sınav kaldığım yerden

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Which statement about a vessel's stability while dry-docking is TRUE?

A) Every ton of weight bearing on the blocks acts as if a ton of weight was removed at keel level.*****

B) When the ship touches the blocks, the beam for stability purposes increases to the beam of the dr

C) The stability of the vessel increases as a dock is pumped out due to the support of the keel blocks.

Wale shores would be used when dry docking a vessel with __________.

A) tumble home

B) excessive deadrise*********

C) excessive trim...

The best information on the location of the blocks when dry docking a vessel is contained in t

-ship's docking plan

The Sailing Directions (Enroute) contain information on all of the following EXCEPT ________

A) ocean currents*******************

B) outer dangers to navigation

C) tidal currents...

The Sailing Directions (Enroute) contain information on __________.

A) well-charted inner dangers

B) port facilities

C) coastal anchorages************...

The maritime radio system consisting of a series of coast stations transmitting coastal warnin

-NAVTEX

Plain language is usually used on marine weather __________.

-forecasts

An urgent marine storm warning message would be broadcast on______.

-157.10 MHz (VHF-FM CH-22A)

When determining compass error by an azimuth of Polaris, you enter the Nautical Almanac wi

-LHA Aries

The values of the Greenwich hour angle and declination, tabulated in all almanacs, are for the

-centers of the various celestial bodies

What is the major limitation in using the Sight Reduction Tables for Air Navigation Volume I (P

-Only certain stars are included and sights must be limited to those stars.

The annual change in variation for an area can be found in __________.

-the center of the compass rose on a chart of the area

Chart legends printed in capital letters show that the associated landmark is __________.

-conspicuous

The shoreline on charts generally represents the mean __________.

-high water line



-1:200,000

A coastal chart could have a scale of __________.

-1:100,000

Which statement is TRUE concerning a Mercator projection?-The length of the meridians is increased to provide for equal expansion in all directions

A chart projection depicting the poles and a small area on either side of a connecting meridia

-transverse Mercator projection

When using a Lambert conformal chart in high latitudes, angles such as bearings are measur

-the meridian through the ship's position

When navigating in high latitudes and using a chart based on a Lambert conformal projection,

-a straight line drawn on the chart approximates a great circle

In very high latitudes, the most practical chart projection is the __________.

-Lambert conformal

For what purpose would using a Lambert conformal chart be more convenient than using a M

-Plotting radio bearings over a long distance

Which information does the outer ring of a compass rose on a nautical chart provide?

-True directions

What information is NOT found in the chart title?

-Date of first edition

the value of sixty nautical miles per degree of geodetic latitude is most correct at________

-latitude 45

The survey information upon which a chart is based is found __________.

-near the chart title

The revision date of a chart is printed on which area of the chart?

-Lower-left corner



The agonic line on an isomagnetic chart indicates the __________.

-points where there is no variation

On a nautical chart, the inner ring of a compass rose indicates __________.

-magnetic directions

You are in a tropical port. The refrigeration machinery on a container loaded with air-cooled fr

-Shade the container and periodically hose it down

Which statement concerning sweat damage in containers is TRUE?

-Containers should be ventilated, dehumidified, or the contents physically protected against sweat da

What is meant by the term "topping the boom"?

-Raising the boom

A pelican hook __________.

-can be released while under strain

The complete details of a crude oil washing system aboard your vessel, including the operatin

-Crude Oil Washing Operations and Equipment Manual

Before a tank is to be crude oil washed, the oxygen content in the tank must be measured at a

-one meter from the deck

Which of the signals listed is required to be displayed at night while bunkering at a dock?

-One red light

When bunkering is complete, the hoses should be __________.

-drained, blanked off, and stored securely

When bunkering at anchorage which of the following signals must be displayed?

-A red flag by day ONLY

When bunkering at a dock which of the following signals must be displayed?

-A red flag by day, red light by night

The most likely time for oil pollution while bunkering is when __________.

-final topping off is occurring



A self-contained breathing apparatus is used to __________.

-enter areas that may contain dangerous fumes or lack oxygen

The biggest problem you generally encounter while towing a single tow astern is __________.

a. the catenary dragging on the bottom

b. swamping of the tow

c. the tow tending to dive

d. Yaw**

Your chart indicates that there is an isolated rock and names the rock using vertical letters. T

a. rock is visible at low water springs only

b. rock is a hazard to deep draft vessels only

c. rock is dry at high water**

d. exact position of the rock is doubtful

A spanner is a __________.

-special wrench for the couplings in a fire hose line.

A tug's horsepower available at the shaft is __________.

-brake horsepower(indicated değil)

Which statement about the deck line is TRUE?

-A vessel with wooden planks on a steel deck will have the deck line marked at the intersection of the

the plimsol mark on a vessel is used to____________.

-determine the vessel's freeboard.

A vessel cannot comply with all of the SOLAS requirements due to its construction. Where wil

-On the Exemption Certificate

In which case is the IOPP Certificate of an inspected vessel NOT invalidated?

-The required oily-water separator malfunctions.

What is the difference between net tonnage and gross tonnage?

-Net tonnage is the gross tonnage less certain deductible spaces.

A 30,000 DWT tankship is required to have an IOPP certificate when __________.

-calling at ports in another country signatory to MARPOL 73/78

Your vessel has completed an inspection for certification and is issued a Temporary Certificat

-has the full force of the regular Certificate of Inspection



You are in port A in the United States, and your Certificate of Inspection has expired. You wis

-Permit to Proceed.

What is NOT required on an uninspected towing vessel?

-Certificate of Inspection.

Temporary Certificates of Inspection are effective until the __________.

-permanent Certificate of Inspection is issued.

Where are the test certificates, for wire rope used as cargo runners, and loose gear certificate

-With the Cargo Gear Register on the ship.

Your vessel is issued a load line certificate dated 27 May 1992. What is NOT an acceptable dat

A) 28 February 1993B) 27 November 1993********

C) 26 August 1994

Your load line certificate expires on 27 May 1988. The vessel is surveyed on that date and is fo

-The existing certificate is extended for a period of up to 150 days.

Camber in a ship is usually measured in__________.

-inches per feet of breath.

Beams are cambered to __________.

-provide drainage from the decks

Which statement is TRUE of a tender vessel?

-Its period of roll is long.

Which is TRUE of a "stiff" vessel?

-Its period of roll is short.

A vessel would be referred to as "tender" when the weight of the cargo is __________.

-concentrated high and the double bottoms are empty

A vessel would be referred to as "stiff" when the weight of the cargo is __________.

-concentrated low and the double bottoms are full.

A tank which carries liquid is dangerous to the stability of a vessel when it is __________.

-slack

Which device is designed to automatically hold the load if power should fail to an electric win



-Electromagnetic brake.

A spreader bar is used to __________.

-protect the upper part of a load.

A sling is a device used in __________.

-hoisting cargo aboard a vessel.

** A periodic thorough examination of the cargo gear proves satisfactory. What percentage of

A) None**

B) 10%

C) 25%...

What would you use to adjust the height of a cargo boom?

-Topping lift

You have abandoned ship and are in an inflatable raft that has just inflated. You hear a contin

-Excess inflation pressure is bleeding off and should soon stop.

Which statement is TRUE concerning a Mercator projection?

-The length of the meridians is increased to provide for equal expansion in all directions.

What area of the earth cannot be shown on a standard Mercator chart?

-North and South Poles

On a Mercator chart, 1 nautical mile is equal to __________.

-1 minute of latitude

Distance along a track line is measured on a Mercator chart by using the __________.

-latitude scale near the middle of the track line

A Mercator chart is a __________.

-cylindrical projection

A chart projection depicting the poles and a small area on either side of a connecting meridia

-transverse Mercator projection

Which statement about a gnomonic chart is correct?

-Parallels, except the equator, appear as curved lines.

The principal advantage of NAVTEX radio warnings is that __________.

-they can be used by mariners who do not know Morse code.



A major advantage of the NAVTEX system when compared to other systems is that_________

-warning are printed out for reading when convenient.

how is the intensity of a light expressed in the light list?

-nominal range (kesinlikle luminous değil)

Dunnage may be used to protect a cargo from loss or damage by _________.

-ship's sweat

"Cribbing" is __________.

-wooden blocks or dunnage placed between a deck load and the deck.

when referring to dry bulk cargoes, the term "flow state"____________ -refers to the saturation of a dry bulk product with water to the point where it acts as a liquid

What is normally used to pass a mooring line to a dock?

-Heaving line

The usual method of arranging a line on deck so that it will run out easily without kinking or f

-faking down the line

The revolving drum of a winch used to haul lines is called a __________.

-gypsyhead

If a mooring line should part while you are tying up at a dock, you should make a temporary e

-bowline

Chafing gear __________.

-reduces and prevents wear caused by the rubbing of one object against another

An example of a messenger is a __________.

-heaving line

A "gypsy" or "gypsyhead" is a __________.

-spool-shaped drum fitted on a winch

You are in a lifeboat in a heavy sea. Your boat is dead in the water and unable to make way. T



Your vessel has gone aground in waters where the tide is falling. The BEST action you ca

A) set out a kedge anchor***********

B) shift the vessel's load aft and repeatedly surge the engine(s) astern

C) shift the vessel's load forward and wait until the next high tide

D) slowly bring the engine(s) to full speed astern

Your vessel has grounded on a bar. What should you do?

A) If you cannot get clear immediately, lighten the ship by pumping all ballast overboard.B) Run the engine full astern to keep from being set further onto the bar.

C) Switch to the high suction for condenser circulating water, if it is submerged.**************

D) All of the above

A continual worsening of the list or trim indicates __________.

A) negative GM

B) progressive flooding***********

C) structural failure

D) an immediate need to ballast

A crack in the deck plating of a vessel may be temporarily prevented from increasing in l A) cutting a square notch at each end of the crack

B) drilling a hole at each end of the crack************

C) slot-welding the crack

D) welding a doubler over the crack

A wooden plug fitted tightly in the vent of a damaged tank may prevent the tank from ___

A) filling completely************

B) developing free surface

C) developing free surface moment

D) collapsing

After an explosion, repair of emergency machinery and services should be accomplished A) after control of fire, flooding, and structural repairs**********

B) immediately, before the emergency is under control

C) after control of fire, but before control of flooding

D) after stability is restored

Control of flooding should be addressed __________.

A) first

B) following control of fire**********

C) following restoration of vital services

D) only if a threat exists

In plugging submerged holes; rags, wedges, and other materials should be used in conju

A) reduce the water pressure on the hull

B) reduce the possibility of stress fractures

C) prevent progressive flooding

D) reduce the water leaking around the plugs**************

Progressive flooding is controlled by securing watertight boundaries and __________.

A) transferring water ballast



B) jettisoning cargo

C) pumping out flooded compartments*********

D) abandoning ship

Repairing damage to the hull at or above the waterline reduces the threat of __________.

A) free surface effects

B) capsizing

C) continued progressive flooding************D) wind heel

Small hull leaks can be temporarily repaired by __________.

A) parceling

B) parbuckling

C) caulking**********

D) seizing

Strengthening damaged bulkheads by using wood or steel is called __________.

A) bracing

B) batteningC) blocking

D) shoring*************

The BEST information on the nature and extent of damage to the vessel is obtained from

A) alarms and monitoring devices

B) the engineroom watch

C) personnel at the scene of the damage*************

D) the bridge watch

The order of importance in addressing damage control is __________.

A) control flooding, control fire, repair structural damage

B) restore vital services, control fire, control floodingC) control fire, restore vital services, control flooding

D) control fire, control flooding, repair structural damage************

The two courses of action if the underwater hull is severely damaged are to plug the ope

A) establish and maintain flooding boundaries****************

B) dewater the compartment

C) secure power to the compartment

D) ballast to maintain even keel

The wooden plug inserted in the vent of a damaged tank should be removed if you are go

A) pump from the damaged tank****************B) fight a fire

C) abandon ship

D) use the crossover system

When patching holes in the hull, pillows, bedding, and other soft materials can be used a

A) shores

B) gaskets***********

C) strongbacks



D) wedges

When plugging holes below the waterline you should __________.

A) eliminate all water entering the hole

B) only plug holes in machinery or other vital spaces

C) reduce the entry of water as much as possible************

D) plug the largest holes first

Which type of hull damage should be repaired FIRST?

A) Damage below the waterline

B) Damage to interior watertight boundaries

C) Damage in way of machinery rooms

D) Damage at or just above the waterline**************

Your vessel has been loaded in a sagging condition. Enroute you encounter heavy weath

A) pump fuel oil from midships to the ends of the vessel

B) reduce speed

C) take a course which most eases the vessel

D) All of the above**************

You are berthed at a cargo facility where you have just completed discharging a dangero

A) You can make repairs with permission of the facility owner since you are empty and the carg

B) The repair area must be inspected by a marine surveyor to ensure that it can be done safely.

C) Hot work repairs at such a facility are prohibited.

D) The Captain of the Port may give specific approval to make hot work repairs.******************

All electrical appliances aboard a vessel should be grounded to __________.

A) prevent them from falling when the vessel rolls

B) protect personnel from electrical shock************

C) increase their operating efficiency

D) prevent unauthorized personnel from operating them

Before starting to hoist provisions, which should be checked?

A) Hoist rope is not kinked

B) Multiple part lines are not twisted around each other

C) The hook is centrally located over the load

D) All of the above***********

In battery charging rooms, exhaust ventilation should be provided __________.

A) at the lowest point

B) near the batteries

C) at the highest point*************D) only when charging is in progress

Placing a lashing across a hook to prevent a fitting from slipping out of the hook is called

A) faking

B) flemishing down

C) mousing**********

D) worming



Safety shackles are fitted with __________.

A) a threaded bolt

B) a round pin, with a cotter pin

C) a threaded bolt, locknuts, and cotter pins**********

D) round pins and locknuts

What is TRUE about hoisting operations?

A) Personnel may work beneath suspended loads, as long as they are alert and wear hard hats.B) If a suspended load with no tag begins to spin, personnel should attempt to stop the spinning

C) If tag lines are used to control a suspended load, they should be secured to the deck.

D) Personnel not involved in the hoisting operation should be kept clear of the transfer area.****

when instructing a crew member concerning the right way to lift a weight, you would inst

-bend his knees and lift with his legs

When working on a tow, a good safety precaution is to __________.

A) carry loads on your inside shoulder when walking along the outside of a barge

B) tighten ratchets outboard

C) walk on the top of covered barges when possible to avoid narrow gunwalesD) always remove the toothpick after tightening the ratchet*********

You are ordering ship's stores. Which statement is TRUE?

A) Up to five gallons of a flammable liquid may be stowed in the engine room.*****************

B) All stores of line, rags, linens and other similar type stores must be certified by UL as being fi

C) Cylinders containing compressed gasses must be constructed and tested in accordance with

D) All distress flares when received must be stored in the portable magazine chest.

You are requisitioning stores for your tank vessel. What type of matches are permitted ab

A) Phosphorous

B) Safety************

C) Self-extinguishingD) Wooden

You should NOT use a power tool if __________.

A) it has a three-prong plug

B) the insulation of the power wires is worn**********

C) hand tools can be used instead

D) the power source is alternating current

A fire starting by spontaneous combustion can be expected in which condition?

A) Paints, varnish, or other liquid flammables are stowed in a dry stores locker.

B) Inert cargoes such as pig iron are loaded in a wet condition.C) Oily rags are stowed in a metal pail.*************

D) Clean mattresses are stored in contact with an electric light bulb.

Accumulations of oily rags should be __________.

A) kept in nonmetal containers

B) discarded as soon as possible************

C) cleaned thoroughly for reuse

D) kept in the paint locker



Good housekeeping on a vessel prevents fires by __________.

A) allowing better access in an emergency

B) eliminating potential fuel sources*************(çıkmış soru)

C) eliminating trip hazards

D) improving personnel qualifications

It is desirable to have screens on the vents of potable water tanks to __________. A) filter the incoming air

B) prevent explosions

C) prevent backups

D) stop insects from entering*************

Lines or gear NOT in use should be __________.

A) conspicuously marked

B) stowed anywhere

C) left on deck

D) secured or stowed out of the way**************

Normally, potable water systems are connected directly to the __________.

A) fire-main system

B) feed-water system

C) freshwater sanitary system

D) domestic water tank****************(çıkmış soru)

Oily rags stored in a pile that is open to the atmosphere are a hazard because they may _

A) deteriorate and give off noxious gasses

B) spontaneously heat and catch fire*****************

C) attract lice and other vermin and serve as a breeding ground

D) None of the above

On a tankship, sanitary inspections of the crew's quarters are the responsibility of the __

A) Master and Second Mate

B) Master and Chief Engineer***************

C) Master and union delegate

D) Master and Chief Mate

One method of controlling rats on vessels is by rat-proofing. Rat-proofing is accomplishe

A) installing rat guards on the mooring lines when in port

B) keeping foods protected and avoiding the accumulation of garbage

C) eliminating possible living spaces for rats when the ship is constructed************(çıkmış sor

D) trapping and/or poisoning the rats

Paints and solvents on a vessel should be __________.

A) stored safely at the work site until work is completed

B) returned to the paint locker after each use**************(çıkmış soru)

C) covered at all times to protect from ignition sources

D) stored in a suitable gear locker

What represents poor sanitary procedures?



A) Keep and use a separate filling hose for potable (drinking) water.

B) Locate potable (drinking) water tanks as low as possible in the bilge.************* (bana çıkan

C) Eliminate enclosed spaces in which trash, food particles, dirt may gather.

D) After washing dishes with soap and warm water, sterilize them in water of at least 170°F (76.

Which chemical is used to treat water in order to ensure its safety for drinking?

A) Nitrogen

B) Chlorine************C) Carbon

D) Oxygen

Your vessel is on a voyage of three months duration. The number of sanitary inspections

A) one******************

B) three

C) six

D) twelve

A fuel-air mixture below the lower explosive limit is too __________.

A) rich to burnB) lean to burn**********

C) cool to burn

D) dense to burn

Before entering the chain locker, you should __________.

A) have someone standing by

B) make sure there is sufficient air within the locker

C) de-energize the windlass

D) All of the above************

The atmosphere in a tank is too lean if it is __________.

