

b. The food they are eating is takes time for digestion.

c. They keep the food in the mouth for long time.

d. All of these.

49. Complete digestion of proteins, carbohydrates, fats occur in………

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a. Small intestine b. Large intestine

c. Stomach d. Appendix

50. In which of the following juices trypsin is present?

a. Salivary secretion b. Bile juice

c. Pancreatic juice d. All of these.

51. The walls of small intestine secrete ……

a. Bile juice b. Pancreatic juice

c. Intestinal Juice d. All of these

52. By the end of digestion proteins, carbohydrates and fats are converted into which of the

following product in correct order?

a. Fatty acid and glycerol, amino acids, sugars

b. Amino acids, sugars, fatty acids and glycerol

c. Amino acids, fatty acid and glycerol, sugars.

d. Fatty acid and glycerol, sugars, amino acids

53. Which of the following helps to increase the surface area for digestion of the food?

a. Lining of alimentary canal b. Mucosa

c. Villi d. Caecum

54. The exit of the food material is regulated by….

a. Cardiac sphincter b. pyloric sphincters

c. Anal sphincter d. All of these.

55. Breakdown of glucose which is six carbon molecules into three carbon molecule

pyruvate is related with which of the following life processes?

a. Nutrition b. Respiration

c. Digestion d. Transportation

Respiration

56. Conversion of pyruvate into ethanol and carbon dioxide is also called as

a. Lactic acid production b. Fermentation

c. Aerobic respiration d. all of these

57. Breakdown of pyruvate in presence of oxygen is also called …..

a. Lactic acid production b. Fermentation

c. Aerobic respiration d. all of these

58. Breakdown of pyruvate in absence of oxygen is also called …..

a. Aerobic respiration b. anaerobic respiration

c. Lactic acid production d. Fermentation

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59. Accumulation of what causes cramps in the muscles.

a. Ethanol b. Lactic acid

c. Pyruvic acid d. All of these.

60. Which of the following is two carbon molecules?

a. Ethanol b. Lactic acid

c. Pyruvic acid d. Glucose

61. In breakdown of glucose by different pathways by using aerobic and anaerobic

respiration what is common end product in all pathways.

a. Carbon dioxide b. energy

c. Lactic acid d. Alcohol

62. Breakdown of pyruvate to lactic acid is happening in the ……

a. Yeast b. Muscle cells

c. Mitochondria d. All of these

63. Breakdown of pyruvate to the ethanol, carbon dioxide and energy is happening in the …



64. Breakdown of pyruvate to the carbon dioxide, energy and water is happening in the …..



65. In which of the following respiration more amount of energy is released?

a. Breakdown of pyruvate to the ethanol and energy

b. Breakdown of pyruvate to the lactic acid and energy

c. Breakdown of pyruvate to the carbon dioxide, water and energy

d. All of these

66. The energy released during cellular respiration is stored in the form of

a. AMP b. ADP c. ATP d. None of these.

67. Energy currency for the cell is ……..

a. AMP b. ADP c. ATP d. All of these

68. At night for plant which of the following is not applicable?

a. Photosynthesis happens

b. Elimination of carbon dioxide

c. Direction of diffusion dependent on environmental conditions.

d. All of these.

69. What is happening in case of plants during photosynthesis?

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a. Carbon dioxide is taken, oxygen is released.

b. Stomata are open during day time, closed during night time.

c. Chlorophyll and sunlight is essential for the purpose of photosynthesis.

d. All of these.

70. Which of the following organisms have high rate of breathing?

a. Aquatic organisms b. Terrestrial organism

c. Arboreal organisms d. None of these

71. Which of the following ensures that air passage does not collapse.

a. Larynx b. Pharynx c. Trachea d. Rings of cartilage

72. Which of the following is part of human respiratory system?

a. Pharynx b. Larynx c. Trachea d. All of these.

73. Which of the following is NOT part of human respiratory system?

a. Liver b. Larynx c. Trachea d. Lungs.

74. The air passage divides into smaller balloon like structure into lungs that is called as

a. Brochi b. Bronchioles c. Alveoli d. Ribs

75. What changes happen in the body when we breathe in …..

a. We lift our ribs b. Flatten our diaphragm

c. Chest cavity becomes larger d. All of these.

76. Which of the following is true for breathing cycle?

a. When we breathe out all oxygen is expelled

b. Lungs always contain some residual volume of oxygen so there is sufficient time for

oxygen absorption.

c. Body size of animal even if larger then diffusion is alone enough.

d. There is release of oxygen and intake of carbon dioxide happens in the process of

respiration for human beings.

77. Which of the following is having high affinity for oxygen?

a. Water b. Carbon dioxide c. Hemoglobin d. Fats

78. Which of the following is transported with the help of blood plasma?

a. Food b. Carbon dioxide c. Nitrogenous waste d. All of these

Our Pump

79. Human being as mammals shows how many chambered hearts?

a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four

80. Which of the following are receiving chambers?

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a. Right atrium b. Left atrium c. both a & b d. Right ventricle

81. Which of the following are distributing chambers

a. Atria b. Ventricles c. Lungs d. liver

82. Deoxygenated blood is carried from right ventricle to the lungs by ……

a. Pulmonary vein b. Pulmonary artery

c. Aorta d. Vena cava

83. Oxygenated blood is carried from lungs to left atrium by ……



84. Oxygenated blood from left ventricle carried to body organs by …..



85. Deoxygenated blood from body organs carried to right atrium by…..



86. Blood pressure is measured with

a. Oxymeter b. Glucometer

c. Lab tests d. Sphygmomanometer

87. What is normal systolic: diastolic blood pressure……mmhg?

a. 120/100 b. 120/80 c. 80/120 d. 100/120

88. Which of the following carries blood away from the heart to the various organs?

a. Veins b. Arteries c. Capillaries d. Plasma

89. Which of the following comes and seal the point of injury when system tubes develop a

leakage?

a. Plasma b. R.B.Cs c. W.B.Cs d. Platelets

90. Choose the correct fluid among the following which carries digested and absorbed fat

from the intestine

a. Blood b. Lymph c. R.B.Cs d. W.B.Cs

Transportation

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91. In which of the following condition raw material and energy can be easily transported?

a. If the distance between soil contacting organ and chlorophyll containing organs are large.

b. If the distance between soil contacting organ and chlorophyll containing organs are small.

c. It can be easily transported never relates with distances.

d. It can’t be easily transported never relates with distances.

92. Which of the following is responsible for conduction of water w.r.t vascular tissue.

a. Xylem vessels b. Phloem vessels c. Xylem fibers d. Phloem fibers

93. Which of the following is responsible for conduction of food w.r.t vascular tissue?

a. Sieve tube b. Companion cells c. Both a & b d. Phloem fibers

94. Which of the following events are important in transportation of water.

a. water conducting channel reaching to all the parts

b. Root pressure

c. Transpirational Pull

d. All of these.

95. During the day which of the following is significant activity for the transportation.

a. Root pressure b. Transpirational pull

c. Translocation d. None of these

96. Transport of water and minerals happens with the help of ………

a. Xylem b. Phloem c. Stem d. Leaves

97. The product of photosynthesis is transported with phloem also known as

a. Transpiration b. Translocation

c. Root pressure d. Transpirational pull

Excretion

98. The biological process which involved in removal of nitrogenous waste is called……

a. Nutrition b. Respiration c. Excretion d. Circulation

99. Which of the following is part of human excretory system?

a. Pair of kidneys b. Pair of ureter

c. Urethra and bladder d. All of these

100. The purpose of making urine is to filter out waste products from ……….

a. water b. Lymph c. Blood d. Gases

101. The basic filtration unit of kidneys are

a. Alveoli b. Nephron c. Plasma d. Platelets

102. Which of the following is selectively reabsorbed?

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a. Glucose b. Amino acids c. water d. All of these

103. The urinary bladder is muscular it is under control of …….

a. Circulatory system b. Respiratory c. Nervous d. Skeletal

104. Filtrate in human kidneys is about…….

a. 80 L b. 120L c. 180L d. 220L

105. Which of the following can be excreted from the plants?


c. Water d. All of these

ASSERTION & REASONS

Following questions consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer

these questions selecting the appropriate option given below: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(c) A is true but R is false.

(d) A is false but R is true.

106. Assertion: If order break down, the organisms will be no longer alive.

Reason: Living organisms must keep them repairing and maintaining their structures.

107. Assertion: The outside source of energy is quite variable.

Reason: To utilize that energy it must be converted into uniform source of energy.

108. Assertion: The complex food substances are broken down into simpler food substances.

Reason: The biocatalyst i.e. enzymes are working for conversion of complex food

material into simpler food material.

109. Assertion: Carbohydrates are utilized by plant as energy.

Reason: Starch will be served as internal energy reserve.

110. Assertion: The opening and closing of stomata is the function of guard cells.

Reason: The guard cells swells when water comes into it, it shrinks when water leaves.

111. Assertion: Nitrogen is essential elements used in the synthesis of proteins.

Reason: Plants takes up nitrogen in the form of nitrates or nitrites.

112. Assertion: Some organisms derive the nutrition from other living organisms without

killing them.

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Reason: The parasitic nutritive strategy is used by many living organisms such as

Cuscuta, ticks, lice etc.

