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Test Name : Test 24 - Ecology and Environment Total Questions : 100Difficulty Level : Medium Total Marks : 200.00Test Type : Free Duration : 120.00 mins

Instruction :Please read the instructions carefully

The total duration of examination is 120 minutes.1.Right Answer carries 2 marks and 1/3rd is negative marking in case of the wrong answer.2.The clock will be set at the server. The countdown timer in the top right corner of the screen will3.display the remaining time available for you to complete the examination. When the timerreaches zero, the examination will end by itself. You will not be required to end or submit yourexamination.The test contains 100 questions. Each item is given in the language of your preference (Hindi or4.English)A test can be given only once5.In case you feel there is more than one correct response, mark the response, which you consider6.the best.All questions carry equal marks i.e. 2 marks each question7.You can always go back and change your answer before submitting the test. However, this is not8.possible in the actual UPSC preliminary exam.Irrespective of how many answers you have marked, the test will automatically close in 2 hours9.and you will get your score based on the responses marked till thenThere are 4 alternatives for each question. For each wrong answer given, one-third of the marks10.assigned to that question will be deducted as penaltyThe Question Palette displayed on the right side of the screen will show the status of each11.question using one of the following symbols:

You have not visited the question yet.

You have not answered the question.

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Q.1 which of the following statements are correct ?1. Indu Malhotra will be the second woman judge in SC2. M. Fatima beevi became the first woman judge in supreme court in 1989A. only 1 is correctB. only 2 is correctC. all are correctD. all are incorrect

Answer : B,

Solution :

Overall indu malhotra will be seventh woman judge in SC, since it was established 67 yearsago. In 1989, Justice M. Fathima Beevi became first woman judge in SC

Q.2 which of the following statements are correct ?1. blockchain technology is controlled by cryptocurrency2. it is a self auditing system of digital value.A. only 1 is correctB. only 2 is correctC. all are correctD. all are incorrect

Answer : B,

Solution :

Blockchain technology is not controlled by any single entity and has no single point of failure.It is transparent and incorruptible. It is kind of self-auditing ecosystem of digital value andblockchain network automatically checks every transaction that happens in it..

Q.3 which of the following statements are correct ?1. blockchain technology can address security risks to internet of things2. internet of things is a network of virtual devicesA. only 1 is correctB. only 2 is correctC. all are correctD. all are incorrect

Answer : B,

Solution :

IoT is a network of devices such as smartphones, wearable devices, home appliances andvehicles, connected to internet, which enables these objects to connect and exchange data.Blockchain technology has potential to address security risks to IoT as it provides a shield


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against data tampering by labelling each block of data

Q.4 which of the following statements are correct ?1. the national youth day marks the birth anniversary of swami Vivekananda2. he introduced Vedanta to the western worldA. only 1 is correctB. only 2 is correctC. all are correctD. all are incorrect

Answer : C,

Solution :

The National Youth Day is observed every year on 12 January to mark the birth anniversary ofsocial reformer, philosopher, thinker and youth icon He was one of most prominent figures ofIndia who introduced Indian philosophies of Vedanta and Yoga to “Western” World.

Q.5 Because of social media expansion a committee has been constituted by the ElectionCommission (EC) to recommend changes to Representation of the People ActA. Umesh Sinha committeeB. N K Singh committeeC. sumit kumar committeeD. Avnesh Gupta committee

Answer : A,

Solution :

The Election Commission (EC) has constituted a 14-member committee to suggest changes toSection 126 of the Representation of the People Act in view of social media expansion. The Actprohibits poll campaign in the last 48 hours of voting. The Committee Umesh Sinha will studythe impact of social media during the silence period and suggest modifications to the electionlaw and model code of conduct

Q.6 which of the following statements are correct ?1. national trust is a statutory body under ministry of minority affairs2. recently the union cabinet fixed the term for chairperson as 3 yearsA. only 1 is correctB. only 2 is correctC. all are correctD. all are incorrect

Answer : B,


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Solution :

The Union Cabinet has decided to fix three-year term of chairperson and the members of theboard of the National Trust, an autonomous body under the ministry of social justice andempowerment

Q.7 which of the following statements are correct ?1. the national trust is a statutory body under department of empowerment of persons withdisabilities2. it strives to create an enabling environmentA. only 1 is correctB. only 2 is correctC. all are correctD. all are incorrect

Answer : C,

Solution :

It is a statutory body under Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities(Divyangjan), Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment. Its mandate is to discharge two basicduties – legal and welfare. It fundamental purpose, is to create enabling environment, i.e.provide es for Persons with Disabilities (PwD) through comprehensive support systems whichwill lead towards development of an inclusive society.

Q.8 which of the following statements are correct ?1. india has eliminated kala azar2. it belongs to neglected tropical disease affecting poorest populationsA. only 1 is correctB. only 2 is correctC. all are correctD. all are incorrect

Answer : B,

Solution :

India has missed December 2017 deadline announced for elimination of Kala Azar (black fever)in 2017-18 Budget by the Union Government. Elimination in this case is defined as reducingannual incidence of disease to less than 1 case per 10,000 people at the sub-district level.

Q.9 which of the following statements are correct ?1. kala azar has increased in bihar and Jharkhand2. a sign of growing incidence is post kala azar dermal leishmaniasisA. only 1 is correct


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B. only 2 is correctC. all are correctD. all are incorrect

Answer : C,

Solution :

In recent times endemic blocks have increased from 61 to 68 in 17 districts of Bihar andJharkhand. The active case findings rather than actual increase in disease are main reason forincrease in number of endemic blocks. Moreover, little-known skin condition called Post KalaAzar Dermal Leishmaniasis (PKDL) — a red flag for transmission of Kala Azar—also has beengrowing steadily over the past few years....

Q.10 which of the following statements are correct ?1. to stop transmission of kala azar pucca houses need to be built2. this will prevent the mosquitoes fromlodging in thhe houseA. only 1 is correctB. only 2 is correctC. all are correctD. all are incorrect

Answer : A,

Solution :

For elimination of Kala Azar, its vector needs to be eliminated first. But it is very difficult toeliminate vector as it dwells in wooden structure and escapes various measures to kill it. Themajority of houses in endemic blocks are made from wood. Hence, to stop infectiontransmission, pucca houses need to be built

Q.11 which of the following statements are correct ?1. kala azar is the most severe form of leishmaniasis2. its infection is transmitted by sand flyA. only 1 is correctB. only 2 is correctC. all are correctD. all are incorrect

Answer : C,

Solution :

Kala-azar or visceral leishmaniasis (VL), also known as black fever and Dumdum fever is mostsevere form of leishmaniasis. It is slow progressing indigenous disease caused by single-celledparasite of Leishmania family. It belongs to Neglected Tropical Disease (NTD) family of


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diseases which affect poorest populations. Its infection is transmitted by sand fly (Leishmaniadonovani), a blood-sucking pest, found in moist (humid) mud and sand and in close proximityto livestock.

Q.12 which of the following statements are correct ?1. kala azar is the largest parasitic killer in thhe world2. it is endemic to the indian subcontinentA. only 1 is correctB. only 2 is correctC. all are correctD. all are incorrect

Answer : C,

Solution :

It is second-largest parasitic killer in world after Malaria. It is endemic to Indian subcontinentin 119 districts in four countries (Bangladesh, Bhutan, India and Nepal). India accounts forhalf the global burden of Kala-azar disease

Q.13 which of the following statements are correct ?1. CABE is the policy making advisory body of the HRB Ministry2. it has recommended free education for girls upto PG levelA. only 1 is correctB. only 2 is correctC. all are correctD. all are incorrect

Answer : C,

Solution :

The sub-committee of Central Advisory Board of Education (CABE) looking into issues of girl’seducation has recommended free and compulsory education. for girls up to post-graduate levelacross the country.

Q.14 which of the following statements are correct ?1. virtual ID and limited KYC has been introduced by UIDAI2. It meets concerns that aadhar is of limited use onlyA. only 1 is correctB. only 2 is correctC. all are correctD. all are incorrect

Answer : A,


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Solution :

The Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI) has introduced two-tier security featureviz. Virtual ID and Limited KYC to address privacy concerns. The move aims to strengthensecurity and privacy of Aadhaar data. It will also reduce the collection of Aadhaar numbers byvarious agencies....