A) incapable of supporting combustion because the hydrocarbon content is below the LFL (LowB) capable of supporting combustion because the hydrocarbon content is above the UFL (Uppe

C) capable of supporting a fire once started

D) not safe for ballasting

The atmosphere in a tank is too rich when it is __________.

A) incapable of supporting combustion because the hydrocarbon vapor content makes the atmo

B) capable of supporting combustion

C) in a noncombustible state which can be relied on to occur naturally on a regular basis

D) incapable of supporting combustion because the hydrocarbon vapor content makes the atmo

The explosive range of petroleum vapors mixed with air is __________. A) 0% to 1%

B) 1% to 10%****************

C) 10% to 15%

D) 12% to 20%

The minimum concentration of a vapor in air which can form an explosive mixture is call

A) auto-ignition point

B) flash point



C) lower explosive limit (LEL)**************

D) threshold limit value (TLV)

The only portable electrical equipment permitted in a compartment which is not gas free i

A) battery fed

B) self-contained

C) approved explosion proof

D) All of the above**************(çıkmış soru)

What best describes for how long a gas-free test is good?

A) For as long as is indicated on the gas-free certificate

B) For the instant that it is made*************

C) Until valves in line with the tank or compartment are reopened

D) Until changes in temperature or pressure affect the vapor content in the space

What is the generally accepted method of determining whether the atmosphere within a c

A) Use the open flame test on a small sample that has been taken from the tank.

B) Send a gas sample ashore for laboratory analysis.

C) Enter the tank with an oxygen analyzer.D) Use an explosimeter.****************

What is used to test a tank for oxygen content?

A) Combustible gas indicator

B) Vapor indicator

C) Atmosphere analyzer kit

D) None of the above***********

Which statement about entering into a tank which has been sealed for a long time is TRU

A) The tank should be tested only once to ensure the oxygen content is at least 14% before ent

B) The tank must be tested at frequent intervals to ensure that hazardous gasses have not rege

C) The tank need not be tested for oxygen content if it is ventilated for more than 24 hours.D) If the oxygen content tests at less than 12% you should wear an approved gas mask.

Which statement about entry into a water ballast tank that has been sealed for a long tim

A) A "buddy system" should be used where someone enters the tank with you.

B) Sea water acts on the ship's metal and generates chlorine gas which may accumulate in poi

C) You should always wear a gas mask.

D) After ventilation and testing, and the tank is found safe for entry, someone should stand by a

Which type of portable lighting may be used to enter a compartment on a tank barge whic

A) A three-cell flashlight

B) An explosion-proof, self-contained, battery-fed lamp***********C) A spark resistant and flame retardant lamp


All electrical appliances aboard a vessel should be grounded to __________.

A) prevent them from falling when the vessel rolls

B) protect personnel from electrical shock*************

C) increase their operating efficiency

D) prevent unauthorized personnel from operating them



Mechanical gearing of deck machinery such as the windlass or towing engine should ___

A) be open to view so, if a foreign object gets in the gearing, the operator can immediately stop

B) have a guard over the gearing************(çıkmış soru)

C) be painted a contrasting color from the base color in order to call attention to the gearing

D) not be operated if there is any crew within 10 feet of the machinery

Which of the following represents the maximum percent of oxygen, by volume, required t A) 6%

B) 8%***************

C) 10%

D) 12%

A fire starting by spontaneous combustion can be expected in which condition?

A) Paints, varnish, or other liquid flammables are stowed in a dry stores locker.

B) Inert cargoes such as pig iron are loaded in a wet condition.

C) Oily rags are stowed in a metal pail.*************

D) Clean mattresses are stored in contact with an electric light bulb.

Accumulations of oily rags should be __________.

A) kept in nonmetal containers

B) discarded as soon as possible***********

C) cleaned thoroughly for reuse

D) kept in the paint locker

It is desirable to have screens on the vents of potable water tanks to __________.

A) filter the incoming air

B) prevent explosions

C) prevent backups

D) stop insects from entering************

Lines or gear NOT in use should be __________.

A) conspicuously marked

B) stowed anywhere

C) left on deck

D) secured or stowed out of the way*************

Oily rags stored in a pile that is open to the atmosphere are a hazard because they may _

A) deteriorate and give off noxious gasses

B) spontaneously heat and catch fire*************

C) attract lice and other vermin and serve as a breeding ground


On a tankship, sanitary inspections of the crew's quarters are the responsibility of the __

A) Master and Second Mate

B) Master and Chief Engineer*************

C) Master and union delegate

D) Master and Chief Mate

One method of controlling rats on vessels is by rat-proofing. Rat-proofing is accomplishe



A) installing rat guards on the mooring lines when in port

B) keeping foods protected and avoiding the accumulation of garbage

C) eliminating possible living spaces for rats when the ship is constructed************

D) trapping and/or poisoning the rats

Safety is increased if __________.

A) extra line and wire are laid out on deck for emergency use

B) all lashings are made up, and the decks are clean and clear********C) power tools are kept plugged in for immediate use

D) spare parts are kept on deck for ready access

Small quantities of flammable liquids needed at a work site should be __________.

A) used only under the supervision and direction of a ship's officer

B) tightly capped and stowed with other tools near the job site when securing at the end of the d

C) used only when a pressurized fire hose is laid out ready for immediate use

D) in a metal container with a tight cap************

The hoods over galley ranges present what major hazard?

A) Grease collects in the duct and filter and if it catches fire is difficult to extinguish.**************B) In order to effectively draw off cooking heat they present a head-injury hazard to a person of

C) They inhibit the effective operation of fire fighting systems in combating deep fat fryer or rang

D) They concentrate the heat of cooking and may raise surrounding flammable material to the i

Safety goggles or glasses are NOT normally worn when __________.

A) using a rotary grinder with an installed shield

B) letting go the anchor

C) handling wire rope or natural fiber line***********

D) painting with a spray gun

When chipping rust on a vessel, the MOST important piece of safety gear is __________.

A) a hard hatB) gloves

C) goggles***********

D) a long sleeve shirt

When using a pneumatic chipping tool all of the following are TRUE except?

A) The equipment is not required to be grounded to prevent shock hazard.

B) It is not intended to be used in an explosive atmosphere.

C) The needles of the needle-type chipping gun must be replaced when they have been blunted

D) The equipment shall be secured to the hose by a quick-disconnect coupling to prevent the to

Which statement about pneumatic chipping tools is TRUE? A) The equipment shall be secured to the hose by a quick-disconnect coupling to prevent the to

B) The equipment must be grounded to prevent shock hazard.

C) The chipping mechanism is made of non-sparking material that is safe to use near explosive

D) The needles of the needle-type chipping gun must be replaced when they have been blunted

A fuel-air mixture below the lower explosive limit is too __________.

A) rich to burn

B) lean to burn***********



C) cool to burn

D) dense to burn

Combustible gas indicators operate by drawing an air sample into the instrument ______

A) over an electrically heated platinum filament***************

B) where it is mixed with nitrogen

C) where it is ignited by a sparking device

D) where its specific gravity is measured

Normally, the percentage of oxygen in air is __________.

A) 16%

B) 18%

C) 21%*************

D) 25%

What best describes for how long a gas-free test is good?

A) For as long as is indicated on the gas-free certificate

B) For the instant that it is made**********

C) Until valves in line with the tank or compartment are reopenedD) Until changes in temperature or pressure affect the vapor content in the space

Which hazard probably would NOT be encountered when entering an empty but uncleane

A) Lack of oxygen

B) Methane gas

C) Hydrogen sulfide gas

D) Carbon monoxide**************

Which statement about entering into a tank which has been sealed for a long time is TRU

A) The tank should be tested only once to ensure the oxygen content is at least 14% before ent

B) The tank must be tested at frequent intervals to ensure that hazardous gasses have not rege

C) The tank need not be tested for oxygen content if it is ventilated for more than 24 hours.D) If the oxygen content tests at less than 12% you should wear an approved gas mask.

Which statement about entry into a water ballast tank that has been sealed for a long tim

A) A "buddy system" should be used where someone enters the tank with you.

B) Sea water acts on the ship's metal and generates chlorine gas which may accumulate in poi

C) You should always wear a gas mask.

D) After ventilation and testing, and the tank is found safe for entry, someone should stand by a

Paints and solvents on a vessel should be __________.

A) stored safely in a cool dark non-ventilated area until work is completed

B) resealed and returned to a well ventilated area after each use********C) covered at all times to protect from ignition sources

D) stored in a suitable gear locker

A situation has occurred in which your vessel must be towed. When the towing vessel pa

A) to the base of the foremast

B) to the forward-most bitts***********

C) to the forward part of the deckhouse

D) at the stern



A situation has occurred where it becomes necessary for you to be towed. What action s

A) Shift weight to the bow

B) Shift weight to the center of the boat

C) Shift weight to the stern***************

D) Throw excess weight overboard

A tug is approaching a broken down steamer in moderately heavy weather preparing to t A) steamer will drift stern downwind

B) tug will drift faster than the steamer

C) tug should approach stern to

D) tug should approach from downwind*************

You are approaching a steamer that is broken down and are preparing to take her in tow.

A) compare the rate of drift between the ships***********

B) install chafing gear on the towline

C) secure the bitter end of the towing hawser to prevent loss if the tow is slipped

D) have traveling lizards rigged to guide the towline while it is paid-out

You are attempting to take a dead ship in tow. All lines have been passed and secured. H

A) Order minimum turns until the towing hawser is just clear of the water, then reduce speed to

B) If the towline is properly adjusted and weighted you can order slow or dead slow and the towl

C) Order minimum turns until the towing hawser is taut and then continue at that speed until to

D) Order minimum turns until the catenary almost breaks the water, then stop. Order more turns

You are on a vessel that has broken down and are preparing to be taken in tow. You will

A) The anchor cable should be veered enough to allow the towline connection to be just forward

B) The anchor cable should be veered enough to allow the towline connection to be immediatel

C) The strain of the tow is taken by the riding pawl, chain stopper, and anchor windlass brake.**

D) The anchor cable should be led out through a chock, if possible, to avoid a sharp nip at the h

You have a large, broken-down vessel in tow with a wire rope and anchor cable towline.

A) the towing vessel should slip first**********

B) the vessel towed should slip first

C) they should slip simultaneously

D) either vessel may slip first

You have taken another vessel in tow at sea. You can tell that the towing speed is too fas

A) vessels are not in step

B) tow line feels like it is "jumping" when touched

C) catenary comes clear of the water**********

D) towed vessel goes "in irons"

In time of war Naval Control of Shipping Authorities may give orders concerning the ____

A) cargo to be loaded

B) final destination

C) ship's route***********

D) All of the above

A crew member has just fallen overboard off your port side. Which action should you tak



A) Immediately put the rudder over hard right.

B) Immediately put the rudder over hard left.*********

C) Immediately put the engines astern.

D) Wait until the stern is well clear of the man and then put the rudder over hard right.

A person who sees someone fall overboard should __________.

A) immediately jump into the water to assist the individual

B) call for help and keep the individual in sight**********C) run to the radio room to send an emergency message

D) go to the bridge for the distress flares

On a small boat, if someone fell overboard and you did not know over which side the per

A) immediately reverse the engines

B) stop the propellers from turning and throw a ring buoy over the side***

C) increase speed to full to get the vessel away from the person

D) first put the rudder hard over in either direction

One of your crew members falls overboard from the starboard side. You should IMMEDIA

A) apply left rudder B) throw the crew member a life preserver**********

C) begin backing your engines

D) position your vessel to windward and begin recovery

The key to rescuing a man overboard is __________.

A) good equipment

B) a dedicated crew

C) well-conducted drills*********

D) good communication

Besides saving distance along the track line, another advantage of the Scharnow Turn ov

A) it is faster***************B) it can be used in both the immediate action and the delayed action situations

C) in fog, if the turn is started as soon as the man goes over, the vessel will be at the point wher

D) it returns the vessel to the original track line on a reciprocal course

The maneuver which will return your vessel in the shortest time to a person who has fall

A) a single turn with hard rudder*********

B) engine(s) crash astern, no turn

C) a Williamson Turn

D) two 180° turns

The Scharnow turn should be used in a man overboard situation only when __________. A) the man can be kept in sight from the bridge while maneuvering

B) the turn is started immediately when the man goes over

C) there has been sufficient time elapsed since the man went over to complete the maneuver***

D) the vessel has twin screws to assist in making the turn

The single turn method of returning to a man overboard should be used ONLY if _______

A) the man is reported missing rather than immediately seen as he falls overboard

B) the vessel is very maneuverable*************



When a man who is conscious has fallen overboard is being picked up by a lifeboat, the

A) astern and the victim just off the bow

B) ahead and the victim just off the bow

C) just off the bow and the victim to windward

D) just off the bow and the victim to leeward************

You are approaching a disabled vessel in order to remove survivors from it. If your vesse A) To windward of the disabled vessel****************

B) To leeward of the disabled vessel

C) Directly astern of the disabled vessel

D) At three times the drifting speed of the disabled vessel

You are picking up an unconscious person that has fallen overboard in a fresh breeze. Fo

A) victim to leeward

B) victim to windward***********

C) wind on your port side

D) wind on your starboard side

You are proceeding to a distress site and expect large numbers of people in the water. W

A) You should stop to windward of the survivors in the water and only use the ship's boats to re

B) If the survivors are in inflatable rafts you should approach from windward to create a lee for t

C) An inflatable liferaft secured alongside can be an effective boarding station for transfer of sur

D) Survivors in the water should never be permitted alongside due to the possibility of injury fro

You are proceeding to a distress site where the survivors are in liferafts. Which action wil

A) Steering a zigzag course with 5 to 10 minutes on each leg

B) Making smoke in daylight************

C) Dumping debris over the side to make a trail to your vessel

D) Continuous ringing of the general alarm

You are proceeding to a distress site. The survivors are in liferafts. What will make your s

A) Steering a sinuous course

B) Steering a zig-zag course

C) Turning on all available deck lights at night**********

D) Dumping debris over the side to make a trail to your vessel

You are trying to rescue survivors from a wrecked vessel on fire. You should approach _

A) to leeward of the wrecked vessel

B) at a speed of at most one-half that of the wrecked vessel

C) at a speed of at least that of the wrecked vessel

D) to windward of the wrecked vessel*************

A man was sighted as he fell overboard. After completing a Williamson turn, the man is n

A) Expanding circle

B) Sector search************

C) Parallel track pattern

D) Datum-drift search

The Coordinator Surface Search (CSS) in a SAR situation should display by night ______



A) deck lights forward and aft

B) a white light over two red lights

C) a red light, white light, and blue light in a vertical line

D) a distinctive signal promulgated by the CSS***********

The Coordinator Surface Search in a SAR situation should display by day __________.

A) the code flags FR************

B) a black ball over a black diamond shapeC) code flag Quebec over a black ball

D) two black diamond shapes in a vertical line

The most probable position of the object of a search at any given time is the __________.

A) datum position************

B) incident position

C) reported position

D) dead-reckoning position

Upon receipt of a distress message, a merchant vessel is bound to proceed to the scene

A) The vessel would arrive at the distress scene more than 36 hours after the receipt of the initiB) There are vessels closer to the distress scene that are proceeding to assist.

C) The Master of the vessel in distress has requisitioned another vessel, and that vessel has ac

D) You are on a tank vessel and the distress involves a major fire on board the other vessel.

When carrying out a parallel track search pattern, the course of the search units should n

A) In the same direction as the anticipated drift************

B) In the opposite direction of the anticipated drift

C) Perpendicular to the line of anticipated drift

D) Downwind

You are proceeding to the area of reported distress. When you arrive at the reported posi

A) Sector searchB) Expanding square**********

C) Track crawl

D) Parallel track search

You should conduct a sector search under which of the following circumstances?

A) The search target is sighted and then lost************

B) More than one vessel is available for a search.

C) The search object is a target that will be readily detected by radar.

D) An aircraft is available to assist a surface vessel.

A rescue helicopter's hoist area should have a radius of at least __________. A) 6 feet of clear deck

B) 10 feet of clear deck

C) 25 feet of clear deck

D) 50 feet of clear deck***********

-(metre versiyonuna da uyarlayınız)

When evacuating a seaman by helicopter lift, the vessel should be __________.

A) stopped with the wind dead ahead



A) velocity of the current

B) bottom characteristics

C) depth of the water

D) speed over the ground*****

A Doppler log in the volume reverberation mode indicates __________.

A) speed being made good

B) speed through the water*****

C) the set of the current

D) the depth of the water

A Doppler speed log indicates speed over ground __________.

A) at all times

B) in the bottom return mode****

C) in the volume reverberation mode

D) only when there is no current

A Doppler speed log indicates speed through the water __________.

A) at all times

B) in the bottom return mode

C) in the volume reverberation mode*****

D) only when there is no current

A hand held instrument used to measure distances between objects and the ship is a __________.

A) vernier

B) psychrometer

C) hygrometer

D) stadimeter****

The accuracy of an azimuth circle can be checked by __________.

A) sighting a terrestrial range in line and comparing the observed bearing against the charted bearing

B) aligning the relative bearing markings so that 000° is on the lubber's line and the line of sight passes

C) ensuring that the alignment marks on the inner face of the circle are in line with those on the repeat

D) comparing observed azimuths at different altitudes with computed values at the times of observatio

What will NOT induce errors into a Doppler sonar log?

A) Increased draft*****

B) Pitch

C) Roll

D) Change in trim

Which form of navigation may be suspended without notice under defense planning?



A) electronic******

B) celestial

C) piloting


A hygrometer is a device used for determining __________.

A) the absolute temperatureB) atmospheric pressure

C) wind velocity

D) relative humidity***

A microbarograph is a precision instrument that provides a __________.

A) charted record of atmospheric temperature over time

B) charted record of atmospheric pressure over time*******

C) graphic record of combustible gases measured in an atmosphere

D) graphic record of vapor pressure from a flammable/combustible liquid

A psychrometer has two thermometers that provide dry bulb and wet bulb temperatures. By comparing

A) atmospheric pressure

B) wind speed

C) relative humidity and dew point*****

D) wind chill factor

A sling psychrometer is a(n) __________.

A) type of cargo gear

B) instrument used in celestial navigation

C) instrument used to measure relative humidity**********

D) instrument used to measure specific gravity

A sylphon cell is a part of a __________.

