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SOLUTIONS WITH ANSWER KEY AITS-FT # 01 [SET-A] DROPPER MEDICAL (PHYSCIS, CHEMISTRY) TARGET : NEET 2018-19 Exam. Date : 10-03-2019 AITS-FT # 01 (Medical Dropper) (Solutions SET-A) - 2018-19

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Page 1: SOLUTIONSA heavy spherical ball is constrained in a frame as shown in figure. The inclined surface is smooth. The maximum acceleration with which the frame can move without causing

SOL UTI ON S

WITH

ANSWER KEY

AITS-FT # 01 [SET-A]

DROPPER MEDICAL

(PHYSCIS, CHEMISTRY)

TARGET : NEET 2018-19

Exam. Date : 10-03-2019

AITS-FT # 01 (Medical Dropper) (Solutions SET-A) - 2018-19

Page 2: SOLUTIONSA heavy spherical ball is constrained in a frame as shown in figure. The inclined surface is smooth. The maximum acceleration with which the frame can move without causing

AITS-FT # 01 (Medical Dropper) (Solutions SET-A) - 2018-19

Potential & Concept Educations Page. 2

ANSWER KEYS FOR AITS-FT # 01 [SET # A] (TARGET – NEET-2019)DATE : 10-03-2019

ANSWERS [PHYSICS]

1. D 2. C 3. C 4. C 5. C 6. B 7. A 8. A 9. A 10. B11. C 12. D 13. C 14. C 15. B 16. A 17. D 18. A 19. B 20. D21. C 22. A 23. A 24. B 25. A 26. A 27. A 28. B 29. C 30. B31. A 32. C 33. C 34. D 35. D 36. D 37. A 38. B 39. C 40. C41. B 42. B 43. A 44. B 45. B

ANSWERS [CHEMISTRY]

46. B 47. C 48. D 49. A 50. D 51. A 52. B 53. D 54. C 55. A56. D 57. B 58. B 59. B 60. C 61. A 62. A 63. D 64. C 65. D66. B 67. A 68. D 69. B 70. A 71. B 72. D 73. D 74. C 75. A76. D 77. B 78. A 79. C 80. C 81. B 82. B 83. D 84. C 85. A86. A 87. C 88. A 89. C 90. C

ANSWERS [BOTANY]

91. A 92. C 93. B 94. D 95. B 96. B 97. A 98. C 99. C 100. D101. C 102. C 103. B 104. A 105. B 106. A 107. B 108. B 109. C 110. A111. A 112. A 113. D 114. C 115. C 116. D 117. C 118. D 119. B 120. C121. Bonus122. B 123. D 124. B 125. B 126. C 127. A 128. D 129. A 130. B131. B 132. A 133. C 134. C 135. Bonus

ANSWERS [ZOOLOGY]

136. A 137. B 138. C 139. A 140. C 141. B 142. D 143. C 144. C 145. D146. A 147. C 148. B 149. B 150. B 151. B 152. C 153. C 154. D 155. A156. A 157. A 158. D 159. B 160. B 161. A 162. C 163. C 164. B 165. D166. C 167. B 168. A 169. C 170. C 171. D 172. C 173. A 174. A 175. C176. A 177. B 178. A 179. B 180. C

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AITS-FT # 01 (Medical Dropper) (Solutions SET-A) - 2018-19

Potential & Concept Educations Page. 3

PHYSICS AITS-FT-01Medical

Dropper Batch

1. Two forces P and Q are in ratio P : Q = 1 : 2. If their resultant is at an angle 1 3tan2

to vector P, then

angle between P and Q is

(A) 1 1tan2

(B) 45o (C) 30o (D) 60o

Solution :

Hence the answer is (D).

2. Consider the following equation of Bernoulli's theorem : 21P v gh2

= K(constant). The dimension

of KP

are same as which of the following

(A) Thrust (B) Pressure (C) Angle (D) Viscosity

Solution :Hence the answer is (C).

3. A particle moves in xy plane with a velocity given by ˆ ˆv (8t 2)i 2j. If it passes through the point (14,4) at t = 2s, then give equation of the path(A) x – y – y2 = 2 (B) x + y + y2 = 2 (C) x + y – y2 = 2 (D) x – y + y2 = 2

Solution :

Hence the answer is (C).