Q.15 What is the theme of the 22nd National Youth Festival (NYF-2018)?A. Youth for secure IndiaB. Sankalp Se SiddhiC. youth togetherD. Youth for Digital India

Answer : B,

Solution :

The 22nd National Youth Festival (NYF-2018) has inaugurated by the Prime Minister NarendraModi at the Gautam Buddha University in Greater Noida on January 12. The Festival hascommenced on the occasion of birth anniversary of Swami Vivekananda, the youth icon ofIndia.The theme of 5-day festival is ‘Sankalp Se Siddhi’, to capitalise on the demographicdividend of young India, to capture the vibrancy and fresh perspective of youth and to pledgeto accomplish the Goal of New India.

Q.16 which of the following statements are correct ?1. ISRO has successfully launched Cartosat 2 Series and 29 other spacecraft from its PolarSatellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) C-402. cartosat is a geomapping satelliteA. only 1 is correctB. only 2 is correctC. all are correctD. all are incorrect

Answer : A,

Solution :

ISRO has successfully launched weather observation satellite Cartosat 2 Series and 29 otherspacecraft into the space from its Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) C-40 from the SatishDhawan Space Centre (SDSC) in Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh. The Cartosat-2 series satellitewill provide high-resolution scene specific spot imageries. The images will be used forcartographic applications, urban and rural applications, coastal land use and regulation, roadnetwork monitoring, water distribution, creation of land use maps among other things.

Q.17 which of the following statements are correct ?


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1. SFOORTI app has been launched by railways2. it allows booking of various amenities onlineA. only 1 is correctB. only 2 is correctC. all are correctD. all are incorrect

Answer : A,

Solution :

In a major digital initiative to help plan the traffic flows and optimize freight operations,Ministry of Railways has launched Smart Freight Operation Optimisation and Real TimeInformation (SFOORTI) App for freight managers. The app provides features for monitoringand managing freight business using Geographic Information System (GIS) Views andDashboard. With this application both passenger and freight trains can be tracked over Zones,Divisions and Sections in single GIS View. The app provides a bird’s eye view of all freightassets in a single window and end to end rake movement on Geospatial view.

Q.18 which of the following statements are correct ?1. Indus Waters Treaty gives Pakistan the exclusive right to regulate the Jhelum River.2. uri damis on Jhelum riverA. only 1 is correctB. only 2 is correctC. all are correctD. all are incorrect

Answer : C,

Solution :

The Uri Dam is a 480 MW hydroelectric power station on the Jhelum River near Uri inBaramula district of the Jammu and Kashmir (J&K). It is located very near to the Line ofControl, the de facto border between India and Pakistan. The station is largely built under ahill with a 10 km tunnel. It is of the run-of-the-river type without a large dam, since the IndusWaters Treaty gives Pakistan the exclusive right to regulate the Jhelum River.

Q.19 which of the following statements are correct ?1. Rajyapal –VikasKeRajdoot was constituted by the prime minister2. it studies the role of governors in the development processsA. only 1 is correctB. only 2 is correctC. all are correctD. all are incorrect


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Answer : B,

Solution :

The Committee of Governors submitted its report ‘Rajyapal –VikasKeRajdoot: Catalytic Role ofGovernors as Agents for Change in Society’ . The Committee was constituted by Presidentduring 48th Conference of Governors in October 2017 to examine role of Governors in takingforward the development process.

Q.20 which of the following statements are correct ?1. The Research Designs & Standards Organisation (RDSO) is the research arm of UnionMinistry of Railways2. it has launched New Online Vender Registration System” on January 9, 2018.A. only 1 is correctB. only 2 is correctC. all are correctD. all are incorrect

Answer : C,

Solution :

The Research Designs & Standards Organisation (RDSO), the research arm of Union Ministryof Railways, has launched “New Online Vender Registration System” on January 9, 2018. Thisnew system provides major improvements and paradigm changes in the registration systemover the earlier system. Public access to the information, expeditious process completion withdefined timelines, simplification of procedures, round-the-year services, availability of allrelated information on RDSO Website, constant monitoring at all levels, reduction in cycletimelines, regular updation of online data, user friendly interface etc. are the hallmarks of thenew system.

Q.21 why has iran banned teaching on English in primary schoolsA. to fight western cultural invasionB. to mend diplomatic relations with Saudi ArabiaC. to exercise influence in the nearby areasD. to control its population better

Answer : A,

Solution :

Iran has recently banned teaching of English language in primary schools to fight againstwestern cultural invasion. Usually, the teaching of English starts in middle school in Iran, atthe ages of 12 to 14, but some primary schools below that age also have English classes. Thehead of the state-run High Education Council, Mehdi Navid-Adham stated that teaching


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English in government and non-government primary schools in the official curriculum areagainst laws and regulations.

Q.22 what is Charlie 435A. a submarineB. a patrol vesselC. a warshipD. the state dish of Sikkim

Answer : B,

Solution :

The Indian Coast Guard (ICG) has commissioned Charlie-435, a state-of-the-art patrol vessel atKaraikal in the Union Territory of Puducherry. The patrol vessel ‘Charlie-435’ is equipped withmodern navigation and communication system. The vessel will strengthen coastal securitybetween Chennai and Kanyakumari in the Eastern Coastal region. It will be also of great helpin rescuing fishermen who go adrift in sea due to bad weather

Q.23 which of the following statements are correct ?1. The MPLADscheme is a central sector scheme launched to create community assets2. it is supervised by the Ministry of statistics and programme implementationA. only 1 is correctB. only 2 is correctC. all are correctD. all are incorrect

Answer : C,

Solution :

The MPLAD Scheme is Central Sector Scheme launched in 1993-94. It enables Members ofParliament (both elected and nominated) to recommend works for creation of durablecommunity assets based on locally felt needs to be taken up in their constituencies in area ofnational priorities like drinking water, education, public health, sanitation, roads etc. TheMinistry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MSPI) is nodal ministry to coordinatework under the scheme

Q.24 which of the following statements are correct ?1. Logistics Ease Across Different States (LEADS) index released by Union Ministry ofCommerce & Industry.2. Gujarat tops the list with Punjab coming secondA. only 1 is correctB. only 2 is correctC. all are correct


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D. all are incorrect

Answer : C,

Solution :

Logistics Ease Across Different States (LEADS) index released by Union Ministry of Commerce& Industry Punjab has acquired second position followed by Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka andMaharashtra. Among the Union Territories, Daman & Diu occupied top slot followed by delhiand chandigarh

Q.25 which of the following statements are correct ?1. pratyush is India’s fastest and first multi-peta-flops supercomputer2. it was established in IIT GwaliorA. only 1 is correctB. only 2 is correctC. all are correctD. all are incorrect

Answer : A,

Solution :

India’s fastest and first multi-peta-flops supercomputer “Pratyush’. The supercomputer hasbeen established at Pune-based Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM) and will be anational facility for improving weather and climate forecasts under the umbrella of the MoES.

Q.26 which of the following statements are correct ?1. Iceland has become the first country in the world to enforce equal pay for women and men2. Companies will face fines if they can’t prove that men and women are receiving the samesalary for the same jobA. only 1 is correctB. only 2 is correctC. all are correctD. all are incorrect

Answer : C,

Solution :

Iceland has become the first country in the world to enforce equal pay for women and men.The new law, which came into force on 1st January 2018, stated that companies andgovernment agencies employing at least 25 people will have to obtain government certificationof their equal-pay policies. Companies will face fines if they can’t prove that men and womenare receiving the same salary for the same job. The new legislation was supported by Iceland’scentre-right government, as well as the opposition, in a parliament where nearly 50% of all


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members are women.

Q.27 which of the following statements are correct ?1. 1 the Central Leather Research Institute (CLRI) is located in Chennai,2. it comes under CSIRA. only 1 is correctB. only 2 is correctC. all are correctD. all are incorrect

Answer : C,

Solution :

The Central Leather Research Institute (CLRI) is located in Chennai, Tamil Nadu. It is theworld’s largest leather research institute in terms of research papers and patents. The CLRIwas founded on 24 April 1948 as a constituent laboratory under the Council of Scientific andIndustrial Research (CSIR).