A) maximum thermometer

B) barograph*****

C) thermograph

D) hygrometer

An anemometer on a moving vessel measures __________.

A) apparent wind speed only******

B) true wind speed and true wind direction

C) true wind speed only

D) apparent wind speed and true wind direction

An aneroid barometer is an instrument __________.

A) used to measure the speed of wind



B) in which the pressure of the air is measured*****

C) that tells which direction a storm is coming from

D) used to measure the height of waves

An aneroid barometer on a boat should always be __________.

A) located in an air-conditioned area

B) mounted in the passenger compartmentC) protected by a collision bulkhead

D) permanently mounted*****

An aneroid barometer reading should be corrected for differences in __________.

A) elevation*****

B) temperature

C) wind speed

D) latitude

An instrument designed to maintain a continuous record of atmospheric pressure is a(n) __________.

A) mercurial barometer

B) aneroid barometer

C) barograph*****

D) thermograph

An instrument that indicates wind direction is known as a(n) __________.

A) weather vane, wind vane or wind sock*****

B) hydrometer

C) hygrometer

D) sling psychrometer

An instrument that maintains a continuous record of humidity changes is called a __________.

A) thermometer

B) barometer

C) hygrograph****

D) thermograph

An instrument useful in predicting fog is the __________.

A) sling psychrometer******B) microbarograph

C) anemometer

D) aneroid barometer

An instrument which maintains a continuous record of temperature changes is called a __________.

A) thermometer

B) barometer



C) thermograph*****

D) hygrograph

Aneroid barometers are usually calibrated to indicate atmospheric pressure in __________.

A) inches of mercury and centimeters

B) feet of mercury and millibars

C) inches of mercury and millimetersD) inches of mercury and millibars******

Apparent wind speed blowing across your vessel while underway can be measured by a(n) __________.

A) barometer

B) wind vane

C) anemometer******

D) thermometer

Atmospheric pressure may be measured with a(n) __________.

A) barograph

B) aneroid barometer

C) mercurial barometer

D) All of the above*******

Barometer readings in weather reports are given in terms of pressure at __________.

A) sea level*****

B) Washington, D.C.

C) the weather station

D) the broadcasting station

For an accurate barometer check, you would __________.

A) check it with a barometer on another vessel

B) take readings from several barometers and average them

C) check it with the barometer at the ship chandlery

D) check it against radio or National Weather Service reports of the immediate vicinity********

In a microbarograph, the pen should be checked and the inkwell filled __________.

A) each time the chart is changed*******

B) once per monthC) once per week

D) daily

On what does the operation of an aneroid barometer depend?

A) Thin, metal, air tight cell******

B) Curved tube containing alcohol

C) Column of mercury supported by atmospheric pressure



D) Expansion of mercury in a closed tube

Prior to reading an aneroid barometer, you should tap the face lightly with your finger to __________.

A) expose any loose connections

B) demagnetize the metal elements

C) bring the pointer to its true position********

D) contract and expand the glass face

Scales on aneroid barometers are usually graduated in inches of mercury in the general range of ______

A) 26 to 29 inches

B) 28 to 31 inches******

C) 30 to 33 inches

D) 32 to 35 inches

The barometer is an instrument for measuring the __________.

A) temperatureB) relative humidity

C) dew point

D) atmospheric pressure*****

The correction(s) which must be applied to an aneroid barometer reading include(s) __________.

A) height error*********

B) gravity error

C) temperature error

D) All of the above

The instrument most commonly used to gather the data for determining the relative humidity is the ___

A) hydrometer

B) psychrometer*****

C) barometer

D) anemometer

The most important information to be obtained from a barometer is the __________.

A) difference between the reading of the two pointers, which shows wind direction

B) last two figures of the reading of the pointer, such as .87, .76, or .92

C) present reading of the pressure, combined with the changes in pressure observed in the recent past*D) weather indications printed on the dial (such as "cold, wet, etc.") under the pointer

The passing of a low pressure system can be determined by periodically checking the __________.

A) thermometer

B) hygrometer

C) barometer****

D) anemometer



The pressure-sensitive element of an aneroid barometer is called a __________.

A) pressure bellows

B) sylphon cell*****

C) column of mercury

D) constant pressure capsule

The purpose of the "set" hand on an aneroid barometer is to __________.

A) adjust the barometer

B) indicate any change in the reading of the barometer******

C) provide a correction for height above sea level

D) provide a correction for temperature changes

To avoid error you should read the scale of an aneroid barometer with your eye placed __________.

A) to the right of the pointer

B) to the left of the pointerC) directly in front of the pointer*****

D) slightly above the meniscus

What instrument measures wind velocity?

A) Hydrometer

B) Barometer

C) Psychrometer

D) Anemometer*****

What is TRUE concerning an anemometer on a moving vessel?

A) It measures true wind speed.

B) It measures true wind speed and true wind direction.

C) It measures apparent wind speed.******

D) It measures apparent wind speed and true wind direction.

Which correction(s) must be applied to an aneroid barometer?

A) Instrument error and height error*****

B) Instrument error only

C) Height error only

D) Instrument error and latitude correction

Which indication on the barometer is most meaningful in forecasting weather?

A) The words "Fair -- Change -- Rain"

B) The direction and rate of change of barometric pressure******

C) The actual barometric pressure

D) The relative humidity



Which instrument is most useful in forecasting fog?

A) A barometer

B) An anemometer

C) A sling psychrometer*****

D) A pyrometer

Which instrument is used to measure the relative humidity of the air?

A) A hydrometer

B) A hygrometer******

C) A spectrometer

D) A barograph

Which of the following is the most useful factor for predicting weather?

A) The present reading of the barometer

B) The previous reading of the barometer

C) The difference in the barometric readings within the past 24 hoursD) The rate and direction of change of barometric readings******

Which of the following statements is FALSE?

A) An anemometer measures wind speed.

B) A barometer measures atmospheric pressure.

C) A thermometer measures temperature.

D) A psychrometer measures wind pressure*****



*********

-dock.

....

he __________.

_.

gs is called __________.

h the __________.

__________.

ub. No. 249) for star sights?



_____.

___.



, that is sometimes used for star charts, is the __________.

d in reference to __________.

, __________.

ercator?



uit fails. It cannot be repaired for 18 to 24 hours. Which step should you take to reduce the tem

age.

g sequences and procedures, design characteristics, a description of the system, and require

position __________.



is indicates the __________.

upper line of the wood sheathing with the side shell.

l this be indicated?

e of Inspection. The Temporary Certificate __________.



to go to port B in the United States for repairs and to complete the inspection. If the Officer-i

usually maintained?

for one of the surveys for endorsements?

und satisfactory. You are sailing foreign the same day. Which statement is TRUE?

h?



the total gear must be dismantled to determine actual internal condition?

ous hissing coming from a fitting in a buoyancy tube. What is the cause of this?

, that is sometimes used for star charts, is the __________.



.

uling is __________.

e by tying a __________.

prevent broaching, you should __________.



******

lowing into an upper compartment.

line.

pting to save the vessel is to __________.

er increase has been slow. Based on this data, what should you expect?

oss of stability due to change in the waterplane area.

unication effect.psize.

ssel has run aground?

ship's officer.

nding formula.

t after grounding.**********



n take is to __________.

ngth by __________.

______.

__________.

nction with plugs to __________.



__________.

ings or to __________.

ing to __________.

__________.



er and notice buckling in the midships deck plating of your vessel. To relieve the strain yo

s cargo. You must complete topside repairs involving hot work before sailing. Which of t

is on the facility.

**

__________.



.if the load is within reach.

***********

ruct him to___________

re retardant.

the Bureau of Standards.

oard?



________.

_______.

d by __________.

)



s a lamp that is __________.

argo tank is explosive, too rich, or too lean to support combustion?

E?

y.

nerated.************

is TRUE?

onous quantities.

the tank entrance while you are inside.*************

h is NOT gas-free?



_______.

the machinery

o be achieved by a ship's inert gas system, prior to the commencement of crude oil tank

________.

_______.

d by __________.



ay

*average or more height.

e fires.

nition point.

more than ½ of their diameter.************

ol from becoming accidentally disconnected.

ol from becoming accidentally disconnected.*****

atmospheres.

more than ½ of their diameter.



___.

d fish hold?

E?

y.

nerated.**************

is TRUE?

onous quantities.

the tank entrance while you are inside.*******

sses the towing line to you, you should secure the line __________.



ould be taken to prevent your vessel from yawing?

ke it in tow. In most cases the __________.

BEFORE positioning your vessel to pass the towline, you must __________.

w should you get underway?

hat necessary to keep the line clear of the water.

line will act as a spring to absorb the initial shock.

ing speed is attained.

as the hawser slackens but keep the catenary in the water.**************

se your anchor cable as part of the towline. Which statement is TRUE?

of your bow.

astern of the towing vessel.

*************

awsepipe lip.

oth vessels have made provision for slipping the tow in an emergency; however, unless

t when the __________.

______.

?



on fell, you should __________.

TELY __________. See Reference

er the Williamson Turn in a man overboard situation is because __________.

e he went over when the turn is completed

n overboard is __________.

***********

__.



rse***************

__________.

uvering.

al track line.

nt.

***

pe of maneuver should you make?

se heading. You should __________.

ou immediately start a Williamson Turn. Which action is NOT a part of a Williamson Turn

s in danger of drowning, the lifeboat should make __________.



of the distress. Under which of the following cases would this NOT be true?

l distress message.

cepted the requisition.*************

ormally be which of the following?

ion, the vessel in distress is not sighted. What type of search should be conducted?



wind.

**********

e while approaching.

lifts hove taut.

ead.

licopter blades.

UE?

position.

eaman.



ver the center of the compass

r on relative bearings of 000° and 090°

to see if the difference is constant****



these two temperature readings with a set of tables you can determine the __________.



___.

______.

*******



perature rise and spoilage of the fruit?

personnel will be found in the __________.



-Charge Marine Inspection deems it safe, he may issue a __________.



u could __________.

he following statements is TRUE?



ashing?



here are special circumstances __________.



B) the season of the year

C) the latitude or distance from the equator

D) All of the above********

An air mass is termed "warm" if __________.

A) it is above 70°FB) the ground over which it moves is cooler than the air*******

C) it originated in a high pressure area

D) it originated in a low pressure area

Anticyclones are usually characterized by __________.

A) dry, fair weather****

B) high winds and cloudiness

C) gustiness and continuous precipitation

D) overcast skies

Ascending and descending air masses with different temperatures is part of an important heat transmit

A) conduction

B) radiation

C) convection******

D) barometric inversion

Compared to a low pressure system, generally the air in a high is __________.

A) warmer, less dense, and less stableB) cool, more dense, and drier********

C) muggy and cloudy

D) extremely moist with high relative humidity

Cyclones tend to move __________.

A) perpendicular to the isobars in their warm sectors

B) parallel to the isobars in their warm sectors**********

C) parallel to the line of the cold front

D) perpendicular to the line of the cold front

Cyclones that have warm sectors usually move __________.

A) westerly

B) parallel to the isobars in the warm sector**********

C) toward the nearest high pressure area

D) faster than the accompanying cold front

Good weather is usually associated with a region of __________.



A) low barometric pressure

B) high barometric pressure**********

C) falling barometric pressure

D) pumping barometric pressure

Hot air can hold __________.

A) less moisture than cold air

B) more moisture than cold air*********

C) the same amount of moisture as cold air

D) moisture independent of air temperature

In a cyclone the lowest pressure is found in the __________.

A) center*********

B) outer edge

C) warm front

D) cold front

In the Northern Hemisphere, an area of counterclockwise wind circulation surrounded by higher pressu

A) low********

B) high

C) warm front

D) cold front

In the Southern Hemisphere the wind circulation in a high pressure system rotates __________.

A) clockwise and inward

B) clockwise and outward

C) counterclockwise and outward**************

D) counterclockwise and inward

Stormy weather is usually associated with regions of __________.

A) low barometric pressure*********

B) high barometric pressure

C) steady barometric pressure

D) changing barometric pressure

Temperature and moisture characteristics are modified in a warm or cold air mass due to __________.

A) pressure changes in the air mass

B) movement of the air mass**************

C) the heterogeneous nature of the air mass

D) upper level atmospheric changes



The atmosphere in the vicinity of a high pressure area is called a(n) __________.

A) anticyclone*********

B) cold front

C) occluded front

D) cyclone

The process by which the temperature and/or moisture characteristics of an air mass changes is called

A) sublimation or condensation

B) modification************

C) consolidation

D) association

The wind circulation around a high pressure center in the Northern Hemisphere is __________.

A) counterclockwise and moving towards the high

B) counterclockwise and moving outward from the high

C) clockwise and moving towards the high

D) clockwise and moving outward from the high***********

The wind direction around a low pressure area in the Northern Hemisphere is __________.

A) clockwise and inward

B) clockwise and outward

C) counterclockwise and inward

D) counterclockwise and outward

Warm air masses will generally have __________.

A) turbulence within the mass

B) stratiform clouds*********

C) heavy precipitation

D) good visibility

Weather systems in the middle latitudes generally travel from __________.

A) east to west

B) north to south

C) west to east*********


When a low pressure area is approaching, the weather generally __________.

A) improves

B) worsens***********



A) darkening, growing in size and forming an anvil top

B) that shows extensive vertical development

C) creating cold downdrafts that are felt on the ground


A thin, whitish, high cloud popularly known as "mares' tails" is __________.

A) altostratus

B) stratus

C) cumulus

D) cirrus*******

A type of precipitation that occurs only in thunderstorms with strong convection currents that convey r

A) sleet

B) hail**********

C) freezing rain

D) rime

All of the following are associated with cumulonimbus clouds EXCEPT __________.

A) steady rainfall**************

B) hail storms

C) thunderstorms

D) tornadoes or waterspouts

Altocumulus clouds are defined as __________.

A) high clouds

B) middle clouds**********

C) low clouds

D) vertical development clouds

An "atoll cloud" forming over an island due to heating of the land during the daytime would be which ty

A) Cirrus

B) Cumulus********

C) Stratus

D) Nimbus

Cirrus clouds are composed primarily of __________.

A) ice crystals**********

B) water droplets

C) snow crystals

D) nitrogen



Cloud formations are minimal when the __________.

A) surface temperature and temperature aloft are equal**********

B) surface temperature and temperature aloft differ greatly

C) barometric pressure is very low

D) relative humidity is very high

Clouds are classified according to their __________.

A) size

B) moisture content

C) altitude and how they were formed******

D) location in a front

Clouds form __________.

A) as a mass of warm, humid air rises into the atmosphere and cools, condensing moisture into small d

B) as winds blow across bodies of water, the sun causes the moisture to be absorbed and move upwar

C) dry air compresses moisture from the atmosphere into clouds

D) when the relative humidity of the atmosphere is low

Clouds that form as small white flakes or scaly globular masses covering either small or large portions o

A) cirrus

B) cirrostratus

C) altostratus

D) cirrocumulus*******

Clouds with the prefix "nimbo" in their name __________.

A) are sheet or layer clouds

B) have undergone great vertical development

C) are middle or high altitude clouds

D) are rain clouds*********

Cumulonimbus clouds are formed by __________.

A) vertical air movements*********

B) heavy rainstorms

C) horizontal air movements

D) any movement of moist air

Cumulonimbus clouds can produce __________.

A) dense fog and high humidity

B) gusty winds, thunder, rain or hail, and lightning*********

C) clear skies with the approach of a cold front



B) mamma*********

C) rime

D) ice prisms

The appearance of nimbostratus clouds in the immediate vicinity of a ship at sea would be accompanie

A) Rain and poor visibility********B) Dropping barometric pressure and backing wind in the Northern Hemisphere

C) High winds and rising sea

D) Severe thunderstorms

The bases of middle clouds are located at altitudes of between __________.

A) 3,000 to 6,500 feet (914 to 1981 meters)

B) 6,500 to 20,000 feet (1981 to 6096 meters)*********

C) 10,000 to 35,000 feet (3048 to 10,668 meters)

D) 20,000 to 60,000 feet (6096 to 18,288 meters)

The low, dark, sheet-like cloud which is associated with continuous precipitation for many hours is a __

A) cirrus cloud

B) cumulus cloud

C) cumulonimbus cloud

D) nimbostratus cloud****

The presence of stratus clouds and a dying wind will usually result in __________.

A) heavy rainB) heavy snow

C) thick fog********

D) clearing skies

Uniform, grayish-white cloud sheets that cover large portions of the sky, and are responsible for a large

A) altostratus******

B) altocumulus

C) cirrostratus

D) cirrocumulus

What occurs when rising air cools to the dew point?

A) Advection fog forms

B) Humidity decreases

C) Winds increase

D) Clouds form****

Which cloud commonly produces a halo about the Sun or Moon?



Which type of weather could you expect soon after seeing "hook" or "comma" shaped cirrus clouds?

A) Rain with the approach of a warm front********

B) Clearing with the approach of a cold front

C) Continuing fog and rain

D) The formation of a tropical depression

Advection fog is most commonly caused by __________.

A) air being warmed above the dew point

B) saturation of cold air by rain

C) a rapid cooling of the air near the surface of the Earth at night

D) warm moist air being blown over a colder surface*******

Advection fog may be formed by warm moist air passing over a __________.

A) warmer sea surface

B) cooler sea surface******

C) dry coastal plain

D) polar land mass

As the temperature of the air reaches the dew point, __________.

A) rain must develop

B) fog may form***********

C) it begins to snow

D) water freezes

Fog forms when the air __________.

A) is 50% water saturated

B) is 90% water saturated

C) temperature is greater than the dew point temperature

D) temperature is equal to, or below the dew point temperature********

Fog forms when the air temperature is at or below __________.

A) 32° F

B) the wet bulb temperature

C) the dew point*********

D) the dry bulb temperature

Fog generally clears when the __________.

A) wind speed increases

B) wind direction changes



C) temperature increases

D) All of the above*****

Fog is formed when __________.

A) the moisture in the air is condensed into small droplets

B) air is cooled to its dew pointC) the base of a cloud is on the ground

D) All of the above*********

Fog is likely to occur when there is little difference between the dew point and the __________.

A) relative humidity

B) air temperature*********

C) barometric pressure

D) absolute humidity

Fog is most commonly associated with a(n) __________.