113. Assertion: Paramecium is unicellular organisms.

Reason: Food is taken at specific spot called cilia.

114. Assertion: Peristaltic movement helps the movement of the food in the alimentary

canal.

Reason: The contraction and relaxation in rhythmic manner helps the food movement.

115. Assertion: Digestive glands present in the stomach helps in digestion.

Reason: Digestive glands releases HCl which creates acidic condition that favors the

action of enzyme.

116. Assertion: The sphincters muscle present in the anus of alimentary canal.

Reason: The exit of food from alimentary canal is regulated by anal spincters.

117. Assertion: The complete digestion of proteins, carbohydrates and fat occurs in the small

Reason: Emulsification of fats is done by lipase.

118. Assertion: Pancreas secrete pancreatic juice which secrete pancreatic amylase.

Reason: Pancreatic amylase act on sugars covert it into simpler form.

119. Assertion: The inner wall of small intestine has numerous fingers like projection that

are called villi.

Reason: The villi are rich in blood vessels that takes the absorbed food from the

intestine.

120. Assertion: The breakdown of glucose releases large amount of energy in aerobic

respiration.

Reason: The release of energy in absence of oxygen is called aerobic respiration.

121. Assertion: Aerobic organisms need to ensure that sufficient intake of oxygen.

Reason: Aerobic pathways are dependent on oxygen.

122. Assertion: Rings of cartilage are present in throat.

Reason: That ensure that air passage does not collapse.

123. Assertion: Lungs always contain some residual volume of air.

Reason: There is sufficient time for oxygen for absorption and for the carbon dioxide to

be released.

124. Assertion: When body size of animals is large, diffusion pressure alone can’t ensure

oxygen delivery to all the parts.

Reason: Respiratory pigment takes up the oxygen from the air, carries to the lungs.

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125. Assertion: Ventricles have thick walls compared to atria.

Reason: Ventricle have to pass the blood to body organs.

126. Assertion: If the distance between soil contacting organ and chlorophyll containing

organs is small.

Reason: Diffusion can easily transport the material over smaller distances.

127. Assertion: The effect of root pressure in transportation of water is important during the

night.

Reason: During the night stomata are closed.

128. Assertion: The purpose of making urine is filter out waste products from the blood.

Reason: Nitrogenous waste such as urea or uric acid are removed from the blood.

129. Assertion: Nephrons are the filtration units of kidneys.

Reason: Glucose, salt, amino acids and major amount of water is selectively

reabsorbed.

130. Assertion: Oxygen itself can be thought of as a waste product generated during the

photosynthesis.

Reason: They get rid of excess of water by transpiration.

Case- Based Questions

Samir was admitted in the hospital, done with blood test. Doctor advised him to take

less stress, do some exercise on daily basis, and take the medicines on time. On regular

interval he was checked by the nursing staff, then he started feeling well after some days.

His parameters were also coming to the normal, discharged by the hospital.

131. Doctor checked Samir parameter like blood pressure with the help of ………

a. Oximeter b. Glucometer

c. Sphygmomanometer d. All of these

132. What is normal blood pressure for age group of 40-44 years?

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133. What is ideal blood pressure?

134. Who is having high risk in the following group?

a. Normal b. Elevated c. Hypertension d. All of these.

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135. What are the routine test preferred to find out the patient has cardiac diseases.

a. Echocardiogram b. Blood test c. Urine test d. All of these.

The process of transportation occurs in every living organism. Transportation

System in plants consists of two kinds of tissues X and Y. The two tissues have different

components on a further basis which perform a specified function. These components work

differently on the basis that whether the plant is Flowering or not.

136. Tissue that transports products of photosynthesis from the leaves when they are

synthesized to other parts of the plant, are called

a. Phloem b. Stomata c. Xylem d. Guard cells

137. Which of the following substances is transported by phloem tissue?

a. Sucrose prepared by leaves b. Amino acids

c. food d. All of these

138. Xylem in plants is responsible for the transport of


c. sucrose d. Amino acid

139. The two kinds of elements present in xylem are

a. Sieve tube and vessels b. tracheid’s and vessels

c. Companion cells and vessels d. Sieve tube and fibers

140. In angiosperms, water is conducted through

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a. Sieve tubes and companion cells b. Only vessels

c. Only Tracheid’s d. Both Tracheid’s and vessels

Our heart is acting as pump which pumps the oxygenated and deoxygenated

blood to the different organs. Our human heart is completely four chambered, in

coordination with lungs it removes the carbon dioxide purifies the blood, and then purified

blood is transported from the lungs to the body organs.

141. Blood goes through heart twice so called as

a. Systematic circulation b. Pulmonary circulation

c. Double circulation d. None of these

142. Contraction of heart chambers are called as

a. Systole b. Diastole

c. Joint diastole d. All of these

143. High blood pressure is also called as …….

a. Hypotension b. Hypertension

c. Low Blood pressure d. None of these

144. Lymph carries digested fat from the …………

a. Stomach b. Esophagus

c. Intestine d. Liver

145. The force the blood exert against the wall of vessels are……

a. Blood pressure b. Plasma pressure

c. Platelet pressure d. None of these

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Study the following flow sheet of complete digestion of carbohydrates, proteins and

fats.

146. Which enzymes are used to convert proteins

a. Trypsin b. Pepsin c. Both a & b d. Amylase

147. Emulsification of fats is done with the help of which digestive juice?

a. bile juice b. Pancreatic Juice

c. Salivary juice d. Intestinal juice

148. What is the function of pancreatic juice and intestinal juice?

a. Formation of bile juice

b. Formation of amino acids glucose and fatty acids

c. Formation of mucus.

d. Formation of salivary amylase

149. Ramesh is having a severe problem headache & nausea which may lead to acidity, what

is the cause of acidity?

a. Excess secretion of HCl in stomach

b. Excess formation of amino acids

c. Excess formation of fatty acids.

d. No secretion of any acid

150. Carbohydrates are converted into which substance by the action of salivary amylase.

a. Lactose b. glucose

c. Maltose d. Sucrose

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Answer Key

1. b . Nutrition

2. d. All of these

3. a. Respiration

4. d. Respiration

5. c. Excretion

6. c. Digestion

7. b. Respiration

8. d. Diffusion

9. d. All of these

10. d. All of these

11. d. Chlorophyll

12. a. Carbon dioxide

13. b. Oxygen

14. c. Neem tree

15. a. Autotrophs

16. d. All of these

17. c. Leaves

18. b. Stomata

19. b. Kidney shaped

20. a. Dumbbell shaped

21. c. Water

22. d. All of these

23. b. Chloroplast

24. b Stomata

25. c. Transpiration

26. a. Swell and shrink

27. c. Glucose

28. c. Nitrogen

29. c. Both a & b

30. b. Parasitic

31. d. All of these

32. c. Pseudopodia

33. b.Ingestion-Absoprtion- Digestion-Assimilation-Egestion

34. d. Buccal cavity

35. c. Amylase

36. a. Enzyme

37. c. Stomach

38. a. Sugars

39. c. both a & b

40. d. All of these

41. b. Pancreas

42. a. Liver

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43. b. Lipase

44. c. Stomach

45. c. Small intestine

46. c. Deer

47. b. Carnivore

48. b. they food they are eating takes time for digestion

49. a. Small intestine

50. c. Pancreatic juice

51. d. All of these

52. b. Amino acids, sugars, fatty acids and glycerol

53. c. villi

54. c. Anal sphincters

55. b. Respiration

56. b. Fermentation

57. c. Aerobic respiration

58. b. Anaerobic respiration

59. b. Lactic acid

60. a. Ethanol

61. b. energy

62. b. Muscle cells

63. a. Yeast

64. c. Mitochondria

65. c. Breakdown of pyruvate to the carbon dioxide, water and energy

66. c. ATP

67. c. ATP

68. a. Photosynthesis happens

69. d. All of these

70. a. Aquatic organisms

71. d. Rings of cartilage

72. d. All of these

73. a. Liver

74. c. Alveoli

75. d. All of these

76. b. Lungs always contain some residual volume of oxygen so there is sufficient time for

oxygen absorption

77. c. Hemoglobin

78. d. All of these

79. d. Four

80. c. Both a & b

81. b. Ventricle

82. b. Pulmonary artery

83. a. Pulmonary vein

84. c. Aorta

85. d. vena cava

86. d. Sphygmomanometer

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87. b. 120/80

88. b. Arteries

89. d. Platelets

90. b. Lymph

91. b. If the distance between soil contacting organ and chlorophyll containing organs are

small

92. a. Xylem vessels

93. c. Both a & b

94. d. All of these

95. b. Transpirational pull

96. a. Xylem

97. b. Translocation

98. c. Excretion

99. d. All of these

100. c. Blood

101. b. Nephron

102. d. All of these

103. c. Nervous

104. c. 180L


ASSERTION & REASON

106. a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

107. a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.


109. b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.




113. b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A







120. c. A is true but R is false.









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CASE BASED QUESTIONS

131. c. Sphygmomanometer

132. 120/80mmhg

133. 120/80

134. c. Hypertension

135. a. Echocardiogram

136. a. Phloem


138. b. Water

139. b. Tracheid’s and vessels

140. d. Both Tracheid’s and vessels

141. c. Double circulation

142. a. systole

143. b. hypertension

144. c. Intestine

145. a. Blood pressure

146. c. Both a & b

147. a. Bile Juice

148. b. Formation of amino acids, glucose and fatty acids

149. a. Excess secretion of HCl in stomach

150. c. Maltose

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The Green Fingers School, Akluj, Solapur

Class 10: CBSE (Physics)

Multiple Choice Questions

Q.1) Light is an _____ property.

