study iq · 2018-07-21 · shall sell video-film of such advertisement, distribute leaflets,...

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Test Name : Test 33 - Revision Part-1 Total Questions : 100Difficulty Level : Medium Total Marks : 200.00Test Type : Free Duration : 120.00 mins

Instruction :Please read the instructions carefully

The total duration of examination is 120 minutes.1.Right Answer carries 2 marks and 1/3rd is negative marking in case of the wrong answer.2.The clock will be set at the server. The countdown timer in the top right corner of the screen will3.display the remaining time available for you to complete the examination. When the timerreaches zero, the examination will end by itself. You will not be required to end or submit yourexamination.The test contains 100 questions. Each item is given in the language of your preference (Hindi or4.English)A test can be given only once5.In case you feel there is more than one correct response, mark the response, which you consider6.the best.All questions carry equal marks i.e. 2 marks each question7.You can always go back and change your answer before submitting the test. However, this is not8.possible in the actual UPSC preliminary exam.Irrespective of how many answers you have marked, the test will automatically close in 2 hours9.and you will get your score based on the responses marked till thenThere are 4 alternatives for each question. For each wrong answer given, one-third of the marks10.assigned to that question will be deducted as penaltyThe Question Palette displayed on the right side of the screen will show the status of each11.question using one of the following symbols:

You have not visited the question yet.

You have not answered the question.

You have answered the question.

You have NOT answered the question, but have marked the question for review.

You have answered the question, but marked it for review.


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Q.1 With reference to Price Stabilization Fund (PSF) consider the below given statements1. Price volatility of important agri-horticultural commodities are regulated by PSF2. It works under the aegis of Agriculture, Cooperation & Famers Welfare (DAC&FW)Choose the correct optionA. Only 1B. Only 2C. Both 1 and 2D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer : A,

Solution :

The Price Stabilization Fund (PSF) was set up in 2014-15 under the Department of Agriculture,Cooperation & Famers Welfare (DAC&FW) to help regulate the price volatility of importantagri-horticultural commodities like onion, potatoes and pulses were also added subsequently.The PSF scheme was transferred from DAC&FW to the Department of Consumer Affairs(DOCA) w.e.f. 1st April, 2016.

Q.2 With reference to Tobacco Control Act (COTPA, 2003) consider the below given statements1. The enforcement of COPTA 2003 is looked after by National Tobacco Control Programme(NTCP)2. Direct and indirect advertisements, promotion and sponsorship of tobacco products isprohibited by COPTA3. Apart from dedicated smoking zones, smoking in public is prohibited under COPTAChoose the correct optionA. 1 and 2B. 2 and 3C. 1 and 3D. All of the above

Answer : D,

Solution :

The Act prohibits smoking of tobacco in public places, except in special smoking zones inhotels, restaurants and airports and open spaces. Advertisement of tobacco products includingcigarettes is prohibited. No person shall participate in advertisement of tobacco product, orallow a medium of publication to be used for advertisement of tobacco products. No personshall sell video-film of such advertisement, distribute leaflets, documents, or give space forerection of advertisement of tobacco products. However, restricted advertisement is allowedon packages of tobacco products, entrances of places where tobacco products are Ansd.Surrogate advertisement is prohibited as well under the Act. At present there is a NationalTobacco Control Programme (NTCP) with one objective of ensuring effective implementation


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of the provisions under COTPA, 2003.

Q.3 Consider the below given statements1. Ozone layer of Earth is studied by AURA which is a satellite of NASA.2. Production and use of chemicals that contribute to the depletion of ozone layer isregulated by Montreal Protocol.Choose the correct optionA. Only 1B. Only 2C. Both 1 and 2D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer : C,

Solution :

Aura (EOS CH-1) is a multi-national NASA scientific research satellite in orbit around theEarth, studying the Earth's ozone layer, air quality and climate. It is the third majorcomponent of the Earth Observing System (EOS) following on Terra (launched 1999) and Aqua(launched 2002). Aura follows on from the Upper Atmosphere Research Satellite (UARS).

The Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer (a protocol to the ViennaConvention for the Protection of the Ozone Layer) is an international treaty designed toprotect the ozone layer by phasing out the production of numerous substances that areresponsible for ozone depletion.

Q.4 With reference to National Programme for Organic Production (NPOP) consider the belowgiven statements1. It involves the accreditation programme for Certification Bodies and standards fororganic production2. Ministry of Food Processing Industries implements NPOPChoose the correct optionA. Only 1B. Only 2C. Both 1 and 2D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer : A,

Solution :

Ministry of Commerce has implemented the National Programme for Organic Production(NPOP) since 2001. The objectives of are to provide the means of evaluation of certificationprogramme for organic agriculture and products (including wild harvest, aquaculture,


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livestock products) as per the approved criteria. To accredit certification programmes ofCertification Bodies seeking accreditation.To facilitate certification of organic products inconformity with the prescribed standards. To facilitate certification of organic products inconformity with the importing countries organic standards as per equivalence agreementbetween the two countries or as per importing country requirements. To encourage thedevelopment of organic farming and organic processing. The Food Safety and StandardsAuthority of India (FSSAI) had issued regulations that required food companies selling organicproduce to get certified with one of the two authorities — National Programme for OrganicProduction (NPOP) or the Participatory Guarantee System for India (PGS-India). Companiescould also get a voluntary logo from the FSSAI that marked its produce as ‘organic.’

Q.5 With reference to Inosphere consider the below given statements1. This layer of atmosphere is ionized by Ansar radiation2. It reflects radio waves back to earthChoose the correct optionA. Only 1B. Only 2C. Both 1 and 2D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer : C,

Solution :

Ionosphere is the ionized part of Earth's upper atmosphere, from about 60 km (37 mi) to 1,000km (620 mi) altitude, a region that includes the thermosphere and parts of the mesosphereand exosphere. The ionosphere is ionized by Ansar radiation. It plays an important role inatmospheric electricity and forms the inner edge of the magnetosphere.

Due to the ability of ionized atmospheric gases to refract high frequency (HF, or shortwave)radio waves, the ionosphere can reflect radio waves directed into the sky back towards theEarth. Radio waves directed at an angle into the sky can return to Earth beyond the horizon.

Q.6 The seasonal reversal of winds is a typical character associated withA. Monsoon climateB. Equatorial climateC. Mediterranean climateD. All of the above climates

Answer : A,

Solution :

Monsoon is traditionally defined as a seasonal reversing wind accompanied by corresponding


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changes in precipitation, but is now used to describe seasonal changes in atmosphericcirculation and precipitation associated with the asymmetric heating of land and sea. Usually,the term monsoon is used to refer to the rainy phase of a seasonally changing pattern,although technically there is also a dry phase. The term is sometimes incorrectly used forlocally heavy but short-term rains, although these rains meet the dictionary definition ofmonsoon.

