sri chaitanya educational institutions - merupulu

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK 1

SRI CHAITANYA EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS A.P,TELANGANA,KARNATAKA,TAMILNADU,MAHARASHTRA,DELHI,RANCHI,CHANDIGARH

NEET GRAND TESTNEET GRAND TESTNEET GRAND TESTNEET GRAND TEST----20202020

Name :........................................... Hall Ticket No:

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

1. The Model NEET- 2019 is of 3 Hrs duration. Time: 10.00 AM – 1.00 PM.

2. The question paper for NEET-2019 consists of 180 questions comprising 45 questions in Botany, 45 in Zoology, 45 in Physics and 45 in Chemistry for NEET.

3. All questions are of objective type (Multiple choices only) 4. Each question carries four marks. 5. Negative marking: one mark will be deducted for every wrongly

answered question. 6. Total Marks 720. 7. The candidates are prohibited from carrying any paper to the

examination hall except HALL TICKET. 8. No Calculators, Mini-Cards, Watches with Calculators, Pager, Cell

Phone, Slide rules or outer aids to calculation will be allowed in the examination hall.

9. Candidates once admitted will not be allowed to leave the hall till half an hour before the closing of the test.

10. A separate sheet is attached in the middle of this booklet for rough work, you can detach and use it.

11. A detachable answer sheet with 180 question blocks, with 4 circles corresponding to 4 multiple choice for each question will be provided. Use HB Pencil to darken the appropriate circle against the question number provided in the sheet. Answer should be marked only on the answer sheet, but not on the question paper booklet.


SRI CHAITANYA EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS,INDIA. A.P,TELANGANA,KARNATAKA,TAMILNADU,MAHARASHTRA,DELHI,RANCHI

SEC : OUTGOING SENIORS & LONG TERM NEET GRAND TEST – 20 DATE : 31-08-2020

SUB: BOTANY Max.Marks : 720

1. Beijernickia is a bacterium helpful in

carrying out :

(1) Nitrogen fixation

(2) Chemo autotrophic fixation

(3) Nitrification

(4) Denitrification

2. From evolutionary point of view the

presence of integument around

megasporangium and seed habit is first

observed in

(1) Ferns

(2) Gymnosperms

(3) Heterosporous pteridophytes

(4) Flowering plants

3. Veins help in translocation of

(1) Water only

(2) Minerals and water only

(3) Food materials only

(4) Water, minerals and food

4. Scar on the seed coat through which the

developing seeds is attached to the fruit is

called

(1) Chalaza

(2) Raphe

(3) Hilum

(4) Tegmen

5. Select the correctly represented scientific

name of mango when hand written

(1) Magnifera indica. Linn

(2) Mangifera indica. Linn

(3) Mangifera indica. Linn

(4) MANGIFERA INDICA. LINN

6. Stomata in grass leaves close during night

time. Select the most appropriate reason

from the following:

(1) Flaccidity of subsidiary cells

(2) Flaccidity of bulliform cells

(3) Turgidity of guard cells

(4) Flaccidity of guard cells

7. The given nucleotide sequence on m-RNA is

as shown below :

15 A U G U C A U G G G A G U A A G U

U G G G 13

How many amino acids will be inserted in a

polypeptide chain under normal conditions?

(1) 6

(2) 3

(3) 4

(4) 5

8. Former is a non staining part present in all

chromosomes with kinetochores. Latter is a

non staining part present in few

chromosomes at a constant position helpful

in their identification. Former and latter

parts of chromosomes are

(1) Centrosome & secondary constriction

(2) Centromere & secondary constriction

(3) Satellite & primary constriction

(4) Secondary construction, primary

constriction


9. Which of the following statements is NOT

correct ?

(1) Synthesis of lipid like steroidal hormone –

SER

(2) Glycoprotein & glycolipid synthesis –

Golgi complex

(3) Protein & starch synthesis – Mitochondria

(4) Mechanical support, motility & shape of

cell – Cytoskeleton

10. Which one of the following is essentially

required for amplification of DNA

fragments ?

(1) Bioreactors

(2) Sludge digester

(3) Thermocycler

(4) Anaerobic fermentors

11. What is the site in a flower which act as

receptive surface for pollen grains ?

(1) Pollen sacs

(2) Filament of stamen

(3) Stigma

(4) Ovule

12. Considering starch synthesis in pea seeds,

when large round seeded plants were

crossed with small and wrinkled seeded

plants, 1F generation showed round seeds

with intermediate size. 1F plants are selfed

to produce 2F generation. What is the

phenotypic ratio of 2F generation?

(1) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1

(2) 1 : 2 : 1

(3) 3 : 6 : 3 : 1 : 2 : 1

(4) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1

13. Which of the following statements is

incorrect ?

(1) Chlorella is kept under protista in

Whittaker’s classification

(2) Spores of slime moulds possess true walls

and extremely resistant

(3) The pigments of euglenoids are identical to

those present in higher plants

(4) Virus crystals observed by Stanley

consisted largely of nucleic acids and less of

proteins

14. The correct sequence of steps during cell

cycle is

(1) DNA replication → Chromosome division

→ Spirilization → Reappearance of

endoplasmic reticulum and golgi complex

(2) Centromere division → DNA replication

→ Centriole movement towards two opposite

poles → Reappearance of endoplasmic

reticulum and golgi complex

(3) DNA replication → Centriole movement

towards poles → Division of centromere →

Reappearance of endoplasmic reticulum and

golgi complex

(4) Centriole movement towards poles →

Division of centromere → DNA replication

→ Movement of chromosomes towards

equator. Reappearance of endoplasmic

reticulum and golgi complex → telophase


15. What is the fate of nucellus after

fertilization in seeds of black pepper and

coffee ?

(1) Endosperm

(2) Perisperm

(3) Hilum

(4) Embryo proper

16. Which pair of cell components possess 80S

ribosomes in a eukaryotic cell ?

(1) Mitochondria and chloroplast

(2) Cytoplasm and RER

(3) Nuclear membrane and chloroplast

(4) Mitochondria and RER

17. Haem is the non protein group attached to

active site of an enzyme which catalyse the

breakdown of

(1) Proteins

(2) Hydrogen peroxide

(3) Succinic acid

(4) Carbonic acid

18. Which of the following statements

regarding mitochondria is incorrect ?

(1) Outer and inner membrane divide its lumen

into two aqueous compartments namely

perimitochondrial space and matrix

(2) Enzymes are restricted to inner membrane

only and absent in outer membrane and matrix

(3) DNA is double stranded whereas RNA is

single stranded

(4) They produce cellular energy in the form

of ATP hence called power houses of cell

19. Inulin is a

(1) Alkaloid

(2) Protein

(3) Polysaccharide

(4) Pigment

20. Separation of DNA fragments after

restriction enzyme digestion is achieved by

(1) Chilled ethanol usage

(2) Radioactive probe utility

(3) Gel electrophoresis

(4) Heat shock (cold – heat – cold)

21. Match the following with respect to Lac

operon

a) Repressor protein i) Lactose transporter

b) Lactose ii) Access to lac

promoter

c) RNA polymerase iii) Bind to operator

d) Permease protein iv) Regulating

switching on and off

(1) a – ii, b – iv, c – iii, d - i

(2) a – iv, b – iii, c – ii, d – i

(3) a – iii, b – iv, c – ii, d - i

(4) a – iii, b – ii, c – i, d – iv

22. Which of the following feature of genetic

code does allow the same amino acid

sequence in a polypeptide inspite of change

in codon sequence ?

(1) Genetic code is nearly universal

(2) Genetic code is specific

(3) Genetic code is non ambiguous

(4) Genetic code is degenerate


23. Read the following

(A) Sepals/petals just touch each at the

margin without overlapping

(B) Placenta forms a ridge along the ventral

suture of the ovary and ovules are borne on

the ridge forming two rows

A and B respectively are

(1) Twisted aestivation and axile placentation

(2) Valvate aestivation and marginal

placentation

(3) Imbricate aestivation and parietal

placentation

(4) Vexillary aestivation and free central

placentation

24. What is true regarding an event occurring

during cell division (or) M – phase ?

(1) Synthesis of cell organelles

(2) Histone synthesis

(3) Distribution of replicated DNA into

daughter cells

(4) Centriole duplication

25. Respiratory quotient value of a substrate

which is not strictly macromolecule and

present in acid insoluble fraction is

(1) More than 1

(2) 1

(3) Less than 1

(4) Infinity

26. Select the correct group of biofertilzers

(1) Bacillus, Penicillium, Streptomyces

(2) NPV, Bacillus thuringiensis, Trichoderma

(3) Glomus, Oscillatoria, Nostoc

(4) Trichoderma, Monascus, Streptococcus

27. In some plants, fruit is formed without the

act of fertilization of ovules. This

phenomenon is known as

(1) Parthenogenesis

(2) Syngamy

(3) Parthenocarpy

(4) Polyembryony

28. Which one of the following is NOT a post

fertilization product ?