A) Extrinsic

B) Intrinsic

C) Basic

D) none of these

Q.2)Light is an __ wave.

A) light

B) Electromagnetic

C) longitudinal

D) Rectilinear

3) Light travels in ____

A) Vacuum

B) Space

C) Both (A) and (B)

D) None of these

4) Light travels faster in ____

A) Air

B) denser

C) Solid

D) none of these

5) When light travels in straight line, it is known as__

A) Linear expansion

B) Rectilinear Propagation

C) Properties of medium

D) Linear

6) Light travels____

a) with medium

b) without medium

c) in specific medium

d) cannot be determined.

7) which of the following is not the property of light?

a) reflection

b) refraction

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c) graphication

d) rectilinear propagation.

8) Light is _____ through transparent surface.

a) reflected

b) pass through

c) transmitted

d) diverged

9) If an opaque object on the path of light becomes very small, light has a tendency to bend

around it and not walk in a straight line an effect known as ___

a) reflection of light

b) refraction of light

c) diffraction of light

d) all of these

10) The laws of reflection are not suitable for ____

a) Reflecting surface

b) nonreflecting surface

c) rough surface

d) none of these

11) The reflecting surface of the mirror is curved these mirrors are called___

a) convex mirror

b) concave mirror

c) neither concave nor convex

d) spherical mirror

12) _____ is not a part of mirror.

a) aperture

b) pole

c) nonreflecting surface

d) center of curvature

13) The straight line passing through the pole and centre of curvature is called ___

a) radius of curvature

b) diameter of curvature

c) focal length

d) principal axis

14) The incident rays originate from an infinity reflects from the concave mirror _____

a) Passes through from principal focus

b) Passes through from centre of curvature

c) Passes through from pole

24

d) Reflects back to infinity

15) the diameter of the reflecting surface of the spherical mirror is called___

a) radius of curvature

b) principal axis

c) focal length

d) aperture

16) For concave mirror, if the object is kept at infinity, then the image formation of the

image takes place at ____

a) at principal axis

b) at principal focus

c) at centre of curvature

d) at infinity

17) For concave mirror, if the object is kept beyond centre of curvature, the image formation

is possible_____

a) at principal focus

b) at centre of curvature

c) between principal focus and centre of curvature.

d) between principal focus and pole ‘P’

18) In case of concave mirror, when the object is kept at centre of curvature then the image

formation is done at___

a) at principal focus

b) at center of curvature

c) between principal focus and centre of curvature.

d) between principal focus and pole ‘P’

19) In case of concave mirror, when the object is kept in between centre of curvature and

principal focus then the image formation is done at___

a) At centre of curvature

b) At principal focus

c) Between pole P and centre of curvature

d) Beyond C

20) In case of concave mirror, if the object is kept at principal focus, then the image is

formed is____

a) At principal focus

b) beyond centre of curvature

c) real and inverted

d) virtual and erect

25

21) In case of concave mirror, if the object is kept at in between principal focus (F) and pole

(P) then the image is formed is____

a) point sized, highly diminished

b) virtual and erect

c) real and inverted

d) image cannot be formed

22) In case of concave mirror, when the object is kept at centre of curvature then the image

formation is _____

a) highly enlarged

b) enlarged

c) Same as that of object

d) smaller than the object

23) In case of converging mirror ___________ image is formed when the image formed at

Principal focus.

a) Diminished

b) same size

c) enlarged

d) point sized

24) The incident ray which passes through from the principal focus in case of converging

mirror, after reflection ____

a) it will traverse the same path along the incident ray.

b) it will reflect back to principal axis

c) it will travel perpendicular to principal axis

d) it will travel parallel to the principal axis.

25) A ray passing through the centre of curvature of a concave mirror or directed in the

direction of the centre of curvature of a convex mirror, after reflection,

a) is reflected back along the same path.

b) it will reflect back to principal axis

c) it will travel perpendicular to principal axis

d) it will travel parallel to the principal axis.

26) The laws of reflection is followed in the ________

a) when the incident ray passes through the principal focus.

b) when the incident ray passes through the centre of curvature.

c) when the incident ray incident obliquely on pole P

d) All of the above cases.

26

27) The reflected ray makes an equal angle with the principal axis as that of the angle of

incidence in the

a) when the incident ray passes through the principal focus.

b) when the incident ray incident obliquely on pole P

c) when the incident ray passes through the centre of curvature.

d) All of the above cases.

28) A virtual and erect image is formed only in _______

a) in concave mirror when the object is kept at infinity.

b) in convex mirror when the object is kept at pole P.

c) in concave mirror when the object is in between Pole (P) and principal focus (F)

d) none of the above.

29) in case of convex mirror, formation of image is not possible when,

a) Object is at infinity

b) Object is at finite distance

c) Object is in between pole (P) and principal focus (F)

d) Either (a) or (b)

30) The image formed in the case of convex mirror when the object is placed at infinity

is______

a) highly diminished real and erect

b) highly diminished real and inverted

c) highly diminished virtual and erect

d) highly diminished virtual and inverted.

31) Full length image of building or tree can be seen by using ____

a) convex mirror

b) concave mirror

c) by using both mirror

d) convex lens

32) Rear view mirror is also called______

a) concave mirror

b) convex mirror

c) convex lens

d) concave lens

33) According to Sign conventions, The object is should be in the ______ side always.

a) right

b) left

c) sometime right.

d) according to experiment, side will be decided..

27

34) the student must use the ______ while substituting the numerical value of object

distance, image distance and focal length of mirror.

a) New Cartesian sign convention

b) number line of parallel lines.

c) Cartesian graph lines

d) all of the above.

35) magnification is produced only in _______

a) mirrors

b) lenses

c) in both mirrors and lenses

d) cannot be determined.

36) magnification is related to ___

a) height of object and height of image

b) height of image to the height of object

c) object distance and image distance

d) all of these.

37) In case of mirror, positive sign in the value of the magnification indicates that ______

a) the image is real

b) the image is virtual

c) the image is erect

d) the image is inverted.

38) In case of mirror, negative sign in the value of the magnification indicates that ______

a) the image is real

b) the image is virtual

c) the image is erect

d) the image is inverted.

39) Power of a convex lens is

a) positive

b) negative.

c) always less than 25cm

d) greater than 25 cm

40) Power of a concave lens is

a) positive

b) negative.

c) always less than 25cm

d) greater than 25 cm

28

41) concave lens of very short focal length causes

a) higher divergence

b) lower divergence

c) intermediate divergence

d) greater than one

42) The degree of convergence or divergence of light rays achieved by a lens is expressed in

terms of ____

a) its power

b) its dioptre

c) its focal length

d) its magnification.

43) reciprocal of focal length is called____

a) focal length

b) 1/f

c) power of lens

d) dioptre

44) A lens of power – 2.5 D has a focal length of ____m.

a) – 0.40

b) +0.40

c) 40

d) ―40.00

45) The power of lens is +2.0 D then the prescribed lens is______

a) Convex

b) Concave

c) biconcave

d) bifocal

46) A 2.0 cm tall object is placed perpendicular to the principal axis of a

convex lens of focal length 10 cm. The distance of the object from the

lens is 15 cm. Find the distance of the image.

a) + 30.00 cm

b) ―30.00 cm

c) ―25.00 cm

d) + 25.00 cm

47) At noon the sun appears white as

a) light is least scattered.

b) all the colours of the white light are scattered away.

c) blue colour is scattered the most.

29

d) red colour is scattered the most.

48) Twinkling of stars is due to atmospheric

(a) dispersion of light by water droplets

(b) refraction of light by different layers of varying refractive indices

(c) scattering of light by dust particles

(d) internal reflection of light by clouds

49) The clear sky appears blue because

(а) blue light gets absorbed in the atmosphere.

(b) ultraviolet radiations are absorbed in the atmosphere.

(c) violet and blue lights get scattered more than lights of all other colours by the

atmosphere.

(d) light of all other colours is scattered more than the violet and blue colour lights by the

atmosphere.

50) The angle between its two lateral faces is called the ________

a) angle of prism.

b) angle of 60

c) angle of 90

d) none of the above

51) light travels_____ in denser medium.

a) Slower

b) faster

c) 3 X 108 m/s

d) very faster.

52) light travels ____ in rarer medium.

a) Slower

b) faster

c) 3 X 108 m/s

d) very slower.

53) reflection occurs _____ the medium.

a) within

b) without

c) away from

d) near by

54) Refraction occurs _____ the medium

a) with

b) within

c) between two medium

d) both ‘a’ and ‘b’

30

55)______ is property of light.

a) refraction

b) deviation

c) graphication

d) immersion

56) ____ occurs only when light rays travel from one medium to another.

a) reflection

b) refraction

c) interference

d) diffraction

57) At least _____ medium are necessary for refraction of light.

a) one

b) two

c) more than Two

d) medium is not required

58) when a ray travel from _____ it bends toward normal after refraction.

a) denser to rarer

b) rarer to denser

c) from one to two medium

d) earth to earth surface.