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AITS-FT # 01 (Medical Dropper) (Solutions SET-A) - 2018-19

Potential & Concept Educations Page. 4

4. A heavy spherical ball is constrained in a frame as shown in figure. The inclined surface is smooth. Themaximum acceleration with which the frame can move without causing the ball to leave the frame :

(A) g2

(B) 3g (C) g3 (D)

g2

Solution :

Hence the answer is (C).5. A small particle of mass m attached with a light inextensible thread of length is moving in a vertical circle

of radius . If the particle is moving in complete verticle circle and the ratio of its maximum to minimumvelocity is 2 : 1, then the minimum velocity of the particle is

(A) g3

(B) 2g3

(C) 4g3

(D) g

Solution :

Hence the answer is (C).6. Which of the following is incorrect.

(A) If centre of mass of three particles is at rest, and it is known that two of them are moving alongdifferent lines then the third particle must also be moving.(B) If centre of mass remains at rest, then net work done by the forces acting on the system mustbe zero.(C) If centre of mass remains at rest then net external force must be zero.(D) None of these statement is incorrect

Solution :Hence the answer is (B).

7. The plane of the dip circle is set in the geographic meridian and the apparent dip is 1. It is then set in avertical plane perpendicular to geographic meridian. The apparent dip is 2. The declination at the placeis :-(A) = tan–1 (tan1/tan2) (B) = tan–1 (tan1.tan2)

(C) = tan–1 (tan2/tan1) (D) 11 2tan tan . tan

Solution :Hence the answer is (A).

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8. Between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor of capacity C, two parallel plates, of the same materialand area same as the plate of the original capacitor, are placed. If the thickness of these plates is equal to15

th of the distance between the plates of the original capacitor, then the capacity of the new capacitor

is:-

(A) 5 C3

(B) 3 C5

(C) 3 C

10(D)

10 C3

Solution :

Hence the answer is (A).9. A spherical drop of capacitance 1 F is broken into eight drops of equal radius. Capacitance of each small

drop is :-

(A) 1 F2 (B)

1 F4 (C)

1 F8 (D)

1 F16

Solution :

Hence the answer is (A).

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10. Two identical thin rings, each of radius R metre, are coaxially placed at a distance R metre apart. If Q1and Q2 charges are respectively the charges uniformly spread on the two rings, the work done in movinga charge q from the centre of one ring to that of the other is :-

(A) zero (B) (C) (D)

Solution :

Hence the answer is (B).11. An electron starting from rest near one of the plates of a paralled plate capacitor at separation 'd' reaches

the other plate in time t. If e is the charge on the electron and m is its mass, then the surface chargedensity on the plates is :-

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Solution :Hence the answer is (C).

12. Two conducting circular loops of radii R1 and R2 are placed in the same plane with their centres coinciding.If R1 >> R2, the mutual inductance M between them will be directly proportional to :-(A) R1/ R2 (B) R2 /R1 (C) 2

1 2R / R (D) 22 1R / R

Solution :Hence the answer is (D).

13. In a series resonant R-L-C circuit, if L is increased by 25% and C is decreased by 20%, then the resonantfrequency will :(A) Increases by 10% (B) Decreases by 10%(C) Remain unchanged (D) Increases by 2.5%

Solution :Hence the answer is (C).

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14. In given LCR circuit, the voltage across the terminals of a resistance & current will be -

(A) 400V, 2A (B) 800V, 2A (C) 100V, 2A (D) 100V, 4A

Solution :Hence the answer is (C).

15. The wave function (in S.I.units) for an electromagnetic wave is given as -(x, t) = 103 sin (3×106 x – 9×1014 t) The speed of the wave is -(A) 9 × 1014 m/s (B) 3 × 108 m/s (C) 3 × 106 m/s (D) 3 × 107 m/s

Solution :Hence the answer is (B).

16. A uniform rod of mass M and length L lies radially on a disc rotating with angular speed in a horizontalplane about its axis. The rod does not slip on the disc and the centre of the rod is at a distance R from thecentre of the disc. Then the kinetic energy of the rod is-

(A) (B) (C) (D) None of these

Solution :Hence the answer is (A).

17. Two bodies of masses m and M are placed at distance d apart. The gravitational potential (V) at theposition where the gravitational field due to them is zero V is :–

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Solution :Hence the answer is (D).

18. A liquid drop of diameter D breaks into 27 tiny drops. The resultant change in energy is(A) 2 TD2 (B) 4 TD2 (C) TD2 (D) None of these

Solution :Hence the answer is (A).