(1) Embryo

(2) Endosperm

(3) Embryosac

(4) Seed

29. What is common in both DNA and RNA ?

(1) Deoxy ribose sugar

(2) Type of purines

(3) Type of pyrimidines

(4) Base pairing

30. Match the following

a) Phytopthora i) Ergot rye

b) Xanthomonas ii) Crown gall apple

c) Agrobacterium iii) Canker citrus

d) Claviceps iv) Lateblight potato

a b c d

(1) iv iii ii i

(2) iii iv ii i

(3) ii iv iii iv

(4) i ii iii iv


31. Match the following

a) Linkage i) Morgan

b) Chromosomal ii) Boyer

theory of inheritance

c) Rediscovery of iii) Sutton and boveri

Mendel’s result on

inheritance

d) Restriction iv) de Vries, Correns

enzymes and Tschermak

a b c d

(1) i ii iii iv

(2) i iv iii ii

(3) i iii ii iv

(4) i iii iv ii

32. Phloem in angiosperms do not possess

(1) Sieve tubes

(2) Companion cells

(3) Albuminous cells

(4) Phloem parenchyma

33. Explant develops into callus followed by

plantlet during tissue culture. Which

combination of hormones can be applied to

produce a complete plantlet from callus

during invitro culture?

(1) Auxins and ethylene

(2) Gibberellins and cytokinins

(3) Gibberellins and abscissic acid

(4) Auxins and cytokinins

34. Which of the following is FALSE regarding

RNAi ?

(1) It is observed in eukaryotes as a method of

cellular defense

(2) It involves silencing of dsDNA with the

help of mRNA

(3) It is a post transcriptional gene regulation

where RNA inhibit translation

(4) RNA induced silencing complex (RISC) a

multiprotein complex that incorporates one

strand of small interfering RNA (siRNA)

35. Which of the statements given below is true

about formation of cambial ring in trees ?

(1) It is a combination of spring wood and

autumn wood produced in an year in temperate

plants

(2) It is a combination of vascular cambium

and cork cambium produced in a tree during

secondary growth

(3) It is a combination of intrafascicular

cambium and interfascicular cambium

(4) It is a combination of heart wood and sap

wood in a tree member

36. Consider the following statements

A : Movement in the phloem is bidirectional

and phloem sap is under the influence of

positive pressure

B : Movement in xylem is unidirectional

(upwards) and xylem sap is under the

influence of both positive pressure (herbs)

and negative pressure (tall trees)

Select the correct option

(1) Both A and B are true

(2) A is true, B is false

(3) Both A and B are false

(4) A is false, B is true


37. Cycas coralloid roots can fix atmospheric

nitrogen. This is because its middle cortex

possess

(1) Anabaena

(2) Rhizobium

(3) Frankia

(4) Azospirillum

38. Which of the following is a disease resistant

Brassica variety ?

(1) Pusa Sem

(2) Pusa Komal

(3) Pusa Swarnim

(4) Pusa Sadabahar

39. Amount of assimilatory power needed to fix

six 2CO molecules in a 3C plants is

(1) 3 ATP and 22 NADPH




40. Read the following

A : Vitamins (like vitamin B) act as

precursors for coenzymes like NAD and

FAD

B : Enzymes help decrease the difference in

free energy content of ‘S’ from that of

transition state and thus speed up the

reaction

Select the correct option






INCORRECT ?

(1) Viroids lack a protein coat

(2) Viruses are obligate parasites

(3) Infectious part of virus is protein coat

(4) Prion consist of abnormally folded protein

42. Following statements describe the

characteristics of enzyme restriction

endonucleases. Identify the INCORRECT

statement

(1) The enzyme cuts DNA at identified

position within the DNA

(2) The enzyme break sugar – phosphate

backbone at specific sites on each strand

(3) The enzyme binds to DNA at specific sites

and cuts only one of the two strands

(4) They are the enzymes isolated from

bacteria used in genetic engineering

43. Primary succession begins with invasion of

(1) Pioneers on a bare lifeless area

(2) Stable climax community

(3) Pioneers on a deforested land

(4) Successors on burnt soils

44. Solanaceae is included under order

(1) Poales

(2) Sapindales

(3) Rosales

(4) Polymoniales


45. The female sex organ in brown algal

members is

(1) Archegonium

(2) Oogonium

(3) Ascogonium

(4) Carpogonium

46. Match the items given in column I with

those in column II and choose the correct

option

Column – I Column - II

a) Intrinsic factor i) Pancreatic juice

b) Saliva ii) Succus entericus

c) Trypsinogen iii) Vitamin 12B

d) Maltase iv) Lysozyme

(1) a – ii, b – iv, c – iii, d – i

(2) a – iv, b – iii, c – i, d – ii

(3) a – iv, b – iii, c – ii, d – i

(4) a – iii, b – iv, c – i, d – ii

47. Select the correct sequence of stages

(1) Spermatogonia → primary spermatocyte

→ secondary spermatocyte → spermatid →

spermatozoa


→ spermatid → secondary spermatocyte →

spermatozoa

(3) Spermatogonia → spermatid → primary

spermatocyte → secondary spermatocyte →

spermatozoa


→ secondary spermatocyte → spermatozoa

→ spermatid

48. Identify mismatched combination from the

following

(1) Sex linked recessive trait: Haemophilia

(2) Autosomal dominant trait: Myotonic

dystrophy

(3) Autosomal recessive trait: Colour blindness

(4) Chromosomal disorder: Klinefelter’s

syndrome

49. The root cause for the extinction of Stellar’s

sea cow and Passenger pigeon is

(1) Alien species invasion

(2) Co – extinction

(3) Habitat fragmentation

(4) Over exploitation

50. Breakdown of detritus into smaller particles

by earthworm is

(1) Leaching

(2) Fragmentation

(3) Humification

(4) Catabolism

51. Which of the following interspecific

interaction is best defined as a process in

which the fitness of one species is

significantly lower in the presence of

another species

(1) Commensalism

(2) Competition

(3) Mutualism

(4) Predation

52. Identify the hormone, whose levels are

increased only during pregnancy

(1) Estrogen

(2) Progesterone

(3) FSH

(4) hCG


53. Which one of the following options is not

correctly matches a pair of organisms with

the kind of interspecific interaction?

(1) Orchid and Bee – Mutualism

(2) Sea anemone and Clown fish –

Commensalism

(3) Abingdon tortoise and Goats –

Competition

(4) Cuscuta and Hedge plant – Ammensalism

54. A single ------- often helps to overcome

inbreeding depression

(1) Line breeding

(2) Close breeding

(3) Cross breeding

(4) Out cross

55. The first clinical gene therapy was given in

1990 to a 4 – year old girl with the enzyme

deficiency of

(1) Adenosine deaminase

(2) Tyrosine kinase

(3) Carbonic anhydrase

(4) Prothrombinase

56. Logistic equation of population growth was

first given by

(1) Edward Wilson

(2) Robert May

(3) Paul Ehrlich

(4) Pierre Verhulst

57. The extinct human ancestor who ate only

fruits and hunted with stone weapons was

(1) Ramapithecus

(2) Homo erectus

(3) Dryopithecus

(4) Australopithecus

58. Virus infected cells secrete proteins called

as interferons which protect non – infected

cells from viral infection. They are a part of

(1) Cellular barriers

(2) Physiological barriers

(3) Cytokine barriers

(4) Physical barriers

59. Wings of butterfly and of birds show

different patterns of structure, yet they

perform similar function. This is an

example of

(1) Homologous organs that have evolved due

to convergent evolution

(2) Analogous organs that have evolved due to

divergent evolution

(3) Homologous organs that have evolved due

to divergent evolution

(4) Analogous organs that have evolved due to

convergent evolution

60. Which of the following hormone acts mainly

at the kidney and stimulates absorption of

water by the distal tubules?

(1) Erythropoietin

(2) Oxytocin

(3) Vasopressin

(4) Melatonin

61. The effect of a drug obtained from the

leaves of Erythroxylum coca is

(1) Depressant

(2) Sedative

(3) Stimulant

(4) Tranquilizer


62. Which of the following statements is not

correct?

(1) Thalamus is a major coordinating centre

for sensory and motor signaling

(2) Association areas of cerebrum are

responsible for memory and communication

(3) Rhodopsin is most sensitive to red light

and least sensitive to green light

(4) The fovea is a thinned – out portion of the

retina where only the cones are densely packed

63. What is the ion responsible for unmasking

of active sites for myosin during muscle

contraction?