59) When a ray travel from ____ medium, it bends away from the normal.

a) rarer to denser

b) denser to rarer

c) from two medium

d) from two medium to third medium.

60) The bouncing back of light ray ____ is called _____

a) within the same medium, reflection

b) with the water and air medium, refraction

c) with any two medium, reflection

d) with water and kerosene, reflection

61) According to law of reflection

a) Angle of reflection is equal to angle of refraction

b) angle of incidence is equal to angle of emergence

c) angle of incidence is not equal to angle of reflection

d) angle of incidence is equal to angle of reflection

31

62) The laws of reflection is valid for

a) concave mirror only

b) plane mirror only

c) convex mirror only

d) all the Mirrors irrespective of their shape

63) Reflection occurs only in the case of

a) Mirrors

b) Lenses

c) Prism

d) rainbow

64) The angle made by incident with______ is called the angle of incidence

a) normal to the surface

b) parallel to the surface

c) parallel to incident ray

d) perpendicular to reflected ray

65) Angle made by reflected ray is called______

a) angle of reflection

b) angle of incidence

c) angle of emergence

d)none of the above

66) ____________ gives lateral deflection of any object.

a) plane mirror

b) convex mirror

c) concave mirror

d) all of the above

67) in the case of plane mirror the image distance is equal to_____

a) greater than object distance

b) less than object distance

c) is equal to object distance

d) cannot be determined

68) Angle of incidence is 35 , so the angle of reflection must be equal to____

a) 40

b) 35

c) 30

d)32

69) Reflection occurs only in lenses (true or false)

70) Reflection occurs without any medium (true or false)

32

71) Reflection holds good only in the case where it occurs within the same medium. (True

or false)

72) Angle of reflection does not lie within the plane (true or false)

73) Angle of incidence is equal to angle of reflection in case of water and air medium only.

(True or false)

74) Polished surface gives more reflection than any other surface. (True or false)

75) Nature of surface does not matter in case of reflection of light (true or false)

76) Incident ray, normal, and reflected ray must lie within the same plane. (True or false)

77) In case of plane mirror the object size is equal to the size of image. (True or false)

78) According to Laws of refraction sin (i) is equal to

a) Sin (r) X refractive index

b) Cos( r) X refractive index

c) Tan (r) X refractive index

d) Cot ( r) X refractive index’

79) Refraction can be observed by using

a) magnifying glasses

b) Lenses

c) Prism

d) all of the above

80) refraction causes due to___

a) change in the speed of light due to collision of light particles

b) change in medium

c) change in intensity of light

d) change in frequency

81) how fast light travels through material described by___

a) velocity of light

b) frequency of light

c) amplitude of sound

d) refractive index

82) if a light ray travels from a medium to another medium of a_________, it bends

towards normal.

a) lower velocity of light in a medium

b) higher velocity of light in a medium

c) refractive index of given medium

d) higher refractive index of given medium

33

83) Mirage and looming optical illusion which are a result of ____

a) Reflection

b) Refraction

c) Dispersion

d) scattering of light

84) refractive index of vacuum is___

a) 1

b) less than 1

c) Greater than one

d) Zero

85) refractive index of water is___

a) 1

b) 1.33

c) 1.45

d) Zero

86) ______ deflection is also called a mirror like reflection.

a) diffused reflection

b) Specular reflection

c) liquid reflection

d)small particle reflection

87) ______ makes non luminous objects visible.

a) Specular

b) diffusion reflection

c) mirror reflection

d) Dispersion

88) Ray of light incident on a plane mirror at 90, then

a) it reflects with 45 along the same path

b) it reflects with 90 degree along the same path

c) it reflects with a 90 degree passing through another medium

d) it reflects with 180 degree along the different path

89) ______ of the mirror, the spherical mirror is classified.

a) depend on the material of non reflecting surface

b) depending upon the nature of reflecting surface

c) depending upon only the surface

d) depending upon the curved surface

34

90) The formation of rainbow does not consist of following colour:

a)red

b) orange

c) purple

d) violet

Assertion & Reason Questions:

Following questions consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these

questions selecting the appropriate option given below:

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.




91)

Assertion: A point object is placed at a distance of 35.6 CM from a convex mirror focal

length 35.6 CM. The image will not form at infinity.

Reason: For above system the equation

+

gives v=∞

92)

Assertion : Plane mirror are used for laterally inverted reflection.

Reason: Plane mirrors are having infinite focal length.

93)

Assertion: When the object is kept at infinity in case of concave mirror, the image is formed

at principal focus.

Reason: all the reflected rays are actually meeting at the point of ‘f’

94)

Assertion: concave lens is diverging lens.

Reason: All the reflected rays are actually meet at ‘F’ in case of concave lens.

95)

Assertion: Light travels faster in vacuum than air.

Reason: Air is denser than vacuum.

96)

Assertion: Magnification determined by using object distance.

Reason: In magnification height of image is used.

97)

Assertion: Convex mirror gives real and inverted images.

Reason: Convex mirror gives virtual images only.

35

98)

Assertion: if the rays are diverging after emerging from lens the lens must be concave.

Reason: The convex lens can give diverging lens.

99)

Assertion: Reflection is depends upon the polished surface.

Reason: Angle of refraction is equal to angle of reflection.

100)

Assertion: Magnification is unitless.

Reason: It is ratio of two similar quantities.

101)

Assertion: Frequency remains unchanged when light travels from one medium to another.

Reason: Frequency is the property of source.

102)

Assertion : Refraction is the reason behind the formation of rainbow.

Reason: in Water droplet, the light rays enter from the air to water.

103)

Assertion: Prism can able to produce the constituent colours of white light.

Reason : The splitting of white light into its constituent colour is called the dispersion of

light.

104)

Assertion: In experiment of glass slab, The incident ray of light coincides with the emergent

ray of light.

Reason: lateral displacement is the distance between the incident ray and emergent ray.

105)

Assertion: In Prism, red colour bends least, while the violet colour bends most.

Reason: Different colours of light bend through different angles with respect to the incident

ray, as they pass through the prism.

106)

Assertion: The band of the colored components of a light beam is called its spectrum.

Reason: The various colors seen are Violet, Indigo, Blue, Green, Yellow, Orange and Red.

107)

Assertion: The colour of the sky is blue.

Reason: The availability of water on the earth surface is more than 50%.

36

108)

Column A Column B

1 Refraction A Prism

2 Reflection B Formation of Rainbow

3 Dispersion C Light

4 Rectilinear Propagation of light D Plane mirror

a) 1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C

b) 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B

c) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D

d) 1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C

109)

Column A Column B

1 Concave Mirror A Image is same as that of the object at 2F2

2 Convex lens B Diverging mirror

3 Plane mirror C Produces Virtual and erect image when the object

is in between P and F

4 Convex mirror D Lateral inverted images are possible

a) 1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C

b) 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B

c) 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B

d) 1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C

110)

Column A

(Position of object in

Concave mirror)

Column B

(Formation of images in concave mirror)

1 At infinity A At ‘F’

2 At F B At C

3 At C C Infinity

4 In between P and F D Behind the mirror

a) 1-A, 2-C, 3-B, 4-D

b) 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B

c) 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B

d) 1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C

111)

Column A

(Position of object in

case of convex lens)

Column B

(Formation of images)

1 At infinity A At Focus F2

2 Beyond 2F1 B Between F2 and 2F2

3 At 2F1 C At 2F2

4 Between F1 and 2F1 D Beyond 2F2

37

a) 1-A, 2-C, 3-B, 4-D

b) 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B

c) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D

d) 1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C

112)

Column A

Column B

1 m=1 A Image is real

2 M = -ve B Object size and image size are equal

3 m= +ve C Image is virtual

4 M >1 D Image is enlarged

a) 1-A, 2-C, 3-B, 4-D

b) 1-B, 2-A, 3-C, 4-D

c) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D

d) 1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C

113)

In the prism experiment,

Angle ‘D’ is called…

a) angle of dispersion

b) angle of dispersive power

c) angle of deviation

d) angle of refraction

114) recombination of white light is explained by,

a) Isaac Newton

b) CV Raman

c) Albert Einstein

d) None of these.

115) Correct diagram for recombination of white light is:

38

116) Choose the incorrect statement:

1. Formation of rainbow is formed due to dispersion of sunlight by tiny water droplets.

2. Rainbow is formed opposite to the direction of sun.

3. In rainbow, water droplets acts like a small prism.

4. Rainbow is also can be seen during the sunny day.

a) Option (a), (b), (d) are correct.

b) Option (b), (d) are correct.

c) Option (a), (d) are correct.

d) All of the above are correct.

117) The hot air always has___

a) less Refractive index

b) Refractive index = 1.45

c) Refractive index = 2.56

d) Refractive index = 1

118) The cold air always has____

a) high Refractive index

b) Refractive index < 1.45

c) Refractive index >-1

d) Refractive index>5

119) The path of beam of light through a ______is not visible.

a) True solution

b) mix solution

c) colloidal solution

d) normal solution

120) The earth’s atmosphere is __________ of minute particles.

a) homogeneous

b) homogeneous mixture

c) heterogeneous mixture

d) homogeneous compound

121) Tyndall effect is_____

a) The phenomenon of scattering of light by the colloidal particles.

b) The phenomenon of scattering of light by the non colloidal particles.

c) The phenomenon of scattering of light by the atmospheric particles.

d) The phenomenon of scattering of light by the air particles.