Q.7 The international treaty United Nations Framework Conventions on Climate Change (UNFCCC)came into existence byA. United Nations Conference on the Human Environment, Stockholm, 1972B. UN conference on Environment and Development, Rio de Janeiro, 1992C. World Summit on Sustainable Development, Johannesburg, 2002D. UN Climate Change Conference Copenhagen, 2009

Answer : B,

Solution :

The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC or FCCC) is aninternational environmental treaty produced at the United Nations Conference onEnvironment and Development (UNCED), informally known as the Earth Summit, held in Riode Janeiro from June 3 to 14, 1992. The objective of the treaty is to stabilize greenhouse gasconcentrations in the atmosphere at a level that would prevent dangerous anthropogenicinterference with the climate system.

Q.8 Identify official languages of the United Nations from below given list?A. English, French and RussianB. English, French, German and RussianC. English, French, Russian, Chinese and HindiD. English, French, Chinese, Russian, Arabian and Spanish

Answer : D,

Solution :

The official languages of the United Nations are the six languages that are used in UNmeetings, and in which all official UN documents are written. Arabic (Modern Standard Arabic),English (British English with Oxford spelling), French, Mandarin (Simplified Chinese characters),Russian, Spanish.

Q.9 Consider the following statements1. When workers move from one job to another job frictional unemployment2. Trade of the services like the banks, consulting and shipping companies is called


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invisible tradeChoose the correct optionA. Only 1B. Only 2C. Both 1 and 2D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer : C,

Solution :

An invisible trade is a business transaction that occurs with no exchange of tangible goods.Frictional unemployment is always present in the economy, resulting from temporarytransitions made by workers and employers or from workers and employers havinginconsistent or incomplete information.

Q.10 With reference to Special Marriage Act, 1954 consider the following statements1. Divorce are not covered under it2. It extends to Indian nationals living abroadChoose the correct optionA. Only 1B. Only 2C. Both 1 and 2D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer : B,

Solution :

The Special Marriage Act, 1954 is an Act of the Parliament of India enacted to provide aspecial form of marriage for the people of India and all Indian nationals in foreign countries,irrespective of the religion or faith followed by either party. It has 3 major objectives:

• To provide a special form of marriage in certain cases,

• To provide for registration of certain marriages and,

• To provide for divorce.

Q.11 With reference to ConAnsidated Fund of India (CFI) consider the following statements1. Money from CFI can be withdrawn only with Parliament’s permission2. Direct tax and indirect tax revenue coming in flows into CFIChoose the correct optionA. Only 1


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B. Only 2C. Both 1 and 2D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer : C,

Solution :

This term derives its origin from the Constitution of India. Under Article 266 (1) of theConstitution of India, all revenues ( example tax revenue from personal income tax, corporateincome tax, customs and excise duties as well as non-tax revenue such as licence fees,dividends and profits from public sector undertakings etc. ) received by the Union governmentas well as all loans raised by issue of treasury bills, internal and external loans and all moneysreceived by the Union Government in repayment of loans shall form a conAnsidated fundentitled the 'ConAnsidated Fund of India' for the Union Government. Similarly, under Article266 (1) of the Constitution of India, a ConAnsidated Fund Of State ( a separate fund for eachstate) has been established where all revenues ( both tax revenues such as Sales tax/VAT,stamp duty etc..and non-tax revenues such as user charges levied by State governments )received by the State government as well as all loans raised by issue of treasury bills, internaland external loans and all moneys received by the State Government in repayment of loansshall form part of the fund. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India audits these Fundsand reports to the Union/State legislatures when proper accounting procedures have not beenfollowed.

Q.12 What is Potamology?A. Study of RainfallB. Study of RiversC. Study of Seismic WavesD. Study of Unnatural Events

Answer : B,

Solution :

None

Q.13 Study the following statements:1. In the trellis drainage system the tributaries connect the main river at approximately 90degrees.2. Trellis drainage system are easily developed in Folded mountainsWhich of the above are true?A. 1 onlyB. 2 only


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C. BothD. None

Answer : C,

Solution :

The geometry of a trellis drainage system is similar to that of a common garden trellis used togrow vines. As the river flows along a strike valley, smaller tributaries feed into it from thesteep slopes on the sides of mountains. These tributaries enter the main river at approximately90 degree angle, causing a trellis-like appearance of the drainage system. Trellis drainage ischaracteristic of folded mountains, such as the Appalachian Mountains in North America andin the north part of Trinidad.

Q.14 What was the Ramsar Convention of 1971 focused on?A. Conservation of WetlandsB. Protecting Indigenous speciesC. Convention on Renewable EnergyD. Convention on Pollution

Answer : A,

Solution :

The Ramsar Convention on Wetlands of International Importance especially as WaterfowlHabitat is an international treaty for the conservation and sustainable use of wetlands. It isalso known as the Convention on Wetlands. It is named after the city of Ramsar in Iran, wherethe Convention was signed in 1971. There are 26 Indian wetlands designated as a Ramsar site.

Q.15 Chandrasekhar limit defines the maximum mass of :A. Stable White Dwarf StarB. Stable Red Giant StarC. Unstable Neutron StarsD. Supergiant Stars

Answer : A,

Solution :

The Chandrasekhar limitis the maximum mass of a stable white dwarf star. The currentlyaccepted value of the Chandrasekhar limit is about 1.4 M☉ (2.765×1030 kg).

Q.16 Which of the following Space Probes/Space Mission is attributed to providing the first detailed


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image of Jupiter’s Great Red Spot?A. HayabusaB. JunoC. Voyager 1D. Stardust

Answer : C,

Solution :

Voyager 1 is a probe launched September 5, 1977. It is currently still operational, making itthe longest-lasting mission of the U.S. National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA).It visited Jupiter and Saturn and was the first probe to provide detailed images of the moons ofthese planets.

Q.17 Which of the following is NOT a biopolymer?A. RubberB. SuberinC. MelaninD. Lucite

Answer : D,

Solution :

Poly(methyl methacrylate) (PMMA), also known as acrylic glass or Lucite, is a transparentthermoplastic often used in sheet form as a lightweight or shatter-resistant alternative toglass.

Q.18 Match the following:1. Sagarmala (i) Rural Development2. Bharatmala (ii) Urban Renewal3. AMRUT (iii) Road Network Development4. DISHA (iv) Port DevelopmentA. 1-(iii), 2-(iv), 3-(i), 4-(ii)B. 1-(iv), 2-(iii), 3-(ii), 4-(i)C. 1-(iii), 2-(i), 3-(iv), 4-(ii)D. 1-(iii), 2-(ii), 3-(i), 4-(iv)

Answer : B,

Solution :

None


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Q.19 Which of the following is an Ice Planet?A. NeptuneB. PlutoC. SaturnD. Jupiter

Answer : A,

Solution :

An ice giant is a giant planet composed mainly of elements heavier than hydrogen and helium,such as oxygen, carbon, nitrogen, and sulfur. There are two known ice giants in the AnsarSystem, Uranus and Neptune.