A) warm front at night**********

B) low pressure area

C) anticyclone

D) cold front in the spring

In a weather report, the term "visibility" expresses __________.

A) how far you can see with the "naked eye"

B) how far you can see with a telescope or binocularsC) how well you can identify an object at night

D) the distance in miles at which prominent objects are identifiable*********

Radiation fog __________.

A) always forms over water

B) is formed by a temperature inversion*********

C) is thinnest at the surface

D) dissipates during the evening

Steam smoke will occur when __________.

A) extremely cold air from shore passes over warmer water*********

B) warm dry air from shore passes over cooler water

C) cold ocean water evaporates into warm air

D) cool rain passes through a warm air mass

The fog most commonly encountered at sea is called __________.



A) conduction fog

B) radiation fog

C) frontal fog

D) advection fog********

The fog produced by warm moist air passing over a cold surface is called __________.

A) conduction fog

B) radiation fog

C) frontal fog

D) advection fog*********

The type of fog that occurs on clear nights with very light breezes and forms when the earth cools rapid

A) radiation fog**********

B) frontal fog

C) convection fog

D) advection fog

What will act to dissipate fog?

A) Upwelling cold water

B) Advection of warm air over a colder surface

C) Rain that is warmer than air

D) Downslope motion of an air mass along a coast********

When compared to air temperature, which factor is most useful in predicting fog? See Reference

A) Vapor pressure

B) Dew point**********

C) Barometric pressure

D) Absolute humidity

When warm moist air blows over a colder surface and is cooled below its dew point, the result is _____

A) radiation fog

B) ice fog

C) advection fog********

D) frost smoke

Which condition would most likely result in fog?

A) Warm moist air blowing over cold water**********

B) Airborne dust particles

C) Warm moist air blowing over warm water

D) Dew point falling below the air temperature



D) continent

A cloud sequence of cirrus, cirrostratus, and altostratus clouds followed by rain usually signifies the app

A) occluded front

B) stationary front

C) warm front*********D) cold front

A cold front moving in from the northwest can produce __________.

A) thunderstorms, hail, and then rapid clearing************

B) increasing cloud cover lasting for several days

C) lengthy wet weather

D) low ceilings with thick cirrus clouds

A frontal thunderstorm is caused by __________.

A) pronounced local heating

B) wind being pushed up a mountain

C) a warm air mass rising over a cold air mass*************

D) an increased lapse rate caused by advection of warm surface air

A line of clouds, sharp changes in wind direction, and squalls are most frequently associated with a(n) _

A) occluded front

B) warm front

C) cold front***D) warm sector

A series of brief showers accompanied by strong, shifting winds may occur along or some distance ahea

A) upper front aloft

B) cyclone

C) occluded front

D) cold front*********

A weather front exists when __________.

A) air masses of the same temperature meet

B) air masses of different temperatures meet********

C) many clouds create a differential in air density

D) two lows are separated by a ridge of higher pressure

After a cold front passes the barometric pressure usually __________.

A) fluctuates



B) remains the same

C) remains the same, with clouds forming rapidly

D) rises, often quite rapidly, with clearing skies*******

After a cold front passes, the barometric pressure __________.

A) drops, and the temperature dropsB) drops, and the temperature rises

C) rises, and the temperature drops*********

D) rises, and the temperature rises

After the passage of a cold front the visibility_______. _

A) does not change

B) improves rapidly*********

C) improves only slightly

D) becomes poor

An occluded front is caused by a(n) __________.

A) low pressure area

B) high pressure area

C) area of calm air

D) cold front overtaking a warm front***********

An occluded front is usually caused by a __________.

A) cold front becoming stationaryB) warm front becoming stationary

C) cold front overtaking a warm front********

D) warm front dissipating

As a cold front passes an observer, pressure __________.

A) drops and winds become variable

B) rises and winds become gusty********

C) drops and winds become gusty

D) rises and winds become variable

As it approaches, a typical warm front will bring __________.

A) rising temperatures and falling barometric pressure*********

B) falling temperature and pressure

C) falling temperatures and rising pressure

D) rising barometric pressure and temperatures

Brief, violent showers frequently accompanied by thunder and lightning are usually associated with ___



A) passage of a warm front

B) passage of a cold front**********

C) winds shifting counterclockwise in the Northern Hemisphere

D) stationary high pressure systems

Cirrus clouds followed by cirrostratus then altostratus, stratus, and occasionally nimbostratus indicate t

A) cold front

B) warm front**********

C) tropical front

D) occluded front

Clouds appearing in the following order: cirrus, cirrostratus, altostratus, stratus, and nimbostratus usual

A) warm front***********

B) occluded front

C) medium front

D) cold front

Cumulonimbus clouds are most likely to accompany a(n) __________.

A) high pressure system

B) cold front*******

C) warm front

D) occluded front

In the Northern Hemisphere, gusty winds shifting clockwise, a rapid drop in temperature, thunderstorm

A) warm front

B) tropical cyclone

C) anticyclone

D) cold front***********

In the Northern Hemisphere, winds veering sharply to the west or northwest with increasing speed are

A) cold front has passed***********

B) low pressure center is approaching

C) stationary front exists

D) high pressure center has passed

On the approach of a warm front the barometric pressure usually __________.

A) falls**********

B) rises

C) is steady

D) is unreliable



Squall lines with an almost unbroken line of threatening dark clouds and sharp changes in wind directio

A) slow-moving warm front

B) fast-moving cold front***********

C) stationary front

D) occluded front

Steady precipitation is typical of __________.

A) coming cold weather conditions

B) a warm front weather condition**********

C) high pressure conditions

D) scattered cumulus clouds

The first indications a mariner will have of the approach of a warm front will be __________.

A) large cumulonimbus (thunderclouds) building up

B) high cirrus clouds gradually changing to cirrostratus and then to altostratus**********

C) fog caused by the warm air passing over the cooler water

D) low dark clouds accompanied by intermittent rain

The FIRST indications a mariner will have of the approach of a warm front will be __________.

A) large cumulonimbus clouds building up

B) low dark clouds with intermittent rain

C) fog caused by the warm air passing over the cooler water

D) high clouds gradually followed by lower thicker clouds*********

The probability of a sudden wind may be foretold by __________.

A) a partly cloudy sky

B) an overcast sky

C) a fast approaching line of dark clouds***********

D) the formation of cumulus clouds in the sky

The slope of a warm front is about __________.

A) 1 mile vertically to 10 miles horizontally

B) 1 mile vertically to 50 miles horizontally

C) 1 mile vertically to 150 miles horizontally***********

D) 1 mile vertically to 500 miles horizontally

The steepness of a cold front depends on __________.

A) the direction of wind around the front

B) its velocity************



A) line squall

B) water spout

C) cold front

D) warm front********

When a warm air mass overtakes and replaces a cold air mass, the contact surface is called a(n) ______

A) warm front*********

B) cold front

C) line squall

D) occluded front

When cold air displaces warm air you have a(n) __________.

A) cold front**********

B) occluded front

C) stationary front

D) warm front

When crossing a front isobars tend to __________.

A) change from smooth curves within the air mass to sharp bends at the front**********

B) change from sharp bends within the air mass to smooth curves at the front

C) pass smoothly across the front with no change

D) become closer together at the front and pass through in straight lines

Which condition will occur after a cold front passes?

A) Temperature rises

B) Stratus clouds form

C) Pressure decreases

D) Humidity decreases************

Which is a characteristic of the weather preceding an approaching warm front?

A) Gusty winds

B) Steadily falling barometric pressure************

C) Decreasing relative humidity

D) Clearing skies

A) Cold fronts move faster than warm fronts.**********

B) Cold fronts move slower than warm fronts.

C) Cold fronts and warm fronts move with equal speed.

D) Cold fronts move slower at the northern end and faster at the southern end.

Which of the following statements concerning frontal movements is TRUE?



A) The temperature rises after a cold front passes.

B) The barometric pressure rises when a warm front passes.

C) A cold front generally passes faster than a warm front.************

D) A warm front usually has more violent weather associated with it than a cold front.

Which statement is TRUE when comparing cold and warm fronts?

A) Cold fronts are more violent and of shorter duration.**********

B) Cold fronts are milder and last longer.

C) They are very similar with the exception of wind direction.

D) Warm fronts are more violent and of longer duration.

Which type of front forms when a cold front overtakes and forces a warm front upwards?

A) A cold front

B) An occluded front**********

C) A warm front

D) A stationary front

Which type of frontal passage is associated with a relatively narrow band of precipitation?

A) A cold front**********

B) A warm front

C) A stationary front


Which weather change accompanies the passage of a cold front in the Northern Hemisphere?

A) Wind shift from northeast, clockwise to southwest

B) Steady dropping of barometric pressure

C) Steady precipitation, gradually increasing in intensity

D) A line of cumulonimbus clouds*********

With the passage of an occluded front the temperature __________.

A) rises rapidly

B) remains about the same

C) drops rapidly

D) depends on whether warm type or cold type occlusion********

You can expect frontal activity when two air masses collide and __________.

A) their barometric pressures and temperatures are the same

B) there are differences in how they track along the jet stream

C) there are no significant differences between their temperatures and moisture content

D) there are significant differences between the temperature of each air mass*********



Your facsimile prognostic chart indicates that you will cross the cold front of a low pressure system in a

A) expect to see cirrus clouds followed by altostratus and nimbostratus clouds

B) alter course to remain in the navigable semicircle

C) prepare for gusty winds, thunderstorms, and a sudden wind shift***********

D) expect clear weather, with steady winds and pressure, until the front passes

A light, feathery deposit of ice caused by the sublimation of water vapor directly into the crystalline for

A) dew

B) frost************

C) glaze

D) snow

Air circulation is caused or affected by __________.

A) the rotation of the earth on its axis

B) convection currents caused by differences in radiant heating between equatorial and polar regions

C) mountain ranges


Air masses near the earth's surface __________.

A) move from areas of high pressure to areas of low pressure

B) are deflected by the earth's rotation in both hemispheres

C) are deflected by the "Coriolis effect"


Mechanical lifting of air by the upslope slant of the terrain is called __________.

A) vertical lifting

B) convective lifting

C) advective lifting

D) topographic lifting********

Plain language is usually used on marine weather __________.

A) forecasts***********

B) observations

C) analyses

D) synoptic chart

Static on your AM radio may be __________.

A) an indication of nearby thunderstorm activity**********

B) an indication of "clearing" weather

C) of no meteorological significance



D) a sign of strong winds

The Earth's irregular heating is caused by __________.

A) the time of day

B) the seasons

C) geographyD) All of the above********

The force resulting from the earth's rotation that causes winds to deflect to the right in the Northern H

A) pressure gradient

B) Coriolis effect***********

C) aurora borealis

D) ballistic deflection

The region containing 3/4 of the mass of the atmosphere and the region to which are confined such ph

A) stratosphere

B) troposphere***********

C) stratopause

D) tropopause

Weather forecast messages are usually __________.

A) given only to TV stations

B) transmitted only by commercial broadcast stations

C) broadcast in plain language**********D) broadcast immediately on VHF Channel 16 and 2182 kHz

What benefit is a weather bulletin to a mariner?

A) It provides a legal reason to cancel a projected voyage.

B) It allows the mariner to make long term weather forecasts.

C) It is of little benefit since the weather changes frequently and rapidly.

D) It gives the mariner time to prepare for weather changes.*************

What is the primary source of the earth's weather?

A) The oceans

B) The moon

C) The sun**********

D) The solar system

Which condition(s) is(are) necessary for the formation of dew?

A) Clear skies



B) Calm air

C) Earth's surface cooler than the dew point of the air


Which type of precipitation is a product of the violent convection found in thunderstorms?

A) SnowB) Freezing Rain

C) Hail**********

D) Sleet

A decrease in barometric pressure is associated with all of the following except __________.

A) rising warm air

B) proximity to a low pressure area

C) inward spiraling circulation

D) clear dry weather*********

A line on a weather chart connecting places which have the same barometric pressure is called an ____

A) isotherm

B) isallobar

C) isobar***********

D) isotope

A slow rise in the barometric pressure forecasts __________.

A) rainy weather for the next 48 hoursB) high seas

C) improving weather conditions********

D) deteriorating weather conditions

A slow, gradual fall of the barometer indicates approaching __________.

A) gale force winds within 12 hours

B) blizzard conditions

C) deteriorating or unsettled weather************

D) heavy, wind driven rain

A steep barometric gradient indicates __________.

A) calms

B) light winds

C) strong winds********

D) precipitation

As a high pressure system approaches, the barometer reading __________.



C) roaring forties

D) doldrums**********

The diurnal variation of pressure is most noticeable __________.

A) above the polar circles

B) in a low pressure areaC) during periods of low temperatures

D) in the doldrums*********

The diurnal variation of pressure is not visible in the middle latitudes in winter because __________.

A) it is masked by the pressure changes of moving weather systems***********

B) the decreased gravitational effect from the sun causes the variation to fade

C) the decreased average temperature is less than the critical temperature

D) the increased Coriolis force disperses the pressure variation

The pressure gradient between the horse latitudes and doldrums runs __________.

A) east to west

B) north to south************

C) northeast to southwest

D) northwest to southeast

The standard atmospheric pressure measured in inches of mercury is __________.

A) 29.92***********

B) 500.0C) 760.0

D) 1013.2

Two well-developed high pressure areas may be separated by a __________.

A) hill of low pressure

B) trough of low pressure************

C) valley of low pressure

D) ridge of low pressure

Two well-developed low pressure areas may be separated by a __________.

A) trough of higher pressure

B) hill of higher pressure

C) ridge of higher pressure************

D) valley of higher pressure

What is a common unit of measure for atmospheric pressure?



A) centimeters

B) Inches**********

C) Degrees

D) Feet

When observing a rapid rise in barometric pressure, you may expect __________.

A) clear weather with no wind, but the possibility of rain or snow within 24 hours

B) deteriorating weather with rain or snow

C) heavy rain or severe thundershowers

D) clearing weather, possibly accompanied by high winds***********

Which general weather conditions should you expect to find in a low pressure system?

A) Fair weather

B) Precipitation and cloudiness********

C) Scattered clouds at high elevations

D) Gradual clearing and cooler temperatures

Widely spaced isobars on a weather map indicate __________.

A) high winds

B) gentle breezes***********

C) ice, snow or frozen rain

D) probability of tornados

Relative humidity is defined as __________.

A) the maximum vapor content the air is capable of holding

B) the minimum vapor content the air is capable of holding

C) the ratio of the actual vapor content at the current temperature to the air's vapor holding capability

D) the relation of the moisture content of the air to barometric pressure

The dew point temperature is __________.

A) always higher than the air temperature

B) always lower than the air temperature

C) equal to the difference between the wet and dry bulb temperatures

D) the temperature at which the air is saturated with water vapor**********

The expression "the air is saturated" means __________.

A) the relative humidity is 100%**************

B) the vapor pressure is at its minimum for the prevailing temperature

C) precipitation has commenced

D) cloud cover is 100%



d __________.

d __________.



ting process in our atmosphere called __________.



re is a __________.



_________.



is indicates a(n) __________.

wind, the center of low pressure is located to the __________.

wind, the center of the low pressure is located to the __________.



aindrops above and below the freezing level is known as __________.

pe?



dicate __________.

m a "mackerel sky", would be classified as __________.

the result of __________.

ed edges and rain is falling from the dark lower edge. Should this cloud pass directly overhead ______

ding grounds for waterspouts and tornadoes, are called __________.



by which of the following conditions?

_______.

percentage of the precipitation in the temperate latitudes, are called __________.



system?



ly by radiation is known as __________.

_____.



ch type of weather should be forecasted?



roach of a(n) __________.

_________.

d of a(n) __________.



_______.



n, generally precede a(n) __________.



is called a(n) __________.

__________.



____.



out 24 hours. You should __________.

, on objects whose temperatures are below freezing, is called __________.



misphere and to the left in the Southern Hemisphere is called __________.

nomena as clouds, storms, precipitation and changing weather conditions is called __________.



______.



e following, EXCEPT a sudden __________.

barometric reading __________.

____.



__.



***********



r vapor will occur is referred to as the __________.



___.



aring skies, indicate the passage of a(n) __________.



A block and tackle is "rove to advantage". This means that the __________.

A) blocks have been overhauled

B) hauling parts of two tackles are attached

C) hauling part leads through the movable block************

D) hauling part leads through the standing block

A block that can be opened at the hook or shackle end to receive a bight of the line is a __________.

A) bight block

B) gin block

C) heel block

D) snatch block********

A breeches buoy is being rigged from the shore to a stranded vessel. The initial shot line passed to the v

A) hawser which is used to pass a tail-block and whip to the vessel

B) hawser with breeches buoy and harness attached

C) hawser which should be made fast to the vessel below the intended location of the tail-block

D) tail-block and whip which may be used to pass a hawser to the vessel************

A metal ring on the bottom of a block, to which the standing part of a tackle is spliced, is known as a(n)

A) becket************

B) loop

C) swivel

D) eye

A sheave is a __________.

A) grooved wheel in a block**********

B) line to hold a lifeboat next to the embarkation deck

C) partial load of grain

D) seaman's knife

A small light tackle with blocks of steel or wood that is used for miscellaneous small jobs is called a ___

A) snatch block

B) threefold purchase

C) handy-billy**********

D) chockablock

A snatch block is a __________.

A) block used only with manila rope

B) chock roller

C) hinged block***********



B) head line

C) reeving line*********

D) sail line

To reeve a right-angle threefold purchase start with the __________.

A) left sheave bottom blockB) left sheave top block

C) middle sheave top block**********

D) right sheave bottom block

What is meant by the term "two-blocked"?

A) The bottom block touches the top block**********

B) The line has jumped the sheaves.

C) There are turns in the fall.

D) You have two blocks.

Which tackle arrangement has the LEAST mechanical advantage?

A) Single whip*********

B) Gun tackle

C) Luff tackle

D) Twofold purchase

What are reef points used for?

A) Reduce the area of a sail**********B) Keep the sail taut in light airs

C) Reduce the draft if the boat runs aground

D) Increase the strength of the mast

Which line is two-stranded, left-handed small stuff?

A) Houseline

B) Marline************

C) Ratline

D) Lagline

A "bowline" is used to __________.