122) The colour of the scattered light depends _____

a) size of the scattered particles

b) shape of the scattered particles

c) frequency of the scattered particles

d) none of the above

39

123) during scattering of light, larger size of the particles are _____

a) having higher wavelength.

b) having longer wavelength.

c) having narrow wavength.

d) all of the above

124)

In scattering of light, blue colour appears due to ___

a) scattering of very fine particles

b) dispersion of light

c) refraction of red colour.

d) dispersion of white light.

125) If the size of the scattering particles is large enough, then, the scattered light _____

a) scattering is not possible

b) may even appears as white.

c) may even appears as blue.

d) rainbow formation is possible.

126) if the atmosphere is not available_____

a) no scattering of light is possible

b) no formation of colour band is possible

c) formation of light

d) none of the above.

127) The red light has a wavelength about

a) 1.8 times greater than blue light.

b) 2 times greater than blue light.

c) 5 times greater than blue light.

d) 10 times greater than blue light.

128) Danger signals are given in red colours

a) because the red colour scatter least.

b) because the red colour scatter most.

c) because the red colour is natural colour.

d) both (b) and (c)

129) Light from the Sun near the horizon passes through ____

a) thicker layers of air and larger distance in the earth’s atmosphere.

b) thinner layers of air and smaller distance in the earth’s atmosphere.

c) thicker layers of air and smaller distance in the earth’s atmosphere.

d) thinner layers of air and larger distance in the earth’s atmosphere.

40

130) At noon, the Sun appears white _____

a) as only a little of the blue and violet colours are scattered.

b) as only a little of the red and violet colours are scattered.

c) as only a little of the violet colour is scattered.

d) as only a little of the white and sky blue colours are scattered.

131) The structure of Periscope is based on the principal of

a) Reflection of light

b) Refraction of light

c) Dispersion of light

d) Scattering of light

132) If an object is placed symmetrically between two plane mirrors inclined at an angle of

72°,then the total number of images formed is:

a) 5

b) 4

c) 2

d) infinite

133) Find number of images formed according to given case

a) 8,9

b) 8,8

c) 9,9

d) 9,8

134) For a concave mirror of focal length f, its real image is 2 times larger. Then the object

distance from the mirror can be:

a) f/2

b) 3f/2

c) f/4

d) 4f/3

41

135) Situation: Two plane mirrors are arranged to such as a ray of light incident on the first

mirror is reflected towards second mirror and after being reflected from second mirror, the

ray emerges parallel to incoming ray. The angle between mirrors is

a) 0°

b) 60°

c) 90°

d) none of these.

136) What is the number of images of an object held between two parallel plane mirrors?

a) 100

b) 1000

c) 0

d) infinite

137) An object is placed between two plane mirrors inclined at an angle to each other. If the

number of images formed is 7 then the angle of inclination is –

a) 15

b) 30

c) 45

d) 60

138) For virtual object a plain mirror can form:

a) real image

b) virtual image

c) enlarged image

d) image cannot be formed.

Following questions consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these

questions selecting the appropriate option given below:





139) Assetion : Light converges on a virtual object.

Reason : Virtual object is always behind a mirror.

140) For unit magnification, the distance of an object from a concave mirror of focal length

20cm will be:

a) 20 cm

b) 10 cm

c) 40 cm

d) 60 cm

42

141) A coin is placed 20 cm in front of a concave mirror. The mirror produces a real image

that has diameter 5 times that of the coin. What is the image distance?

a) 50 cm

b) -100 cm

c) -4 cm

d) 10cm

142) Magnification produced by a convex mirror is

,then distance of the object from

mirror is:

a) f/3

b) 2f/3

c) 1f

d) 2f

143) For a spherical mirror, the lateral magnification comes out to be 1.5, then the:

a) object lies within the center of curvature and focus

b) object lies beyond focus

c) Mirror is convex

d) object lies between pole and focus.

144) The image which is formed behind the mirror: a) Virtual image

b) Real image

c) Lateral image

d) inverted image

145) which of the given is NOT true of an image formed by a plane mirror ?

a) It is erect

b) It is virtual

c) It is diminished

d) It is at the same distance as the object.

146) the image formed ______ when the object is kept in between pole and focus in case of

concave mirror.

a) infront of mirror

b) behind the mirror

c) inverted

d) diminished

43

147) The image formed _____ when the object is placed at finite distance in case of convex

mirror.

a) real and inverted

b) virtual and erect

c) real and erect

d) virtual and inverted

148) the image formation is at ______ when the object is kept at focus F in case of concave

mirror.

a) infinity

b) enlarged

c) at F

d) behind the mirror

149) which one the following is NOT True from the following:

a) magnification of mirror is given by (–V/u)

b) magnification of mirror is also given by (h’ /h)

c) magnification means a factor by which the formation of image can be calculated

d) magnification is always negative for plane mirror.

150) shaving mirror is also _______

a) concave mirror

b) convex mirror

c) plane mirror

d) concave lens

*****

44

Answer Key:

Q.

No.

Ans Q.

No.

Ans

1 B) Intrinsic 31 a) convex mirror

2 B) Electromagnetic 32 b) convex mirror

3 c) Both A & B 33 b) left

4 D) none of these 34 a) New Cartesian sign convention

5 B) Rectilinear Propogation 35 c) in both mirrors and lenses

6 b) without medium 36 b) height of image to the height of object

7 C) Graphicatoin 37 b) the image is virtual

8 c) transmitted 38 a) the image is real

9 c) diffraction of light 39 a) positive

10 d) none of these 40 b) negative.

11 d) spherical mirror 41 a) higher divergence

12 d) center of curvature

42 a) its power

13 d) principal axis 43 c) power of lens

14 a) Passes through from principal focus

44 a) – 0.40

15 d) aperture 45 a) Convex

16 b) at principal focus 46 b) ―30.00 cm

17 c) between principal focus and centre of

curvature.

47 a) light is least scattered.

18 b) at centre of curvature 48 (b) refraction of light by different layers

of varying refractive indices

19

d) Beyond C 49 (c) violet and blue lights get scattered

more than lights of all other colours by

the atmosphere.

20 c) real and inverted 50 a) angle of prism.

21 b) virtual and erect 51 a) Slower

22 c) Same as that of object 52 b) faster

23 d) point sized 53 a) within

24 d) it will travel parallel to the principal

axis.

54 c) between two medium

25 a) is reflected back along the same path. 55 a) refraction

26 d) All of the above cases. 56 b) refraction

27 d) All of the above cases. 57 b) two

28 focus (F) 58 b) rarer to denser

29 c) in concave mirror when the object is in

between Pole (P) and principal 59 b) denser to rarer

30 e) Object is in between pole (P) and

principal focus (F)

60 a) within the same medium, reflection

Q.

No.

Ans Q.

No.

Ans

61 d) angle of incidence is equal 91 (c) – assertion is correct but reason is wrong.

45

to angle of reflection

62 d) all the Mirrors irrespective

of their shape

92 (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct

explanation of A

63 a) Mirrors 93 (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct

explanation of A.

64 a) normal to the surface 94 (c) A is true but R is false.

65 a) angle of reflection 95 (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct

explanation of A.

66 a) plane mirror 96 (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct

explanation of A.

67 c) is equal to object distance 97 (d) A is false but R is true.

68 b) 35 98 (d) A is false but R is true.

69 False 99 (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct

explanation of A.

70 False 100 (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct

explanation of A.

71 True 101 (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct

explanation of A.


explanation of A.


explanation of A.

74 True 104 (d) A is false but R is true.


explanation of A.

76 True 106 (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct

explanation of A.

77 True 107 (c) A is true but R is false.

78 a) Sin (r) X refractive index 108 a) 1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C

79 d) all of the above 109 c) 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B

80 e) change in medium 110 a) 1-A, 2-C, 3-B, 4-D

81 d) refractive index 111 c) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D

82 d) higher refractive index of

given medium

112 b) 1-B, 2-A, 3-C, 4-D

83 b) Refraction 113 c) angle of deviation

84 d) Zero 114 a) Issac Newton

85 b) 1.33 115 (b)

86 b) Specular reflection 116 d) All of the above are correct.

87 b) diffusion reflection 117 a) less Refractive index

88 b) it reflects with 90 degree

along the same path

118 a) high Refractive index

46

Q. No. Ans

121 a) The phenomenon of scattering of light by the colloidal particles.

122 a) size of the scattered particles

123 b) having longer wavelength.

124 a) scattering of very fine particles

125 b) may even appears as white.

126 a) no scattering of light is possible

127 a) 1.8 times greater than blue light.

128 a) as only a little of the blue and violet colours are scattered.

129 a) thicker layers of air and larger distance in the earth’s atmosphere.

130 a) because the red colour scatter least.

131 a) Reflection of light

132 b) 4

133 a) 8,9

134 b) 3f/2

135 c) 90°

136 d) infinite

137 c) 45

138 a) real image

139 (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

140 c) 40 cm

141 b) -100 cm

142 d) 2f

143 d) object lies between pole and focus.

144 a) Virtual image

145 c) It is diminished

146 b) behind the mirror

147 b) virtual and erect

148 a) infinity

149 d) magnification is always negative for plane mirror.