(1) Potassium

(2) Sodium

(3) Calcium

(4) Magnesium

64. Which of the following conditions will

stimulate pancreas to release Insulin

hormone?

(1) Rise in blood calcium levels

(2) Rise in blood glucose levels

(3) Fall in blood calcium levels

(4) Fall in blood glucose levels

65. Which of the following is not related to

natural method of contraception?

(1) Coitus interruptus

(2) Lactational amenorrhea

(3) Oral contraceptive pills

(4) Periodic abstinence

66. Which of the following hormone secretion is

reduced due to the damage of adrenal

gland?

(1) Prolactin

(2) Cortisol

(3) Somatotropin

(4) Glucagon

67. Match the following genera with their

reserve phylum

Column – I Column – II

a) Amphioxus i) Aschelminthes

b) Antedon ii) Arthropoda

c) Ancyclostoma iii) Chordata

d) Anopheles iv) Echinodermata

(1) a – iv, b – i, c – iii, d – ii

(2) a – iii, b – iv, c – i, d – ii

(3) a – i, b – iii, c – iv, d – ii

(4) a – ii, b – iv, c – iii, d – i

68. Wild contractions in muscle due to low

calcium ( )Ca++ in body fluid is

(1) Tetany

(2) Myasthenia gravis

(3) Gout

(4) Muscular dystrophy

69. Tendon connects

(1) Bone to bone

(2) Cartilage to bone

(3) Muscle to bone

(4) Muscle to muscle

70. Volume of air remaining in the lungs even

after a forcible expiration is

(1) Inspiratory reserve volume

(2) Residual volume

(3) Vital capacity

(4) Tidal volume


71. Left ventricle must work harder than right

ventricle because

(1) Left atrium is larger than right atrium

(2) Stroke volume of left ventricle is more than

that of the right ventricle

(3) Left ventricle experience greater preload

than right ventricle

(4) To pump blood, left ventricle must

overcome greater resistance

72. Which of the following part of nephron

plays a significant role in the maintenance

of high osmolarity of medullary interstitial

fluid?

(1) Bowman’s capsule

(2) Loop of Henle

(3) Proximal convoluted tubule

(4) Distal convoluted tubule

73. Mark the incorrect statement from the

following

(1) Exhaust from thermal power plants is

filtered by electrostatic precipitator

(2) Sulphur dioxide from the industrial air is

removed by scrubber

(3) The use of incinerators is crucial to

disposal of hospital waste

(4) Catalytic converters are used to burn the

nuclear wastes

74. Name the non biodegradable pollutant that

disturbs the calcium metabolism in birds

when it is concentrated

(1) BHC

(2) CFC

(3) DDT

(4) HFC

75. A man cannot digest carbohydrates in the

absence of

(1) Trypsin

(2) Lipase

(3) Pepsin

(4) Amylase

76. The shared terminal duct of the urinary

system and reproductive system in the

human male is

(1) Ejaculatory duct

(2) Ureter

(3) Urethra

(4) Vas deferens

77. XO type of sex determination is seen in

(1) Pigeon

(2) Grasshopper

(3) Drosophila

(4) Honey bee

78. Biodiversity hot spots represent all of the

following features except

(1) High proportion of land area

(2) High degree of endemism

(3) Accelerated habitat loss

(4) Higher level of species richness

79. Which of the following is an example of ex –

situ conservation?

(1) National park

(2) Wild life sanctuary

(3) Sacred grove

(4) Seed bank


80. According to Hardy Weinberg principle, if

‘p’ and ‘q’ represent the frequency of allele

‘A’ and allele ‘a’ respectively, then what

will be the frequency of ‘aa’ individuals in

the population

(1) p + q

(2) 2pq

(3) 2q

(4) 2 2p 2pq q+ +

81. Which of the following is the correct set of

infectious viral diseases?

(1) Diphtheria, Pneumonia

(2) Common cold, Covid – 19

(3) Ascariasis, Filariasis

(4) Amoebiasis, Trypanosomiasis

82. Identify the A, B and C in the given

diagram

(1) A – Hypothalamus, B – Portal circulation,

C – Anterior pituitary

(2) A – Hypothalamus, B – Portal circulation,

C – Posterior pituitary

(3) A – Thalamus, B – Portal circulation, C –

Posterior pituitary

(4) A – Thalamus, B – Portal circulation, C –

Anterior pituitary

83. Which of the following parts constitute the

vestibular apparatus of human ear?

(1) Ear ossicles and Tympanum

(2) Eustachian tube and cochlea

(3) Oval window and round window

(4) Semi circular canals and otolith

84. Match the following skeletal structure and

its respective bone

a) Lower limb i) Radius

b) Skull ii) Atlas

c) Vertebral column iii) Tibia

d) Upper limb iv) Maxilla

(1) a – iii, b – iv, c – ii, d – i

(2) a – iv, b – i, c – ii, d – iii

(3) a – iv, b – ii, c – iii, d – i

(4) a – i, b – iii, c – ii, d – iv

85. Assisted reproductive technology involved

in conception of test tube baby is

(1) Intrauterine insemination

(2) Gamete intrafallopian transfer

(3) In vitro fertilization

(4) Artificial insemination

86. Which of the following animals are

triploblastic with segmentation?

(1) Flatworms

(2) Roundworms

(3) Acorn worms

(4) Earthworms



incorrect?

(1) Tegmina have sensory receptors that help

in monitoring the environment in cockroach

(2) The sclerites are joined to each other by a

thin and flexible arthroidal membrane in

cockroach

(3) Genital pouch of male cockroach is

bounded dorsally by 9th and 10th terga

(4) Exchange of gases take place at the

tracheoles by diffusion in cockroach

88. A chronic disorder in which alveolar walls

are damaged due to cigarette smoking is

(1) Asthma

(2) Emphysema

(3) Pneumonia

(4) Bronchitis

89. Match the following formed elements of

blood with their functions

Column – I Column - II

a) Monocytes i) Transport of

oxygen

b) Basophils ii) Clotting of blood

c) Platelets iii) Secrete Histamine

d) Erythrocytes iv) Phagocytosis

(1) a – iii, b – iv, c – ii, d – i

(2) a – iii, b – ii, c – iv, d – i

(3) a – i, b – ii, c – iii, d – iv

(4) a – iv, b – iii, c – ii, d – i

90. Protonephridia are the excretory structures

of

(1) Prawn

(2) Earthworm

(3) Planaria

(4) Snail

91. A man can swim directly a stream width

100m in 4 minutes, when there is no current

of water and in 5minutes when there is

current of water. The velocity of current of

water in the stream

(1) 115ms−

(2) 15ms−

(3) 12.5ms−

(4) 10.25ms−

92. A physical parameter a can be determined

by measuring the parameters b, c, d and e

using the relation α β γ δa=b c /d e . If the

maximum errors in the measurement of b,c,

d and e are 1 1 1 1b %,c %,d % ande % , then

the maximum error in the value of ‘a’

determined by the experiment is

(1) 1 1 1 1(b +c +d e )%+

(2) 1 1 1 1(b +c -d -e )%

(3) 1 1 1 1( b + c - d e )%α β γ − δ

(4) 1 1 1 1( b + c + d e )%α β γ + δ

93. A ray of light travels from an optically

denser to a rarer medium. The critical angle

for the two media is C. The maximum

possible deviation of the ray will be

(1) 2

Cπ

−

(2) 2C

(3) 2Cπ−

(4) Cπ−


94. A block of mass m is in contact with the cart

C as shown in the figure

The coefficient of static friction between the

block and the cart is µ . The acceleration

α of the cart that will prevent the block

from falling satisfies

(1) mg

α >µ

(2) g

mα >

µ

(3)

gα ≥

µ

(4) g

α <µ

95. In an n type extrinsic semiconductor

(1) the ratio of free electrons to holes is

greater than 1 and it increases with increase

of temperature

(2) the ratio of free electrons to holes is

greater than 1 and it decreases with increase

of temperature

(3) the ratio of free electrons to holes is less

than 1 and it increases with increase of

temperature

(4) the ratio of free electrons to holes is less

than 1 and it decreases with increase of

temperature

96. As an electron makes a transition from an

exited state to the ground state of hydrogen-

like atom/ion:

(1) Kinetic energy, potential energy and total

energy decrease

(2) Kinetic energy decreases, potential energy

increases and total energy remains same

(3) Kinetic energy and total energy decrease

but potential energy increases

(4) its Kinetic energy increases but potential

energy and total energy decrease

97. A bimetallic strip made of steel and brass

each of thickness 2.8 mm heated through

200°C

( )6 0 6 019 10 / , 12 10 /brass steel

x C x Cα α− −= =

Then

I. It bends with concave side steel rod

II. IT bends with convex side steel rod

III. It radius of curvature 2m on convex

side brass

IV. Expansion of steel is greater than brass

(1) I and III

(2) I and II

(3) III and IV

(4) I,II and IV

98. In a cylindrical vessel if average force

exerted by liquid on walls of vessel is equal

to that exerted on bottom then height (h) of

liquid column related to radius (R) of

vessel as

(1) h = R/2

(2) h = R/3

(3) h = R

(4) h = 1.414 R


99. A uniform wire of mass m, length L, area of

cross-section A and Young’s modulus Y

hangs from the ceiling. Its elongation under

its own weight will be

(1) zero

(2) 2

mgL

AY

(3) mgL

AY

(4) 2mgL

AY

100. In the given figure, 215a ms−= represents

the total acceleration of a particle moving in

the clockwise direction in a circle of radius

R = 2.5 m at a given instant of time. The

speed of the particle is

(1) 14.5ms−

(2) 15.0ms−

(3) 15.7ms−

(4) 16.2ms−

101. Displacement current is continuous

(1) when electric field is changing in the

circuit with time

(2) when magnetic field is changing in the

circuit with time

(3) in both types of fields

(4) through wires and resistance only

102. A straight conductor of mass m and

carrying a current ‘i’ is hinged at one end

‘p’ and placed in a plane perpendicular to

the magnetic field of intensity B as shown

in the figure. At any moment if the

conductor is let free, then the angular

acceleration of the conductor will be

(neglect gravity)

X X X X X X X X

X X X X X X X X

X X X X X X X X

X X X X X X X X

L

B

P

(1) 2

3

iB

m

(2) 3

2

iB

m

(3) 2

iB

m

(4) 3

2

i

mB

103. Three rods of same dimensions have

thermal conductivities 3K, 2K and K. They

are arranged as shown in the figure below.

Then the temperature of the junction in

steady state is

0100 C

050 C

00 C

3K2K

K

T

(1) 0100

3C

(2) 0200

3C

(3) 075 C

(4) 050

3


104. A particle starts SHM at time t = 0. Its

amplitude is A, angular frequency is ω and

total mechanical energy is E. At time t = 0, its

kinetic energy is E/4. If potential energy is

zero at mean position, the displacement time

equation of the particle may be expressed as

(1) sin3

y A tπ

ω = +

(2) π

sin ω6

y A t = +

(3) sin4

y A tπ

ω = +

(4) cos4

y A tπ

ω = +

105. The function y=ASin2w t represents

(1) a periodic, but not SHM with a period

2 / wπ

(2) a periodic, but not SHM with a period

/ wπ

(3) an SHM with period 2 / wπ

(4) an SHM with period / wπ

106. In the circuit fig. A and B represent two

inputs and C represents the output. The

circuit represents

A

B

C

1) OR gate

(2) NOR gate

(3) AND gate

(4) NAND gate

107. The power dissipated in the circuit shown in

the figure is 30 watts. The value of R is

(1) 20 Ω

(2) 15Ω

(3) 10Ω

(4) 30 Ω

108. STATEMENT(A): Electrostatic potential is

constant throughout the volume of the

charged conductor and has the same value

(as inside) on its surface

STATEMENT(B): A cavity inside a

conductor is shielded from outside electrical

influences.





109. Three particles of mass m each are placed

at three corners of an equilateral triangle of

side ‘a’. The work which should be done on

this system to increase the side of the

triangle to ‘2a’ is

(1) 23Gm

a

(2) 23

2

Gm

a

(3) 2

2

Gm

a

(4) 2

2

3

4

Gm

a


110. An electron of mass ‘m’ is moving with an

initial velocity ( )ˆ 0o oV v i v= > is in an

electric field of ( )ˆ constant 0o oE E i E= − = > . Its

de Broglie wavelength at a time ‘t’ is (take

0

0

h

mvλ = )

(1) λ

1

o

o

o

eE t

m v

+

(2) λ 1 oo

o

eE t

m v

+

(3) λo

(4) λot

111. AFraunhoffer diffraction of a single slit is

formed at the focal plane of a lens of focal

length 1m. The width of the slit is 0.3 mm.

If third minimum is observed at a distance

of 5mm from central maximum then

wavelength of light used is

(1) 4000 Å

(2) 4500 Å

(3) 4800 Å

(4) 5000 Å

112. In the circuits shown below, the readings of

the voltmeters and the ammeters will be:

1V 1A

10 V

1i10Ω

10 V

10Ω

2A

2i

2V

Circuit 1 Circuit 2

(1) 1 2V =V and 1 2i i=

(2) 2 1 1 2andV V i i> >

(3) 2 1 1 2andV V i i> =

(4) 1 2 1 2andV V i i= >

113. A body weighs 200 N on the surface of the

earth. How much will it weigh half way

down to the centre of the earth?

(1) 250 N

(2) 100 N

(3) 150 N

(4) 200 N

114. A cylindrical conductor of radius R is

carrying a constant current. The plot of the

magnitude of the magnetic field, B with the

distance, d, from the centre of the

conductor, is correctly represented by the

figure

(1)

B

R d

(2)

B

R d

(3)

B

R d

(4)

B

R d


115. + +H , He and ++O all having same kinetic

energy pass through a region in which a

uniform magnetic field perpendicular to

their velocity, then

a. +H will be deflected most

b. ++O will be deflected most

c. +He and ++O will be deflected equally

d. All will be deflected equally

(1) a, b are true

(2) a, b, c are true

(3) only a is true

(4) a and c are true

116. Which of the following acts as a circuit

protection device?

(1) Switch

(2) Fuse

(3) Conductor

(4) Inductor

117. Two parallel infinite line charges with

linear charge densities /C mλ+ and

/C mλ− are placed at a distance of 2R in

free space. What is the electric field mid-

way between the two line charges?

(1) 0

/N CR

λπ ∈

(2)

0

/2

N CR

λπ ∈

(3) Zero

(4) 0

2/N C

R

λπ ∈

118. A solid cylinder and a solid sphere, having

the same mass, rolls without slipping with

the same linear velocity. If the kinetic

energy of the cylinder is 75 J, that of the

sphere must be

(1) 60 J

(2) 70 J

(3) 80 J

(4) 90 J

119. 222 210

86 84A B→ . In this reaction how many

α and β particles are emitted ?

(1) 6 , 3α β

(2) 3 , 4α β

(3) , 3α β

(4) 3 , 6α β

120. Two identical charged spheres suspended

from a common point by two massless

strings of length l are initially a distance d(d

<< l) apart because of their mutual

repulsion. The charge begins to leak from

both the spheres at a constant rate. As a

result the charges approach each other with

a velocity v. Then, as a function of distance

x between them

(1) 1/2v x−∝

(2) 1v x−∝

(3) 1/2v x∝

(4) v x∝

121. For which colour of light a material has

high refractive index

(1) Voilet

(2) Red

(3) Blue

(4) Yellow


122. When an object is shot from the bottom of a

long smooth inclined plane kept at an angle

060 with horizontal, it can travel a distance

1x along the plane. But when the inclination

is decreased to 030 and the same object is

shot with the same velocity, it can travel 2x

distance. Then 1 2:x x will be

(1) 1: 3

(2) 1: 2 3

(3) 1: 2

(4) 2 :1

123. If the sum of two unit vectors is also a

vector of unit magnitude, the magnitude of

the difference of two unit vectors is

(1) 1 unit

(2) 2 units

(3) 3 units

(4) zero

124. At a point A on the earth’s surface the angle

of dip, 025δ = + . At a point B on the earth’s

surface the angle of dip, 025δ = − . We can

interpret that :

(1) A is located in the northern hemisphere and

B is located in the southern hemisphere

(2) A and B are both located in the southern

hemisphere.

(3) A and B are both located in the northern

hemisphere

(4) A is located in the sourthern hemisphere

and B is located in the northern

hemisphere.

125. A force F= 20x + 10 acts on a particle in x-

direction where F is in newton and x in

meter. Work done by this force to move the

particle from x = 0 to x = 3 m is

(1) 100 J

(2) 120 J

(3) 150 J

(4) 180 J

126. The bob of a pendulum is in the lowest

position and a horizontal velocity of gL ,

where L is the length of the pendulum and

g is acceleration due to gravity is given to

it. Then the bob

(1) just completes a vertical circle

(2) just completes a semi-circle

(3) oscillates about the lowest position as

mean position

(4) oscillates as a conical pendulum

127. A solid cylinder of mass ‘m’ rolls without

slipping down an inclined plane making an

angle θ with the horizontal. The frictional

force between the cylinder and the incline is

(1) sinmg θ

(2) sin

3

mg θ

(3) cosmg θ

(4) 2 sin

3

mg θ


128. The core of a transformer is laminated so

that

(1) Ratio of voltage in the primary and

secondary may be increased.