19. Maximum density of H2O is at the temperature(A) 32°F (B) 39.2°F (C) 42°F (D) 4°F

Solution :Hence the answer is (B).

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20. A monoatomic ideal gas, initially at temperature T1, is enclosed in a cylinder fitted with a frictionlesspiston. The gas is allowed to expand adiabatically to a temperature T2 by releasing the piston suddenly. IfL1 and L2 are the lengths of the gas column before and after expansion respectively, then T1/T2 is givenby

(A) 2 / 3

1

2

LL

(B) 1

2

LL (C) 2

1

LL (D)

2 / 3

2

1

LL

Solution :Hence the answer is (D).

21. A particle executes SHM with time period T and amplitude A. The maximum possible average velocity intime T/4 is :-

(A) 4AT

(B) 2AT

(C) 4 2A

T(D)

8AT

Solution :

Hence the answer is (C).22. A spring mass system oscillates with a frequency n. if it is taken in an elevator slowly accelerating

upwards the frequency will :-(A) remains same (B) increase (C) decrease (D) become zero

Solution :

Hence the answer is (A).23. A tuning fork and a sonometer wire sounded together and produce 4 beats per second. When the length

of sonometer wire is 95 cm or 100 cm, the frequency of the tunning fork is :-(A) 156 Hz (B) 152 Hz (C) 148 Hz (D) 160 Hz

Solution :

Hence the answer is (A).

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24. Two beams, A and B, of plane polarized light with mutually perpendicular planes of polarization are seenthrough a polaroid. From the position when the beam A has maximum intensity (and beam B has zerointensity), a rotation of polaroid through 30º makes the two beams appear equally bright. If the initial

intensitites of the two beams are IA and IB respectively, then A

B

II equals :

(A) 1 (B) 13

(C) 3 (D) 32

Solution :Hence the answer is (B).

25. In Young's double slit experiment, one of the slit is wider than other, so that the amplitude of the light fromone slit is double of that from other slit. If Im be the maximum intensity, the resultant intensity I when theyinterfere at phase difference is given by :

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Solution :

Hence the answer is (A).26. In a photoelectric cell, photoelectric current 'i' is measured by changing the intensity 'I' of incident light

radiations. Which one of the graph shown here represents the measured results ?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Solution :

Hence the answer is (A).27. Two radioactive substances A and B have their half-life period 1 year and 2 year respectively. Samples A

and B initially contain equal number of atoms. After 4 years the ratio of the number of undecayed atomsof A to the number of undecayed atoms of B is :-(A) 1/4 (B) 1/2 (C) 2 (D) 4

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Solution :

Hence the answer is (A).28. If a nucleus is emitting e– particle, its neutron to proton ratio (n/p) will :–

(A) Increase (B) Decrease (C) Remain unchanged (D) Can't be determind.

Solution :

Hence the answer is (B).29. In the following circuits PN–junction diodes D1, D2 and D3 are ideal for the following potentials of A and

B. The correct increasing order of resistance between A and B will be

(i) –10 V, –5V (ii) –5V, –10 V (iii) –4V, –12 V(A) i < ii < iii (B) iii < ii < i (C) ii = iii < i (D) i = iii < ii

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Solution :

Hence the answer is (C).30. The following configuration of gate is equivalent to :-

(A) NAND (B) XOR (C) OR (D) None of these

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Solution :

Hence the answer is (B).31. If the system is released, then the acceleration of the centre of mass of the system is :

(A) g/4 (B) g/2 (C) g (D) 2g

Solution :

Hence the answer is (A).32. Two long straight conductors with currents I1 and I2 are placed along X and Y-axes. The equation of locus

of points of zero magnetic induction is :-

(A) Y = X (B) (C) (D)

Solution :Hence the answer is (C).

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33. The value of current through 20 resistor is

(A) 1.2 A (B) 0.3 A (C) 0.6 A (D) 1.8 A

Solution :

Hence the answer is (C).34. In a step-up transformer, the turn ratio is

1 : 2. A Leclanche cell (e.m.f. 1.5V) is connected across the primary. The voltage developed in thesecondary would be :-(A) 3.0 V (B) 0.75 V (C) 1.5 V (D) Zero

Solution :

Hence the answer is (D).35. In the EM wave the amplitude of magnetic field H0 and the amplitude of electric field E0 at any place are

related as :-

(A) H0 = E0 (B) (C) (D)

Solution :Hence the answer is (D).