150 a) concave mirror

**Chemistry Class 10th

MCQs from Q.1 to Q.60**

89 b) depending upon the nature

of reflecting surface

119 a) True solution

90 c) Purple 120 c) heterogeneous mixture

47

1. Precipitation reactions are type of ………………….

a) Decomposition reaction b) Redox reaction

c) Double displacement reaction d) Combination reaction

2. Decomposition of calcium carbonate forms………… and ……………

a) CO2 and CaO b) CO3 and CaO

c) CO and Ca(OH)2 d) CO2 and Ca(OH)2

3. Magnesium ribbon burns in air to form…………

a) Magnesium Hydroxide b) Magnesium Oxide

c) Magnesium crystals d) Magnesium Carbonate

4. Magnesium ribbon is rubbed with sand paper because –

a) to remove layer of magnesium oxide

b) to remove layer of magnesium hydroxide

c) to remove layer of magnesium chloride

d) to remove layer of magnesium carbonate

5. The gas produced by action of dil. HCl on Zinc is –

a) Hydrogen b) Carbon Dioxide c) Helium d) Oxygen

6. Rancidity occurs due to –

a) Reduction of fats and oils

b) Oxidation of fats and oils

c) Excess use of fats and oils

d) Combustion of fats and oils

7. Photosynthesis is ………….. type of reaction.

a) Thermal decomposition

b) Photolytic decomposition

c) Electrolytic decomposition

d) Synthetic decomposition

8. Colour of copper sulphate changes when iron nail dipped into it because of ………….

reaction.

48

a) Decomposition b) Displacement

c) Combination d) Oxidation

9. Heat is given out in…………….. reactions.

a) Endothermic b) Displacement

c) Exothermic d) Combustion

10. Sulphur dioxide forms when sulphur………………

a) Burns with oxygen b) Combined with oxygen

c) Decomposed by oxygen d) Added to oxygen

11. Choose correct reaction for – ‘Zinc oxide reacts with carbon’

a) ZnO + C ZnCO3

b) ZnO + C Zn + CO

c) ZnO + C ZnCO2

d) ZnO + C Zn + CO2

12. Find out the physical change from the following –

a) Atoms in reactants are rearranged to form one or more different substance.

b) Old bonds are broken new bonds are formed.

c) On heating solid substance first melts and then boils.

d) Reactant lose their properties to form product if different properties.

13. The symbolic representation of chemical reaction is -

a) Chemical symbols

b) Chemical equation

c) Chemical equilibrium

d) Chemical formula

14. Balanced chemical equation is –

a) Number of molecules in reactants is equal to number of molecules in products.

49

b) Number of molecules in reactants is equal to number of elements in products.

c) Number of elements in reactants is equal to number of molecules in products.

d) Number of elements in reactants is equal to number of elements in products.

15. Identify the type of reaction given –

CuO + H2 Cu + H2O

a) Only Oxidation reaction

b) Only reduction reaction

c) Redox reaction

d) Combustion reaction

16. Identify the type of reaction given –

C + O2 CO2 + Heat

a) Endothermic reaction

b) Exothermic reaction

c) Redox reaction

d) Decomposition reaction

17. Combination reactions are generally …………….



c) Oxidation reaction

d) Redox reactions

18. Decomposition reactions are generally considered as –



c) Oxidation reaction

d) Redox reactions

19. Find out the balanced chemical reaction from the following –

a) Fe3O4 + H2 3Fe + H2O

50

b) 2Mg + O2 2MgO

c) Pb(NO3)2 + KI PbI2 + KNO3

d) Cu + O2 2CuO

20. Identify the type of reaction –

Na2SO4 + BaCl2 BaSO4 + 2NaCl

a) Combination reaction

b) Decomposition reaction

c) Single displacement reaction

d) double displacement reaction

21. ………….. is a natural indicator while …………is synthetic indicator.

a) litmus, turmeric b) methyl orange, litmus

c) China rose solution, methyl orange d) turmeric, china rose solution

22. What is alkali ?

a) Base which does not dissolve in water. b) Base which dissolves in water.

c) Acid which dissolves in water. d) Acids which does not dissolve in water.

23. What is aqueous solution ?

a) Solution in which acid is solvent.

b) Solution in which base is solvent.

c) Solution in which water is solvent.

d) Solution in which salt is solvent.

24. Tomato turns blue litmus paper red because –

a) Tomato has basic nature

b) Tomato fades blue colour and make it red

c) Tomato has acidic nature

d) Tomato is neutral substance

25. Phenolphthalein is ………………. Indicator.

a) Acid indicator b) Base indicator

51

c) Acid-Base indicator d) Neutral indicator

26. H2SO4 is ……………… acid.

a) Triprotic b) Diprotic

c) Polyprotic d) monoprotic

27. Base neutralise solutions containing …………

a) OH-

ions

b) H+ ions c) metallic ions d) Non metallic ions

28. Acid neutralises solution containing …………….

a) OH-

ions

b) H+ ions c) metallic ions d) Non metallic ions

29. Acidic salt forms when –

a) Weak acid and strong base reacts

b) strong acid and weak base reacts

c) strong acid and strong base reacts

d) weak acid and weak base reacts

30. When weak acid and strong base reacts ……………… salt forms.

a) Acidic b) Neutral c) Basic d) Corrosive

31. King of chemicals is –

a) Hydrochloric acid b) Sulphuric acid c) Acetic acid d) Nitric acid

32. Hydrochloric acid when reacts zinc produces –

a) Zinc chloride and Hydrogen gas

b) Zinc hydrogen chloride

c) Zin hydride and chlorine gas

d) Zinc Chlorate and Hydrogen gas

33. Metal carbonates reacts with acids to give –

a) Hydrogen gas b) Carbon dioxide gas c) Oxygen gas d) Helium gas

34. What is brine ?

a) Solution of common salt.

52

b) Solution of caustic soda.

c) Solution of washing soda.

d) Solution of bleaching powder.

35. Electrolysis of common salt gives following two gases –

a) Oxygen and Hydrogen

b) Oxygen and Chlorine

c) Chlorine and Hydrogen

d) Oxygen and Carbon dioxide

36. Acids have tendency to …………….metal surface quickly.

a) corrode b) washout c) radiate d) gives shiny appearance to

37. Vanilla is ……………….type of indicator.

a) synthetic b) organic c) olfactory d) inorganic

38. Strong bases are those –

a) which dissociate completely.

b) which ionized completely to produce hydroxide ions.

c) which ionized completely to produce hydrogen ions.

d) which dissociate into molecules.

39. Number of water of crystallisation in copper sulphate are –

a) two b) three c) four d) five

40. Plaster of paris is made by -

a) heating gypsum to lose water molecule.

b) adding water to gypsum

c) heating calcium carbonate

d) adding water to calcium carbonate

41. Metals are solid at room temperature except –

a) Indium and mercury

53

b) Thallium and gallium

c) mercury and gallium

d) thallium and mercury

42. ……………… is a nonmetal which is in liquid state.

a) Iodine b) Chlorine c) Bromine d) Fluorine

43. …………….. metal has low melting and boiling point.

a) Thallium b) Sodium c) Caesium d) Indium

44. Metals have generally …………….density.

a) Low b) High c) Moderate d) less than nonmetals

45. Nonmetals do not posses lustrous property except –

a) Bromine b) Chlorine c) Fluorine d) Iodine

46. ……… and …….are the soft metals.

a) Sodium and Potassium b) Sodium and Magnesium

c) Potassium and Magnesium d) Magnesium and Calcium

47. Metal oxides are formed when –

a) Metal reacts with acids

b) Metal reacts with oxygen

c) Metal reacts with base

d) Metal reacts with salts

48. Metallic oxides are …………….. in nature.

a) Acidic b) Basic c) Neutral d) Corrosive

49. Find out the amphoteric oxide pair from the following –

a) Al2O3 and MgO b) ZnO and MgO

c) CaO and MgO d) Al2O3 and ZnO

50. Nonmetal oxides are ………………in nature.

a) Acidic b) Basic c) Neutral d) Corrosive

51. Find out the pair of neutral oxides from the following –

a) CO2 and SO2 b) CO and H2O

54

c) CO2 and H2O d) SO2 and H2O

52. Metal hydroxides are formed by –

a) reaction of metal with acids

b) reaction of metal with base

c) reaction of metal with water

d) reaction of metal with salts

53. When metal reacts with salt solutions

a) more reactive metal will displace a less reactive metal

b) less reactive metal will displace more reactive metal

c) strength of salt solution increases

d) strength of metal increases

54. Ionic compounds are hard because-

a) Strong intermolecular force of attraction

b) Strong Van der waals force of attraction

c) Strong covalent bonding

d) Strong nature of ionic compound

55. Melting and boiling point of ionic compounds are high because –

a) they are hard.

b) they cannot breakdown into pieces

c) large amount of energy is required to break ionic bond

d) larg amount of energy is required to break strong covalent bond.