Q.28 which of the following statements are correct ?1. Council for Trade Development and Promotion (CTDP was formed to promote internationaltrade in states2. it helps promote india’s overseas shipmentsA. only 1 is correctB. only 2 is correctC. all are correctD. all are incorrect

Answer : C,

Solution :

CTDP was constituted in July, 2015 to ensure a continuous dialogue with StateGovernments/UTs on measures for providing International trade enabling environment inStates. The council was constituted to promote India’s overseas shipments. It acts as platformto develop partnership with states with aim to boost international trade. It also seeks to createa framework for making states active partners in boosting India’s exports.

Q.29 which of the following statements are correct ?1. The Supreme Court has ruled that playing national anthem before screening movies incinema halls is mandatory2. it has made changes in Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act, 1971...A. only 1 is correctB. only 2 is correctC. all are correct


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D. all are incorrect

Answer : D,

Solution :

The Supreme Court has ruled that playing national anthem before screening movies in cinemahalls is optional and not mandatory. The ruling modifies apex court’s earlier November 2016order that made the playing of national anthem in cinemas mandatory

Q.30 which of the following statements are correct ?1. Prompt Corrective Action (PCA) can be taken against public sector banks for its high netNon-Performing Assets (NPAs) and negative Return on Assets (RoA)2. The action would contribute to the overall improvement in risk management, asset quality,profitability, efficiency of the bank.A. only 1 is correctB. only 2 is correctC. all are correctD. all are incorrect

Answer : C,

Solution :

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has initiated Prompt Corrective Action (PCA) against publicsector lender Allahabad Bank, owing to its high net Non-Performing Assets (NPAs) andnegative Return on Assets (RoA) for two consecutive years. The action would contribute to theoverall improvement in risk management, asset quality, profitability, efficiency of the bank.The RBI has initiated similar action against other public sector banks, including IDBI Bank,Indian Overseas Bank and UCO Bank. The RBI in April 2017 had issued a new set of enablingprovisions under the revised PCA framework with a clause that if the bank does not showimprovement then it could be either be merged or taken over by other bank.

Q.31 which of the following statements are correct ?1. operation alert was launched in jammu and Kashmir2. it was launched by indian armyA. only 1 is correctB. only 2 is correctC. all are correctD. all are incorrect

Answer : A,

Solution :

The Border Security Force (BSF) has launched Operation Alert along the over 200 km long


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International Border (IB) in Jammu and Kashmir (J&K) to curb the increasing movement ofinfiltrating terrorists from across the border.

Q.32 which of the following are the new non permanent members of UNSC1. Equatorial Guinea2. Ivory Coast,3. Kuwait,4. the Netherlands,5. Peru,6. Poland.A. 123B. 234C. all of the aboveD. none of the above

Answer : C,

Solution :

On 3rd January 2018, the United Nations Security Council (UNSC) has welcomed six new non-permanent members — Equatorial Guinea, Ivory Coast, Kuwait, the Netherlands, Peru, andPoland. The six new countries, voted on by the 193-member General assembly for two-yearterms, will have a strong voice in matters dealing with international peace and security duringtheir time on the U.N.’s most powerful body.

Q.33 which of the following statements are correct ?1. The U.N. Security council has primary responsibility for the maintenance of internationalpeace and security.2. It has 15 members that hold permanent membership and veto power.A. only 1 is correctB. only 2 is correctC. all are correctD. all are incorrect

Answer : C,

Solution :

The U.N. Security council has primary responsibility for the maintenance of internationalpeace and security. It has 15 members — five of which (Britain, China, France, Russia and theUnited States) hold permanent membership and veto power.

Q.34 which of the countries have left UNSC1. Egypt,2. Italy,


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3. Japan,4. Senegal,5. Ukraine6. Uruguay.A. 123B. 234C. C None Of The AboveD. All Of The Above

Answer : D,

Solution :

The six countries who left the UNSC on 31st December 2017 are Egypt, Italy, Japan, Senegal,Ukraine and Uruguay.

Q.35 which of the following statements are correct?1. Turkey’s endangered ‘bird language’ has entered the UNESCO list of Intangible CulturalHeritage.2. it is an animal languageA. only 1 is correctB. only 2 is correctC. all are correctD. all are incorrect

Answer : A,

Solution :

Turkey’s endangered ‘bird language’ has entered the UNESCO list of Intangible CulturalHeritage. It is an unusual and very efficient whistle language used as a means ofcommunication by villagers in remote northern Turkey. UNESCO has accepted the “birdlanguage” of Black Sea villagers as an endangered part of world heritage in need of urgentprotection. Around 10,000 people, mostly in the district of Canakci in Giresun province, stilluse the highly-developed and high pitch system of whistling to communicate in the ruggedterrain where most of the times they cannot see each other.

Q.36 which of the following statements are correct ?1. JLGs are informal groups of 4-10 members engaged in similar economic activities2. They are typically credit groups of small or marginal tenant farmersA. only 1 is correctB. only 2 is correctC. all are correctD. all are incorrect


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Answer : C,

Solution :

JLGs are informal groups of 4-10 members engaged in similar economic activities and willingto jointly undertake the responsibility to repay loans taken by the group from a bank. They aretypically credit groups of small or marginal tenant farmers who do not have a proper title oftheir farmland. Through these JLGs, SBI plans to extend assistance to the financially excludedsections of the society, especially landless farmers in the districts of Purulia, PaschimMedinipur, Purba Medinipur, Burdwan and North 24 Parganas.

Q.37 “Ancient Route, New Journey: Diaspora in the Dynamic Asean-India Partnership.” Is the themeof:A. The World economic forum summit – Asia wingB. The Asean summitC. Asean-Saarc Cooperation meetingD. Asean India pravasi Bharatiya divas

Answer : D,

Solution :

The annual ASEAN India Pravasi Bharatiya Divas is being celebrated at Singapore. Theconference, which will be attended by top leaders and businessmen from Singapore and India,will discuss the contribution of the Indian diaspora community in Southeast Asia.

Q.38 Pravasi Bharatiya Divas (PBD) is celebrated every year on January 9 to mark the contributionof:A. M K GandhiB. Shyama Prasad MukherjeeC. Tourists visiting IndiaD. Overses Indian community

Answer : D,

Solution :

Pravasi Bharatiya Divas (PBD) is celebrated every year on January 9 to mark the contributionof overseas Indian community in the development of India. January 9 was chosen as the day tocelebrate this occasion since it was on this day in 1915 that Mahatma Gandhi, the greatestPravasi, returned to India from South Africa, led India’s freedom struggle and changed thelives of Indians forever.

Q.39 A colony of anaerobic bacteria acts upon the collected waste and converts the waste intowater and biogases (mainly methane and carbon dioxide). The above concept is used in the


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case of:A. Bio-garbage processing unitsB. Bio-toiletsC. Converting non-recyclable waste into recyclableD. None of the above

Answer : B,

Solution :

The bio-toilets are fitted underneath the lavatories and the human excreta discharged intothem; these toilets incorporate microbes with an anaerobic digestion process to digest humanwaste. A colony of anaerobic bacteria acts upon the collected waste and converts the wasteinto water and biogases (mainly methane and carbon dioxide). While the gases escape into theatmosphere, the wastewater is discharged after disinfection onto the track, thus putting anend to the crisis of railway tracks strewn with excreta.

Q.40 Ethereum and ripple are:A. Denominations under bitcoinB. Other types of cryptocurrenciesC. Newly devised neo-barter systemD. None of the above

Answer : B,

Solution :

Ethereum has hit $1,000 for the first time, while investors eye at alternative currencies suchas ripple, ethereum and litecoin besides bitcoin. Earlier Ethereum was the second-most valuedcurrency after bitcoin, but now ripple has outpaced it lately.