36. From a solid sphere of mass M and radius R, a spherical portion of radius R2

is removed, as shown in the

figure. Taking gravitational potential V = 0 at r = , the potential at the centre of the cavity thus formedis :(G = gravitational constant)

(A) (B) (C) (D)

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Solution :Hence the answer is (D).

37. From a solid sphere of mass M and radius R a cube of maximum possible volume is cut. Moment of inertiaof cube about an axis passing through its centre and perpendicular to one of its faces is :-

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Solution :Hence the answer is (A).

38. If S is stress and Y is Young's modulus of material of a wire, the energy stored in the wire per unit volumeis-

(A) 2S2Y (B) (C) (D)

Solution :Hence the answer is (B).

39. If the internal energy of n1 moles of He at temperature 10T is equal to the internal energy of n2 mole of

hydrogen at temperature 6T. The ratio of 1

2

nn is

(A) 35

(B) 2 (C) 1 (D) 53

Solution :Hence the answer is (C).

40. Energy is being emitted from the surface of a black body at 127°C temperature at the rate of 1.0 × 106 J/s–m2. Temperature of the black body at which the rate of energy emission is 16.0×106 J/s–m2 will be :(A) 254°C (B) 508°C (C) 527°C (D) 727°C

Solution :Hence the answer is (C).

41. Mechanical wave (sound wave) in a gas is :-(A) Transverse (B) Longitudinal(C) Neither transverse nor longitudinal (D) Either transverse or longitudinal

Solution :Hence the answer is (B).

42. Two beams of light having intensities I and 4I interfere to produce a fringe pattern on a screen. The phasedifference between the beams is /2 at point A and at point B. Then the difference between theresultant intensities at A and B is :(A) 2I (B) 4I (C) 5I (D) 7I

Solution :

Hence the answer is (B).

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43. The observer at O views two closely spaced spots on a vertical wall through an angled glass slab asshown. As seen by observer, the spots appear.

(A) shifted upward (B) shifted downward(C) spaced farther apart (D) spaced closer together

Solution :

Hence the answer is (A).44. A ray of light is incident on an equilateral glass prism placed on a horizontal table. For minimum deviation

which of the following is true ?

(A) PQ is horizontal (B) QR is horizontal(C) RS is horizontal (D) Either PQ or RS is horizontal

Solution :Hence the answer is (B).

45. For a CE amplifier, current gain is 69. If the emitter current is 7 mA then the base current and collectorcurrent will be -(A) 6.9 mA, 0.1 mA (B) 0.1 mA, 6.9 mA (C) 0.2 mA, 8.1 mA (D) 0.8 mA, 3.6 mA

Solution :Hence the answer is (B).

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CHEMISTRY AITS-FT-01Medical

Dropper Batch

46. 2-Hexyne can be converted into trans-2-hexene by the action of :-(A) H2-Pd/BaSO4 (B) Na+Liq.NH3 (C) NaBH4 (D) All above

Solution :

Hence the answer is (B).

47. has correct IUPAC name :-

(A) 5-Nitro-4-Methoxy-1-Pentene (B) 1-Nitro-2-Methoxy-4-Pentene(C) 4-Methoxy-5-Nitro-1-Pentene (D) 2-Methoxy-1-Nitro-4-Pentene

Solution :

Hence the answer is (C).

48. A is :-

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Solution :

Hence the answer is (D).49. d-tartaric acid & meso tartaric acid are :-

(A) Diastereomer (B) Enantiomer(C) Geometrical isomer (D) Positional isomer

Solution :Hence the answer is (A).

50. product B is :-(A) CH3Br + C2H5I (B) CH3I + C2H5I(C) CH3Br + C2H5OH (D) CH3I + C2H5OH

Solution :

Hence the answer is (D).

51. is :-

(A) -D-(+)- Glucopyranose (B) -D-(–)- Glucopyranose(C) -D-(+)- Fructofuranose (D) -D-(–)- Fructofuranose

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Solution :Hence the answer is (A).

52. Order of rate of SN1 reactivity for following compound is :-

(A) I > II > III > IV (B) I > II > IV > III(C) II > I > IV > III (D) I > IV > III > II

Solution :

Hence the answer is (B).53. Which of the following is not essential amino acid :-

(A) Valine (B) Leucine (C) Arginine (D) Aspartic acid

Solution :Hence the answer is (D).

54. Which one of the following on reaction with lucas reagent gives white precipitate fastest:-

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Solution :Hence the answer is (C).