Q.20 Consider the following statements:1. Hypotonicity is the presence of a Ansution that causes cells to shrink.2. The opening and closing of the stomata (in plants) is regulated by Turgor Pressure.3. Reverse Osmosis is used in Water Purification and Batteries.Choose the CORRECT statements:A. 1 and 3B. 1 and 4C. 2 and 3D. 3 only

Answer : C,

Solution :

Hypertonicity is the presence of a Ansution that causes cells to shrink.Hypotonicity is thepresence of a Ansution that causes cells to swell.Isotonicity is the presence of a Ansution thatproduces no change in cell volume.

Q.21 Which of the following effect causes an uneven distribution of charge across a semi-permeablemembrane?A. Gibbs-Donnan effectB. Doppler’s effectC. Barnett effectD. Compton effect

Answer : A,

Solution :

The Gibbs–Donnan effect is a name for the behaviour of charged particles near a semi-permeable membrane that sometimes fail to distribute evenly across the two sides of the


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membrane. The usual cause is the presence of a different charged substance that is unable topass through the membrane and thus creates an uneven electrical charge. For example, thelarge anionic proteins in blood plasma are not permeable to capillary walls. Because smallcations are attracted, but are not bound to the proteins, small anions will cross capillary wallsaway from the anionic proteins more readily than small cations.

Q.22 On which of these rivers is the Sivasamudram Falls located?A. GodavariB. KaveriC. KrishnaD. Narmada

Answer : B,

Solution :

Sivasamudram, or Sivanasamudra is a small city in the Mandya District of the state ofKarnataka, India. It is situated on the banks of the river Kaveri, which forms here theboundary to the Chamarajanagar District, and is the location of one of the first hydro-electricpower stations in Asia, which was set up in 1902.

Q.23 Which of the following is not an Iron ore?A. LimoniteB. SideriteC. PhlogopiteD. Haematite

Answer : C,

Solution :

Phlogopite is a yellow, greenish, or reddish-brown member of the mica family ofphyllosilicates. It is also known as magnesium mica.

Q.24 Which commercial Agro-based product includes Oak Tasar, Eri and Muga?A. SilkB. JuteC. CottonD. Rice

Answer : A,

Solution :


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Types of Silk

There are five major types of silk of commercial importance, obtained from different species ofsilkworms which in turn feed on a number of food plants. These are:

· Mulberry

· Oak Tasar& Tropical Tasar

· Muga

· Eri

Q.25 Match the following:1. Durgapur (i) Wind Power Plant2. Hirakud (ii) Hydro Power Plant3. Jaisalmer (iii) Nuclear Power Plant4. Kudankulam (iv) Thermal EnergyA. 1-(i), 2-(iii), 3-(iv), 4-(ii)B. 1-(iv), 2-(i), 3-(ii), 4-(iii)C. 1-(iii), 2-(i), 3-(ii), 4-(iv)D. 1-(iv), 2-(ii), 3-(i), 4-(iii)

Answer : D,

Solution :

None

Q.26 Which of the following tribes is found in South India?A. LepchaB. MihaC. AbhorD. Irula

Answer : D,

Solution :

Lepcha – Sikkim

Miha- Rajasthan

Abhor – Arunachal Pradesh

Irula – Tamil Nadu and Kerala


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Q.27 Which of the following animals does not exhibit Aestivation?A. TortoiseB. Rhesus macaqueC. MothsD. Salamander

Answer : B,

Solution :

Aestivation is a state of animal dormancy, similar to hibernation, characterized by inactivityand a lowered metabolic rate, that is entered in response to high temperatures and aridconditions. It takes place during times of heat and dryness, the hot dry season, which are oftenthe summer months.

Q.28 A house gecko excretes Nitrogen by:A. AmmonotelismB. UrotelismC. UricotelismD. Deamination

Answer : C,

Solution :

Ammonotelism is the excretion of ammonia and ammonium ions. Ammonia (NH3) forms withthe oxidation of amino groups.(-NH2), which are removed from the proteins when they convertinto carbohydrates.

The excretion of urea is called ureotelism. Land animals, mainly amphibians and mammals,convert ammonia into urea, a process which occurs in the liver and kidney. These animals arecalled ureotelic.

Uricotelism is the ridding of excess nitrogen using uric acid. This method is used by birds anddiapsids, insects, lizards, and snakes, and these animals are called uricotelic.

Q.29 Which of the following species belong to Boreal Forests?1. Larch2. Pine3. Palm4. Pitcher PlantsA. 1 and 2B. 1 and 4C. 2 and 3


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D. None

Answer : A,

Solution :

Taiga, also known as boreal forest or snow forest, is a biome characterized by coniferousforests consisting mostly of pines, spruces and larches.

Q.30 Which of the following animals is NOT extinct?A. DodoB. Namdapha flying squirrelC. QuaggaD. Thylacine

Answer : B,

Solution :

The Namdapha flying squirrel is an arboreal, nocturnal flying squirrel endemic to northeasternIndia, where it is known from a single specimen collected in Namdapha National Park in 1981.It is not EXTINCT but is CRTICIALLY ENDANGERED

The quagga is an extinct subspecies of plains zebra that lived in South Africa until the 19thcentury.

The thylacine was the largest known carnivorous marsupial of modern times. It is commonlyknown as the Tasmanian tiger (because of its striped lower back) or the Tasmanian wolf.

Q.31 ‘Global Commons’ is a term identified by international law1. High Seas2. Atmosphere3. Antarctica4. Outer SpaceChoose the correct optionA. 1, 2 and 3B. 2, 3 and 4C. 1, 3 and 4D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer : A,

Solution :

The ‘Global Commons’ refers to resource domains or areas that lie outside of the politicalreach of any one nation State. Thus international law identifies four global commons namely:the High Seas; the Atmosphere; Antarctica; and, Outer Space. These areas have historically


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been guided by the principle of the common heritage of humankind - the open access doctrineor the mare liberum (free sea for everyone) in the case of the High Seas. Despite efforts bygovernments or individuals to establish property rights or other forms of control over mostnatural resources, the Global Commons have remained an exception.

Q.32 Which countries were in state Yom Kippur WarA. Turkey and GreeceB. Serbs and CroatsC. Israel, and Arab countries led by Egypt and SyriaD. Iran and Iraq

Answer : C,

Solution :

Also known as the 1973 Arab–Israeli War was a war fought by a coalition of Arab states led byEgypt and Syria against Israel from October 6 to 25, 1973. The fighting mostly took place inthe Sinai and the Golan Heights, territories that had been occupied by Israel since the Six-DayWar of 1967.

Q.33 Consider the following statements1. ‘Establishment and Constitution of Supreme Court’ is dealt by Article 124 of the IndianConstitution.2. ‘Ancillary powers of Supreme Court’ is dealt by Article 217 of the Indian ConstitutionChoose the correct optionA. Only 1B. Only 2C. Both 1 and 2D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer : A,

Solution :

Article 124: Establishment and Constitution of Supreme Court. Article 217: Appointment andconditions of the office of a Judge of a High Court

Q.34 With reference to ‘Mission Raftaar’ identify the ministry with which it is associated withA. Ministry of Road Transport and HighwaysB. Ministry of PowerC. Ministry of RailwaysD. None of the above

Answer : C,


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Solution :

Raise average speed of both passenger carrying trains and freight carrying trains. It envisagesa target of doubling of average speed of freight trains and increasing the average speed of allnon-suburban passenger trains by 25 kmph in the next 5 years.