(2) Rusting of the core may be stopped

(3) Energy losses due to eddy currents may

be reduced

(4) Change in flux is increased

129. Two billiard balls of the same size (radius r)

and same mass are in contact on a billiard

table. A third ball also of the same size and

mass strikes them symmetrically and

remains at rest after the impact. The

coefficient of restitution between the balls is

(1) 1/3

(2) 2/3

(3) 4/3

(4) 1 2

130. Average speed of a particle executing SHM

in one complete vibration is (where A is

amplitude, ω is angular velocity)

(1) 4Aω

(2) zero

(3) 2

Aω

(4) 2Aωπ

131. Pick the wrong answer in the context with

rainbow

(1) An observer can see a rainbow when his

front is towards the sun

(2) Rainbow is a combined effect of dispersion

refraction and reflection of sunlight

(3) When the light rays undergo two internal

reflections in a water drop, a secondary

rainbow is formed

(4) The order of colours is reversed in the

secondary rainbow

132. Two identical glass ( )3 / 2g

µ = equiconvex

lenses of focal length f each are kept in

contact. The space between the two lenses is

filled with water ( )4 / 3wµ = . The focal

length of the combination is

(1) f/3

(2) f

(3) 4f/3

(4) 3f/4

133. The excess pressure inside the first soap

bubble is three times that inside the second

bubble, then the ratio of the volumes of the

first and second bubbles is

(1) 1 : 3

(2) 1 : 9

(3) 1 : 27

(4) 3 : 1

134. In which of the following processes change

in internal energy of the gas is zero

(1) Isobaric

(2) Isochoric

(3) Isothermal

(4) Adiabatic


135. Gas is heated in thermodynamic process

amount of heat supplied to the gases 100 J

increase internal energy of the gases 140 J

then which of the following is correct

(1) Work done by the gases 40 J



(4) Work done on the gases 40 J

136. Which among the following is incorrect

combination ?

(1) XeOF4 ----- sp3d2 in 3rd excited state----

square pyramidal

(2) XeO4 ----- sp3 in 3rd excited state ------

Tetrahedral

(3) XeO2F2 ---- sp3d in 3rd excited state -----

distorted tetrahedral

(4) XeF4 ----- sp3d2 in 2nd excited state ---

square planar

137. The acidic character of dioxide of members

of chalcogen family

1) 2 2 2 2SO SeO TeO PoO> > >

2) 2 2 2 2PoO TeO SeO SO> > >

3) 2 2 2 2TeO PoO SeO SO> > >

4) 2 2 2 2SeO SO TeO PoO> > >

138. Which of the following gives Haloform test?

(1) Acetaldehyde

(2) Formaldehyde

(3) Benzaldehyde

(4) Methyl alcohol

139. Which of the following is incorrect about

calcium ion in human body

(1) Maintains regular heart beat

(2) Maintains cell membrane integrity

(3) Blood coagulation

(4) A cofactor in phosphotransferases

140. Incorrect combination among the following

is:

(1) Comproportionation --------

2 2 22H S SO 3S 2H O+ → +

(2) Intramolecular Redox reaction -----------

3 22KClO 2KCl 3O→ +

(3) Intermolecular Redox reaction---------

OH 1 12Cl Cl ClO

− − −→ +

(4) Neutralisation Reaction ------

2 2 2 3 2 2 2 2H O Na CO Na O H O CO+ → + +

141. Which of the following is not used to

remove permanent hardness

(1) 2 3Na CO

(2) 4 2.NaAlSiO xH O

(3) ( )2

Ca OH

(4) 6 6 18Na PO

142. Ammonia and oxygen react at high

temperature as 3 2 24NH 5O 4NO 6H O+ → + .

The rate of appearance of NO is 3.6 × 10-3

M.sec-1

. Then the rate of formation of

water in 1 1mole.L sec− −

(1) 32.7 x 10−

(2) 33.6 x 10−

(3) 35.4 x 10−

(4) 38.1 x 10−


143. Screening constant value (σ) for the 3s-

electron of Sodium is:

(1) 8.8

(2) 5.75

(3) 3.5

(4) 6.8

144. Cu electrode is dipped in 0.2M of its solution

at 298K. Assuming salt to be 50%

dissociated, reduction potential of electrode

is: [ 2

0

Cu /CuE 0.34V+ =+ ]

(1) +0.301V

(2) + 0.34V

(3) +0.31V

(4) +0.37V

145. Which of the following statements is false ?

(1) 22 7Cr O − has a Cr – O – Cr bond

(2) 24CrO − is tetrahedral in shape

(3) 2 2 7Na Cr O is a primary standard in

volumetric analysis

(4) 2 2 7Na Cr O is less soluble than 2 2 7K Cr O

146. Atomic weights of two elements A and B

are 40 and 80 respectively. If ‘x’ grams of

‘A’ contain ‘p’ atoms, then the number of

atoms present in ‘2x’ grams of ‘B’ is:

(1) 0.5 p

(2) p

(3) 0.25 p

(4) 2p

147. Under which of the following set of

conditions, gases liquefy most easily

(a) Low temperature

(b) High pressure

(c) High temperature

(d) Low molecular velocity

(1) b , c and d

(2) a , c and d

(3) a, b and d

(4) c and d

148. The pKa of weak acid HA is 4.5.The pOH of

an aqueous buffer solution in which acid

and its conjugate base are present in 1 : 1

molar ratio is:

(1) 3.5

(2) 7.0

(3) 9.5

(4) 10.5

149. 90% of 1st order reaction A B→ is

completed in time equals to 99% of another

1st order reaction x y→ . If rate constant

(k) value of x y→ is 0.09 sec-1

, then the rate

constant value of A B→ will be:

(1) 0.27 sec-1

(2) 0.3 sec-1

(3) 0.03 sec-1

(4) 0.045 sec-1


150.

3

2 32PthalicacidNH strongheating

H O NHx y z∆− −→ → →

The structural formulae of ‘y’ and ‘z’ are

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

151. Which among the following cannot act as

Lewis base?

(1) 3NH

(2) 1Cl−

(3) 3BF

(4) 2H O

152. The species by definition has zero standard

molar enthalpy of formation at 298K is

(1) Br2(g)

(2) Cl2(g)

(3) C(diamond)

(4) H2O(l)

153. Density of the following is highest

(1) Diamond

(2) Graphite

(3) Tin

(4) Lead


statement?

(1) Argyrol is used as Eye lotion

(2) Positively charged colloid is formed when

dilute aqueous solution of excess of AgNO3 is

added to KI solution.

(3) Alcohols are converted to gasoline by

using Z.S.M – 5

(4) Starch sol is an example of liquid in solid

type of colloid

155. Set-I (Process related) Set-II (Metal)

i) Mond’s A) Sn

ii) Van arkel B) Ni

iii) Hall-heroult C) Al

iv) Liquation D) Zr

The correct match is

i ii iii iv

(1) A B C D

(2) B D C A

(3) C B A D

(4) A C D A

156. Which of the following has 18 electrons in

anti penultimate shell?

(1) Si

(2) Ge

(3) Sn

(4) Al



statement?

(1) The secondary structure of protein refers to

α -helical backbone.

(2) Vitamin-A is fat soluble

(3) Molisch test is used as an identification test

for proteins

(4) Rapid inter conversion of α-D-glucose and

β-D-glucose in solution is known as muta

rotation

158. Match the following :

a) Pure nitrogen i) Chlorine

b) Haber process ii) Sulphuric acid

3) Contact process iii) Ammonia

4) Deacon’s process iv) Sodium azide (or)

Barium azide

Which of the following is the correct

option?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) iii iv ii i

(2) iv iii ii i

(3) i ii iii iv

(4) ii iv i iii

159. Which of the following types of drugs

reduces fever?

(1) Analgesic

(2) Antipyretic

(3) Antibiotic

(4) Tranquilizer

160. Which of the following is present in highest

amount in the cement

(1) 2 4Ca SiO

(2) 3 5Ca SiO

(3) 2 3Al O

(4) 3 2 6Ca Al O

161. The dipole moment of HBr is

301.6 10−× coulomb.metre and interatomic

spacing is 1A° . The percentage ionic

character of HBr is

(1) 7

(2) 10

(3) 15

(4) 27

162. 3-methyl – 5-oxo hexanal is formed in the

ozonolysis of which of the following

compound ?