Q.41 Blockchain is the digital and decentralized ledger that records transactions without the needfor a financial intermediary, which in most cases is a bank. Which of the following is anadvantage of the technology?A. The potential for smaller transaction fees as a result of having no third-party involved.B. The decentralization of blockchain ensures that there’s no central hub cybercriminals

could attack.C. Both 1 and 2D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer : C,

Solution :

none


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Q.42 The GOLD and ICON missions are launched by NASA to:A. Explore a little-understood area 60 miles (96 KM) above Earth’s surface.B. Explore a little-understood area 60 miles (96 KM) above Mars’ surface.C. Set two satellites on the orbit of a comet passing by closest to earth.D. Set two satellites on the orbit of a moon on Saturn to study its liquid composition.

Answer : A,

Solution :

U.S. space agency National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) is all set to launchtwo missions to explore a little-understood area 60 miles (96 KM) above Earth’s surface. Themissions are named GOLD and ICON.

The Global-scale Observations of the Limb and Disk (GOLD) mission will be launched aboard acommercial communications satellite in January 2018, and the designed spacecraftIonospheric Connection Explorer (ICON) will be launched later this year.

Q.43 At the time of British rule in India, the direct elections were for the first time incorporatedunder which Law/Act?A. Indian Councils Act, 1892B. Indian Councils Act, 1909C. Government of India Act, 1919D. Government of India Act, 1935

Answer : B,

Solution :

The first attempt at introducing a representative and popular element was made by Morley-Minto Reforms or the Indian Councils Act, 1909. The Act also provided for separaterepresentation of the Muslim community and thus sowed the seeds of separatism.

Q.44 The federation as prescribed by Government of India Act, 1935 never came into being becauseA. It was optional for the Indian States to join the federationB. The administration of State subjects like agriculture, law and order was under Governor-

General.C. The Muslim League did not support federalism, rather they wanted a strong Centre to

safeguard their interest.D. None of the above

Answer : A,

Solution :

The federation as prescribed by Government of India Act, 1935 never came into being because


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it was optional for the Indian States (or the Princely States) to join the federation. And sincethe rulers of the Indian States never gave their consent, the Federation as envisaged by theAct of 1935 never came into being.

Q.45 Which of the following is/are the principal feature(s) of Government of India Act,1919?1. Introduced dyarchy at the Centre2. Separated for the first time, provincial budget from the Central budget.3. Introduced separate representation for the Muslim community and sowed the seeds ofseparatism.4. Introduced provincial autonomySelect the correct answer using the code given below:A. 2 onlyB. 1 and 3C. 4 onlyD. 2 and 4

Answer : A,

Solution :

Though Government of India Act, 1919 relaxed the central control over the provinces bydemarcating and separating the central and provincial subjects, the structure of governmentcontinued to be centralised and unitary. The Act, further divided provincial subjects into twoparts—transferred and reserved. The transferred subjects were to be administered by thegovernor with the aid of ministers responsible to the legislative Council. The reservedsubjects, on the other hand, were to be administered by the governor and his executive councilwithout being responsible to the legislative Council. This dual scheme of governance wasknown as ‘dyarchy’. Separate electorate was introduced by the Morley-Minto Reforms or theIndian Councils Act, 1909

Q.46 ‘Objective Resolution’ presented by Jawaharlal Nehru in December, 1946 is an historic eventin the making of the Constitution. What did this resolution contain?A. abolition of communal electorateB. the composition of the Constituent AssemblyC. the fundamentals and philosophy of the constitutional structureD. ratified India’s membership of the Common wealth

Answer : C,

Solution :

On December 13, 1946, Jawaharlal Nehru moved the historic ‘Objectives Resolution’ in theAssembly. It laid down the fundamentals and philosophy of the constitutional structure.

Q.47 A democratic polity is based on the doctrine of popular sovereignty. With regard to this


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principle, consider the following1. Plebiscite2. Referendum3. Recall4. InitiativeWhich of the above is/are used in direct democracy?A. 2, 3 and 4B. 1 and 2C. 1, 2 and 3D. All of the above

Answer : D,

Solution :

Democracy is of two types—direct and indirect. In direct democracy, the people exercise theirsupreme power directly as is the case in Switzerland. There are four devices of directdemocracy, namely, Referendum, Initiative, Recall and Plebiscite. In indirect democracy, onthe other hand, the representatives elected by the people exercise the supreme power andthus carry on the government and make the laws. This type of democracy, also known asrepresentative democracy, is of two kinds—parliamentary and presidential.

Q.48 Which of the following statements is correct with regard to the Preamble of the IndianConstitution?1. The Preamble is a source of power to the legislature2. Preamble is a part of the Constitution3. Preamble cannot be amended4. It is non-justiciable, or it is not enforceable in courts of law.Select the correct answer using the code given below:A. 2 and 4B. 2 onlyC. 1, 3 and 4D. 1, 2 and 4

Answer : A,

Solution :

In the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), the Supreme Court held that Preamble is a part of theConstitution and it can be amended, subject to the condition that no amendment is done to the‘basic features’. The Preamble has been amended only once so far, in 1976, by the 42ndConstitutional Amendment Act, which has added three new words—Socialist, Secular andIntegrity—to the Preamble. The Preamble is neither a source of power tolegislature nor aprohibition upon the powers of legislature. It is non-justiciable, that is, its provisions are notenforceable in courts of law.


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Q.49 The first schedule of the Indian Constitution pertains to1. Names of States2. Names of Union territories3. Citizenship4. Forms of Oaths and AffirmationSelect the correct answer using the code given below:A. 1 and 3B. 1 and 2C. 4 onlyD. 1 only

Answer : B,

Solution :

The first schedule of the Indian Constitution pertains to Names of the States and theirterritorial jurisdiction and Names of the Union Territories and their extent. Forms of Oathsand Affirmation comes under Third Schedule.

Q.50 In India, the Citizenship Act of 1955 prescribes which of the following ways to acquirecitizenship?1. By naturalisation2. By descent3. By incorporation of territory4. By registrationSelect the correct answer using the code given below:A. 1 and 4B. 1, 2 and 3C. 1, 2 and 4D. All of the above

Answer : D,

Solution :

commencement of the Constitution. Originally, the Citizenship Act (1955) also provided for theCommonwealth Citizenship. But, this provision was repealed by the Citizenship (Amendment)Act, 2003. The Citizenship Act of 1955 prescribes five ways of acquiring citizenship - birth,descent, registration, naturalisation and incorporation of territory

Q.51 Consider the following statements:Assertion (A) : Article 1 describes India, as a ‘Union of States’ rather than ‘Federation ofStates’Reason (R) : Indian Federation is not the result of an agreement among the States Select thecorrect answer using the code given below:


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A. Both A and R are True and R is the correct explanation of AB. Both A and R are True but R is not the correct explanation of AC. A is True and R is FalseD. A is False and R is True

Answer : A,

Solution :

Article 1 describes India, that is, Bharat as a ‘Union of States’ rather than a ‘Federation ofStates’. This provision deals with two things: one, name of the country, and two, type of polity.According to Dr B R Ambedkar, the phrase ‘Union of States’ has been preferred to ‘Federationof States’ for two reasons: one, the Indian Federation is not the result of an agreement amongthe states like the American Federation; and two, the states have no right to secede from thefederation.

Q.52 According to the Constitution of India, Article 3 authorises the Parliament to reorganise theStates. With this authority, the Parliament can alter the name of any state diminish the area ofany state1. alter the boundaries of any state2. increase the area of any stateSelect the correct answer using the code given below:A. 1, 3 and 4B. 1 and 3C. 2, 3 and 4D. All of the above

Answer : D,

Solution :

Article 3 authorises the Parliament to:

• form a new state by separation of territory from any state or by uniting two or more states orparts of states or by uniting any territory to a part of any state,

• increase the area of any state,

• diminish the area of any state,

• alter the boundaries of any state, and

• alter the name of any state.

Q.53 With regard to the Western Himalayas and the Eastern Himalayas, consider thefollowing1. The ranges of the Eastern Himalayas are more continuous compared to Western Himalayas


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2. The Western Himalayas receive most of the precipitation in the winter months and theEastern Himalayas in the summer months3. Eastern Himalayas are much greener and dense compared to Western HimalayasChoose the correct answer using the codes below.A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 2 and 3 onlyC. 1 and 3 onlyD. All of the above

Answer : B,

Solution :

Western Himalaya refers to the western half of the Himalayan Mountain region, stretchingfrom Badakhshan in northeastern Afghanistan/southern Tajikistan, through Kashmir to Nepal.Eastern Himalaya is situated between Central Nepal in the west and Myanmar in the east,occupying southeast Tibet in China, Sikkim, North Bengal, Bhutan and North-East India. Thewestern himalayas consists of the most continuous range and the loftiest peaks and comparedto eastern Himalayas. The western Himalayas receive more precipitation from northwest inthe winters, and eastern Himalayas receive more precipitation from southeastern monsoon inthe summers. Due to higher temperature and perception, the Eastern Himalayas are fargreener with forests than the Western Himalaya.