55. Monomeric units of Bakelite is :-

(A) HCHO+Ph–OH (B)

(C) (D) HCHO + CF2=CF2

Solution :Hence the answer is (A).

56. The correct order of boiling point is :-

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(A) C > A > D > B (B) A > B > C > D(C) D > A > B > C (D) A > B > D > C

Solution :Hence the answer is (D).

57. How many compounds among following give white crystals when reacted with sodium bisulphite :-

(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5

Solution :

Hence the answer is (B).58. Consider the following statements

I. In gaseous phase, the vapour pressure of CH3COOH is less than expected.II. In benzene, acetic acid dimerises.III. CH3OH is more viscous than H2O.IV. CH3OCH3 is non-polar but soluble in water.Select the correct set of codes using T for true and F for false statements in given sequence.(A) F T F T (B) F T F F (C) T F T T (D) T T F F

Solution :Hence the answer is (B).

59. C will be :-

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Solution :

Hence the answer is (B).60. major product will be :-

(A) o–Bromo acetanilide (B) n–Bromo acetanilide(C) p–Bromo acetanilide (D) m–Bromo acetanilide

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Solution :

Hence the answer is (C).61. In NaCl the centres of two nearest like-charged ions are present at a distance of :-

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Solution :Hence the answer is (A).

62. Shape-selective catalysis is a reaction catalysed by ?(A) zeolites (B) enzymes (C) platinum (D) Ziegler-natta catalyst

Solution :Hence the answer is (A).

63. If in NH3 formation N uses its pure atomic orbital then wrong statement is :-(A) At least three bond angle are of 90o (B) Three bond with identical strength(C) Lone pair will be in 2s orbital (D) Molecule will be T-shaped

Solution :Hence the answer is (D).

64.Then incorrect statement is :-(A) A is NaHCO3(B) B is metal carbonate which is soluble in H2O(C) pH of aquous solution of both A and E is 7(D) D is CaCO3

Solution :Hence the answer is (C).

65. Which of the following statement is not correct regarding calcination ?(A) Impurities are removed in the form of elemental vapours(B) Carbonate ores convert into their oxides(C) Temperature of the process is maintained below the melting point of the mixture(D) Lower oxidation state oxides are oxidised further

Solution :Hence the answer is (D).

66. Correct order of bond angle for bond will be :

(A) Ph – OH > CH3 – O – CH3 > CH3 – OH(B) CH3 – O – CH3 > Ph – OH > CH3OH

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(C) CH3 – OH > CH3 – O – CH3 > Ph – OH(D) CH3 – O – CH3 > CH3OH > Ph – OH

Solution :Hence the answer is (B).

67. In which hybridisation angular shape is not possible ?(A) sp (B) sp2 (C) sp3 (D) None of these

Solution :Hence the answer is (A).

68. Which of the following compounds does give N2 on heating ?(A) NH4NO2 (B) NH4NO3 (C) NaN3 (D) Both (A) and (C)

Solution :

Hence the answer is (D).69. Copper sulphate dissolves in excess of KCN to give

(A) CuCN (B) [Cu(CN)4]3– (C) [Cu(CN)4]2– (D) Cu(CN)2

Solution :

Hence the answer is (B).70. Which of the following complexes exhibit the highest paramagnetic behaviour ?

(A) [Co(OX)2(OH)2]–3 (B) [Ti(NH3)6]3+

(C) [V (gly) (OH)2(NH3)2]+ (D) [Fe(en) (bpy) (NH3)2]2+

Where gly = glycine, en = ethylenediamine and bpy=bipyridyl moities)(At. nos. Ti =22, V = 23, Fe = 26, Co= 27)

Solution :

Hence the answer is (A).

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71. Which one of the following ions is the most stable in aqueous solution ?(A) Mn3+ (B) Cr3+ (C) V3+ (D) Ti3+

(At. No. Ti = 22, V = 23, Cr = 24, Mn=25)

Solution :

Hence the answer is (B).72. Increasing value of magnetic moments of :-

(I) [Fe(CN)6]4– (II) [Fe(CN)6]3– (III) [Cr(NH3)6]3+ (IV) [Ni(H2O)4]2+

is :(A) I < II < III < IV (B) IV < III < II < I (C) II < III < I < IV (D) I < II < IV < III

Solution :Hence the answer is (D).

73. Find atomic number of that element from which pairing in 4f orbital starts :-(A) 57 (B) 58 (C) 64 (D) 65

Solution :Hence the answer is (D).