56. Ionic compounds are insoluble in –

a) Water and Kerosene b) Water and Petrol

c) Water and Acetone d) Kerosene and Petrol

57. Ionic compound in solid state does not conduct electricity, because-

a) Ions can move freely

55

b) Ions cannot move freely

c) Ionic compounds are bad conductor of electricity

d) Ionic compounds are good conductor of only heat

58. Which of the following is the property of nonmetal-

a) Malleable b) ductility c) low melting point d) high density

59. Heating of ore in absence of oxygen is called –

a) Calcination b) Roasting c) Extraction d) Combustion

60. Roasting is done in ……………… of oxygen.

a) Absence b) Excess presence c) limited quantity d) limited air

**Assertion and Reason from Q.61 to Q.120**

Q. The following questions (from 61 to 120) consists of two statements – Assertion(A)

and Reason(R). Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given below:





61. Assertion(A): CuO + H2 Cu + H2O ; it is chemical equation.

Reason(R): The symbolic representation of chemical reaction is called chemical

equation.

62. Assertion(A): In balanced chemical equation, total number of elements on reactant side

must be equal to total number of elements on product side.

Reason(R): In Chemical reaction matter is conserved.

63. Assertion(A): Acid and base reacts to form salt and water.

Reason(R): More reactive element displaces less reactive element.

64. Assertion(A): Addition of oxygen and removal of hydrogen is called Oxidation.

Reason(R): CuO + H2 Cu + H2O ; this is redox reaction.

65. Assertion(A): Combination reactions are exothermic.

Reason(R): In exothermic reactions energy is given to the reaction.

56

66. Assertion(A): Adding antioxidant to oil containers is a preventive measurement.

Reason(R): Reduction is the cause of rancidity.

67. Assertion(A): Sulphur trioxide is formed when sulphur burns in air.

Reason(R): Pungent smelling gas is produced when sulphur burns in air.

68. Assertion(A): Curdling of milk is physical change.

Reason(R): Milk converts into curd after fermentation.

69. Assertion(A): Acid turns blue litmus paper red.

Reason(R): Litmus is an indicator which shows colour change in acid and base solution.

70. Assertion(A): Organic acids are considered as weak acids.

Reason(R): Organic acids do not dissociates completely.

71. Assertion(A): Water is considered as neutral solution.

Reason(R): The pH of water is 7. It has neither acidic nor basic characters.

72. Assertion(A): Acids can react with metal to give hydrogen gas.

Reason(R): Hydrogen gas is colourless and odourless.

73. Assertion(A): Acids reacts with metal carbonates to give carbon dioxide gas.

Reason(R): Carbon dioxide is used by plants for photosynthesis.

74. Assertion(A): Photosynthesis is one of the type of decomposition reaction.

Reason(R): For decomposition reaction energy is required.

75. Assertion(A): Acids reacts with metal oxides to give salt and water.

Reason(R): Metal oxides are acidic nature.

76. Assertion(A):Strong acids and weak acids have equal concentration pf hydrogen ions.

Reason(R): Weak acids have no electrical conductivity.

77. Assertion(A): Strength of acids and bases depend upon number of H+ ions and OH

- ions.

Reason(R): pH more than 7 is acidic solution while less than 7 is basic solution.

78. Assertion(A): Calcium oxide reacts with chlorine to give bleaching powder.

Reason(R): The chemical formula of bleaching powder is CaOCl2.

79. Assertion(A): There are 2 molecules of water of crystallization in POP.

Reason(R): POP hardens on getting wet with water to form anhydrous calcium sulphate.

57

80. Assertion(A): Egg-shell reacts with HCl, and the gas obtained turns lime water milky.

Reason(R): Egg-shell contains calcium carbonate which on reacting with HCl, gives CO2.

81. Assertion(A): In Basic solution H+

ions are present in addition to OH- ions.

Reason(R): In basic solution OH- ion concentration is equal to H

+ ion concentration.

82. Assertion(A): Onion is considered as olfactory indicators.

Reason(R): Smell of onion diminishes in base and remains as it is in acids.

83. Assertion(A): Washing soda is considered as hydrated substance.

Reason(R): Washing soda do not have hydrogen in its chemical formula.

84. Assertion(A): Antacid is used to treat indigestion.

Reason(R): Indigestion occurs due to increase in gastric acid and antacid has basic nature.

85. Assertion(A): Oxidising agents helps in oxidation.

Reason(R): Oxidising agent oxidised itself and reduces other substances.

86. Assertion(A): Aluminium can beat into sheets and foils.

Reason(R): Metal possesses malleability property.

87. Assertion(A): Metals are good conductors of electricity.

Reason(R): Metals have lustre.

88. Assertion(A): Diamond is the hardest substance.

Reason(R): Diamond is made by carbon.

89. Assertion(A): Electric bell produces ringing sound.

Reason(R): In Electric bell electric energy is used.

90. Assertion(A): Sodium and potassium can be cut with nife.

Reason(R): Sodium and potassium can react with atmospheric oxygen.

91. Assertion(A): Magnesium oxide is formed after magnesium reacts with base.

Reason(R): Metal reacts with oxygen and gives metal oxide

92. Assertion(A): Alloys are the mixtures of metals and nonmetals.

Reason(R): Alloys are used to prevent corrosion.

93. Assertion(A): Copper is more reactive metal as compared to zinc.

Reason(R): Zinc can easily displace copper when reacted with copper sulphate solution.

58

94. Assertion(A): Silver articles turns black when exposed to air.

Reason(R): Silver articles reacts with sulphur present in atmosphere and forms silver

sulphide.

95. Assertion(A): Metal oxides reacts with acids.

Reason(R): Metal oxides are basic in nature.

96. Assertion(A): Nonmetal oxides reacts with bases.

Reason(R): Nonmetal oxides are basic in nature.

97. Assertion(A): Platinum, gold and silver are used to make jewellery.

Reason(R): Platinum, gold and silver has lustre.

98. Assertion(A): Sodium metal is stored in kerosene.

Reason(R): Sodium is very reactive with water and air.

99. Assertion(A): In reaction of copper oxide with hydrogen gas, hydrogen serves as

reducing agent.

Reason(R): Hydrogen gains oxygen from copper oxide to form water molecule.

100. Assertion(A): In reaction of zinc with oxygen, zinc serves as oxidising agent.

Reason(R): The substance which gains oxygen in chemical reaction is reducing agent.

101. Assertion(A): Decomposition reactions are endothermic in nature.

Reason(R): In decomposition reactions reactants are broken down into several products.

102. Assertion(A): Nitrogen and helium are used in air packed oil containers.

Reason(R): Nitrogen and helium serves as antioxidant.

103. Assertion(A): When copper reacts with oxygen it forms copper oxide.

Reason(R): Copper oxide is basic in nature.

104. Assertion(A): Carbon dioxide is nonmetal oxide.

Reason(R): Nonmetal oxides are basic oxides.

105. Assertion(A): Chemically rust is hydrated ferric oxide.

Reason(R): Rust contains water of crystallization.

106. Assertion(A): Aqueous solution of glucose is basic in nature.

Reason(R): Aqueous solution of glucose does not undergo dissociation as they are not ionic

compound.

59

107. Assertion(A): During the electrolysis of brine Hydrogen gas produced at cathode.

Reason(R): Ions get attracted to oppositely charged electrode.

108. Assertion(A): HCl is strong acid.

Reason(R): HCl has a higher concentration of H+ ions.

109. Assertion(A): Acetic acid is weak acid.

Reason(R): Acetic acid does not have H+ ions.

110. Assertion(A): Baking Powder is different than baking soda.

Reason(R): baking soda is not used for making cake.

111. Assertion(A): All Metals shows positive ion.

Reason(R): Metals lose electrons and form positive ions.

112. Assertion(A): Stainless steel is hard and does not rust.

Reason(R): Stainless steel is an alloy of iron, nickel, and chromium.

113. Assertion(A): Brass is an alloy of copper and zinc.

Reason(R): Brass is used for screws, nuts, bolts, utensils, etc

114. Assertion(A): Active metals like Na, K, Ca form hydride.

Reason(R): Active metals force hydrogen to accept electron to form hydride.

115. Assertion(A): When any metal reacts with nitric acid, hydrogen gas is evolved.

Reason(R): Except Mg and Mn all metals forms water molecule when reacts with nitric acid.

116. Assertion(A): Solder is an alloy of lead and tin.

Reason(R): Solder is used for wielding electrical wires together.

117. Assertion(A): Sodium hydroxide is formed when sodium oxide is treated with water.

Reason(R): Basic oxides when reacts with water produces bases.

118. Assertion(A): Aluminium oxide can react with acids as well as bases.

Reason(R): Aluminium oxide is amphoteric in nature.

119. Assertion(A): Gallium and caesium have low melting points.

Reason(R): Gallium and caesium are nonmetals, and nonmetals have low melting point.

120. Assertion(A): Aqua regia is highly corrosive liquid.

Reason(R): Aqua regia is prepared by mixing conc. HCl and conc. HNO3 in ration 1:3.

**Case Study Based Question from Q.121 to Q.150**

60

A) Calcium oxide reacts vigorously with water to produce slaked lime releasing a large

amount of heat. CaO(s) + H2O(l) → Ca(OH)2(aq) + Heat

(Quick lime) (Slaked lime)

In this reaction, calcium oxide and water combine to form a single product, calcium

hydroxide. Such a reaction in which a single product is formed from two or more reactants is

known as a combination reaction. Reactions in which heat is released along with the

formation of products are called exothermic chemical reactions.