Q.35 Which of the following countries share its border with China?1. Uzbekistan2. North Korea3. Afghanistan4. LaosChoose the correct optionA. 1, 2 and 3B. 2, 3 and 4C. 1, 3 and 4D. 1, 2 and 4

Answer : B,

Solution :

China also has the largest number of neighbours (14) sharing its 22,000km land bordersnamely: North Korea, Russia, Mongolia, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan, Afghanistan,Pakistan, India, Nepal, Bhutan, Myanmar, Laos and Vietnam.

Q.36 Recently it was reported in media that Government of India is going to provide relief to “De-notified Tribes”. What do you understand by the term “De-notified Tribes”.A. Tribes which are aboriginalsB. Nomadic tribesC. Tribes practising shifting cultivationD. Tribes which were earlier classified as criminal tribes

Answer : D,

Solution :

Denotified Tribes (DNTs) are the tribes that were originally listed under the Criminal TribesAct of 1871, as "Criminal Tribes" and "addicted to the systematic commission of non-bailableoffences."

Q.37 Which of the following book was not written by Kalidas?A. RaghuvamsamB. MalvikagnimitramC. Ritusamahar


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D. Kalpasutra

Answer : D,

Solution :

Kalpasutra was written by Bhadrabahu

Q.38 Who founded the Archaeological Survey of India?A. Sir Alexander CunninghamB. George Frederick Samuel RobinsonC. William LambD. Robert Bulwer-Lytton

Answer : A,

Solution :

ASI was founded in 1861 by Alexander Cunningham who also became its first Director-General.

Q.39 Who wrote the famous treatise ‘MilindaPanha’?A. NagasenaB. RudradamanC. KautilyaD. Chanakya

Answer : A,

Solution :

None

Q.40 Consider the following statements:1. The age of the sun is approximately 4.6 Billlion years.2. Sunlight takes 8 minutes to reach Earth.3. The Sun is Reddish Orange in colour when viewed from Space.Identify the CORRECT statements:A. 1 and 3B. 1 and 2C. 2 and 3D. All of the above

Answer : B,


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Solution :

The Sun is White/slight yellow in colour when viewed from space. An important characteristicof G-type main-sequence stars.

Q.41 What are Pulsars?A. Highly magnetised rotating neutron stars.B. High energy stars that are stationaryC. Stars far away from the Earth’s visible plane of sight.D. Invisible stars whose gravitational effect can be felt

Answer : A,

Solution :

A pulsar is a highly magnetized rotating neutron star or white dwarf that emits a beam ofelectromagnetic radiation. This radiation can be observed only when the beam of emission ispointing toward Earth (much like the way a lighthouse can be seen only when the light ispointed in the direction of an observer), and is responsible for the pulsed appearance ofemission. Neutron stars are very dense, and have short, regular rotational periods.

Q.42 Which of the following stars is referred to as ‘Rohini’ in Hindu Astronomy?A. AldebaranB. BetelgeuseC. CastorD. Orion

Answer : A,

Solution :

None

Q.43 What is fissility?A. The ability/tendency to be hammered into thin sheetsB. The ability to split into flat planes of weaknessC. The ability to get drawn into wiresD. The ability to withstand high temperatures

Answer : B,

Solution :


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Slate displaying fissility

In geology, fissility is the ability or tendency of a rock to split along flat planes of weakness.These planes of weakness are oriented parallel to stratification in sedimentary rocks

Q.44 PankajCharanDas andKeluCharanMahopatra are famous artists of which dance form?A. KathakaliB. ManipuriC. OdissiD. Kuchipudi

Answer : C,

Solution :

None

Q.45 Who presided the First Buddhist Council?A. MahakasyapaB. SabakamiC. MoggaliputtaTissaD. Vasumitra

Answer : A,

Solution :

According to the scriptures of all Buddhist schools, the first Buddhist Council was held soonafter the death of the Buddha, dated by the majority of recent scholars around 400 BCE, underthe patronage of the king Ajatashatru with the monk Mahakasyapa presiding, at Sattapannicaves Rajgriha (now Rajgir).

Its objective was to preserve the Buddha's sayings (suttas) and the monastic discipline or rules(Vinaya). The Suttas were recited by Ananda, and the Vinaya was recited by Upali. Accordingto D.N. commentary's introduction, the AbhidhammaPitaka, or its matika, and ancientcommentary was also included. Also, the Sangha made the unanimous decision to keep all therules of the Vinaya, even the lesser and the minor rules.

Q.46 Who is credited as the founder of Samkhya, one of the six astika schools of Indian Philosophy?A. PatanjaliB. KapilamuniC. JaiminiD. Gautam


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Answer : B,

Solution :

None

Q.47 Which of the following states is connected to the Theatre art called ‘Therukuthu’?A. OrissaB. MaharashtraC. Tamil NaduD. Arunachal Pradesh

Answer : C,

Solution :

None

Q.48 The Hindu Calendar has an extra month added to align itself with the Ansar calendar, thismonth is called:A. Purushottam MaasB. VaisakhaC. BhadraD. Kartika

Answer : A,

Solution :

Purushottam Maas or Adhik Maas is an extra month in the Hindu calendar that is inserted tokeep the lunar and Ansar calendars aligned. "Purushottam" is an epithet of Vishnu, to whomthe month is dedicated.

Q.49 Which of the following deserts adjoins the Thardesert of India?A. Cholisthan DesertB. Kharan DesertC. Karoo DesertD. Nubian Desert

Answer : A,

Solution :


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The Cholistan Desert also locally known as Rohi, sprawls 30 km (19 mi) from Bahawalpur,Punjab, Pakistan and covers an area of 16,000 km2 (6,200 sq mi). It adjoins the Thar Desert,extending over to Sindh and into India.