74. Which of the following statements is correct?(A) [Pt(NO3)2(en)2]2+ complex ion can show linkage isomerism(B) [Cr(CO3)(NH3)4]Br can show ionization isomerism(C) FeCl3.6H2O can show hydrate isomerism(D) [FeCl3(NH3)3] can exhibit structural isomerism

Solution :Hence the answer is (C).

75. What is the oxidation number of Fe and Cr in FeCr2O4 :-(A) +2 and +3 (B) 0 and +2 (C) +2 and +6 (D) +3 and +6

Solution :Hence the answer is (A).

76. The ratio of pH of 0.1 M H2SO4 and that of 0.1 N H2SO4 is :-(A) 1 : 1 (B) 2 : 1 (C) 1 : 7 (D) 7 : 10

Solution :Hence the answer is (D).

77. The energies E1 and E2 of two radiations are 25 eV and 50 eV respectively. The relation between theirwavelengths i.e., 1 and 2 will be :-(A) 1 = 2 (B) 1 = 22 (C) 1 = 42 (D) 1 = 1/22

Solution :Hence the answer is (B).

78. Identify the incorrect order :-(A) HF > HCl > HBr > HI ; Acidic nature(B) Li+ (aq) < Be+2(aq.) ; hydrated radius

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(C) LiF > NaF > KF > RbF ; Lattice energy(D) Cl > F > Br > I ; e– affinity

Solution :>>>Hence the answer is (A).

79. For the redox reactionxP4 + yHNO3 H3PO4 + NO2 +H2O(A) x = 1, y = 5 (B) x = 2, y = 10 (C) x = 1, y = 20 (D) x = 1, y = 15

Solution :Hence the answer is (C).

80. 3O2 + 2N2 2N2O39 mol O2 and 14 mol N2 here allowed to react. When 3 mol O2 remains unreacted, till then howmany moles of N2O3 would have been produced ?(A) 6 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 12

Solution :Hence the answer is (C).

81. If the sum of (n + ) is 6 ; how many e–s would have clock wise spin associated with this energy leval :-(A) 18 (B) 9 (C) 6 (D) 32

Solution :Hence the answer is (B).

82. Anhydrous Na2CO3 is also known as :-(A) Salt soda (B) Soda ash (C) Fusion mixture (D) Washing soda

Solution :Hence the answer is (B).

83. The rate of diffusion of SO3, CO2, PCl3 and SO2 gases are in the following order :-(A) PCl3 > SO3 > SO2 > CO2 (B) CO2 > SO2 > PCl3 > SO3(C) SO2 > SO3 > PCl3 > CO2 (D) CO2 > SO2 > SO3 > PCl3Solution :Hence the answer is (D).

84. H2(g) + ½ O2(g) H2O(g)B.E. (H–H) = x1 ; B.E. (O = O) = x2 ;B.E. (O – H) = x3Heat of vaporisation of water = x4 then Hf [heat of formation of liquid water] is :-

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Solution :Hence the answer is (C).

85. At a certain temp. the equilibrium constant (KC) is 16 for reaction :SO2 + NO2 SO3 + NOIf we take one mole of each of four gases in one L container. What would be equilibrium concentrationof NO and NO2 respectively :-(A) 1.6, 0.4 (B) 0.4, 1.6 (C) 0.4, 0.6 (D) None of these

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Solution :Hence the answer is (A).

86. Work done in vaporisation of one mole of water at 373 K and the pressure of 1 atm is approximately (forideal gas) :-(A) – 3100 Joule (B) – 3000 Joule (C) + 3200 Joule (D) + 3000 Joule

Solution :Hence the answer is (A).

87. Which can be used to prepare pure & demineralised H2O ?(A) Calgon (B) Borax (C) Acid-Base resin (D) Washing soda

Solution :Hence the answer is (C).

88. sp3d2 hybrid orbitals have :-(A) (B) (C) (D) dyz & dxz

Solution :Hence the answer is (A).

89. Solubility product of silver salts are given as underAgCl = 2 × 10–10, AgBr = 5 × 10–13,Ag2CO3 = 8 × 10–12, AgI = 8 × 10–17

Highest solubility will be shown by :-(A) AgCl (B) AgBr (C) Ag2CO3 (D) AgI

Solution :Hence the answer is (C).

90. Lead is considered as :(A) Water pollutant (B) Soil pollutant (C) Air pollutant (D) Radioactive pollutant

Solution :Hence the answer is (C).