A) join lines of equal size

B) form a temporary eye (loop) at the end of a line***********

C) be a stopper

D) keep a line from fraying

A "figure eight" knot is used to __________.



A) be a stopper

B) shorten a line

C) join lines of equal size

D) keep a line from passing through a sheave********

A "sheepshank" is used to __________.

A) keep a line from fraying

B) join lines of unequal size

C) stop off a line

D) shorten a line**********

A "whipping" is __________.

A) a messenger

B) a stopper for nylon line

C) a U-bolt for securing a cargo whip to the winch drum

D) turns of twine around a rope end*********

A method used to make an eye in a bight of line where it cannot be spliced is known as __________.

A) braiding

B) plaiting

C) seizing***********

D) serving

A monkey fist is found on a __________.

A) heaving line***********

B) lead line

C) manrope

D) mooring line

A rolling hitch can be used to __________.

A) make a temporary eye

B) mouse a hook

C) secure a line around a spar***********

D) shorten a line

A whipping on a fiber line __________.

A) keeps the ends from fraying*********

B) strengthens it

C) protects your hands

D) becomes part of a splice



C) heaving knot

D) three strand Turk's head

The knot used to join two lines of different diameter is a __________.

A) square knot

B) carrick bendC) becket bend*********

D) sheepshank

The knot used to join two lines or two large hawsers for towing is called a __________.

A) square knot

B) carrick bend*********

C) sheet bend

D) bowline

Which bend or knot is used to tie a small line to a larger one?

A) Becket bend*********

B) Bowline

C) Clove hitch

D) Lark's head

Which is NOT a type of seizing?

A) Flat seizing

B) Racking seizingC) Throat seizing

D) Tube seizing********

Which kind of hitch should you use to secure a spar?

A) Blackwall hitch

B) Stage hitch

C) Timber hitch**********

D) Two half hitches

Which knot is suitable for hoisting an unconscious person?

A) Bowline in a bight

B) French bowline**********

C) Fisherman's loop

D) Spider hitch

Which knot is suitable for hoisting an unconscious person?



A) Bowline on a bight

B) Fisherman's loop

C) French bowline*********

D) Spider hitch

Which knot is used to attach two different sized lines together?

A) Granny knot

B) Sheet bend*************

C) Square knot

D) Thief knot

Which knot reduces the strength of a line by the LEAST amount?

A) Bowline

B) Clove hitch

C) Sheet bend

D) Two half hitches**********

Which knot should be used to bend two hawsers together for towing?

A) Double carrick bend*********

B) Fisherman's bend

C) Heaving line bend

D) Rolling hitch

Which knot should be used to send a man over the side when he may have to use both hands?

A) Bowline

B) French bowline***********

C) Bowline on a bight

D) Running bowline

Which knot would serve best as a safety sling for a person working over the side?

A) Bowline on a bight

B) French bowline**********

C) Jug sling

D) Lifting hitch

Whipping the bitter end of a fiber rope __________.

A) increases the circumference of the rope

B) makes for easier handling

C) prevents fraying of the bitter end************

D) prevents moisture from entering the bitter end



A "gypsy" or "gypsyhead" is a __________.

A) punt used for painting over the side

B) small, reciprocating steam engine

C) spool-shaped drum fitted on a winch********

D) swinging derrick

A "spring line" is __________.

A) any wire rope used for mooring

B) a fire-warp

C) a mooring line running diagonally to the keel*************

D) a mooring line perpendicular to the keel

A Chinese stopper (two lines) will hold best when you __________.

A) fasten the bitter ends to the mooring line with half hitches

B) twist the ends together and hold them in the direction of the pull***********

C) twist the ends together and hold them in the direction opposite to the pull

D) twist the ends together and hold them at right angles to the mooring line

A mooring line leading 45° to the keel, used to check forward or astern movement of a vessel, is called

A) spring line*********

B) warp line

C) bow line

D) breast line

A mooring line leading at nearly right angles to the keel is a __________.

A) bow line

B) breast line**********

C) spring line

D) stern line

A mooring line that checks forward motion of a vessel at a pier is a __________.

A) bow line

B) forward bow line

C) stern line**********

D) stern breast line

A mooring line that prevents a vessel from moving sideways away from the dock is a __________.

A) bow line

B) breast line**********

C) stern line



D) spring line

A post on a dock or wharf used to secure mooring lines or hawsers is called a __________.

A) bitt

B) bollard***********

C) cleatD) capstan

A spring line leads __________.

A) fore and aft from the ship's side********

B) to the dock at a right angle to the vessel

C) through the bull nose or chock at the bow

D) through the chock at the stern

A wooden float placed between a ship and a dock to prevent damage to both is called a __________.

A) camel************

B) dolphin

C) rat guard

D) wedge

An example of a messenger is a __________.

A) fairlead

B) heaving line*********

C) stayD) warp

Chafing gear __________.

A) reduces and prevents corrosion of standing rigging

B) prevents corrosion of running rigging

C) reduces and prevents wear caused by the rubbing of one object against another**********

D) protects the body against extreme cold

Chafing gear is normally used __________.

A) for portable fenders

B) for ground tackle

C) on the inside of the hawsepipe

D) on mooring lines***********

Chafing gear is used to __________.

A) anchor the boat



B) pick up heavy loads

C) protect fiber rope from abrasion*********

D) strengthen mooring lines

If a mooring line should part while you are tying up at a dock, you should make a temporary eye by tyin

A) becket bendB) clove hitch

C) bowline*********

D) square knot

If two mooring lines are to be placed on the same bollard, which method is BEST?

A) Place the eye from the forward line on the bollard and then place the eye from the second line direc

B) It makes no difference how the lines are placed.

C) Place the eye from either line on the bollard, and then bring the eye of the other line up through the

D) Place both eyes on the bollard, in any manner, but lead both lines to the same winch head on the ve

in order to pay out or slack a line which is under strain, you should__________

#NAME?

The lines led forward from the bow and aft from the stern when a vessel is moored to the dock are ___

A) bow and stern lines***********

B) breast lines

C) halyards

D) warps

The main advantage of a Chinese stopper over the one line stopper is that it __________.

A) will not jam on the mooring line************

B) is stronger

C) is easier to use when under heavy tension

D) is safer to use when under heavy tension

The most common method of securing a line to a cleat is a __________.

A) half hitch, then round turns

B) round turn, then figure eights***********

C) figure eight, then round turns

D) figure eight, then half hitches

The revolving drum of a winch used to haul lines is called a __________.

A) bull gear

B) gypsyhead**********



C) spanner

D) wildcat

The usual method of arranging a line on deck so that it will run out easily without kinking or fouling is _

A) coiling the line

B) faking down the line**********C) flemishing the line

D) racking the line

Two mooring lines may be placed on the same bollard and either one cast off first if __________.

A) the eye of the second line is dipped***********

B) the mooring lines are doubled

C) the bollard has two horns

D) one of the lines is a breast line

What is likely to occur when you are surging synthetic mooring lines on the gypsyhead during mooring

A) The lines may jam and then jump off the gypsyhead.

B) If there is sudden strain on the line, the man tending the line may be pulled into the gypsyhead.

C) The lines' surging may cause the vessel to surge.

D) The heat generated may cause the lines to temporarily fuse to the gypsyhead*************

What is normally used to pass a mooring line to a dock?

A) Distance line

B) GantlineC) Heaving line**********

D) Tag line

What is the chief hazard encountered when surging synthetic mooring lines on the gypsyhead during o

A) If there is sudden strain, the man tending the line may be pulled into the gypsyhead.

B) The lines may jam and then jump off the gypsyhead.

C) The lines' surging may cause the vessel to surge.

D) The heat generated may cause the lines to temporarily fuse to the gypsyhead********

What should you do to a line to prevent fraying where it passes over the side of the vessel?

A) Worm that part of the line.

B) Splice that part of the line.

C) Cover it with chafing gear**********

D) Install a cleat.

When a line is subject to wear where it passes through a mooring chock, it should be __________.



A) wormed, parceled, and served

B) wrapped with heavy tape

C) wrapped with chafing gear********

D) wrapped in leather

When checking a mooring line, you should __________.

A) ensure the bight is not fouled between the ship and the dock by taking up slack

B) pay out slack smartly and keep free for running

C) secure more turns to hold the line against any strain, then clear the area

D) surge the line so that it maintains a strain without parting**********

When making a wire fast to bitts it is recommended that you __________.

A) use only figure eights

B) take 2 round turns around one bitt, then make figure eights

C) take 3 round turns around both bitts, then make figure eights*********

D) alternate round turns and figure eights around both bitts

When passing a hawser to the dock you would first use what line?

A) Gantline

B) Heaving line**********

C) Preventer

D) Warp

When securing a manila line to a bitt what is the minimum number of round turns you should take befo

A) None

B) 1**********

C) 2

D) 3

When securing a synthetic line to a bitt what is the minimum number of round turns you should take b

A) None

B) 1

C) 2***********

D) 3

Which method of adjusting mooring lines is MOST useful for leaving a boat free to rise and fall with the

A) Crossing the spring lines**********

B) Slacking all forward running lines while keeping all after running lines taut

C) Doubling up on spring or breast lines

D) Slacking bow and stern lines



Which method should be used to secure a manila line to bitts?

A) A round turn on the bitt farthest from the strain and then figure eights

B) A round turn on the bitt closest to the strain and then figure eights***********

C) Figure eights and then a round turn at the top of both bitts

D) Only figure eights are necessary on both bitts

Which method should be used to secure a synthetic fiber line to two bitts?

A) Two round turns on the bitt closest to the strain and then figure eights**********

B) Two round turns on the bitt farthest from the strain and then figure eights

C) Figure eights and then a round turn at the top of both bitts

D) Only figure eights are necessary on both bitts

Which mooring line is likely to undergo the most strain when docking a ship under normal conditions?

A) Bow line

B) Breast line

C) Spring line**********

D) Stern line

Which mooring line prevents sideways motion of a vessel moored to a pier?

A) A line led forward from the bow

B) A line led aft from the bow

C) A line led in the same direction as the keel

D) A line led at a right angle to the keel*********

Which statement is ALWAYS true?

A) Keep clear of any line that is under a strain************

B) A line will creak, make snapping sounds, and smoke before it parts.

C) Only synthetic lines will snap back after parting.

D) Stepping on the bight of a line is safer than stepping in the bight of a line.

Which statement is TRUE about placing the eyes of two mooring lines on the same bollard?

A) Put one line at the low point and one at the high point of the bollard so they don't touch.

B) Take the eye of the second line up through the eye of the first line before putting the second line on

C) Never put two mooring lines on the same bollard.

D) The mooring line forward should be put on the bollard first.

You are handling a mooring line and are instructed to "Check the line". What should you do?

A) Ensure the bight is not fouled by taking up slack.

B) Pay out the line smartly and keep it free for running.

C) Secure the line by adding more turns.



D) Surge the line so it maintains a strain without parting**********

You are in charge while handling a synthetic hawser on a capstan. The hawser has a heavy strain and yo

A) Back off on the capstan a bit and have the seaman take several more turns on the drum**********

B) Have the seaman take a strain on the hawser and carefully have several turns added on the drum.

C) Have more than one seaman hold a good strain on the hawser and continue to heave easy.D) While continuing to heave slowly on the capstan, have the seaman take several more turns on the d

You can safely step in the bight of a line __________.

A) when it is not under strain

B) if both ends are made fast

C) in an emergency

D) at no time**********

You need to make a fixed loop at the end of a line in order to use the line as a mooring line. You have in

A) Clove Hitch

B) Fisherman's Bend

C) Bowline***********

D) Round-turn and two half hitches

You want to double the strength of a mooring line by using two lines. To accomplish this, the second lin

A) be 1 1/2 times the diameter of the first

B) be married to the first

C) not cross the firstD) be of the same length**********

Chafing gear should be placed __________.

A) at all wearing points of mooring lines***********

B) at the bitter ends of all standing rigging

C) around running rigging

D) on wire rope only

Avast means __________.

A) let go

B) pull

C) slack off

D) stop***********

A "chock" is a __________.

A) deck fitting used to secure mooring lines



B) casting fitted at the side of a weather deck, used as a fairlead***********

C) sharp block of wood used to support hygroscopic cargo

D) smoke pipe for the galley stove

A "stopper" is __________.

A) a short length of line used for temporarily holding another line**********B) a snatch block for handling a topping lift

C) an engine order telegraph

D) the brake on a cargo winch

A "strongback" refers to a __________.

A) bar securing a cargo port*************

B) centerline vertical bulkhead

C) deep beam

D) spanner stay

A bollard is found on the __________.

A) beach

B) deck

C) pier***********

D) towed vessel

A fid is a __________.

A) mallet used when splicing wire ropeB) sharp pointed crow bar used to unlay wire rope

C) tapered steel pin used to separate wire rope

D) tapered wooden pin used when splicing heavy rope*********

A grapnel is a __________.

A) device for securing a chain topping lift

B) hook to prevent the anchor cable from slipping

C) device used to drag for a submerged cable or line*************

D) type of clam bucket used for discharging bulk cargo

A hook that will release quickly is a __________.

A) longshore hook

B) margin hook

C) marginal hook

D) pelican hook**********

A long ton is __________.



A) 1,000 pounds

B) 2,000 pounds

C) 2,240 pounds*********

D) 2,400 pounds

A metal object on the pier resembling a tree stump and made to receive mooring lines is a __________.

A) bight

B) bollard**********

C) chock

D) camel

A rope ladder with wooden rungs is a __________.

A) drop ladder

B) life ladder

C) Jacob's ladder**********

D) jury ladder

A safety shackle is identified by its __________.

A) shape

B) pin*********

C) certification stamp

D) color code

A serving mallet is used in __________.

A) covering wire or fiber rope**********

B) forcing fids into a line

C) dogging hatches

D) splicing lines

A vessel's "quarter" is that section which is __________.

A) abeam

B) dead astern

C) just aft of the bow

D) on either side of the stern*********

Displacement refers to the __________.

A) cubic capacity of a vessel

B) deadweight carrying capacity of a vessel

C) gross tonnage of a vessel

D) number of long tons of water displaced by a vessel afloat*********



C) middle hatch

D) noble

The term "lee side" refers to the __________.

A) side of the vessel exposed to the wind

B) side of the vessel sheltered from the wind**********C) port side

D) starboard side

The term that indicates how many tons of cargo a vessel can carry is __________.

A) bale cubic

B) deadweight***********

C) gross tonnage

D) loaded displacement

The total weight of cargo, fuel, water, stores, passengers and crew, and their effects, that a ship can car

A) bale cubic

B) deadweight**************

C) gross tonnage

D) loaded displacement

To "belay" a line means to __________.

A) coil it down

B) heave it tautC) stow it below

D) secure it to a cleat**********

To "ease" a line means to __________.

A) cast off

B) double up so that one line does not take all the strain

C) pay out line to remove most of the tension************

D) slack it off quickly

To warp a vessel means to __________.

A) anchor the vessel

B) bring the head into the wind

C) clean the decks

D) move the vessel by hauling on lines************



essel is normally made fast to a __________.

__________.

______.



a __________.



________.

perations?

erations?



re figure-eighting the line?

fore figure-eighting the line?

tide?



the bollard***********



u wish to avoid the hawser's slipping on the capstan drum. Which action should you take?

***

rum.

sufficient time to make a splice. Which knot should you use?

e must __________.



.



A liferaft which has inflated bottom-up on the water __________.

A) should be righted by standing on the carbon dioxide cylinder, holding the righting straps, and leanin

B) should be righted by standing on the life line, holding the righting straps, and leaning backwards

C) will right itself when the canopy tubes inflate

D) must be cleared of the buoyant equipment before it will right itself

After abandoning ship which action should be taken IMMEDIATELY upon entering a liferaft?

A) Open equipment pack.

B) Issue anti-seasickness medicine.

C) Get clear of the ship*****

D) Dry the liferaft floor and inflate.

After abandoning ship, you should deploy the sea anchor from a liferaft to __________.

A) keep the liferaft from capsizing

B) navigate against the current

C) keep personnel from getting seasick

D) stay in the general location****

If an inflatable liferaft inflates upside down, you can right it by __________.

A) pushing up on one side

B) standing on the CO2 bottle, holding the bottom straps, and throwing your weight backwards*****

C) getting at least three or four men to push down on the side containing the CO2 cylinder

D) doing nothing; it will right itself after the canopy supports inflate

If help has not arrived in 10-12 hours after you abandon ship in a lifeboat, you should __________.

A) go in one direction until the fuel runs out

B) plot course for the nearest land

C) take a vote on which direction you should go

D) shut down the engines and set the sea anchor*****

If more than one raft is manned after the vessel has sunk, you should __________.

A) go in a different direction in search of land

B) spread out to increase the possibility of a search aircraft finding you

C) reduce the number of rafts by getting as many people as possible into as few rafts as possible

D) tie the rafts together and try to stay in a single group****

If the liferaft capsizes, all personnel should leave the raft and __________.

A) climb onto the bottom

B) swim away from the raft



C) right the raft using the righting strap*****

D) inflate the righting bag

If there are a number of survivors in the water after abandoning ship, they should __________.

A) tie themselves to the unit so they won't drift with the current

B) form a small circular group to create a warmer pocket of water in the center of the circle*****C) send the strongest swimmer to shore for assistance

D) form a raft by lashing their life preservers together

If you are forced to abandon ship in a lifeboat, you should __________.

A) remain in the immediate vicinity*****

B) head for the nearest land

C) head for the closest sea-lanes

D) vote on what to do, so all hands will have a part in the decision

If you must swim through an oil fire, you should NOT __________.

A) wear as much clothing as possible

B) enter the water feet first

C) swim with the wind****

D) cover eyes with one hand when entering the water

Immediately after abandoning a vessel, lookouts should be posted aboard liferafts to look for _______

A) survivors in the water****

B) food and waterC) land

D) bad weather

Inflatable liferafts are less maneuverable than lifeboats due to their __________.

A) shape

B) shallow draft

C) large sail area

D) All of the above***

Once you have established the daily ration of drinking water in a survival situation, how should you drin

A) Small sips at regular intervals during the day

B) The complete daily ration at one time during the day

C) One-third the daily ration three times daily*****

D) Small sips only after sunset

To keep injured survivors warm in the water after abandoning ship, they should __________.