Q.54 Consider the following statements1. The peninsular plateau is composed mainly of igneous and metamorphic rocks2. The Garo, Khasi and Jaintia Hills form a part of peninsular block.3. The peninsular plateau is the oldest and most stable landmass in India, devoid ofearthquakes or volcanic activity.Choose the correct answer using the codes below.A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 2 and 3 onlyC. 1 and 3 onlyD. All of the above

Answer : A,

Solution :

The central-western parts of India, particularly Gujarat (in 1819, 1956 and 2001) andMaharashtra (in 1967 and 1993) have also experienced some severe earthquakes. Earthscientists have found it difficult to explain the occurrence of earthquakes in one of the oldest,most stable and mature landmass of Peninsular block for a long time. Recently, some earthscientists have come up with a theory of emergence of a fault line and energy build-up alongthe fault line represented by the river Bhima (Krishna) near Latur and Osmanabad(Maharashtra) and the possible breaking down of the Indian plate.


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Q.55 New Moore Island was recently in news becauseA. of the maritime dispute between India and Sri Lanka on Kachatheevu islandsB. of the maritime dispute between India and BangladeshC. of the alarming decline in the population of dolphins and whales thereD. of the alarming decline in the area of mangroves and coral reefs there

Answer : B,

Solution :

The island is located in the coastal, shallow Bay of Bengal immediately south of theinternational border river, the Hariabhanga. The island was claimed by both Bangladesh andIndia, although neither country established any permanent settlement there because of theisland's geographical instability. Bangladesh claims the settlement of the boundaries betweenBangladesh and India has been reached on the basis of Radcliffe Award. Bangladesh tookthese disputes to the PCA in 2009. Recently, the dispute came to an end as the PermanentCourt of arbitration gave final verdict regarding this dispute alloting a large maritime area toBangaldesh about 32,000 sq. kms. The delimitation award is binding on both the parties and isnot subject to further appeal. But, New Moore Island (or South Talpatti Island to theBangladesh) has fallen in India`s part of the Bay of Bengal.

Q.56 Peninsular rivers in India are not flooded as much as the Himalayan rivers. The reasons canbe?1. India’s peninsular rivers have relatively steep gradients.2. There is little variation in flow from the dry to wet seasons.3. Most rivers do not form deltas.Choose the correct answer using the codes below.A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 2 and 3 onlyC. 1 and 3 onlyD. 1 only

Answer : D,

Solution :

India’s peninsular rivers have relatively steep gradients and thus rarely give rise to floods ofthe type that occur in the plains of northern India, despite considerable variations in flow fromthe dry to wet seasons. Forming Delta or not is irrelevant to the flooding of rivers. It dependsmore on the river’s silt load, water volume flow, and gradient of flow.

Q.57 The Himalayan Mountains are tectonic in origin, dissected by fast-flowing rivers which are intheir youthful stage. Which of the following features made by rivers can be seen there?1. Gorges2. V-shaped valleys


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3. Rapids4. WaterfallsChoose the correct answer using the codes below.A. 1, 2 and 4 onlyB. 1, 2 and 3 onlyC. 3 and 4 onlyD. All of the above

Answer : D,

Solution :

The Himalayas along with other Peninsular mountains are young, weak and flexible in theirgeological structure unlike the rigid and stable Peninsular Block. Consequently, they are stillsubjected to the interplay of exogenic and endogenic forces, resulting in the development offaults, folds and thrust plains. These mountains are tectonic in origin, dissected by fast flowingrivers which are in their youthful stage. Therefore, various landforms like gorges, Vshapedvalleys, rapids, waterfalls, etc. are indicative of this stage. These are both due to the speed ofthe rivers as well as the weak geological structure.

Q.58 The Kashmir Himalayas are famous for Karewa formations, which are useful for the cultivationofA. Zafran, a local variety of saffronB. buckwheat, a local nutritional coarse grainC. turnips, a local health supplementD. All of the above

Answer : A,

Solution :

The valley of Kashmir has many types of soils like: Gurti (clay), Bahil (Loam), Sekil(Sandy),Nambaal (Peats), Surzamin, Lemb, Floating garden soils and Karewa soils.Karewaformations are lake-laid clays and shales. These are lacustine (lake related) deposits

and appear like flat mounds on the margin of high mountains. Below these karewas is

spread the alluvium of the Jehlum. The highest karewa is near the Pir Panjal.

Q.59 The British introduced tea plantations in the Darjiling and Sikkim Himalayas looking at someof the favourable conditions which were1. Steep slopes2. thick soil cover with low organic content3. well distributed rainfall4. mild winters


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Choose the correct answer using the codes below.A. 1, 2 and 4 onlyB. 1, 2 and 3 onlyC. 3 and 4 onlyD. All of the above

Answer : C,

Solution :

Tea plantation cannot grow in steep slopes, it requires moderate slopes. Moreover, soil withhigh organic content is needed for tea plantation. Moreover, mild winter and well distributedrainfall made the Darjeeling and Sikkim Himalayas an ideal destination for the British to growtea plantations.

Q.60 The Tarai region of the Northern plains supports luxurious growth of natural vegetation andvaried wild life population. This is becauseA. Re-emerging rivers from Bhabhar flow in undemarcated channels here creating marshy

and swampy conditionsB. all fertile coarse load is deposited at Tarai region after rivers re-emerge from Bhabar

regionC. the Tarai region is crossed by large Himalayan rivers which regularly deposit silt and clay

hereD. Both 1 and 3

Answer : D,

Solution :

Bhabar is a narrow belt ranging between 8-10 km parallel to the Shiwalik foothills at thebreak-up of the slope. As a result of this, the streams and rivers coming from the mountainsdeposit heavy materials of rocks and boulders, and at times, disappear in this zone. South ofthe Bhabar is the Tarai belt, with an approximate width of 10-20 km where most of the streamsand rivers re-emerge without having any properly demarcated channel, thereby, creatingmarshy and swampy conditions known as the Tarai. This has a luxurious growth of naturalvegetation and houses a varied wild life. The Terai is crossed by the large perennial Himalayanrivers Yamuna, Ganges, Sarda, Karnali, Narayani and Kosi that have each built alluvial fanscovering thousands of square kilometres below their exits from the hills.

Q.61 Consider the following statements about the Western and Eastern Ghats.1. Western Ghats are comparatively higher in elevation than Eastern ghats.2. Western Ghats are more continuous than the Eastern Ghats as the latter is eroded byseveral east flowing rivers.3. The Eastern and the Western Ghats meet each other at the Nilgiri hills.Choose the correct answer using the codes below.


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A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 2 and 3 onlyC. 1 and 3 onlyD. All of the above

Answer : D,

Solution :

Most of the Peninsular rivers have their origin in the Western Ghats. Eastern Ghats comprisingthe discontinuous and low hills are highly eroded by the rivers such as the Mahanadi, theGodavari, the Krishna, the Kaveri, etc. Some of the important ranges include the Javadi hills,the Palconda range, the Nallamala hills, the Mahendragiri hills, etc. The Eastern and theWestern Ghats meet each other at the Nilgiri hills.

Q.62 Consider the following statements with regard to Western coastal plain1. The western coastal plains provides natural conditions for the development of ports andharbours2. The rivers flowing through western coastal plains do not form any deltasChoose the correct answer using the codes below.A. 1 onlyB. 2 onlyC. Both 1 and 2D. None of the above

Answer : C,

Solution :

The western coastal plains are an example of submerged coastal plain. Because of thissubmergence it is a narrow belt and provides natural conditions for the development of portsand harbours. Kandla, Mazagaon, JLN port Navha Sheva, Marmagao, Mangalore, Cochin, etc.are some of the important natural ports located along the west coast. The rivers flowingthrough the western coastal plain do not form any delta.