Q.50 Match the following1. Rameswaram (i) Gulf of Mannar2. Chorao (ii) Lakshadweep3. Sriharikota (iii) Goa4. Kalpeni (iv) Andhra PradeshA. 1-(iv), 2-(iii), 3-(i), 4-(ii)B. 1-(iii), 2-(ii), 3-(i), 4-(iv)C. 1-(ii), 2-(i), 3-(iii), 4-(iv)D. 1-(i), 2-(iii), 3-(iv), 4-(ii)

Answer : D,

Solution :

None

Q.51 Which of the following Lakes is not located in Jammu and Kashmir?A. Wular LakeB. Mansar LakeC. Haflong LakeD. Sheshnag Lake

Answer : C,

Solution :

The Haflong Lake is located in Assam

Q.52 Match the following1. ChaudharyCharan Singh Airport (i) Nagpur2. Dr.BabasahebAmbedkar Intl Airport (ii) Lucknow3. NetajiSubhash Chandra Bpse Intl Airport (iii) Kolkata4. Rajiv Gandhi Intl Airport (iv) HyderabadA. 1-(iii), 2-(iv), 3-(i), 4-(ii)B. 1-(iv), 2-(i), 3-(ii), 4-(iii)C. 1-(ii), 2-(i), 3-(iii), 4-(iv)D. 1-(ii), 2-(i), 3-(iv), 4-(iii)

Answer : C,


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Solution :

None

Q.53 Which of these places is called the gateway of North East India?A. KolkataB. KohimaC. AizawlD. Siliguri

Answer : D,

Solution :

None

Q.54 Which state is home to the Bhimbetka rock shelters?A. Madhya PradeshB. OrissaC. AssamD. Haryana

Answer : A,

Solution :

The Bhimbetka rock shelters are an archaeological site in central India that spans theprehistoric paleolithic and meAnsithic periods, as well as the historic period. It exhibits theearliest traces of human life on the Indian subcontinent and evidence of Stone Age starting atthe site in Acheulian times.

Q.55 Which of the following contains references to Indian Martial Arts?A. AyurvedaB. Dhanur VedaC. Gandharva VedaD. Shilpa Veda

Answer : B,

Solution :

None


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Q.56 Who founded the Magadh dynasty?A. BrihadrathaB. AjatshatruC. BimbisaraD. Pasenadi

Answer : A,

Solution :

Brihadratha also known as Maharatha, was the founder of the Barhadratha dynasty, theearliest ruling dynasty of Magadha. According to the Mahabharata and the Puranas, he wasthe eldest of the five sons of Vasu, the Kuru king of Chedi and his queen Girika. The name ofBrihadratha is also found in the Rigveda.

Q.57 Which two rulers fought in the Battle of Hydaspes?A. Alexander the Great and King Porus of the Paurava kingdomB. SelecusNIcator and Ambhi, the Prince of TaxilaC. Chandragupta Maurya and the King of NandasD. Asoka and PushyamitraShunga

Answer : A,

Solution :

The Battle of the Hydaspes was fought in 326 BC between Alexander the Great and King Porusof the Paurava kingdom on the banks of the river Jhelum (known to the Greeks as Hydaspes) inthe Punjab region of the Indian subcontinent (modern-day Punjab, Pakistan). The battleresulted in a complete Greek victory and the annexation of the Punjab, which lay beyond thefar easternmost confines of the already absorbed Persian Empire, into the MacedonianEmpire.

Q.58 Who wrote the epic poem Kirataruneyam?A. KalidasB. ValmikiC. BharaviD. VIshakhadatta

Answer : C,

Solution :

Kiratarjuniya is a Sanskrit kavya by Bhāravi, written in the 6th century or earlier. It is an epicpoem in eighteen cantos describing the combat between Arjuna and lord Shiva at


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Indrakeeladri hills in present-day Vijayawada in the guise of a kirāta or mountain-dwellinghunter.

Q.59 Who was the founder of Chalukyas dynasty?A. VindhyasaktiB. DantidurgaC. Pravarsen ID. Pulakesin I

Answer : D,

Solution :

The Chalukya dynasty was established by Pulakeshin I in 543. Pulakeshin I took Vatapi(modern Badami in Bagalkot district, Karnataka) under his control and made it his capital.PulakeshinI and his descendants are referred to as "Chalukyas of Badami". They ruled over anempire that comprised the entire state of Karnataka and most of Andhra Pradesh in theDeccan.

Q.60 Which of the following taxes imposed by Firoz Shah Tughlaq are incorrectly matched?1. Kharaj : a Hindu land tax equal to 1/ 10 of the produce of the land2. Jaziya : a Muslim tax on property.3. Zakat : a tax by non – muslims.4. Khams : 1 / 5th of booty captured in war.A. 1 and 2B. 2 and 3C. 3 and 4D. 1 and 4

Answer : B,

Solution :

Kharaj : a Hindu land tax equal to 1/ 10 of the produce of the land.

Jaziya : a tax by non – muslims.

Zakat : a Muslim tax on property.

Khams : 1 / 5th of booty captured in war.

Q.61 Which of the following was NOT written by Tulsidas?A. Ramcharitamanas


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B. VikramorvasiyamC. Vinaya-PatrikaD. Kavitavali

Answer : B,

Solution :

Vikramorvasiyam is a five-act Sanskrit play by ancient Indian poet Kalidasa who flourished inthe 4th Century CE, on the Vedic love story of king Pururavas and an Apsara named Urvashi.

Q.62 Who fought in the Battle of Khanwa against Mughal Emperor Babur?A. RanaSangha of MewarB. Raja TodarmalC. BalajiBajiRaoD. Sher Shah Suri

Answer : A,

Solution :

None

Q.63 Match the following AshtaPradhan ministers with their roles:1. Sumant (i) Finance Minister2. Senapati (ii) Prime Minister3. Peshwa (iii) Commander-in-Chief4. Amatya (iv) Foreign MinisterA. 1-(iii), 2-(iv), 3-(i), 4-(ii)B. 1-(i), 2-(iii), 3-(ii), 4-(iv)C. 1-(iv), 2-(iii), 3-(ii), 4-(i)D. 1-(iii), 2-(iv), 3-(ii), 4-(i)

Answer : C,

Solution :

None

Q.64 Which governor-general of India is attributed with the creation of the District Judge Post?A. Lord CornwallisB. Lord William BentickC. Lord Hastings


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D. Lord Wellesley

Answer : A,

Solution :

None

Q.65 Who brought the Vernacular Press Act?A. Lord NorthbrookB. Lord RiponC. Lord LyttonD. Lord Curzon

Answer : C,

Solution :

In 1878, Lord Lytton promulgated the Vernacular Press Act, which empowered him toconfiscate the press and paper of a local language newspaper publishing 'seditious material'.The act resulted in public outcry in Calcutta led by the Indian Association and SurendranathBanerjee.

Q.66 Who is the founder of DevSamaj or DevDharam?A. Debendranath TagoreB. JyotiraoPhuleC. DayanandaSaraswatiD. Shiv Narayan Agnihotri

Answer : D,

Solution :

Shiv Narayan Agnihotri left BrahmoSamaj in 1887. He formed DevSamaj in February 1887.