A) be placed in the middle of a small circle formed by the other survivors in the water******

B) float on their backs with their arms extended for maximum exposure to the air

C) remove their life preservers and hold on to the uninjured survivors

D) sip water at intervals of fifteen minutes

To turn over an inflatable liferaft that is upside down, you should pull on the __________.

A) canopy

B) manropes

C) sea painter

D) righting strap******

Using a sea anchor will __________.

A) reduce your drift rate*****

B) keep the liferaft from turning over

C) aid in recovering the liferaft

D) increase your visibility

What is one of the FIRST actions you should take after abandoning and clearing away from a vessel?

A) Identify the person in charge****

B) Gather up useful floating objects.

C) Prepare for arrival of rescue units.

D) Arrange watches and duties.

What is one of the FIRST things you would do on boarding an inflatable liferaft?

A) Open equipment pack.

B) Post a lookout.

C) Issue anti-seasickness medicine.

D) Pick up other survivors*****

When abandoning ship, after launching the motor lifeboat you should __________.

A) plot a course for the nearest land

B) take a vote on which direction you should go

C) stay in the immediate area*****

D) go in one direction until fuel runs out

You are in the process of righting an inflatable liferaft that has inflated in an upside down position. Whi

A) As the raft flips to the upright position, you will be thrown clear.

B) After the raft is in the upright position on top of you, dive down to prevent your life preservers from

C) Swim out from under the raft in a face up position to keep your life preservers clear of the raft*****

D) You should remove your life preservers before attempting to right an inflatable raft.



You board an inflatable liferaft that has been hand launched from a sinking vessel. What should you do

A) Cut the painter****

B) Operate the radio equipment.

C) Open the equipment pack.

D) Ventilate the liferaft of CO2.

You have abandoned ship and are in an inflatable raft that has just inflated. You hear a continuous hissi

A) The saltwater is activating the batteries of the marker lights on the canopy.

B) The inflation pump is in automatic operation to keep the tubes fully inflated.

C) A deflation plug is partially open allowing the escape of CO2.

D) Excess inflation pressure is bleeding off and should soon stop********

You have abandoned ship and are in charge of a liferaft. How much water per day should you permit ea

A) 1 can

B) 1 pint*****

C) 1 quart

D) 1 gallon

You have abandoned ship in rough weather. After picking up other survivors in your liferaft, what shoul

A) Close up the entrances**********

B) Top up the buoyancy tubes.

C) Prepare for the arrival of rescue units.

D) Decide on food and water rations.

You have just abandoned ship and boarded a raft. After the raft is completely inflated you hear a whistli

A) not become alarmed unless it continues for a long period of time**********

B) plug the safety valve

C) unscrew the deflation plugs

D) remove the safety valve and replace it with a soft patch

You hear air escaping from the liferaft just after it has inflated. You should __________.

A) quickly hunt for the hole before the raft deflates

B) check the sea anchor line attachment for a tear if the seas are rough

C) check the painter line attachment for a tear caused by the initial opening

D) not panic since the safety valves allow excess pressure to escape*********

Your liferaft is to leeward of a fire on the water and riding to its sea anchor. You should FIRST ________

A) boat the sea anchor******

B) paddle away from the fire

C) splash water over the liferaft to cool it



D) get out of the raft and swim to safety

Your ship is sinking rapidly. A container containing an inflatable liferaft has bobbed to the surface upon

A) Cut the painter line so it will not pull the liferaft container down.

B) Swim away from the container so you will not be in danger as it goes down.

C) Take no action because the painter will cause the liferaft to inflate and open the container********D) Manually open the container and inflate the liferaft with the hand pump.

If you have to jump in the water when abandoning ship, your legs should be __________.

A) spread apart as far as possible

B) held as tightly against your chest as possible

C) in a kneeling position

D) extended straight down and crossed at the ankles********

If you must enter water on which there is an oil fire, you should __________.

A) protect your life preserver by holding it above your head

B) enter the water on the windward side of the vessel***********

C) keep both hands in front of your face to break the water surface when diving head first

D) wear very light clothing

If you must jump from a vessel, the correct posture includes __________.

A) holding down the life preserver against the chest with one arm crossing the other, covering the mou

B) knees bent and held close to the body with both arms around legs

C) body straight and arms held tightly at the sides for feet first entry into the waterD) both hands holding the life preserver below the chin with knees bent and legs crossed

If you wear extra clothing when entering the water after abandoning ship it will __________.

A) weigh you down

B) preserve body heat***********

C) reduce your body heat

D) make it more difficult to breathe

The abandon ship signal is __________.

A) a continuous ringing of general alarm bells for at least 10 seconds

B) a continuous ringing of the general alarm, and sounding of the ship's whistle

C) more than 6 short blasts and 1 long blast of the ship's whistle and the same signal on the general ala

D) a continuous sounding of the ship's whistle

The abandon ship signal on the ship's whistle is __________.

A) 6 short blasts and 1 long blast



B) more than 6 short blasts

C) more than 6 short blasts and 1 long blast*****

D) 1 long blast of at least 10 seconds

The signal given to commence lowering the lifeboats is __________.

A) 3 short blasts of the ship's whistleB) specified on the muster list (station bill)*******

C) 3 long blasts of the ship's whistle

D) 1 long blast of the ship's whistle

Traditionally, the signal for fire aboard ship is __________.

A) more than 6 short blasts and 1 long blast on the whistle, and the same signal on the general alarm

B) continuous sounding of the ship's whistle and the general alarm for at least 10 seconds*****

C) 1 short blast on the whistle

D) alternating short and long blasts on the ship's whistle

When whistle signals are used for launching lifeboats, one short blast means __________.

A) "use the float-free method only"

B) "lower all boats"********

C) "raise all boats"

D) "drill is over, secure all boats"

While reading the muster list you see that "3 short blasts on the whistle and 3 short rings on the genera

A) abandon shipB) dismissal from fire and emergency stations*********

C) fire and emergency

D) man overboard

You hear the general alarm and ship's whistle sound for over 10 seconds. Traditionally, this is the signal

A) abandon ship

B) dismissal from fire and emergency stations

C) fire and emergency*********

D) man overboard

After abandoning a vessel, water that is consumed within the first 24 hours will __________.

A) pass through the body with little absorbed by the system*********

B) help to prevent fatigue

C) quench thirst for only 2 hours

D) help to prevent seasickness

Drinking salt water will __________.



A) be safe if mixed with fresh water

B) prevent seasickness

C) dehydrate you********

D) protect against heat cramps

Enclosed lifeboats which have been afloat over a long period of time require __________.

A) frequent opening of hatches to permit entry of fresh air

B) regular checks of bilge levels******

C) use of ear plugs to dampen engine noise

D) frequent flushing of the water spray system with fresh water

If you reach shore in a liferaft, the first thing to do is __________.

A) drag the raft ashore and lash it down for a shelter******

B) find some wood for a fire

C) get the provisions out of the raft

D) set the raft back out to sea so someone may spot it

In the first 24 hours after abandoning a vessel, water should be given only to personnel who are _____

A) thirsty

B) sick or injured*****

C) wet

D) awake

One of the first actions to be taken by survivors when they have boarded an inflatable liferaft is to ___

A) stream the sea anchor

B) take an anti-seasickness pill********

C) open the pressure relief valve

D) drink at least one can of water

Provided every effort is made to preserve body moisture content by avoiding perspiration, how long is i

A) Up to 3 days

B) 8 to 14 days********

C) 15 to 20 days

D) 25 to 30 days

Seawater may be used for drinking __________.

A) at a maximum rate of two ounces per day

B) after mixing with an equal quantity of fresh water

C) if gathered during or immediately after a hard rain

D) under no conditions******



When collecting condensation for drinking water, __________.

A) a sponge used to mop up and store condensation must be kept salt free********

B) only condensation on the bottom of the canopy should be collected

C) it should be strained through a finely woven cloth

D) chlorine tablets should be used to make it drinkable

When personnel are lifted by a helicopter from an inflatable liferaft, the personnel on the raft should _

A) deflate the floor of the raft to reduce the danger of the raft overturning********

B) inflate the floor of the raft to provide for additional stability

C) remove their life preservers to prepare for the transfer

D) take in the sea anchor to prevent fouling of the rescue sling

When transferring survivors from an enclosed lifeboat to a rescue vessel, personnel on board the boat

A) remove their life preservers to make it easier to climb on board the rescue vessel

B) climb on top of the boat while waiting for their turn to transfer to the rescue vessel

C) remain seated inside and make the transfer one person at a time*********

D) enter the water and swim over to the rescue vessel

When using the rain water collection tubes on a liferaft, the first collection should be __________.

A) passed around so all can drink

B) poured overboard because of salt washed off the canopy*********

C) saved to be used at a later time

D) used to boil food

When you are firing a pyrotechnic distress signal, it should be aimed __________.

A) horizontally and directly abeam of your vessel

B) at the vessel whose attention you want to attract

C) into the wind

D) at greater than 60 degrees above the horizon*******

Which statement concerning the sources of drinking water is FALSE?

A) Fresh water may be obtained from fish*********

B) Lifeboat covers or canopies should be washed with rain before drinking water is collected.

C) Fresh water may be collected from condensation inside the liferaft.

D) Seawater should never be consumed.

Which statement is TRUE concerning an inflatable liferaft?

A) The floor may be inflated for insulation from cold water.

B) Crew members can jump into the raft without damaging it.



C) The raft may be boarded before it is fully inflated.


Which step should normally be taken FIRST by those who have boarded a liferaft in an emergency?

A) Ration food and water supplies.

B) Take anti-seasickness pills, if available*********C) Determine position and closest point of land.

D) Check pyrotechnic supplies.

While adrift in an inflatable liferaft in hot, tropical weather __________.

A) the canopy should be deflated so that it will not block cooling breezes

B) the pressure valve may periodically open to prevent excessive air pressure

C) deflating the floor panels may help to cool personnel*********

D) the entrance curtains should never be opened

You are aboard a liferaft in a storm. What should you do with your Emergency Position Indicating Radio

A) Bring it inside the liferaft and leave it on********

B) Bring it inside the liferaft and turn it off until the storm passes.

C) Leave it outside the liferaft and leave it on.

D) Leave it outside the liferaft but turn it off.

You have abandoned ship in tropical waters. Which procedure(s) should be used during a prolonged pe

A) Wet clothes during the day to decrease perspiration.

B) Get plenty of rest.C) Keep the entrance curtains open.

D) All of the above*******

AMVER is a system which provides __________.

A) satellite communications

B) navigational information

C) weather information

D) position reporting service****

The AMVER system requires __________.

A) sailing plans to be sent before departure

B) more frequent reports in heavy weather

C) arrival reports to be sent within 8 hours of arrival

D) a position report within 24 hours of departure*******

The first AMVER position report must be sent within how many hours of departure?



A) 12

B) 24********

C) 36

D) 48

The Sailing Plan, required by vessels participating in AMVER, must be sent __________.

A) within 12 hours of departure

B) within 24 hours of departure

C) within a few hours before or after departure****

D) prior to departure

How often must the impulse-projected line throwing appliance be test fired?

A) Monthly

B) At the Master's discretion*******

C) Semiannually

D) Annually

If passengers are on board when an abandon ship drill is carried out, they should __________.

A) take part*******

B) watch

C) go to their quarters

D) stay out of the way and do what they want

The sprinkler system of an enclosed lifeboat is used to __________.

A) cool the craft in a fire************

B) cool the engine

C) spray oil on the sea to calm it

D) spray personnel during a fire

The steering oar in a lifeboat is __________.

A) shorter than the others

B) used for the stroke oar

C) used by the forward man in the boat to direct the bow

D) longer than the others and should be lashed to the stern***********

The steering oar in a lifeboat is usually referred to as the __________.

A) bumpkin oar

B) stroke oar

C) sweep oar*************

D) becket oar



The tops of the thwarts, side benches, and the footings of a lifeboat are painted which color?

A) International orange***********

B) Yellow

C) White

D) Red

What is NOT a function of the air supply of a covered lifeboat?

A) Provides air for engine combustion

B) Pressurizes water spray system**************

C) Provides air for passenger respiration

D) Prevents smoke and other noxious fumes from entering craft

What should be used to steer an open lifeboat if the rudder becomes lost or damaged?

A) Sea anchor

B) Steering oar**************

C) Spare rudder

D) Daggerboard

When operating the air supply system in a covered lifeboat the __________.

A) fuel supply valve should be closed

B) hatches, doors, and oar ports should be closed************

C) air cylinder shut-off valve should be closed

D) engine should be shut off

Which data is NOT painted on the bow of a lifeboat?

A) Number of persons allowed

B) Name of the vessel

C) Weight of the boat************

D) Port of registry

Why are lifeboats usually double-enders?

A) They are more seaworthy and less likely to be swamped or broach to************

B) They can go forward and backward more easily.

C) They require less space for stowing aboard ship.

D) There is no particular reason for this.

With the air supply on, the air pressure in an enclosed lifeboat will be __________.

A) changing in relation to the speed of the craft

B) less than outside air pressure

C) greater than outside air pressure*************



D) equal to outside air pressure

Your vessel is equipped with totally enclosed lifeboats. Which statement is TRUE when the boat is envel

A) The ventilators will automatically close by the action of fusible links.

B) The motor takes its air supply from outside the lifeboat to prevent asphyxiation of the crew.

C) A water spray system to cool the outside of the boat is operated by a high-volume manual pump.D) An air tank will provide about ten minutes of air for the survivors and the engine***********

After the boat is at the top of the davit heads, the davit arms begin moving up the tracks and are stopp

A) hoist man

B) limit switch***********

C) brake handle

D) preventer bar

Blocks and falls used as lifeboat gear must be designed with a minimum safety factor of __________.

A) 4, based on the breaking strength

B) 5, based on the maximum allowable stress

C) 6, based on the maximum working load***********

D) 8, based on the normal working load

Frapping lines _________.

A) secure the lifeboat in the davits when in the stowed position

B) bring the lifeboat close alongside the rail in the embarkation position

C) give the occupants a safety line when the boat is being lowered from the embarkation levelD) reduce the swinging of the lifeboat at the embarkation level**********

Frapping lines are fitted to lifeboat davits to __________.

A) reduce the swinging of the lifeboat as it is being lowered from the embarkation level***********

B) secure the lifeboat in the davits when in the stowed position

C) hold the lifeboat to the ship's side until the tricing lines are passed

D) be used as a safety line in an emergency

Limit switches __________.

A) control the descent rate of a lifeboat

B) control the ascent rate of a lifeboat

C) cut off power to the winch when the lifeboat nears the final stowed position************

D) cut off power to the winch when the lifeboat reaches the davit bumpers

Limit switches are used on which davits?

A) Sheath-screw davits



B) Gravity davits************

C) Radial davits

D) Quadrantal davits

Limit switches on gravity davits should be tested by __________.

A) the engineers, from a panel in the engine roomB) shutting off the current to the winch

C) pushing the switch lever arm while the winch is running************

D) All of the above

Limit switches, winches, falls, etc. must be thoroughly inspected at least every __________.

A) 2 months

B) 4 months

C) 6 months

D) year**********

Lines passed around the falls to hold the boat while passengers are boarding are __________.

A) life lines

B) frapping lines*************

C) tricing lines

D) tripping lines

On open lifeboats, the purpose of the wire stretched between the davit heads is to __________.

A) keep the movement of the davits at the same speedB) keep the davits from slipping when they are in the stowed position

C) prevent vibration during lowering of the boat

D) support the manropes**********

On which type davit does the davit head stay at the same height?

A) Radial**************

B) Sheath-screw

C) Quadrantal

D) Gravity

The control lever for the mechanical disengaging apparatus in a lifeboat shall __________.

A) be painted bright red

B) be secured to a permanent part of the lifeboat structure

C) have the area surrounding the lever painted white

D) All of the above************

The falls on gravity davits are __________.



A) manila

B) nylon

C) wire************

D) All of the above

The maximum speed of lowering for a lifeboat on gravity davits is controlled by the __________.

A) limit switches

B) emergency disconnect switch

C) governor brake****************************************

D) position of the counterweight on the brake handle

The most common type of davit found on merchant vessels today is the __________.

A) radial

B) sheath-screw

C) gravity***********

D) quadrantal

The purpose of the tricing pendants is to __________.

A) control the fore and aft motion of a lifeboat during lowering

B) control the outboard swing of a lifeboat during lowering

C) provide suspensions for the manropes

D) hold a lifeboat next to the embarkation deck while loading*********

The tricing pendants should be released __________.

A) before the gripes are removed

B) before loading the passengers

C) after loading the passengers***********

D) after the boat is afloat

The type of davit on which you must turn a crank in order to swing the lifeboat out over the ship's side i

A) sheath-screw davit***********

B) gravity davit

C) radial davit

D) bruckner davit

What could be a result of insufficient lubrication of lifeboat winches and davits?

A) Moisture accumulation in winch motor damaging the electrical wiring

B) Freezing of gears in cold weather

C) Corroding of sheaves on the davits so they will not rotate




What is the purpose of the limit switch on gravity davits?

A) To cut off the power when the davits hit the track safety stops

B) To stop the davits from going too fast

C) To cut off the power when the davits are about 12 inches or more from the track safety stops*****


What is the purpose of tricing pendants?

A) They have the same function as frapping lines.

B) They are safety lines for personnel inside the lifeboat.

C) They slow the descent of the lifeboat.

D) They hold the lifeboat alongside the embarkation deck**********

What is TRUE concerning frapping lines?

A) They are used to steady a lifeboat when lowered***********

B) They are normally attached to the davit span.

C) They are needed only on radial davits.

D) They are used to clear the puddings.

When operating gravity davits, the __________.

A) gripes should be released after the boat is moving

B) davits should always be hand cranked the last 12 inches into the final stowed position**********

C) boats are generally lowered by surging the falls around cruciform bitts

D) tricing pendant should be tripped prior to releasing the gripes

Which davit type may be operated by one man?

A) Quadrantal

B) Gravity***********

C) Sheath-screw

D) Radial

You will find a limit switch on a __________.

A) liferaft cradle

B) radial davit

C) sheath-screw davit

D) gravity davit*********

How should the lifeboat sea painter be rigged?