Q.63 Aditya-1 is a spacecraft, whose mission is to study the ‘Sun’. It will study?1. Sun’s corona2. Sun’s photosphere3. Sun’s chromospheresSelect the correct codeA. 1 onlyB. 1 and 3C. 2 onlyD. All


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Answer : A,

Solution :

https://directory.eoportal.org/web/eoportal/satellite-missions/a/aditya-1

Q.64 With reference to ‘Phyto-chemicals’, consider the following1. These are chemical compounds, naturally occurring in plants and animals.2. They posses antioxidant and hormone like activity.3. They can be found in apples, tea and carrot4. They have potential to treat cancer, cardiovascular diseases, diabetes etcSelect the correct codesA. 1,2 and 3B. 1,2 and 4C. 2,3 and 4D. 1,2,3 and 4

Answer : C,

Solution :

Phyto-chemicals are found only in Plants.

http://pib.nic.in/newsite/efeatures.aspx

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Phytochemical

Q.65 Which of the following international agreement is/are related to ‘Engineering’?1. Washington Accord2. Sydney Accord3. Dublin AccordSelect the correct codeA. 1 and 2B. 2 and 3C. Only 1D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer : D,

Solution :

http://www.thehindubusinessline.com/news/india-becomes-permanent-member-ofwashington-accord/article6112160.ece

http://www.ieagreements.org/dublin/


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http://www.ieagreements.org/sydney/

Q.66 With reference to Light Water Reactor, consider the following1. Pressurized water reactor and Boiling water reactor is a subtype of LWR2. The fuel used is of liquid form of Uranium-2353. Normal water is used as coolant and moderatorCorrect statement is/areA. 1 and 2B. Ony 1C. Only 2D. 1 and 3

Answer : D,

Solution :

Uranium used is solid in the form of pellets not liquid

Q.67 Bollgard technology is associated with which crop?A. CottonB. WheatC. RiceD. Pulse

Answer : A,

Solution :

Bollgard III is the advanced version of genetically modified cotton from the US agri-sciencemajor Monsanto.

Q.68 ‘Globally, Preterm Birth (PTB) is the single largest cause of neonatal deaths’. Consider thefollowing statements wrt PTB1. A birth that takes place before the mother has been pregnant for 7 months construes apreterm birth.2. India has the highest number of PTB worldwide.3. Major reason of PTB is the lack of healthcare facilities in the country.Identify the incorrect statement/sA. Only 3B. 1, 2 and 3C. 1 and 3D. 1 and 2

Answer : C,


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Solution :

Globally, Preterm Birth (PTB) is the single largest cause of neonatal deaths. A birth that takesplace before the mother has been pregnant for at least 37 weeks construes a preterm birth. InIndia, among the total 27 million babies born annually, 3.6 million babies are born preterm,and over 300,000 of these preterm babies die each year because of associated complications.India, with its highest number of PTBs and the highest number of preterm deaths worldwide,contributes 25% of the overall global preterm related deaths. The effects of PTB extendbeyond the early infancy with substantial long-term consequences in late childhood and adultlife. A major reason for our inability to significantly reduce the burden of preterm birth is thatthe causes of preterm birth are not fully understood. Preterm birth is likely caused by acombination of physical, environmental and biological factors. Biological factors appear to bethe predominant causes that predispose a woman to deliver babies preterm.

Q.69 With reference to Indian livestock, what are ‘Gramapriya and Vanaraja’?A. A breed of ChickenB. A breed of GoatC. Gramapriya is a breed of Chicken and Vanaraja is a breed of GoatD. None

Answer : A,

Solution :

none

Q.70 Consider the following ‘Deserts’ of the world1. Namib2. Colorado Plateau3. Kalahari4. Atacama5. Great Victoria6. PatagonianWhich can be categorized in cold desert?A. 1,2,3, 5 and 6B. 2, 3 ,5 and 6C. 1,2,4,5 and 6D. 1, 2 ,4 and 6

Answer : D,

Solution :

The cold Deserts are- Namib, Colorado Plateau, Atacama, Patagonian.


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Q.71 The term ‘law’ in Article 13 includes1. ordinances issued by the president or the state governors2. laws enacted by the Parliament or the state legislatures3. notifications by the executive4. bye-lawsSelect the correct answer using the code given below:A. a, b and cB. b onlyC. b and cD. All of the above

Answer : D,

Solution :

The term ‘law’ in Article 13 has been given a wide connotation so as to include the following:

• Permanent laws enacted by the Parliament or the state legislatures;

• Temporary laws like ordinances issued by the president or the state governors;

• Statutory instruments in the nature of delegated legislation (executive legislation) like order,

• bye-law, rule, regulation or notification;

• Non-legislative sources of law, that is, custom or usage having the force of law.

Thus, not only a legislation, but any of the above can be challenged in the courts as violating aFundamental Right and hence, can be declared as void.

Q.72 In the Indian context, which of the following laws/programs are/were formulated by successiveGovernments inorder to implement Directives as under Part IV of the Constitution?1. Wildlife (Protection) Act (192. Legal Services Authorities Act (1987)3. Three-tier Panchayat Raj system4. The Criminal Procedure Code (1973)Select the correct answer using the code given below:A. c onlyB. a, c and dC. a and cD. All the above

Answer : D,

Solution :


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The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 was enacted to safeguard the wildlife (=Article 48 A) TheLegal Services Authorities Act (1987) has established a nation-wide network to provide freeand competent legal aid to the poor and to organise lok adalats for promoting equal justice(=Article 39A) Three-tier panchayati raj system (at village, taluka and zila levels) has beenintroduced to translate into reality Gandhiji’s dream of every village being a republic (=Article40). The Criminal Procedure Code (1973) separated the judiciary from the executive in thepublic services of the state (=Article 50).

Q.73 Which of the following Fundamental Rights are available only to citizens of India, but not toforeigners?1. Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth2. Freedom to manage religious affairs3. Protection of language, script and culture of minorities4. Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases5. Right to elementary educationSelect the correct answer using the code given below:A. a and cB. a, c and eC. a, b and cD. b, d and e

Answer : A,

Solution :

FR available only to citizens and not to foreigners

• Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth (Article15)

• Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment (Article 16)

• Protection of six rights of freedom of (Article 19)

• Protection of language, script and culture of minorities (Article 29)

• Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions (Article 30)

Q.74 ‘Right to Property’ was under major controversy since its inception in the Constitution ofIndia. With regard to its present position, consider the following1. It is a Constitutional right2. The Supreme Court can issue writ jurisdiction, for the violation of the right.3. The right to property was deleted from Fundamental Rights by the 42th Amendment Act,1976.Select the correct answer


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A. c OnlyB. a OnlyC. a and bD. a and c

Answer : B,

Solution :

44th Amendment Act of 1978 abolished the right to property as a Fundamental Right byrepealing Article 19(1)(f) and Article 31 from Part III. Instead, the Act inserted a new Article300A in Part XII. It provides that no person shall be deprived of his property except byauthority of law. Thus, the right to property still remains a legal right or a constitutional right,though no longer a fundamental right. It is not a part of the basic structure of the Constitution.Writs are issued by Supreme Court only for the violation of the Fundamental Rights not legalrights.

Q.75 In Indian context, the rule of equality before law is not absolute, there are certain exceptionsto it. Consider the following cases1. A member of Parliament is answerable to court in respect of anything said or any vote givenby him in Parliament2. The President or the Governor enjoy constitutional immunities3. Foreign ambassadors and diplomats enjoy not only criminal immunities but civil immunitiesas wellWhich of the above exception(s) is/are correct?A. a and cB. a and bC. b and cD. a, b and c

Answer : C,

Solution :

Exceptions to ‘equality before law’:

• The President of India and the Governor of States enjoy constitutional immunities

• No member of Parliament shall be liable to any proceedings in any court in respect ofanything said or any vote given by him in Parliament or any committee

• The foreign sovereigns (rulers), ambassadors and diplomats enjoy immunity from criminaland civil proceedings.The UNO and its agencies enjoy the diplomatic immunity.