(1)

3H C

3H C

(2)

3CH

3CH

(3)

3CH3CH

(4)

3CH

CH3


163. Which of the following is an incorrect set ?

(1) nylon – 6,6 -------------- condensation

copolymer

(2) glyptal ----------------- Condensation co

polymer of ethylene glycol and phthalic acid.

(3) PHBV ----------------- Biodegradable co

polymer

(4) Teflon ------------ Addition co polymer

164. According Valence Bond theory, the bonds

in methane are formed due to the

overlapping

(1) 1 ,3s s s pσ σ− −

(2) 1 ,3s p s sσ σ− −

(3) 2 ,2s s s pσ σ− −

(4) 34sp s

σ−

165. In gaseous state, the correct basic strength

among the following is

(1)

( ) ( )2 5 2 5 2 5 2 33 2C H N C H NH C H NH NH> > >

(2)

( )2 5 2 2 5 2 5 2 33( )C H NH C H N C H NH NH> > >

(3)

( ) ( )2 5 2 5 2 3 2 52 3C H NH C H NH NH C H N> > >

(4)

( ) ( )2 5 3 2 5 2 2 53 2C H N NH C H NH C H NH> > >

166. I… ( )

3

3 6Co NH

+ , II….. ( )

3

6Co CN

− ,

III….. ( )3

2 6Co NO

− correct decreasing

order of wavelength of light absorbed is

(1) II > I > III

(2) III > I > II

(3) I > III > II

(4) III > II > I

167. The sink for Carbon dioxide is:

(1) Atmosphere

(2) NaCl

(3) Plants

(4) Micro organisms of the soil

168. Structure of mixed oxide is cubic close

packed (ccp). The cubic unit cell of mixed

oxide is composed of oxide ions. One fourth

of the tetrahedral voids are occupied by

divalent metal A and all the octahedral

voids are occupied by a monovalent metal

B. The formula of the oxide is

(1) 2ABO

(2) 2 2A BO

(3) 2 2 2A B O

(4) 2 2AB O


169. Molality of an aqueous solution that

produces an elevation in boiling point of

1.00K at 1 atm pressure. (Kb for water =

0.512K. Kg. mol-1

)

(1) 0.512 m

(2) 0.195 m

(3) 1.95 m

(4) 5.12 m

170. Among the following compounds I, II, III

which is more acidic

H H

I IIIII

O O

H H H H

S S

(1) II

(2) I

(3) III

(4) Both I and II are equally acidic

171. Which among the following is larger in size?

(1) 3Al+

(2) 3N−

(3)

2Mg+

(4) 1F−


combination?

(1) Non ideal solution with positive deviation -

------ mixture mixtureV ve & H ve∆ =+ ∆ =+

(2) Ideal solutions --------------------

mixture mixture mixtureV 0, H 0 & G ve∆ = ∆ = ∆ =−

(3) Non ideal solutions with negative

deviation----------- will form minimum boiling

azeotropes

(4) Order of osmotic pressure-------

20.1MCaCl (aq) 0.1MKCl(aq) 0.1MGlu cos e(aq)> >

173. The G∆ in the process of melting of ice at -

15oC is

(1) G ve∆ = −

(2) G ve∆ = +

(3) G 0∆ =

(4) All of these

174. Nitronium ion is formed as follows:

3 2 42HNO H SO+3 2 42H O NO HSO+ + −+ +

In this reaction nitric acid acts as

(1) An acid

(2) A base

(3) An oxidizing agent

(4) A reducing agent


175. Which of the following quantum number

cannot be deduced from schrodinger wave

equation?

(1) Principal quantum number

(2) Azimuthal quantum number

(3) Magnetic quantum number

(4) spin quantum number

176. In the reaction 5 4 62PCl PCl PCl+ −→ +←

the change in hybridization is from

(1) 3 3 3 2sp d to sp and sp d

(2) 3 2 3sp d to sp and sp

(3) 3 3 2 3 3sp d to sp d and sp d

(4) 3 2 3 3sp d to sp and sp d

177. Two gases P and Q both decolourise aq.

Solution of bromine but only one of them

gives white ppt. with Tollen’s reagent. Then

P and Q are likely to be

(1) 2 2CH CH= , 3 3CH C C CH− ≡ −

(2) CH CH≡ , 3 2CH CH C CH− − ≡

(3) CH CH≡ , 3CH C CH− ≡

(4) 3 2CH CH C CH− − ≡ , 3 3CH C C CH− ≡ −

178. Toluene when heated with Alkaline KMnO4

followed by acidification gives ‘A’. A on

decarboxylation gives B. B in presence of

CO + HCl/CuCl gives C. The reaction

B C→ is

(1) Gattermann-Koch reaction

(2) Stephen’s reaction

(3) Fittig reaction

(4) Etard reaction

179. The standard EMF of Daniel cell is 1.1

V. Then standard Gibbs free energy

for the cell reaction

( ) ( ) ( ) ( )2 2

s aq aq sZn Cu Zn Cu+ ++ → +

is

(1) – 212.30 kJ/mole

(2) – 21.23 kJ/mole

(3) – 106.15 kJ/mole

(4) – 10.615 kJ/mole

180. 13.4 g of a sample of unstable hydrate salt:

2 4 2Na SO .nH O was found to contain 6.3 g of

water . Determine the number of moles of

water of crystallization in one mole of

hydrated salt.

(1) 6

(2) 5

(3) 7

(4) 8

Sri Chaitanya Page 1

Hyderabad

SRI CHAITANYA EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS, INDIA. AP TELANGANA KARNATAKA TAMILNADU MAHARASHTRA DELHI RANCHI

SR.ELITE (Out going) NEET GRAND TEST-20 DATE: 31.08.2020

BOTANY:

1) 1 2) 2 3) 4 4) 3 5) 2 6) 4 7) 3 8) 2 9) 3 10) 3

11) 3 12) 3 13) 4 14) 3 15) 2 16) 2 17) 2 18) 2 19) 3 20) 3

21) 3 22) 4 23) 2 24) 3 25) 3 26) 3 27) 3 28) 3 29) 2 30) 1

31) 4 32) 3 33) 4 34) 2 35) 3 36) 1 37) 1 38) 3 39) 2 40) 1

41) 3 42) 3 43) 1 44) 4 45) 2

ZOOLOGY:

46) 4 47) 1 48) 3 49) 4 50) 2 51) 2 52) 4 53) 4 54) 4 55) 1

56) 4 57) 4 58) 3 59) 4 60) 3 61) 3 62) 3 63) 3 64) 2 65) 3

66) 2 67) 2 68) 1 69) 3 70) 2 71) 4 72) 2 73) 4 74) 3 75) 4

76) 3 77) 2 78) 1 79) 4 80) 3 81) 2 82) 2 83) 4 84) 1 85) 3

86) 4 87) 1 88) 2 89) 4 90) 3

PHYSICS:

91) 4 92) 4 93) 3 94) 3 95) 2 96) 4 97) 1 98) 3 99) 2 100) 3

101) 1 102) 2 103) 2 104) 1 105) 4 106) 1 107) 3 108) 3 109) 2 110) 1

111) 4 112) 1 113) 2 114) 1 115) 4 116) 2 117) 1 118) 2 119) 2 120) 1

121) 1 122) 1 123) 3 124) 1 125) 2 126) 3 127) 2 128) 3 129) 2 130) 4

131) 1 132) 4 133) 3 134) 3 135) 4

CHEMISTRY:

136) 2 137) 1 138) 1 139) 4 140) 3 141) 3 142) 3 143) 1 144) 3 145) 3

146) 2 147) 3 148) 3 149) 4 150) 3 151) 3 152) 2 153) 4 154) 4 155) 2

156) 3 157) 3 158) 2 159) 2 160) 2 161) 2 162) 3 163) 4 164) 1 165) 1

166) 3 167) 3 168) 4 169) 3 170) 2 171) 2 172) 3 173) 2 174) 2 175) 4

176) 1 177) 4 178) 1 179) 1 180) 3


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BOTANY_HINTS:

1. (1) Beijernickia, Azotobacter (aerobic) Rhodospirillium (Anaerobic) and bacillus (free-living), are non

symbiotic nitrogen fixers

2. (2) Even though heterospory is observed in some pteridophyttes like selaginella but for the first time

megasporangium with integument (or) seed habit is observed in gymnosperms

3. (4) Veins are vascular bundles

4. (3) Hilum is an elliptical scar on the seed which more the point of attachment of the funicle. Raphe is

the fusion area of funicle with integument in anatropous ovule. Tegmen is inner seed coat

5. (2) Both the words in a biological name, when hand written are separately underlined (or) printed in

italics to indicate their latin origin

6. (4) Flaccidity of dumbbell shaped guard cells cause stomatal closure. Flaccidity in bulliform cells cause

rolling in of grass leaves

7. (3) The fifth codon is a non sense codon so polypeptide would possess 4 amino acids

8. (2) Centromere is present in all chromosomes as spindle fibers bind to them. They bend at the time of

cell division (Anaphase) unlike secondary constriction

9. (3) Mitochondria has 70S ribosomes, RNA – circular DNA that help in protein synthesis but lacz

photosynthesis machinery (chloroplast – Both sugar & Protein synthesis)

10. (3) Bioreactors – large scale microbe cultivation sludge digester – removal of flocs anaerobic

fermentors – whisky, brandy, rum

11. (3) Stigma receives pollen from stamens

12. (3)

13. (4) Virus possess more of proteins than nucleic acids

14. (3) DNA replication occur in S phase. Centriole movement towards poles prophase. Division of

centromere Anaphase.