[source: Wikipedia]

Q.67 Choose the correct chronological order:1. Second Round Table Conference2. Quit India Movement3. Gandhi Irwin Pact4. Dandi MarchA. 1,3,4,2B. 4,3,1,2


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C. 3,1,4,2D. 2,3,4,1

Answer : B,

Solution :

None

Q.68 Who founded the Newpaper ‘Voice of India’?A. DadabhaiNaorojiB. DayanandSaraswatiC. BalGangadharTilakD. H.V. Derozio

Answer : A,

Solution :

None

Q.69 Kundhei and Gombeyatta are forms of:A. DanceB. Music InstrumentsC. Puppet ShowD. Tailoring

Answer : C,

Solution :

None

Q.70 With reference to Appointments Committee of the Cabinet, consider the following statements.1. Prime Minister of India is chairperson of Appointments Committee of the Cabinet2. Minister of Home Affairs and Minister in-charge of the concerned Ministry is part of thecommitteeChoose the correct optionA. Only 1B. Only 2C. Both 1 and 2D. Neither 1 nor 2


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Answer : A,

Solution :

The Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC) decides appointments to several top postsunder the Government of India. The committee is composed of the Prime Minister of India(who is the Chairman), the Minister of Home Affairs. Originally the Minister in-charge of theconcerned Ministry was also the part of the committee but as per the new notification (as on14.7.16) the minister of concerned ministry has been excluded from the committee.

Q.71 With reference to Battle of Haifa consider the following statements.1. In World War II it is considered as the most bravely contested battle2. Haifa was liberated from the clutches of the Turkish-German forces by 15th (ImperialService) Cavalry BrigadeChoose the correct optionA. Only 1B. Only 2C. Both 1 and 2D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer : B,

Solution :

Indian cavalry brigades fighting under the leadership of British General Edmund Allenbyhelped liberate Haifa from the clutches of the Turkish-German forces. The Teen Murtimemorial was constructed in 1922 in the memory of the Indian Ansdiers from three princelystates namely Jodhpur, Hyderabad and Mysore who served present day Gaza strip, Israel andPalestine during the World War I under British India Army. The 15th (Imperial Service)Cavalry Brigade was a brigade-sized formation that served alongside British Empire forces inthe Sinai and Palestine Campaign, during the First World War. Originally called the ImperialService Cavalry Brigade it was formed from Imperial Service Troops provided by the IndianPrincely States of Hyderabad, Mysore, Patiala and Jodhpur, which each provided a regiment oflancers. A maximum of three regiments served in the brigade at any one time. The states ofBhavnagar, Kashmir, Kathiawar and Idar provided smaller detachments for the brigade, whichwas at times reinforced by other British Empire regiments and artillery batteries when onoperations.

Q.72 A term ‘Transcriptome’ which was recently in news with reference to the development ofBioinformatics, consider the below given statementsA. A range of enzymes used in genome editingB. The full range of mRNA molecules expressed by an organismC. The description of the mechanism of gene expression


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D. A mechanism of genetic mutations taking place in cells

Answer : B,

Solution :

The transcriptome is the set of all RNA molecules in one cell or a population of cells. It issometimes used to refer to all RNAs, or just mRNA, depending on the particular experiment. Itdiffers from the exome in that it includes only those RNA molecules found in a specified cellpopulation, and usually includes the amount or concentration of each RNA molecule inaddition to the molecular identities.

Q.73 From the below given list identify the body that publishes "Energy Statistics”A. Central Power Research InstituteB. Planning CommissionC. Central Statistical OrganizationD. Power Finance Corporation Ltd

Answer : C,

Solution :

Energy Statistics is an integrated and updated database of reserves, installed capacity,production, consumption, import, export and whole sale prices of different sources viz. coal,crude petroleum, natural gas and electricity.

Q.74 Government of India took an initiative called MCA-21 in which of the following area?A. E-governanceB. Attracting international touristsC. Attracting international studentsD. Modernization of airports

Answer : A,

Solution :

MCA21 Mission Mode Project (MCA21) is the e-governance initiative from the Ministry ofCorporate Affairs, Government of India. It is one of the 27 Mission Mode Projects of theNational e-Governance Plan.

Q.75 An exercise named Search and Rescue exercise (SAREX-18) is between India andA. JapanB. Israel


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C. USAD. Philippines

Answer : A,

Solution :

SAREX-18 is a joint search and rescue exercise between India and Japan to help increasemutual understanding in Anti-Piracy operations.

Q.76 Recently ‘Galileo’ was in news. From the below given statements choose the correct statementthat is associated with Galileo.A. An environmental protection project being developed by JapanB. A Project developed by India with assistance from CanadaC. An intercountryprogramme of missile shield developed by the United States of AmericaD. Global Satellite Navigation System developed by the European Union

Answer : D,

Solution :

Galileo is Europe’s Global Satellite Navigation System (GNSS), providing improved positioningand timing information with significant positive implications for many European services andusers.

Q.77 Consider the below given States and identify the States through which river Mahanadi flows?1. Madhya Pradesh2. Chhattisgarh3. OdishaChoose the correct optionA. 1 and 2B. 2 and 3C. 1 and 3D. All of the above

Answer : B,

Solution :

The Mahanadi is a major river in East Central India. It drains an area of around 141,600square kilometres (54,700 sq mi) and has a total course of 858 kilometres (533 mi).[1] Theriver flows through the states of Chhattisgarh and Odisha. The Mahanadi basin extends overstates of Chhattisgarh and Odisha and comparatively smaller portions of Jharkhand,Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh. It is bounded by the Central India hills on the north, by the


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Eastern Ghats on the south and east and by the Maikala range on the west. The Mahanadi isone of the major rivers of the country and among the peninsular rivers, in water potential andflood producing capacity, it ranks second to the Godavari. It originates from a pool, 6 km fromFarsiya village of Dhamtari district of Chhattisgarh. The total length of the river from origin toits outfall into the Bay of Bengal is 851 km. The Seonath, the Hasdeo, the Mand and the IbjoinsMahanadi from left whereas the Ong, the Tel and the Jonk joins it from right. Six other smallstreams between the Mahanadi and the Rushikulya draining directly into the Chilka Lake alsoforms the part of the basin.

Q.78 Consider the following statements1. One of the by product of sugar production process is Molasse2. Bagasse obtained in the sugar mills is used as a fuel in the boilers to generate steam forthe sugar factories.3. Sugar can only be produced from sugarcane as the raw material.Choose the correct optionA. 1 and 2B. 2 and 3C. 1 and 3D. All of the above

Answer : A,

Solution :

Molasses is a viscous product resulting from refining sugarcane or sugar beets into sugar.Molasses varies by amount of sugar, method of extraction, and age of plant. Bagasse is thefibrous matter that remains after sugarcane stalks are crushed to extract their juice. Bagasseis used as a biofuel and in the manufacture of pulp and building materials. Sugars are found inthe tissues of most plants and are present in sugarcane and sugar beet in sufficientconcentrations for efficient commercial extraction. Sugar beet is a plant whose root contains ahigh concentration of sucrose and which is grown commercially for sugar production.

Q.79 Consider the following statements1. 56th Amendment of the Constitution of Indiaseparated Daman and Diu from Goa.2. Till 1954 Dadra and Nagar Haveli were under French colonial ruleChoose the correct optionA. Only 1B. Only 2C. Both 1 and 2D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer : A,


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Solution :

Daman and Diu were separated from Goa by the 56th Amendment of the Constitution of India.Dadar and Nagar Haveli were under Portuguese rule and not under French.