Q.76 Article 19, in the Indian Constitution guarantees to all citizens six rights (Right to Freedom).Consider the following with reference to Freedom of Movement


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1. The entry of outsiders in tribal areas is restricted2. The freedom of movement of prostitutes can be restricted on the ground of public healthSelect the correct answer using the code given below:A. a OnlyB. b OnlyC. Both a and bD. None

Answer : C,

Solution :

The grounds of imposing reasonable restrictions on this freedom are two, namely, the interestsof general public and the protection of interests of any scheduled tribe. The entry of outsidersin tribal areas is restricted to protect the distinctive culture, language, customs and mannersof scheduled tribes and to safeguard their traditional vocation and properties againstexploitation. The Supreme Court held that the freedom of movement of prostitutes can berestricted on the ground of public health and in the interest of public morals. The BombayHigh Court validated the restrictions on the movement of persons affected by AIDS.

Q.77 In Indian context, the concept of ‘due process of law’ was introduced in which of the followingcases/law?A. Minerva Mills CaseB. Kesavananda Bharati caseC. Menaka Gandhi CaseD. 44th Amendment Act

Answer : C,

Solution :

In Menaka case (1978), the Supreme Court overruled its judgement in the Gopalan case bytaking a wider interpretation of the Article 21. It ruled that the right to life and personalliberty of a person can be deprived by a law provided the procedure prescribed by that law isreasonable, fair and just. In other words, it has introduced the American expression ‘dueprocess of law’.

Q.78 Consider the following:Assertion (A): The Directive Principles are non-justiciable in natureReason (R) : Any law that gives effect to Directive Principles of State Policy in Article 39(b)and Article 39(c) and in the process the law violates Article 14 or Article 19, then the law isnot considered unconstitutionalSelect the correct answer using the code given below:A. Both A and R are True and R is the correct explanation of AB. Both A and R are True and R is not the correct explanation of A


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C. A is True and R is FalseD. A is False and R is True

Answer : B,

Solution :

Assertion and Reasoning both are correct when the statements are considered individually.But R is not the correct reasoning for the assertion stated. The Directive Principles are non-justiciable in nature, that is, they are not legally enforceable by the courts for their violation.Therefore, the government (Central, state and local) cannot be compelled to implement them.

Reason (R) is a correct statement. The Supreme Court in Minerva Mills Case (1980) declaredthat DPSP was subordinate to FR’s but FR’s conferred by Article 14 and Article 19 wereaccepted as subordinate to the Directive Principles specified in Article 39 (b) and (c).

Q.79 According to Indian Constitution, which one of the following is not a fundamental duty?A. To vote in public electionsB. To develop scientific temperC. To provide education for a child upto 14 years.D. To safeguard public property

Answer : A,

Solution :

To vote in public elections and duty to pay taxes are not fundamental duties.

Q.80 Consider the following provisions under Directive Principles of State Policy as enshrined in theConstitution of India.1. To promote educational and economic interests of SCs and STs.2. To provide equal justice and free legal aid to the poor.3. To protect monuments of national importance4. To separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State5. To secure for all citizens a uniform civil code throughout the countryWhich of the above are the Liberal-Intellectual principles that are reflected in the DirectivePrinciples of State Policy?A. a, c, d and eB. a, d and eC. c, d and eD. All the above

Answer : C,

Solution :


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Promotion of educational and economic interests of SCs and STs comes under the GandhianPrinciples of DPSP whereas providing equal justice and free legal aid to the poor comes underthe Socialistic Principles of DPSP.

Q.81 Consider the following rivers1. Krishna2. Kaveri3. Godavari4. PengangaThe correct sequence of these rivers when arranged from south to north isA. 2, 1,3 and 4B. 1,2,3 and 4C. 1, 3, 4 and 2D. 3, 2, 1 and 4

Answer : A,

Solution :

Check the Map of drainage system in Atlas

Q.82 Assertion (A): The frequency of floods in North Indian plains has increased in recent times.Reason (R): There has been reduction in the depth of river valleys due to deposition of silt.A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of AB. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of AC. A is true but R is falseD. A is false but R is true

Answer : A,

Solution :

The second statement is true as deposition reduces the depth and in rainy season the riveroutflows leading to flood.

Q.83 Given are the Indian Rivers and corresponding National Parks1. Lohit Orang National Park2. Chambal Rajaji National Park3. Narmada Kanha National ParkSelect the correct matchA. Only 2B. 1 and 3C. Only 3D. 1, 2 and 3


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Answer : C,

Solution :

Rajaji National Parkspread across Dehradun, Haridwar and Pauri districts of Uttarakhand.Kanha National Park located in the upper reaches of Narmada and The Orang National Park,located on the north bank of the Brahmaputra River in the Darrangand Sonitpur districts ofAssam.

Q.84 Which of the following Rivers does not pass throughTropic of Cancer?A. SabarmatiB. MahiC. DamodarD. Luni

Answer : D,

Solution :

The River Luni: In Rajasthan

Q.85 Amongst the following the river that passes through most number of countries?A. ZambeziB. River SevernC. DanubeD. Missisippi

Answer : C,

Solution :

The Danube River touches or passes through ten countries, more than anyother river. TheDanube begins in Germany and encounters Austria, Slovakia, Hungary, Croatia, Serbia,Romania, Bulgaria, Moldova, and Ukraine. It eventually flows into the Black Sea.

Q.86 Consider the following statements1. The West flowing rivers contains very less amounts of Silt and due to its fast speed it cannotmake delta.2. Rivers arriving into a sea with high tidal range will not form delta because the changes inthe tidal area will wash away the sediments brought by the river.3. Western rivers flows in the fault region created by the mountains Vindhya and Satpurawhich are rocky and devoid of any alluvial material. Hence no Delta formationSelect the correct statement/sA. Only 1B. 1 and 2


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C. 1, 2 and 3D. Only 2

Answer : C,

Solution :

Self Explanatory

Q.87 Imagine you are travelling from New Delhi towards North. If you go vertically upwardstowards Jammu and Kashmir, select the correct sequence in which you will cross these riversA. Ravi-Beas-Ravi-Satluj-JhelumB. Satluj-Beas-Ravi-Chenab-IndusC. Satluj-Beas-Ravi-Chenab-JhelumD. Ravi-Beas-Ravi-Satluj-Indus

Answer : B,

Solution :

If one travels vertically upward, he/she will not cross Jhelum as it flows North- West of J&K.Other rivers will come in the sequence as mentioned in option 2.

Q.88 Suppose you are travelling along the Eastern Ghat on Eastern Coast of India from Northern toSouthern region, the sequence in which you will cross these riversA. Krishna-Godavari-Mahanadi-KaveriB. Mahanadi-Krishna -Godavari-KaveriC. Krishna-Godavari-Mahanadi-KaveriD. Mahanadi-Godavari-Krishna-Kaveri

Answer : D,

Solution :

Check the Map of India

Q.89 Consider the statements w.r.t Ganges Drainage System and Peninsular Drainage System1. Peninsular rivers bear the exception of flowing through Rift valleys,like Narmada,whileGanges Rivers have no such feature.2. All Peninsular rivers are characterized by fixed course, absence of meanders and non-perennial flow of water while Ganges rivers are perennial, having meanders and have non-fixed courses.Select the correct statement/sA. Only 1B. Only 2C. Both


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D. None

Answer : D,

Solution :

Damodar River, a river Ganges River System occupies the eastern margins of the ChotanagpurPlateau where it flows through a rift valley. So, first statement is wrong. Peninsular rivers arecharacterized by fixed course, absence of meanders and non-perennial flow of water. TheNarmada and Tapi which flow through the rift valley are, however, exceptions. Hence none ofthe statements are correct.