15. (2) Left out nucellus is called perisperm. Endosperm is product of triple fusion (secondary nucleus +

sperm)

16. (2) Mitochondria and chloroplast = 70S

17. (2) Haem is the prosthetic group of peroxidases and catalases which catalyse breakdown of 2 2H O

18. (2) Enzymes are present on outer membrane, inner membrane and matrix

19. (3) Inulin is a polysaccharide with fructose monomers

20. (3) Gel electrophoresis help in DNA fragment separation

21. (3) Lactose regulate switching off and on of lac operon

22. (4) One amino acid can be coded by many codons

23. (2) Margins do not overlap in valvate aestivation only

24. (3) Replicated DNA is distributed to daughter cells during cell division

25. (3)

26. (3): (1) – Antibiotic production; (2) – Biocontrol agents

(3) – Biofertilizers; (4) – Biochemical compounds

27. (3) Formation of seed without fertilization is called parthenogenesis

28. (3) Embryosac is produced before fertilization

29. (2) Purines (A and G) are common for both DNA and RNA

30. (1) Phytophthora cause Irish famine

31. (4) NCERT

32. (3) Albuminous cells are present in gymnosperms

33. (4)

34. (2)

35. (3) Primary lateral meristem (fascicular cambium) and secondary lateral meristem (interfascicular

cambium) together form cambial ring

36. (1) Based on NCERT

37. (1) Cycas coralloid roots can fix atmospheric nitrogen due to Anabaena

38. (3) Pusa Gaurav is the brassica variety resistant to aphids. Pusa Swarnim is resistant to white rust

pathogen albugo

39. (2) Reduction of 1 CO2 need 3 ATP and 22 NADPH


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41. (3) Infectious part of virus is nucleic acid

42. (3) The enzyme binds to DNA at specific sites and cuts on both the strands


44. (4) Solanaceae and Convolvulaceae is under order olymoniales

45. (2) Archegonium is observed first time in bryophytes

46. (4) Based on matching options

47. (1) Spermatogonia primary spermatocyte secondary spermatocyte spermatid

spermatozoa

48. (3) Colour blindness is sex (X)-linked recessive trait

49. (4) Extinction of Stellar’s sea cow and Passenger pigeon is due to over exploitation

50. (2) Earthworms break the detritus into small particles by fragmentation

51. (2) Competition is best defined as the process in which the fitness of one species is significantly lower

in the presence of another species

52. (4) hCG is produced only during pregnancy

53. (4) Cuscuta and Hedge plants are examples of parasitism

54. (4) Out crossing often helps to remove inbreeding depression

55. (1) First clinical gene therapy was given to ADA deficiency

56. (4) Logistic equation of population was first given by Pierre Verhulst

57. (4) Australopithecus was hunted with stone weapons and ate only fruits

58. (3) Interferons are cytokine barriers of innate immunity

59. (4) Wings of butterfly and of birds are analogous organs that have evolved due to convergent evolution

60. (3) Vasopressin acts mainly at the kidney and stimulates absorption of water by the distal tubules

61. (3) Cocaine is a stimulant drug

62. (3) Rhodopsin is most sensitive to green light and least sensitive to red light

63. (3) Binding of calcium with a subunit of troponin on actin filaments, unmask active sites for myosin

64. (2) Rise in blood glucose levels can stimulate the release of insulin

65. (3) Oral contraceptive pills come under hormonal method

66. (2) Cortisol is secreted by adrenal cortex


68. (1) Wild contractions in muscle due to low calcium Ca in body fluid is called Tetany


70. (2) Volume of air remaining in the lungs even after a forcible expiration is residual volume

71. (4) Left ventricle must work harder than right ventricle because, to pump blood left ventricle must

overcome greater resistance

72. (2) Loop of Henle plays a significant role in the maintenance of high osmolarity of medullary

interstitial fluid

73. (4) Catalytic converters are used to filter automobile exhaust

74. (3) Biomagnification of DDT disturbs the calcium metabolism in birds

75. (4) Amylase is involved in carbohydrate digestion

76. (3) Urethra is the common passage for semen and urine hence it is called urinogenital canal

77. (2) Grasshopper is an example of XO type of sex determination

78. (1) Biodiversity hotspots put together cover less than 2% of earth’s land area

79. (4) Seed banks are under ex – situ conservation

80. (3) Frequency of recessive genotype is 2q

81. (2) Common cold and Covid – 19 are infectious viral diseases

82. (2) A – Hypothalamus, B – Portal circulation, C – Posterior pituitary

83. (4) Semicircular canals and otolith constitute vestibular apparatus


85. (3) In vitro fertilization is the important step in test tube baby programme

86. (4) Earthworms are segmented, triploblastic animal

87. (1) Antennae have sensory receptors that help in monitoring the environment in cockroach

88. (2) A chronic disorder in which alveolar walls are damaged due to cigarette smoking is Emphysema



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90. (3) Protonephriida are the excretory organs of Planaria.

91. (4)

100 25S m/s

4 60 60

;

2

1005 60

625V P

3600

; 2

19

625V P

3600

; 400

29(625 3600VP ) 3600

2625 400 3600V P

2225

VP3600

; 15

VP 0.25 m/s60

92. (4)

α β

γ δ

b ca=

d e, so maximum error in a is given by

max

a Δb Δc Δd Δe= 100 100 100 100 100

a b c d e

= 1 1 1 1b c d e %

93. (3) When a light travels from denser to rarer medium maximum possible deviation is 180 – 2c

94. (3) f > mg; N = ma; μma mg g

αμ

95. (2)

ne

1nh

as temperature ratio decreases

96. (4) 2

2

13.6zK.E

n ;

2

2

27.2zP.E as n K.E T.ESP.E

n

;

2

2

13.6zT.E

n

97. (1) 3

6

2.8 10R 200

7 10

= 2m

98. (3) tdF ρ g y 2π r dy ; tdF ρgy2πrdy

h2

t0

ρs 2πr yF ρg 2π r y dy

2

;

2 2

t

ρs 2πrF h ρg h πr h r

2

99. (2)

mgLe

2Ay

100. (3)

20 V

a cos30R

;7.5

2 0 3V Ra cos30 2.5 15×

2 ; V 32.4 ; V 5.7 m/s

101. (1) Due to electric field charging

102. (2)

x

dF

df = B I dx; dτ = (B I dx)x

2

0 2

l

B I xB I

dxl

;

I ;

2 2 3

3 2 2

ml BIl BI

m

103. (2)

Q KAΔθ

t l ; 3K[100 θ] 2K[θ 50] K[θ 0] ; 300 3θ 2θ 100 θ ; 400 6θ ;

0200θ C

3

104. (1)

1 2 2 21E mu (A n )

2 ;

2 22 2 21 mu A 1

mu (A n )2 4 2

; 2 2 2A 4A 4x ;

2 24x 3a


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3

x A2

; π

y A sin ut3

105. (4 y = A sin2wt; 1 cos2

2

wty A

cos2

2 2

A Ay wt

106. (1) OR gate

107. (3) 10

P Vi i 5 R5R

; 10 10 [5 R]

P5R

;

20

100[5 R]3P

5R

; 3R 10 2R ; R 10R

108. (3)

109. (2)

2

1

GmU 3

a

;

2

2

GmU 3

2a

2 2

2 1

3Gm 3GmW U U

2a a

=

23Gm

a

110. (1) Electron experiences force opposite direction of electric field

o

hλ

eEm V t

m

111.(4) asin 3 ; = very small; a tan 3 ;

a y3f

f

6oa y 0.3 5 10

λ 5000Af 3 1 3

112. (1) Voltmeter and ammeter are ideal then 1 2V V ; 1 2i i

Voltmeter offers infinite resistance

Ammeter offer zero resistance

113. (2) W mgd = mg 1 d R = 1

200 100 N2

114. (1) insideB r ; out

1B

r ; o

inside 2

μ irB

2πR

115. (4) Conceptual

116. (2) Conceptual

117. (1) o

λE

2πε r

1 2

o

λE E

2πε R

118. (2)