121. Quick lime is also considered as –

a)Calcium hydroxide b) Calcium oxide c) Calcium carbonate d) Calcium chloride

122. How to obtain calcium hydroxide from quick lime?

a) By burning calcium oxide b) By adding lime juice into calcium hydroxide

c) By adding water into calcium oxide d) by adding water into calcium carbonate

123. Na2O + H2O → 2NaOH + Heat ; type of this reaction is –

a) Decomposition b) Displacement c) Combination d) Dehydration

124. K2O + H2O → 2KOH + Heat ; type of this reaction is –

a) Endothermic b) Exothermic c) Decomposition d) Dehydration

125. In exothermic reaction heat is –

a) given out b) to be given c) very less d) not given out

B)

126. Name the type of reaction involved in above diagram.

a) Decomposition b) Combination c) Displacement d) Exothermic

127. The above diagram is for ……………… decomposition.

61

a) Water electrolytic combination b) Water electrolytic decomposition

c) Water electrolytic displacement d) Exothermic electrolytic decomposition

128. After electrolysis water can be dissociates as –

a) H+

and OH- b) H

- and OH

+ c) H

+ and OH

+ d) H

- and OH

-

129. Hydrogen gas can be seen at –

a) Anode b) Bottom c) Cathode d) Upper surface

130. The overall reaction for electrolysis of water is –

a) H2O → H+ + OH

- b) H2O → H2 + ½ O2

c) H2O → H-

+ OH+ d) H2O → ½ H2 + O2

C) Aman is learning to bake the cake. He used all the ingredient for making dough. After

pouring dough in desired shape of utensil. Then he placed it in the oven. After sometime he

removed it and found good soft and fluffy cake.

131. What is the probable reason that cake is fluffy?

a) he used oven b) he used baking powder

c) he used limited sugar d) he used desired shaped utensil

132. What is the formula for baking soda ?

a) Na2CO3 b) NaHCO3 c) NaHCO2 d) NaOH

133. Why cake becomes soft and fluffy ?

a) Due to cooking in oven

b) due to addition of all ingredients

c) due to reaction between dough and heat

d) due to reaction between water and baking powder

134. Which gas is evolved when water is added to baking powder, and it is subjected to heat.

a) Hydrogen b) Oxygen c) Carbon dioxide d) Sulphur dioxide

135.What can be the reason, if cake becomes hard and not fluffy?

a) addition of extra baking powder

b) no addition of baking powder

62

c) not baked properly in oven

d) not added sufficient water

D) - Organic acids: Acids derived from living organisms like plants and animals.

- Mineral acids: They are also called inorganic acids.

- a. Dilute acids: Have a low concentration of acids in aqueous solutions.

b. Concentrated acids: Have a high concentration of acids in aqueous solutions.

136. Choose correct organic acid from the following-

a) Hydrochloric acid b) Sulphuric acid

c) Nitric acid d) Formic acid

137. Choose correct pair of inorganic acids-

a) Sulphuric acid and acetic acid

b) Nitric acid and oxalic acid

c) Acetic acid and formic acid

d) Sulphuric acid and nitric acid

138. Which more corrosive acid?

a) Dilute acid b) Diluted mineral acid

c) Concentrated organic acid d) Concentrated mineral acid

139. Which of the following acid can we taste?

a) mineral acid b) inorganic acid c) Organic acid d) Concentrated acid

140. Which of the following acid is released when ant bites?

a) mineral acid b) inorganic acid c) Organic acid d) Concentrated acid

E)

63

141. Gallium is metal found in ……….state in nature.

a) Solid b) Liquid c) Gas d) plasma

142. Graphite shows property of –

a) Metal b) Malleability

c) Ductility d) Non malleability

143. Hardest nonmetal is –

a) Bromine d) diamond c) graphite d) Sulphur

144. ……….. is the nonmetal used as antiseptic for wounds.

a) Chlorine b) Bromine c) Iodine d) Oxygen

145. Boiling point of metals are high, except –

a) Sodium metal as it is soft

b) Gallium metal as it is liquid in state

c) Potassium metal as it is very reactive

d) Calcium metal as it forms oxide easily.

F) Properties of ionic compounds :

* Physical nature: solid and hard due to strong force of attraction. (generally brittle)

* Melting point and boiling point: have high M.P and B.P, as large amount of heat energy is

required to break strong ionic attraction.

* Solubility: soluble in water and insoluble in kerosene and petrol.

* Conduction of electricity: ionic compounds in solid state, does not conduct electricity.

64

146. Solid Sodium Chloride do not conduct electricity, Because-

a) Sodium chloride is bad conductor of heat and electricity.

b) Sodium chloride is a covalent compound.

c) Sodium chloride can conduct electricity only in aqueous medium.

d) Sodium chloride ions can not move due to rigid solid structure.

147. Sodium chloride is not soluble in kerosene, because-

a) Ionic compound can be soluble in water

b) Ionic compounds can not dissolve in kerosene.

c) Ionic compound can not dissolve in polar solvent.

d) Ionic compounds have high melting point.

148. Crystals of sodium chloride can easily break into small pieces. Because-

a) Sodium chloride is hard to break.

b) Sodium chloride is brittle in nature.

c) Sodium chloride is ionic compound so easily soluble in water.

d) Sodium chloride do not have strong force of attraction in its particles.

149. Ionic compounds have high M.P. and B.P. because-

a) ionic compounds are brittle.

b) ionic compounds are not soluble in kerosene.

c) ionic compounds are good conductors of electricity in molten state.

d) ionic compounds need more energy to break ionic attraction.

150. Ionic compound forms by –

a) Complete transfer of electrons

b) Sharing of electrons

c) Combination of elements

d) Joining of elements

65

Answers-

Q.1 to Q.60 MCQs

Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer

1 c) Double displacement reaction 31 b) Sulphuric acid

2 a) CO2 and CaO 32 a) Zinc chloride and Hydrogen

gas

3 b) Magnesium Oxide 33 b) Carbon dioxide gas

4 d) to remove layer of magnesium

carbonate

34 a) Solution of common salt.

5 a) Hydrogen 35 c) Chlorine and Hydrogen

6 b) Oxidation of fats and oils 36 a) corrode

7 b) Photolytic decomposition 37 c) olfactory

8 b) Displacement 38 b) which ionized completely to

produce hydroxide ions

9 c) Exothermic 39 d) five

10 a) Burns with oxygen 40 a) heating gypsum to lose

water molecule.

11 b) ZnO + C Zn + CO

41 b) Sulphuric acid

12 c) On heating solid substance first

melts and then boils.

42 a) Zinc chloride and Hydrogen

gas

13 b) Chemical equation

43 b) Carbon dioxide gas

14 d) Number of elements in reactants is

equal to number of elements in

products.

44 a) Solution of common salt.

15 c) china rose solution, methyl orange 45 c) Chlorine and Hydrogen

16 b) Base which dissolves in water. 46 a) corrode

17 c) Solution in which water is solvent. 47 c) olfactory

18 c) Tomato has acidic nature 48 b) which ionized completely to

produce hydroxide ions

19 c) Acid-Base indicator 49 d) five

20 b) Diprotic 50 a) Acidic

21 c) china rose solution, methyl orange 51 b) CO and H2O

22 b) Base which dissolves in water. 52 c) reaction of metal with

water

23 c) Solution in which water is solvent. 53 a) more reactive metal will

displace a less reactive metal

66

24 c) Tomato has acidic nature 54 a) Strong intermolecular force

of attraction

25 c) Acid-Base indicator 55 c) large amount of energy is

required to break ionic bond

26 b) Diprotic 56 d) Kerosene and Petrol

27 b) H+ ions 57 b) Ions cannot move freely

28 a) OH-

ions

58 c) low melting point

29 b) strong acid and weak base reacts 59 a) Calcination

30 c) Basic 60 b) Excess presence

Q.61 to Q.120 Assertion and Reason


61 (a) Both A and R are true and R is

the correct explanation of A.

91 (d) A is false but R is true.



92 (b) Both A and R are true but R is

not the correct explanation of A.












66 (c) A is true but R is false.

















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78 (d) A is false but R is true. 108 (a) Both A and R are true and R is


79 (d) A is false but R is true. 109 (c) A is true but R is false.

































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Q.121 to Q.150 Case study based MCQs


121 b) Calcium oxide 136 d) Formic acid

122 c) By adding water into calcium

oxide

137 d) Sulphuric acid and nitric acid

123 c) Combination 138 d) Concentrated mineral acid

124 b) Exothermic 139 c) Organic acid 125 a) given out 140 c) Organic acid 126 a) Decomposition 141 b) Liquid 127 b) Water electrolytic

decomposition

142 d) Non malleability

128 a) H+

and OH- 143 d) diamond

129 c) Cathode 144 c) Iodine 130 b) H2O → H2 + ½ O2 145 b) Gallium metal as it is liquid in state

131 b) he used baking powder 146 d) Sodium chloride ions cannot move

due to rigid solid structure

132 b) NaHCO3 147 b) Ionic compounds cannot dissolve in

kerosene. 133 d) due to reaction between water

and baking powder

148 b) Sodium chloride is brittle in nature

134 c) Carbon dioxide 149 d) ionic compounds need more energy

to break ionic attraction

135 b) no addition of baking powder 150 a) Complete transfer of electrons

subject: science, mcq life processes nutrition

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