A) Spliced into the ring on the stem post

B) Secured by a toggle around the outboard side of a forward thwart



C) Secured to the inboard side of a forward thwart and led inboard of the falls**********

D) Secured by a toggle to the stem post and led outboard of the falls

In launching a covered lifeboat, what would safely lower the lifeboat from inside the lifeboat cabin?

A) Frapping line

B) Tricing lineC) Rottmer release

D) Winch remote control wire*********

In launching a lifeboat, when should the tricing pendants be released?

A) Before the boat is lowered from the stowage position

B) As soon as the boat-fall blocks clear the davit head

C) After the limit switch is activated

D) After all people have been embarked*******

In rough weather, when a ship is able to maneuver, it is best to launch a lifeboat __________.

A) on the lee side************

B) on the windward side

C) with the wind dead ahead

D) with the wind from astern

Prior to lowering the lifeboat, the most important item to check is the __________.

A) oars

B) sailC) boat plug************

D) life preservers

The sea painter of a lifeboat should be led __________.

A) forward and outside of all obstructions***********

B) forward and inside of all obstructions

C) up and down from the main deck

D) to the foremost point on the ship

Upon hearing the abandon ship signal, you put on your life jacket and report to your station. After the c

A) release the gripes

B) release tricing pendants

C) put the cap on the drain***********

D) lift the brake handle

When launching a lifeboat, frapping lines should be rigged __________.



A) in the secured position

B) at the embarkation deck

C) being lowered to sea level

D) waterborne********

If you must land on a beach with an oar-propelled lifeboat through a heavy surf, the recommended me

A) keep the bow directly in toward the beach, and tow the sea anchor off the stern

B) ride in on the back of a large breaker

C) keep the bow into the seas with the sea anchor out over the bow, and row to meet the breaking wa

D) head directly into the beach by staying between the crests of the waves

In heavy seas the helmsman should steer the motor lifeboat __________.

A) into the seas**********

B) broadside to the seas

C) in the same direction as the seas

D) in a series of figure-eights

Steering a motor lifeboat broadside to the sea could cause it to __________.

A) capsize*********

B) run smoother

C) run faster

D) sink

When backing a motor propelled lifeboat (right-hand propeller) with the rudder amidships, the stern wi

A) straight

B) to port************

C) to starboard


When landing a lifeboat through heavy surf with a strong current running parallel to the beach (from ri

A) approach while coming to the left to take advantage of the current

B) drop an anchor outside the surf line, then pay out anchor line over the bow while the seas carry the

C) approach slow enough so that the boat can be brought around to meet breaking seas on the bow

D) rig a drogue with tripping line over the bow, back ashore with drogue tripped between breakers***

You have abandoned ship and find yourself aboard a lifeboat in a heavy sea. Your boat is able to make

A) put the sea on your stern and run as fast as the boat will go

B) take no action to prevent broaching as this is a recommended maneuver in a heavy sea

C) head the boat into the swells to take them at a 30 to 40 degree angle on either bow and run as slow

D) place everyone as far forward in the boat as possible to keep the bow heavy



What is the best procedure for picking up a lifeboat at sea while utilizing the lifeboat's sea painter?

A) Place the lifeboat ahead and to windward of your vessel with the wind about broad on the bow of y

B) Place the lifeboat ahead and to leeward of your ship with the wind about broad on the bow of your

C) Place your ship to windward of the lifeboat with the wind on the quarter to allow your ship to drift d

D) Place the lifeboat ahead and to windward of your ship with the wind about broad on the quarter of

When hoisting a boat on gravity type davits using an electric motor driven winch, the davit arms should

A) to their final position with the winch operating at slow speed

B) to the bar stop, and then hand cranked to their final position

C) until just before they make contact with the limit switch, and then hand cranked to their final positi

D) to the embarkation deck, and then hand cranked to their final position

When picking up a lifeboat at sea with way on the ship, the sea painter should be secured __________.

A) well forward in the lifeboat***********

B) about amidships in the lifeboat

C) well aft in the lifeboat

D) only after the falls have been attached

A rigid lifesaving device designed to support survivors in the water is a __________.

A) rigid liferaft

B) life float********

C) inflatable liferaft

D) survival capsule

On a rigid liferaft (SOLAS B pack) which is equipped with all of the required equipment you may NOT fin

A) bailer

B) sponge

C) whistle

D) fishing kit**********

Generally, what is used to inflate liferafts?

A) non-toxic gas*************

B) Oxygen

C) Hydrogen

D) Helium

If you find an inflatable liferaft container with steel bands around the case, you should __________.

A) tell the Master

B) leave the bands in place*********

C) tell the Mate



D) remove the bands yourself

After you have thrown the liferaft and stowage container into the water, you inflate the liferaft by ___

A) pulling on the painter line***********

B) forcing open the container which operates the CO2

C) hitting the hydrostatic releaseD) using the hand pump provided

An inflatable liferaft can be launched by __________.

A) the float-free method ONLY

B) breaking the weak link on the painter

C) throwing the entire container overboard and then pulling on the operating cord to inflate the raft**

D) removing the securing straps

An inflatable liferaft is hand-launched by __________.

A) pulling a cord

B) cutting the wire restraining bands

C) removing the rubber packing strip

D) throwing the entire container overboard********

An inflatable liferaft is thrown into the water from a sinking vessel. What occurs automatically after the

A) The sea anchor deploys***********

B) The floor inflates.

C) If upside down, the craft rights itself.D) The painter detaches from the raft.

As a vessel sinks to a depth of 15 feet, the hydrostatic trip releases the liferaft container from its cradle

A) breaking the weak link

B) releasing the tie-down strap***********

C) pulling the operating cord

D) releasing the CO2 canister

If an inflatable liferaft is to be released manually, where should the operating cord be attached before t

A) Do not attach the cord to anything but throw it overboard with the raft container.

B) Attach the cord to a fixed object on the ship.**********

C) You should stand on the cord.

D) Attach the cord to the special pad eye on the "raft davit launcher".

The most important thing to remember when launching an inflatable liferaft by hand is to __________.

A) open the CO2 inflation valve



B) open the raft container

C) ensure that the operating cord is secured to the vessel****************

D) inflate the raft on the vessel, then lower it over the side

To launch a liferaft by hand you should __________.

A) cut the casing bands, throw the liferaft over the side, and it will then inflateB) detach the operating cord, throw the raft over the side, and it will then inflate

C) cut the casing bands, throw the raft over the side, and pull the operating cord

D) throw the liferaft over the side and pull the operating cord***********

To release the davit cable of a davit launched liferaft, you must __________.

A) pull the release lanyard**************

B) pull the hydraulic release

C) push the release button

D) pull on the ratchet handle

What prevents an inflated liferaft from being pulled under by a vessel which sinks in water over 100 fee

A) The hydrostatic release

B) Nothing

C) A Rottmer release

D) The weak link in the painter line*********

When launching an inflatable liferaft, you should make sure that the operating cord is __________.

A) fastened to some substantial part of the vessel**********B) not fastened to anything

C) secured to the hydrostatic release

D) fastened to the raft container

Which operation should be done when launching an inflatable liferaft by hand?

A) Open the liferaft casing.

B) Turn the valve on the CO2 cylinder to start inflation.

C) Make sure the operating cord is secured to the vessel before throwing it over the side.**********

D) After inflation, detach operating cord from liferaft.

Who should inspect and test an inflatable liferaft?

A) The person in charge

B) An approved servicing facility***********

C) Shipyard personnel

D) A certificated lifeboatman

A feature of an inflatable raft which helps keep people stationary in rough weather is __________.



A) lashings on the floor of the raft for the passenger's feet

B) straps from the overhead

C) lifelines on the inside of the raft************

D) ridges in the floor of the raft

A hydrostatic release mechanism for a liferaft __________.

A) must be wet before it will release

B) should be kept in a watertight cover except in an emergency

C) will inflate the raft in its cradle if operated manually

D) must be submerged to a certain depth to release automatically**********

A life line must be connected to the liferaft __________.

A) at the bow

B) at the stern

C) in the middle

D) all around*********

A new liferaft has been installed on your vessel. The operating cord should be __________.

A) attached to the raft stowage cradle or to a secure object nearby with a weak link*************

B) checked to see that it's unattached

C) coiled neatly on the raft container

D) faked on deck and lead through a chock

After launching, an inflatable raft should be kept dry inside by __________.

A) opening the automatic drain plugs

B) draining the water pockets

C) using the electric bilge pump

D) using the bailers and cellulose sponge*********

All inflatable liferafts have __________.

A) safety straps from the overhead

B) built in seats

C) releasing hooks at each end

D) water stabilizing pockets*********

An inflatable liferaft should be manually released from its cradle by __________.

A) cutting the straps that enclose the container

B) removing the rubber sealing strip from the container

C) loosening the turnbuckle on the securing strap

D) pushing the button on the hydrostatic release************



Hand holds or straps on the underside of an inflatable liferaft are provided __________.

A) to right the raft if it capsizes*************

B) to carry the raft around on deck

C) for crewmen to hang on to

D) to hang the raft for drying

If the hydrostatic release mechanism for an inflatable liferaft is not periodically serviced and becomes i

A) set the water lights on immersion

B) release the dye-marker from the liferaft

C) free the liferaft from a sinking vessel****************

D) break the seal on the carbon dioxide cylinder

In each inflatable liferaft, what equipment is provided to make quick, emergency, temporary repairs to

A) No equipment is provided.

B) Glue and rubber patches

C) Several various-sized sealing clamps************

D) Self-adhesive rubberized canvas patches

Inflatable liferafts are provided with __________.

A) a portable radio

B) an oil lantern

C) canned milk

D) a towing connection*********

Puncture leaks in the lower tubes or bottom of an inflatable liferaft should FIRST be stopped by using _

A) sealing clamps***********

B) repair tape

C) a tube patch

D) sail twine and vulcanizing kit

Signaling devices required on inflatable liferafts include a(n) __________.

A) Very pistol

B) orange smoke signal**********

C) air horn

D) lantern

Signaling devices which are required on inflatable liferafts include __________.

A) a rocket shoulder rifle

B) an oil lantern



C) red flares************

D) an air horn

The air spaces in the floor of an inflatable liferaft will provide protection against __________.

A) asphyxiation from CO2

B) loss of air in the sides of the raftC) rough seas

D) cold water temperatures**********

The bosun has thrown the liferaft into the water before abandoning the vessel. The operating cord ___

A) serves as a sea painter***********

B) detaches from the liferaft automatically

C) is used to rig the boarding ladder

D) is cut immediately as it is of no further use

The canopy of an inflatable liferaft should __________.

A) go into place as the raft is inflated*************

B) be put up after everyone is aboard

C) be put up only in severe weather

D) be used as a sail if the wind is blowing

The inside light in an inflatable liferaft is turned on __________.

A) automatically as the liferaft inflates***********

B) with a switch near the boarding handleC) at night because the light has a photosensitive switch

D) by screwing the bulb in after the raft is inflated

The knife on an inflatable liferaft will always be located __________.

A) in one of the equipment bags

B) in a special pocket near the forward entrance***********

C) on a cord hanging from the canopy

D) in a pocket on the first aid kit

The lights on the outside of the canopy on an inflatable liferaft operate __________.

A) by turning the globe clockwise

B) by a switch at each light

C) by a light sensor

D) automatically when the raft is inflated************

The operating cord on an inflatable liferaft also serves as a __________.



A) lifeline

B) painter***********

C) drogue

D) marker

The operating cord on an inflatable liferaft should be renewed by __________.

A) removing the top half of the shell, cutting the line at its source, and renewing completely

B) cutting the line where it enters the case and replacing that portion

C) leaving the original line and tying another one to it so the two lines will take the strain

D) an approved servicing facility ashore**********

The painter of an inflatable liferaft should be __________.

A) free running on the deck

B) faked out next to the case

C) secured to a permanent object on deck**************

D) stowed near the raft

The water pockets located on the underside of inflatable liferafts __________.

A) stow rainwater; these 4 spaces do not take up valuable space

B) act as stabilizers by filling with sea water as soon as the raft is inflated and upright************

C) hold the freshwater required by regulation to be provided in the raft when packed


Under normal conditions a liferaft is released from its cradle by __________.

A) cutting the restraining strap

B) unscrewing the turnbuckle on the back of the cradle

C) lifting one end of the raft

D) pushing the plunger on the center of the hydrostatic release**********

Water pockets on the underside of an inflatable liferaft are for __________.

A) catching rain water

B) stability************

C) easy drainage

D) maneuverability

What is placed on the under side of an inflatable liferaft to help prevent it from being skidded by the wi

A) Water pockets**********

B) A keel

C) Strikes

D) Sea anchor



What is the purpose of the hydrostatic release on an inflatable liferaft?

A) To release the raft from the cradle automatically as the ship sinks***********

B) To inflate the raft automatically

C) To test the rafts hydrostatically


Which distress signal is required for a liferaft in ocean service and could be effectively used to attract th

A) The water light

B) Smoke marker

C) Red flares**************

D) Orange dye marker

An inflatable liferaft should be lifted back aboard the ship by using __________.

A) the single hook at the top of the raft

B) two lines passed under the raft

C) the towing bridle**********

D) All of the above

Generally, when lifting an inflatable liferaft back aboard ship you would use the __________.

A) towing bridle*************

B) main weather cover

C) external lifelines

D) righting strap

In order to retrieve an inflatable liferaft and place it on deck, you should heave on the __________.

A) lifelines

B) righting strap

C) sea anchor

D) towing bridle********



backwards****



__.

k it?



h statement is TRUE?

fouling as you come out.



FIRST after everyone is onboard the liferaft?

g coming from a fitting in a buoyancy tube. What is the cause of this?

ch occupant to drink after the first 24 hours?

d you do next?

ing noise coming from a safety valve. You should __________.

__.



functioning of the hydrostatic release. Which action should you take?

**

th and nose with a hand, and feet together**********

rm bells**********



l alarm bells" is the signal for __________.

for __________.



________.

hould __________.



Beacon?

iod in a raft?



loped in flames?

d by the __________.



s a __________.



over is removed you board your open lifeboat. The FIRST thing to do is to __________.



.



hod is to __________.

ves******

ll back __________.

ht to left when facing from seaward) the recommended procedure is to __________.

boat toward the beach

*******

ay through the water. To prevent broaching, you should __________.

as possible without losing steerage*************



ur ship.

ship***********

own to the lifeboat.

your ship.

be brought up __________.

n*********

d a __________.



______.

********

painter trips the CO2 bottles to inflate the raft?

by __________.

hrowing the raft overboard?



operative, it will NOT __________.

large holes in the raft?

________.



______.



nd or overturned?



e attention of aircraft at night?



A man has a burn on his arm. There is reddening of the skin, blistering, and swelling. Using standard

A) major burn

B) secondary burn

C) second-degree burn***

D) blister burn

A man has suffered a burn on the arm. There is a reddening of the skin but no other apparent damag

A) Minor burn

B) Superficial burn

C) Extremity burn

D) First-degree burn****

A man has suffered a burn on the arm. There is extensive damage to the skin with charring present. H

A) Dermal burn

B) Third-degree burn****

C) Major burn

D) Lethal burn

A minor heat burn of the eye should be treated by __________.

A) gently flooding with water *****

B) warming the eye with moist warm packs

C) laying the person flat on his back

D) mineral oil drops directly on the eye

A victim has suffered a second-degree burn to a small area of the lower arm. What is the proper treat

A) Immerse the arm in cold water for 1 to 2 hours, apply burn ointment, and bandage.

B) Open any blisters with a sterile needle, apply burn ointment and bandage.

C) Apply burn ointment, remove any foreign material and insure that nothing is in contact with the bur

D) Immerse the arm in cold water for 1 to 2 hours, open any blister and apply burn ointment.

Chemical burns are caused by the skin coming in contact with __________.

A) acids or alkalies

B) diesel oil

C) acids, but not alkalies

D) alkalies, but not acids

First-, second-, and third-degree burns are classified according to the __________.

A) area of the body burned

B) source of heat causing the burn



C) layers of skin affected

D) size of the burned area

For small, first-degree burns the quickest method to relieve pain is to __________.

A) immerse the burn in cold water

B) administer aspirinC) apply petroleum jelly

D) apply a bandage to exclude air

If a crewman suffers a second-degree burn on the arm, you should __________.

A) drain any blisters

B) apply antiseptic ointment

C) scrub the arm thoroughly to prevent infection

D) immerse the arm in cold water

Severe airway burns can cause __________.

A) nausea

B) reddening of cheeks

C) complete obstruction of respiratory passages

D) nosebleed

The FIRST treatment for a surface burn is to __________.

A) wash the burned area with a warm soap and water solution

B) flood, bathe, or immerse the burned area in cold waterC) cover the burned area with talcum powder and bandage it tightly

D) leave the burned area exposed to the atmosphere

The FIRST treatment of a person suspected of having airway burns is to __________.

A) move him to a cool location

B) maintain an open airway

C) apply a cool damp dressing to his neck

D) have him drink cool liquids

The most effective first aid treatment for chemical burns is to immediately __________.

A) apply ointment to the burned area

B) flood the affected area with water

C) wrap the burn with sterile dressing

D) apply an ice pack to the burned area

The most important concern in treating a person with extensive burns is __________.



Changing rescuers while carrying out artificial respiration should be done __________.

A) without losing the rhythm of respiration**

B) only with the help of two other people

C) by not stopping the respiration for more than 5 minutes

D) at ten-minute intervals

If the patient vomits during mouth-to mouth resuscitation, the rescuer should FIRST __________.

A) ignore it and continue mouth-to-mouth ventilation

B) pause for a moment until the patient appears quiet again, then resume ventilation mouth-to-mouth

C) switch to mouth-to-nose ventilation

D) turn the patient's body to the side, sweep out the mouth and resume mouth-to-mouth ventilation*

Sign(s) of respiratory arrest requiring artificial respiration is(are) __________.

A) vomiting

B) blue color and lack of breathing**

C) irregular breathing

D) unconsciousness

The MOST important element in administering CPR is __________.

A) having the proper equipment for the process

B) starting the treatment quickly***

C) administering of oxygen

D) treating for traumatic shock

The rescuer can best provide an airtight seal during mouth-to-mouth resuscitation by pinching the victi

A) cupping a hand around the patient's mouth

B) keeping the head elevated

C) applying his mouth tightly over the victim's mouth*

D) holding the jaw down firmly

When administering artificial respiration, it is MOST important to __________.