2 2 21

K.E mV 1 K R2

for cylinder -

2

2

K 1

2R

2

75 1 1 2

1 2 5K

for sphere -

2

2

K 2

5R


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2

75 35

2 7K

; 2

74 14K 70 J

15

119. (2)

α222 4 210x

α12 4 x x = number of α particles

α 3x y = number of β particles

86 3 2 1 84y ; 4y

120. (1)

θqE

mgx

θ

Tcosθ mg ;

2

2o

1 qTsinθ

4πε x

From 2 1

2

2

qtanθ

x ;

2

2

qx

x ;

2 3q x

2 3qx ;

1 3dq

dt

x ; 1 3v q ;

1 2v x

121. (1) 1

122. (1) 1 22 g sin60 2g sin30x x ; 1

2

12 1: 3

2 3

x

x

123. (3) θ

1 2 1cos2

; θ 120

θ

R 2 1sin2

; 3

2 3 units2

124. (1) Conceptual

125. (2) dw F.dr ; 3

w 20 10 d

o

x x ;

2

20 10 10 9 302

xx = 120 J

126. (3) V 2gL θ 90

127. (2) Rf Iα ;

2

2 2 2

K mgsinθf

R 1 K R

=

1 mgsin θ

2 1 1 2

=

mgsin θ

3

128. (3) Conceptual

129. (2)


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θ

1

sin θ2

mU 2mVcosθ

θ 30 U

V2cosθ

; 2 1

1 2

V V U 1 4 2e

U U 2cosθ Ucosθ 2 3 3

130. (4)totaldistance 4A 4A ω

Averagespeedtotal time T 2π

=

2Aω

π

131. (1) Conceptual

132. (4)

; R

f R2 0.5

; l1

1 2μ 1

Rf

1 R 3R 3f

f4 2 2

2 53

; 1

1 2 2

f 3ff =

6 2 4

3f 3f

=

1 3ff

4

133. (3) 1 2

2 1

1 P rP

r P rµ Þ = and

3

1 1

2 2

V r

V r

æ ö÷ç ÷= ç ÷ç ÷çè ø

;

1 2

2 1

r P 1

r P 3= =

;

3

1

2

V 1 1

V 3 27

134. (3) Conceptual

135. (4) dθ du dw ; 100 140 dω ; dw = - 40 J

Work done on the gas is 40 J

136. (2) In 4XeO , central Xe atoms undergoes 3sp hybridization in 4th excited state and has tetrahedral

shape

137. (1) As EN decreases on central atom, acidic nature decreases

138. (1) Compounds containing 3CH COor which on oxidation will give 3CH CO

group will give

Haloform with halogen and alkali.

139. (4) ‘Mg’ is a cofactor in phosphotransferases

140. (3) OH 1 1

2Cl Cl ClO

it is an example for disproportionation reaction.

141. (3) 2

Ca OH removes temporary hardness of water

142. (3) As per the reaction given 3 2 24NH 5O 4NO 6H O+ ® +

3 2 2d[NH ]1 1 d[O ] 1 d[NO] 1 dH O]

. . . .4 dt 5 dt 4 dt 6 dt

- = - - = + = +

26 d[NO] dH O]

. ;4 dt dt

= 3 32

dH O] 63.6 10 5.4 10

dt 4

- -= ´ ´ = ´

143. (1) σ of sodium = (8 × 0.85) + 2×1 = 8.8

144. (3) 2Cu 2e Cu(s)+ -+ ¾¾®

On applying Nernst equation,


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0 10.0591E E log(10 ) 0.34 0.02955 0.31V

2

-= + = + - = +

145. (3) The weight of 2 2 7Na Cr O cannot be accurately measured.

146. (2) As the atomic weight of ‘B’ is double to that of ‘A’, 2x grams of ‘B’ and ‘x’ grams of ‘A’ contain

same number of atoms.

147. (3) Favourable conditions for liquefaction of gases are high pressure, low temperature and low

molecular velocities.

148. (3) [A ]

pH pKa log[HA]

-

= + ; 1As[A ] [HA];pH pKa 4.5- = = = s

pOH 14 pH 14 4.5 9.5= - = - =

149. (4)

90% 99%

50% 50%

1

t (A B) t (x y)

3.3 t (A B) 6.6 t (x y)

0.693 0.6933.3 (A B) 6.6 (x y)

k k

1 1(A B) 2 (x y)

k 0.09

0.09k(A B) 0.045sec

2

-

¾ ¾® = ¾ ¾®

´ ¾ ¾® = ´ ¾ ¾®

´ ¾ ¾® = ´ ¾ ¾®

¾ ¾® = ´ ¾ ¾®

¾ ¾® = =

150. (3)

NH3 4COONH

4COONH 2H O2

COOH

COOH2CO NH

Phthalamide

2CO NH

CO

CO 3NH NH

151. (3)

3BF is an electron deficient species, hence it cannot act as Lewis base

152. (2) Enthalpies of all the elements in their standard state is arbitrarily taken as zero.

Standard state for bromine is liquid and that of carbon is graphite.

153. (4) Density of Diamond : 13.51gr.cc

Density of graphite : 12.22gr.cc

Density of Sn : 17.26gr.cc

Density of Pb : 111.34gr.cc

154. (4) Starch sol is an example of solid in liquid type of colloid

155. (2) Conceptual

156. (3) 50Sn - 2 2 6 2 6 10 2 6 10 2 2

18electrons

1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 3d 4s 4p 4d 5s 5p

157. (3) Molisch test is used as an identification test for carbohydrates

158. (2) Fact

159. (2) Antipyretics are class of compounds used to decrease body temperature in fever.

160. (2) 3 5Ca SiO is 51 %; 2 4Ca SiO is 26 %; 3 2 6Ca Al O is 11 %

161. (2) Dipole moment of =301.6 10

Interatomic spacing = 101 1 10A m

% Ionic character =

30observed

19 10experimental

1.6 10100 100 10%

1.6 10 10

162. (3)


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O 2 2 3CH CH CH CH C CH

1 2 3 4 5 6

3CH3CHO

O

3CH O

163. (4) Teflon is an addition homopolymer

164. (1) In methane ‘C’ has the electronic configuration 2 1 1 1 1

x y z1s 2s 2p 2p 2p . With hydrogen it can form one

s – s bond and 3 s – p bonds

165. (1) Conceptual

166. (3) Stronger is the ligand, the higher iso

and lower is

absorbed.

167. (3) Plants are sink for carbon dioxide

168. (4) Number of atoms in ccp = 4 = O2-

Number of tetrahedral voids = 2 x N = 2 x 4

Number of A2+ ions = 8 x 1

4 = 2

Number of octahedral voids = Number of B+ ions = N = 4

Ratio, O2- : A2+ : B+ = 4 : 2 = 4 = 2 : 1 : 2

Formula of oxide = 2 2AB O

169. (3) b f

1T k m m 1.92m

0.52D = ´ Þ = =

170. (2) After losing electrons, the structure I attains aromaticity

171. (2) Among iso electronic ions, the ion with greater nuclear charge is larger in size.

172. (3) Non ideal solutions with negative deviation will have vapour pressure less than that of Raoult’s

vapour pressure, hence it boils at a temperature higher than that of constituent liquids. Therefore

mixtures formed are called maximum boiling azeotropes.

173. (2) At -15oC ice does not melt, hence it is non spontaneous process ( G ve )

174. (2) As sulphuiric acid is stronger acid than nitric acid, nitric acid acts as base.

175. (4) spin quantum cannot be derived from schrodinger wave equation.

176. (1) Hybridisation in gaseous

35PCl sp d

Hybridisation in + 34PCl sp

Hybridisation in 3 2

6PCl sp d

177. (4) 2 2CH CH C CH has acidic hydrogen hence can be replaced by Ag in Tollen’s reagent and

due to unsaturation it can decolourise 2 4Br CCl

178. (1)

3CH

KMnO OH4

COOH

NaOH CaO

Co HCl

CuCl

CHO

A B C

B C is Gattermann – Koch reaction

179. (1) 0 0G nFE= -V = 2x1.1x96500- = -21230J/mole= -212.30 kJ/mole

180. (3)

Weight of hydrated salt 2 4 2Na SO .nH O = 13.4g

Weight of water = 6.3g

Weight of anhydrous salt 2 4Na SO = 13.4 -6.3 =7.1g

Molar mass of anhydrous salt = 142g


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When 7.1 g of anhydrous salt interacts with 6.3g of water, then 142g of salt interacts with 146g of

water 142 6.3

1467.1

g

No of moles of water = 146

718

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