Q.80 Jasmine Revolution is concerned with which of the below given countryA. SudanB. TunisiaC. AlgeriaD. Libya

Answer : B,

Solution :

The Tunisian revolution in which President Zine El Abidine Ben Ali was forced out of thepresidency by popular protests was called the "Jasmine Revolution".

Q.81 With reference to Tunisia consider the below given statements1. Algeria, Morocco and Libya share borders with Tunisia2. Tunisia shares its border with Mediterranean SeaSelect the correct statementsA. Only 1B. Only 2C. Both 1 and 2D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer : B,

Solution :

It is a sovereign state in North Africa. Its northernmost point, Cape Angela, is thenorthernmost point on the African continent. It is bordered by Algeria to the west andsouthwest, Libya to the southeast, and the Mediterranean Sea to the north and east.

Q.82 Consider the following statements1. The First Session of the Indian National Congress was held in Calcutta2. DadabhaiNaoroji was the president of Indian National Congress during its 2nd session.3. Both Indian National Congress and Muslim League held their sessions at Lucknow in1916 and concluded the Lucknow PactWhich of the statements given above is/are correct?A. 1 and 2B. 2 only


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C. 2 and 3D. 3 only

Answer : C,

Solution :

The First session of Indian National Congress was held in Bombay. The Second session of theIndian National Congress was held in 1886 in Calcutta. The President of the session wasDadabhaiNaoroji. Lucknow Pact refers to an agreement reached between the moderates andextremists of the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League at the joint session of boththe parties, held in Lucknow, in December 1916.

Q.83 Malimath Committee is concerned withA. Judicial Appointment ReformsB. Railway ReformsC. Education ReformsD. Criminal Justice System

Answer : D,

Solution :

Justice Malimath Committee or The Committee on Reforms of the Criminal Justice System wasconstituted by the Home Ministry in 2000. It made recommendations on crime investigationand punishment.

Q.84 Consider the following statements about Sholas1. They are patches of stunted evergreen tropical and sub-tropical moist broad leaf forest2. They are found in valleys separated by grassland in the higher mountain regions of SouthIndiaChoose the correct optionA. Only 1B. Only 2C. Both 1 and 2D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer : C,

Solution :

Sholas are the local name for patches of stunted tropical montane forest found in valleys amidrolling grassland in the higher montane regions of South India. These patches of shola forestare found mainly in the valleys and are usually separated from one another by undulating


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montane grassland. Shola forests are found in the higher altitude hill regions of the Nilgiris,Kanyakumaridistrict,Idukki district, the Western Ghats and associated ranges in the states ofKarnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu. Although generally said to occur above 2000 meters abovesea level, shola forests can be found at 1600 meters elevation in many hill ranges.

Q.85 With reference to Nilgiri pipit consider the following statements1. They are endemic to Western Ghats2. It is a non-migratory bird3. In the IUCN Red List it is listed in vulnerable categoryChoose the correct optionA. 1 and 2B. 2 and 3C. 1 and 3D. All of the above

Answer : D,

Solution :

The Nilgiri pipit (Anthusnilghiriensis) is a distinctive species of pipit that is endemic to thehigh altitude hills of southern India. Richer brown in colour than other pipits in the region, it isdistinctive in having the streaking on the breast continuing along the flanks. It is non-migratory and has a tendency to fly into low trees when disturbed and is closely related to thetree pipits, Anthushodgsoni and Anthustrivialis. IUCN Status – Vulnerable

Q.86 From the below given institutions identify the correct one that brings out World DevelopmentIndicatorsA. World Economic ForumB. World BankC. World Trade OrganisationD. International Monetary Fund

Answer : B,

Solution :

World Development Indicators (WDI) is the primary World Bank collection of developmentindicators, compiled from officially-recognized international sources. It presents the mostcurrent and accurate global development data available, and includes national, regional andglobal estimates. This statistical reference includes over 800 indicators covering more than150 economies. The annual publication is released in April of each year. The online database isupdated three times a year.


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Q.87 With reference to ‘SangeetNatakAkademi’ consider the below given statements1. It is an Autonomous Body of the Ministry of Culture2. The President of India appoints its Chairman and the term of its office is for 5 yearsChoose the correct optionA. Only 1B. Only 2C. Both 1 and 2D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer : C,

Solution :

The SangeetNatakAkademi is presently an Autonomous Body of the Ministry of Culture,Government of India and is fully funded by the Government for implementation of its schemesand programmes. The Chairman shall be appointed by the President of India and shall holdoffice for a term of five years.

Q.88 With reference to “Cloud AutoML” identify the organization that is associated with it.A. GoogleB. MicrosoftC. AdobeD. Amazon

Answer : A,

Solution :

Google has launched "Cloud AutoML", a product that enables businesses with limited MachineLearning (ML) expertise to build high quality, custom Artificial Intelligence (AI) models toimprove their product or service. "Cloud AutoML" will let businesses and developers traincustom vision models for their own use cases. Google's first "Cloud AutoML" release is "CloudAutoML Vision", a service that makes it faster and easier to create custom ML models forimage recognition. Its drag and drop interface lets users easily upload images, train andmanage models, and then deploy those trained models directly on Google Cloud.

Q.89 Indian products are given Eco Marks which indicates that they areA. Rich in proteinsB. Environment friendlyC. Pure and unadulteratedD. Economically viable

Answer : B,


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Solution :

Eco-mark is a voluntary labelling scheme for easily identifying environment friendly products.The Eco-mark scheme defines as an environmentally friendly product, any product which ismade, used or disposed of in a way that significantly reduces the harm it would otherwisecause the environment. The definition factors in all aspects of the supply chain, taking acradle-to-grave approach, which includes raw material extraction, manufacturing and disposal.What sets eco-mark apart from other labels is that not only does the product have to meetstrict environmental requirements, but it also has to meet strict quality requirements. Thescheme is one of India’s earliest efforts in environmental standards, launched in 1991, evenbefore the 1992 Rio Summit in which India participated. The scheme was launched by theMinistry of Environment and Forests, and is administered by the Bureau of Indian Standards(BIS), which also administers the Indian Standards Institute (ISI) mark quality label, arequirement for any product to gain the Eco-mark label.

Q.90 From the below given options identify a language of Baluchistan but linguistically Dravidian?A. KuiB. BrahuiC. ParjiD. Pengo

Answer : B,

Solution :

Brahui is a Dravidian language spoken primarily by the Brahui people in the central part ofBalochistan province in Pakistan, and in scattered parts of Afghanistan, Iran, andTurkmenistan, and by expatriate Brahui communities in Qatar, United Arab Emirates, andIraq. It is iAnsated from the nearest Dravidian-speaking neighbour population of South Indiaby a distance of more than 1,500 kilometres (930 mi). Kalat, Khuzdar, Mastung, and parts ofQuetta district of Balochistan Province are predominantly Brahui-speaking.