Q.90 Consider the following Dams1. Barna Dam Chambal River2. Pawna Dam Maval River3. Maithoon Dam Barakar River4. Gandhi Sagar Dam Chambal RiverSelect the correct optionsA. 1, 2 and 3B. 3 and 4C. 1, 2, 3 and 4D. 1, 3 and 4

Answer : B,

Solution :

Barna Dam: Barna River in MP

Pawna Dam: Maval River in Maharashtra

Maithoon Dam: Barakar River in Jharkhand

Gandhi Sagar Dam: Chambal River in MP

Q.91 Recently US Food Administration has banned Trans Fats. Consider the following statementsw.r.t it-1. Unsaturated and Saturated Fatty Acids having double bond (in trans position) that areproduced artificially.2. Trans fats enhances the risk of coronary heart disease by decreasing the level of LowDensity Lipoprotein (LDL) and increasing the level of High Density Lipoprotein (HDL)Select the correct codeA. Only 1B. Only 2C. BothD. None


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Answer : D,

Solution :

Trans fats are Partially Hydrogenated Oils (PHOs). These fats are unsaturated hydrocarbons.Unsaturated hydrocarbons have double or triple bonds. The name trans signifies thearrangements of double bond in trans position. Since Trans Fats are having double bond, theycannot be saturated fatty acids. Hence first statement is wrong. LDL is a Bad Cholesterol andTrans Fats raises its level leading to coronary heart disease. Therefore 2nd statement is alsowrong.

Q.92 Recent report by NASA presents a horrible picture of Ground Water Depletion and Indianregion appears to be severely affected. Consider the statements w.r.t Ground Water1. The concentration of living organism like bacteria and viruses are high in ground water.2. The motion of ground water is constant and always run downward due to effect of gravity.Select the correct codeA. Only 1B. Only 2C. BothD. None

Answer : D,

Solution :

Ground water is microbiologically very pure. The motion is constant but along with downwardrun due to gravity, ground water can also move upward due to pressure difference (flow fromhigher pressure area to lower pressure areas.

Q.93 Which of the following are forms of Martial Arts in India?1. Pari Khanda2. Kalarippayattu3. SilambamSelect the correct codeA. Only 1B. 1 and 2C. 1, 2 and 3D. Only 2

Answer : C,

Solution :

Kalarippayattu is a famous Indian martial art from land of attraction Kerala and one of theoldest fighting systems in existence. It is practiced in most of the part of south India.


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Silambam is a weapon-based Indian martial art from Tamil Nadu. Every state has its own styleof martial arts. A wide variety of weapons are used in silamban, some of which are not foundanywhere else in the world. Silambam art also used animal movements of snake, tiger, eagleforms and foot work patterns is play a key role here as well. Another part of Silambam is Kuttuvarisai, it is the unarmed kind of martial art. Pari-khanda is a style of sword and shield fightingfrom Bihar. This art is created by the rajputs. Pari-khanda steps and techniques are also usedin Chau dance.

Q.94 It is an ancient form of puppetry that tells stories of the Santhal way of life and migration. Itis?A. Chadar BadarB. Suta KandheiC. Baunsa RaniD. Sanchar

Answer : A,

Solution :

Recently government is promoting the dying art forms of ancient and medieval India. Doprepare a list of them more specifically which are in news.

Q.95 Amongst the following, Migratory Birds coming to India in summer season are1. Eurasian Golden Oriole2. Wood Sandpiper3. Cuckoos4. Greater FlamingoSelect the correct codeA. 1, 2 and 3B. 2 and 3C. 1 and 3D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer : C,

Solution :

Many articles can be found in newspapers regarding migratory birds coming to India. They areindicators of climate change

Q.96 Consider the following with respect to fundamental forces on Earth1. The range of Gravitational and Electromagnetic Force are almost equal in nature.2. Gravitational Force is a strong force as compared to Weak Nuclear force.Select the correct statement/sA. Only 1


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B. Only 2C. BothD. None

Answer : A,

Solution :

Range of Gravitational Force- Infinite

Range of Electromagnetic Force- Infinite

Strength of Gravitational Force- 10^-36

Strength of Weak Nuclear Force- 10^-13

Q.97 Consider the following statements1. Law of Gravitation at the Moon is One-Sixth that at the Earth.2. Acceleration due to gravity is the same both on the Moon and the Earth.Select the correct statement/sA. Only 1B. Only 2C. BothD. None

Answer : D,

Solution :

The laws of nature are the same everywhere in the universe. The acceleration due to gravity atthe moon is one-sixth that at the earth, but the law of gravitation is the same both on the moonand the earth.

Q.98 It is said that Ancient Indian science had contributed significantly in various aspects ofscientific advancement. Consider the following with respect to the development of science inAncient India1. The difference between Wave and Current was fully understood in Ancient Indian science.2. Ancient scientists were able to distinguish between various types of rotational, translationaland vibrational motions.Select the correct code/sA. Only 1B. Only 2C. BothD. None

Answer : C,


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Solution :

Ideas on Motion in Ancient Indian Science Ancient Indian thinkers had arrived at an elaboratesystem of ideas on motion. Force, the cause of motion, was thought to be of different kinds:force due to continuous pressure (nodan), as the force of wind on a sailing vessel; impact(abhighat), as when a potter’s rod strikes the wheel; persistent tendency (sanskara) to move ina straight line (vega) or restoration of shape in an elastic body; transmitted force by a string,rod, etc. The notion of (vega) in the Vaisesika theory of motion perhaps comes closest to theconcept of inertia. Vega, the tendency to move in a straight line, was thought to be opposed bycontact with objects including atmosphere, a parallel to the ideas of friction and air resistance.It was correctly summarised that the different kinds of motion (translational, rotational andvibrational) of an extended body arise from only the translational motion of its constituentparticles. A falling leaf in the wind may have downward motion as a whole (patan) and alsorotational and vibrational motion (bhraman, spandan), but each particle of the leaf at aninstant only has a definite (small) displacement. There was considerable focus in Indianthought on measurement of motion and units of length and time. It was known that theposition of a particle in space can be indicated by distance measured along three axes.Bhaskara (1150 A.D) had introduced the concept of ‘instantaneous motion’ (tatkaliki gati),which anticipated the modern notion of instantaneous velocity using Differential Calculus. Thedifference between a wave and a current (of water) was clearly understood; a current is amotion of particles of water under gravity and fluidity while a wave results from thetransmission of vibrations of water particles.

Q.99 Amongst the following, the examples of ‘Contact Forces’ are1. Electromagnetic Force2. Gravitational Force3. Frictional Force4. Air resistance5. Viscous ForceSelect the correct codeA. 1,3,4 and 5B. 1, 2 and 3C. 3, 4 and 5D. 1, 2, 4 and 5

Answer : C,

Solution :

Contact force is the force in which an object comes in contact with another object. Contactforces are also direct forces. Contact forces are a something that pull on it. Contact forces areubiquitous and are responsible for most visible interactions between macroscopic collectionsof matter. The most common instances of this include friction, normal force, and tension Anon-contact force is a force applied to an object by another body that is not in direct contactwith it. The most familiar example of a non-contact force is weight. All four known


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fundamental interactions are non-contact forces. Contact forces arise also when solids are incontact with fluids. For example, for a solid immersed in a fluid, there is an upward bouyantforce equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. The viscous force, air resistance, etc are alsoexamples of contact forces

Q.100Carbohydrates are vital source of energy for any living organism. Consider the following withrespect to various types of energy resources in plants and animals.1. Glycogens are solely coming from animals, specifically made by the liver and the muscles,while the starch solely comes from the green plants and staple foods like potatoes andcassavas.2. Cellulose occurs exclusively in plants and it is the most abundant organic substance in plantkingdom.3. Human store glucose as Starch as well as Gycogens coming from plants and animalsrespectively.Select the correct code/sA. 1 and 2B. 1 and 3C. Only 3D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer : A,

Solution :

Starch is the main storage polysaccharide of plants. It is the most important dietary source forhuman beings. High content of starch is found in cereals, roots, tubers and some vegetables.

Cellulose occurs exclusively in plants and it is the most abundant organic substance in plantkingdom. It is a predominant constituent of cell wall of plant cells. The carbohydrates arestored in animal body as glycogen. It is also known as animal starch. Glycogen is the body'sstorage form of starch, though it is technically glucose. To understand this, you mustunderstand that starch is a plant's storage form of glucose.However, as humans, we store thesame glucose as glycogen. Our body is equipped to contain excess glucose molecules asglycogen rather than starch.

study iq · study iq , [email protected] page - 5/44 b. only 2 is correct c. all are correct...

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