Q.91 With reference to Environment Management Group (EMG) consider the below given statements1. It is a United Nations (UN) System-wide coordination body on environment and humansettlements.2. It is chaired by the Executive Director of UN Environment (UNEP)3. IMF and ILO are members of the groupChoose the correct optionA. 1 and 2B. 2 and 3C. 1 and 3D. All of the above


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Answer : D,

Solution :

The Environment Management Group (EMG) is a United Nations (UN) System-widecoordination body on environment and human settlements. It was established in 2001pursuant to the General Assembly reAnsution 53/242 in July 1999. The group is chaired by theExecutive Director of UN Environment (UNEP) and supported by a secretariat provided by UNEnvironment . The Secretariat is located in Geneva, Switzerland. IMF and ILO are members ofthe group

Q.92 With reference to ‘Cyber Surakshit Bharat’ initiative consider the following statements1. It functions under the aegis of Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology(MeitY)2. It aims to conduct a series of training programs for departments in State and Uniongovernments, Public Sector Banks, and technical arms of the Air Force, Army and NavyChoose the correct statementsA. Only 1B. Only 2C. Both 1 and 2D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer : C,

Solution :

In order to strengthen cyber security practices and awareness among the governmentdepartments, the ministry of electronics and IT has launched the Cyber Surakshit Bharatinitiative in association with the IT industry majors. An aim of the initiative is to spreadawareness about cybercrime and building capacity for safe.

Cyber Surakshit Bharat aims to conduct a series of training programs in the next six monthsacross Delhi, Mumbai, Bangalore, Hyderabad and Chennai. The audience will include CISOsand technical officials from:

· The central government

· State governments and Union Territories

· Public Sector Banks

· Public Sector Units

· Defence forces, defence PSUs and technical arms of the Air Force, Army and Navy


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Q.93 With reference to Meghalaya identify the places that share its border with it.1. Assam2. Bangladesh3. TripuraChoose the correct statementsA. 1 and 2B. 2 and 3C. 1 and 3D. All of the above

Answer : A,

Solution :

The state is surrounded by Assam to its north and Bangladesh to its south.

Q.94 Consider the following statements1. Article 102 of the Constitution lays down basic disqualification criteria for a Member ofParliament2. Representation of the People Act of 1951 has defined the word “office”Choose the correct optionA. Only 1B. Only 2C. Both 1 and 2D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer : A,

Solution :

Basic disqualification criteria for an MP are laid down in Article 102 of the Constitution, andfor an MLA in Article 191. They can be disqualified for: a) Holding an office of profit undergovernment of India or state government; b) Being of unsound mind; c) Being an undischargedinAnsvent; d) Not being an Indian citizen or for acquiring citizenship of another country.

The word ‘office’ has not been defined in the Constitution or the Representation of the PeopleAct of 1951. But different courts have interpreted it to mean a position with certain duties thatare more or less of public character.

Q.95 Consider the following statements1. Red Panda in India are naturally found in Western Himalaya only2. Slow Loris lives in the dense forests of the North East India.Choose the correct optionA. Only 1


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B. Only 2C. Both 1 and 2D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer : B,

Solution :

Red Panda is a mammal native to the eastern Himalayas and southwestern China. Slow lorisesare a group of several species of nocturnal strepsirrhine primates that make up the genusNycticebus. Found in Southeast Asia and bordering areas, they range from Bangladesh andNortheast India in the west to the Sulu Archipelago in the Philippines in the east, and fromYunnan province in China in the north to the island of Java in the south.

Q.96 From the below given list identify the organisation/s that brings out Global TalentCompetitiveness Index1. Adecco2. Insead3. Tata CommunicationsChoose the correct optionA. 1 and 2B. 2 and 3C. 1 and 3D. All of the above

Answer : D,

Solution :

The 2018 study is released by Adecco, Insead and Tata Communications. India has moved upon a global index of talent competitiveness to the 81st position. It is released every year on thefirst day of the World Economic Forum (WEF) annual meeting. China has moved up to 43rdnow, Russia to 53rd, South Africa to 63rd and Brazil to 73rd position.

Q.97 National Regulatory Authority of India (NRAI) comprises ofA. Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO)B. Pharmaco-vigilanceProgramme of India (PvPI)C. Both (a) and (b)D. Neither (a) nor (b)

Answer : C,

Solution :


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National Regulatory Agencies (NRAs) are responsible for ensuring that pharmaceuticals andbiological products, such as vaccines released for public distribution are evaluated properlyand meet international standards of quality and safety.

The National Regulatory Authority of India (NRAI), the vaccine regulating authority of India,has been given the highest ratings by global health body World Health Organization forvaccine regulations. WHO carried out assessment of the NRA of India comprising the CentralDrugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO), State Drug Regulatory Authorities, Pharmaco-vigilance Programme of India (PvPI) and Adverse Events Following Immunization (AEFI)structures at the Central and States level.

Q.98 An island called Hope is under the administration of which state government?A. Tamil NaduB. Andhra PradeshC. OrrisaD. West Bengal

Answer : A,

Solution :

A relatively young island, it formed in the last 200 years into a 16-kilometre-long (9.9 mi) sandspit from the sand carried by the waters of Godavari delta. The area between Kakinada coastand Hope Island is known as Kakinada Bay. The water spread of the bay is about 100 sq km(39 sq mi). Hope Island protects the city of Kakinada from the strong storm surges comingfrom the Bay of Bengal. Hope Island acts as a sort of natural break water and providestranquility to the ships anchored in Kakinada bay which makes Kakinada Port one of the safestnatural ports in the Eastern Coast of India. The northern part of the island is called the"Godavari point" which overlooks the entry point into the Bay of Kakinada and the Kakinadaharbour.

Q.99 With reference to an European country named Hungary, consider the below given statements1. River Danube flows through Hungary]2. The grassland biome found in Hungary is known as Puszta3. It is a landlocked countryChoose the correct optionA. 1 and 2B. 2 and 3C. 1 and 3D. All of the above

Answer : D,


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Solution :

Originating in Germany, the Danube flows southeast for 2,860 km (1,780 mi), passing throughor touching the border of Austria, Slovakia, Hungary, Croatia, Serbia, Romania, Bulgaria,Moldova and Ukraine before emptying into the Black Sea. Its drainage basin extends into ninemore countries. Prairie grasslands are found across the globe. They have a variety of names inother parts of the world: pampas in South America, veldt in South Africa and puszta inHungary. These areas have deep, rich soils and are dominated by tall grasses; trees andshrubs are restricted to river valleys, wetlands and other areas with more moisture. Over theyears the native grass species on the extensive areas of level ground have been ploughed andfields seeded. Many of these grasslands have been lost to cereal crops.

Q.100Which of the following does NOT belong to the Ratnatraya of Jainism?A. SamyakCharitraB. SamyakDarshanaC. SamyakVedikaD. SamyakGyana

Answer : C,

Solution : Jainism emphasises that ratnatraya (triple gems of Jainism) — the right faith(SamyakDarshana), right knowledge (SamyakGyana) and right conduct (SamyakCharitra) —constitutes the path to liberation. These are known as the triple gems (or jewels) of Jainismand hence also known as Ratnatraya. These three are essential for the soul to move upspiritually

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