A) monitor blood pressure

B) clear airways***

C) use the rhythmic pressure method

D) know all approved methods

When applying chest compressions on an adult victim during CPR, the sternum should be depressed ab

A) 1/2 inch or less

B) 1/2 to 1 inch



C) 1 to 1-1/2 inches

D) 1-1/2 to 2 inches**

When giving mouth-to-mouth rescue breathing to an adult, you should breathe at the rate of how man

A) 4

B) 8C) 12****

D) 20

When starting CPR on a drowning victim, you should __________.

A) start chest compressions before the victim is removed from the water

B) drain water from the lungs before ventilating

C) begin mouth-to-mouth ventilations as soon as possible****

D) do not tilt the head back since it may cause vomiting

Which statement is CORRECT with respect to inserting an airway tube?

A) Only a trained person should attempt to insert an airway tube.****

B) A size 2 airway tube is the correct size for an adult.

C) The airway tube will not damage the victim's throat.

D) Inserting the airway tube will prevent vomiting.

You are administering chest compressions during CPR. Where on the victim's body should the pressure

A) Lower half of the sternum***

B) Tip of the sternumC) Top half of the sternum

D) Left chest over the heart

You are alone and administering CPR to an adult victim. How many chest compressions and how many i

A) 15 compressions then 2 inflations

B) 15 compressions then 4 inflations

C) 30 compressions then 2 inflations***

D) 30 compressions then 4 inflations

You are attempting to administer CPR to a victim. When you blow into his mouth it is apparent that no

A) Blow harder to force the air past the tongue.

B) Raise the victim's head higher than his feet.

C) Press on the victim's lungs so that air pressure will blow out any obstruction.

D) Re-tip the head and try again*****

You may have to give artificial respiration after a/an __________.



A) drowning

B) electrocution

C) poisoning


A crew member has suffered frostbite to the toes of both feet. You should __________.

A) immerse the feet in warm water*****

B) warm the feet with a heat lamp

C) warm the feet at room temperature

D) rub the feet

A crew member has suffered frostbite to the toes of the right foot. Which is NOT an acceptable first aid

A) Rub the toes briskly*****

B) Elevate the foot slightly.

C) Rewarm rapidly.

D) Give aspirin or other medication for pain if necessary.

A crew member suffering from hypothermia should be given __________.

A) a small dose of alcohol

B) treatment for shock****

C) a large meal

D) a brisk rub down

A patient suffering from heat exhaustion should be___ __________.

A) moved to a cool room and told to lie down********

B) kept standing and encouraged to walk slowly and continuously

C) given a glass of water and told to return to work after 15 minutes of rest

D) None of the above are correct

Heat exhaustion is caused by excessive __________.

A) loss of body temperature

B) loss of water and salt from the body****

C) gain in body temperature

D) intake of water when working or exercising

Physical exertion on the part of a person who has fallen into cold water would __________.

A) be the best thing to try if there was no rescue in sight

B) increase survival time in the water

C) increase the rate of heat loss from the body********

D) not affect the heat loss from the body



D) All of the above

What are the symptoms of sun stroke?

A) Temperature falls below normal, pulse is rapid and feeble, skin is cold and clammy.

B) Temperature is high, pulse is strong and rapid, skin is hot and dry*****

C) Temperature is high, pulse is slow and feeble, skin is clammy.D) Temperature falls below normal, pulse is rapid, skin is clammy.

Which procedure should be followed when individuals are rescued in cold climates and suffer from hyp

A) Give them brandy or other alcoholic stimulation to promote a return to an acceptable body temper

B) Move them to a warm room to gradually raise their body temperature******

C) Keep them moving to stimulate circulation to raise their body temperature.

D) Warm them under an electric blanket to rapidly regain normal body temperature.

Basic emergency care for third degree electrical burn is to __________.

A) flood the burned area with warm water for two minutes

B) brush away the charred skin and wrap the burned area

C) cover the burned area with a clean cloth and transport the patient to a medical facility***

D) apply ointment or spray to the burned area and wrap with a clean cloth

If a person is unconscious from electric shock, you should first remove him from the electrical source a

A) administer ammonia smelling salts

B) check for serious burns on the body

C) determine if he is breathing***D) massage vigorously to restore circulation

Since electrical burn victims may be in shock, the FIRST medical response is to check for __________.

A) indication of broken bones

B) breathing and heartbeat****

C) symptoms of concussion

D) bleeding injuries

When a patient has an electrical burn, it is important to __________.

A) look for a second burn, which may have been caused by the current passing through the body****

B) locate the nearest water source and flood the burn with water for five minutes

C) remove any dirt or charred skin from the area of the burn

D) apply ointment to the burn area and wrap with clean cloth

When a rescuer finds an electrical burn victim in the vicinity of live electrical equipment or wiring, his fi

A) flush water over any burned area of the patient



B) apply ointment to the burned areas on the patient

C) get assistance to shut down electrical power in the area*****

D) remove the patient from the vicinity of the live electrical equipment or wiring

In managing a situation involving multiple injuries, the rescuer must be able to __________.

A) provide the necessary medicationB) rapidly evaluate the seriousness of obvious injuries*****

C) accurately diagnose the ailment or injury

D) prescribe treatment for the victim

The sorting of accident victims according to the severity of their injuries is called __________.

A) evaluation

B) triage******

C) surveying

D) prioritizing

Where there are multiple accident victims, which condition should be the first to receive emergency tr

A) Back injuries

B) Major multiple fractures

C) Suspension of breathing*****

D) Burns

Where there are multiple accident victims, which injuries should be the FIRST to receive emergency tre

A) Major multiple fracturesB) Eye injuries

C) Back injuries with spinal-cord damage

D) Airway and breathing difficulties*****

Where there are multiple accident victims, which type of injury should be the first to receive emergenc

A) Severe shock*****

B) Eye injuries

C) Burns

D) Major multiple fractures

A compound fracture is a fracture in which __________.

A) more than one bone is broken

B) the same bone is broken in more than one place

C) there is never any internal bleeding

D) the bone may be visible********

A person suffering from possible broken bones and internal injuries should __________.



A) be assisted in walking around

B) be examined then walked to a bunk

C) not be moved but made comfortable until medical assistance arrives******

D) not be allowed to lie down where injured but moved to a chair or bunk

Unless there is danger of further injury, a person with a compound fracture should not be moved until

A) the bone has been set

B) the fracture is immobilized**********

C) radio advice has been obtained

D) the wound has been washed

What is the primary purpose of a splint applied in first aid?

A) Control bleeding

B) Reduce pain

C) Immobilize a fracture******

D) Reset the bone

Which is the most serious type of fracture?

A) Compound*****

B) Greenstick

C) Closed

D) Crack

You are treating a shipmate with a compound fracture of the lower arm. Which action should you take?

A) Apply a tourniquet to control bleeding then align the bones and splint.

B) Apply traction to the hand to keep the bones in line, splint, and apply a pressure dressing.

C) Force the ends of the bones back into line, treat the bleeding, and splint.

D) Apply a bulky, sterile, pressure dressing to control bleeding, then apply a temporary splint, and obta

You should FIRST treat a simple fracture by __________.

A) attempting to set the fracture

B) preventing further movement of the bone*****

C) applying a tourniquet

D) alternately applying hot and cold compresses

A person has suffered a laceration of the arm. Severe bleeding has been controlled by using a sterile dr

A) Apply a tourniquet to prevent the bleeding from restarting.

B) Apply a pressure bandage over the dressing.*********

C) Remove any small foreign matter and apply antiseptic.

D) Administer fluids to assist the body in replacing the lost blood.



C) pouring ice water directly onto the wound

D) pinching the wound closed

Blood flowing from a cut artery appears __________.

A) dark red with a steady flow

B) bright red with a steady flowC) bright red and in spurts*****

D) dark red and in spurts

First aid treatment for small cuts and open wounds is to __________.

A) lay the patient down and cover the wound when the bleeding stops

B) stop the bleeding, clean, medicate, and cover the wound****

C) apply an ice pack to the wound and cover it when the bleeding stops

D) apply a hot towel to purge the wound, then medicate and cover it

In all but the most severe cases, bleeding from a wound should be controlled by __________.

A) applying direct pressure to the wound*******

B) submerging the wound in lukewarm water

C) cooling the wound with ice

D) applying a tourniquet

The preferred method of controlling external bleeding is by __________.

A) direct pressure on the wound******

B) elevating the wounded areaC) pressure on a pressure point

D) a tourniquet above the wound

A conscious victim who has suffered a blow to the head has symptoms that indicate the possibility of c

A) turning the victim's head to the side to keep his airway open

B) positioning the victim so the head is lower than the body

C) giving the victim water if he is thirsty, but no food

D) elevating the head and shoulders slightly with a pillow*****

A crew member is having an epileptic convulsion. You should __________.

A) give the victim artificial respiration

B) completely restrain the victim

C) give the victim one 30 mg. tablet of phenobarbital

D) keep the victim from injuring him or herself*****

A crew member is unconscious and the face is flushed. You should __________.



A) lay the crew member down with the head and shoulders slightly raised******

B) administer a liquid stimulant

C) lay the crew member down with the head lower than the feet

D) attempt to stand the crew member upright to restore consciousness

A person who gets battery acid in an eye should IMMEDIATELY wash the eye with __________.

A) boric acid solution

B) water*****

C) baking soda solution

D) ammonia

A person with diabetes has received a minor leg injured. The symptoms of the onset of a diabetic coma

A) reduced appetite and thirst

B) sneezing and coughing

C) only a low grade fever

D) slurred speech and loss of coordination*****

A rescuer can most easily determine whether or not an adult victim has a pulse by checking the pulse at

A) carotid artery in the neck******

B) femoral artery in the groin

C) brachial artery in the arm

D) radial artery in the wrist

A shipmate chokes suddenly, cannot speak, and starts to turn blue. You should __________.

A) perform the Heimlich maneuver******

B) make the victim lie down with the feet elevated to get blood to the brain

C) immediately administer CPR

D) do nothing until the victim becomes unconscious

A shipmate suffers a heart attack and stops breathing. You must __________.

A) immediately give a stimulant, by force if necessary

B) make the victim comfortable in a bunk

C) immediately start CPR****

D) administer oxygen

A victim is coughing and wheezing from a partial obstruction of the airway. An observer should ______

A) perform the Heimlich maneuver

B) immediately start CPR

C) give back blows and something to drink

D) allow the person to continue coughing and dislodge the obstruction on his own***



D) irregular breathing****

In reviving a person who has been overcome by gas fumes, what would you AVOID doing?

A) Giving stimulants*****

B) Prompt removal of the patient from the suffocating atmosphere

C) Applying artificial respiration and massageD) Keeping the patient warm and comfortable

Persons who have swallowed a non-petroleum based poison are given large quantities of warm soapy

A) induce vomiting*****

B) absorb the poison from the blood

C) neutralize the poison in the blood

D) increase the digestive process and eliminate the poison

Seasickness is caused by rolling or rocking motions which affect fluids in the __________.

A) stomach

B) lower intestines

C) inner ear****

D) bladder

Symptoms of sea sickness include __________.

A) fever and thirst

B) nausea and dizziness*****

C) stomach cramps and diarrheaD) reddening of skin and hives

Symptoms of sugar diabetes include __________.

A) increased appetite and thirst*****

B) decreased appetite and thirst

C) gain in weight

D) elevated temperature

The primary concern in aiding a back injury patient is __________.

A) relieving the patient's pain by giving aspirin or stronger medication

B) avoiding possible injury to the spinal cord by incorrect handling****

C) preventing convulsions and muscle spasms caused by the pain

D) providing enough fluids to prevent dehydration

The proper stimulant for an unconscious person is __________.

A) tea



B) coffee

C) whiskey and water

D) ammonia inhalant***

The symptoms of a fractured back are __________.

A) leg cramps in the muscles in one or both legsB) pain and uncontrolled jerking of the legs and arms

C) vomiting and involuntary urination or bowel movement

D) pain at the site of the fracture and possible numbness or paralysis below the injury****

To reduce mild fever the MOST useful drug is __________.

A) bicarbonate of soda

B) paregoric

C) aspirin****

D) aromatic spirits of ammonia

What are symptom(s) of a ruptured appendix?

A) Dilated pupils and shallow breathing

B) Diarrhea and frequent urination

C) Muscle tenseness in almost the entire abdomen*****

D) Extreme sweating and reddening skin

What can be determined about an injury from examining the condition of a victim's pupils?

A) The degree of pain being sufferedB) The degree of vision impairment

C) Whether or not the brain is functioning properly*****

D) Whether or not the victim's blood pressure is normal

What is a convenient and effective system of examining the body of an injury victim?

A) Check the corresponding (left versus right) parts of the body.******

B) Watch the patient's eyes as you probe parts of the body.

C) Look for discoloration of the patient's skin.

D) Look for uncontrolled vibration or twitching of parts of the body.

What is the procedure for checking for spinal cord damage in an unconscious patient?

A) Beginning at the back of the neck, and proceeding to the buttocks, press the spine to find where it h

B) Prick the skin of the hands and the soles of the feet with a sharp object to check for reaction******

C) Selectively raise each arm and each leg and watch patient's face to see if he registers pain

D) Roll patient onto his stomach and prick along the length of his spine to check reaction

When a patient is suspected of having appendicitis, the pain should be relieved by __________.



A) keeping an ice bag over the appendix area******

B) giving the patient a laxative

C) giving the patient morphine sulfate

D) giving the patient aspirin with a glass of water

When a patient is suspected of having appendicitis, the primary action is to __________.

A) give the patient a laxative to relieve pain

B) give the patient morphine sulfate to relieve pain

C) confine to bed until helicopter arrives********

D) give the patient aspirin with a glass of water

When administering first aid you should avoid __________.

A) any conversation with the patient

B) instructing bystanders

C) unnecessary haste and appearance of uncertainty*****

D) touching the patient before washing your hands

When giving first aid, you should understand how to conduct primary and secondary surveys and know

A) which medications to prescribe

B) how to diagnose an illness from symptoms

C) the limits of your capabilities*****

D) how to set broken bones

When it is necessary to remove a victim from a life threatening situation, the person giving first aid mu

A) pull the victim by the feet

B) avoid subjecting the victim to any unnecessary disturbance*****

C) carry the victim to a location where injuries can be assessed

D) place the victim on a stretcher before attempting removal

Which procedure should be followed when individuals are rescued in cold climates and suffer from hyp

A) Give them brandy or other alcoholic stimulation to promote a return to normal body temperature.

B) Move them to a warm room to gradually raise their body temperature.*****

C) Keep them moving to stimulate circulation to raise their body temperature.

D) Immerse them in a hot bath to rapidly raise their body temperature.

Which procedure should NOT be done for a person who has fainted?

A) Revive the person with smelling salts.

B) Loosen the clothing.

C) Lay the person horizontally.

D) Give pain reliever*********



Which should NOT be a treatment for a person who has received a head injury and is groggy or uncons

A) Give a stimulant*****

B) Elevate his head.

C) Stop severe bleeding.

D) Treat for shock.

While providing assistance to a victim of an epileptic seizure, it is most important to __________.

A) give artificial respiration

B) prevent patient from hurting himself******

C) keep the patient awake and make him/her walk if necessary to keep him/her awake

D) remove any soiled clothing and put the patient in a clean bed

A patient in shock should NOT be placed in which position?

A) On their side if unconscious

B) Head down and feet up, no injuries to face or head

C) Flat on their back with head and feet at the same level

D) Arms above their head****

A person being treated for shock should be wrapped in warm coverings to __________.

A) increase body heat

B) preserve body heat*******

C) avoid self-inflicted wounds caused by spastic movement

D) protect the person from injury during transportation

After an accident the victim may go into shock and die. What should be done to help prevent shock?

A) Slightly elevate the head and feet.

B) Keep the person awake.

C) Keep the person lying down and at a comfortable temperature*********

D) Give the person a stimulant to increase blood flow.

EXCEPT when suffering from a head or chest injury a patient in shock should be placed in which positio

A) Head up and feet down

B) Head down and feet up*******

C) Flat on back with head and feet elevated

D) Arms above the head

In any major injury to a person, first aid includes the treatment for the injury and __________.

A) application of CPR

B) removal of any foreign objects



C) administration of oxygen

D) for traumatic shock******

The best treatment for preventing traumatic shock after an accident is to __________.

A) have the victim exercise to increase circulation

B) keep the victim from electrical equipmentC) keep the victim warm and dry while lying down******

D) apply ice packs and avoid excitement

The major cause of shock in burn victims is the __________.

A) high level of pain

B) emotional stress

C) increase in body temperature and pulse rate

D) massive loss of fluid through the burned area*****

What is a treatment for traumatic shock?

A) Administer CPR.

B) Administer fluids******

C) Open clothing to allow cooling of the body.

D) Keep the victim in a sitting position.

What is NOT a treatment for traumatic shock?

A) Keep the patient warm but not hot.

B) Have the injured person lie down.C) Massage the arms and legs to restore circulation*****

D) Relieve the pain of the injury.

When a person is in shock, their skin will be __________.

A) warm and dry

B) warm and damp

C) cold and dry

D) cold and damp******

Which is NOT a symptom of traumatic shock?

A) Slow, deep breathing*****

B) Pale, cold skin

C) Weak, rapid pulse

D) Restlessness and anxiety



edical terminology this is a __________.

. Using standard MEDICAL terminology, this is a __________.

ow is this injury classified using standard medical terminology?

ment for this injury?

n.



's nostrils and __________.

ut __________.



y breaths per minute?

be applied?

nflations should you administer in each sequence?

air is getting into the lungs. What should you do?



measure?



othermia?

ture.

d then __________.

st step is to __________.



atment?

atment?

treatment?



leeding is controlled and __________.

in medical advice******

ssing and direct pressure. What should you do next?



s an alternative to suturing to close the wound?



ncussion. If the patient feels no indication of neck or spine injury, recommended treatment would inclu



may include __________.

the __________.

___.



____.



ater or warm salt water to __________.



urts



__________.

t __________.

othermia?



ious?

?



de __________.



CO2 cylinders forming part of a fixed fire extinguishing system must be pressure tested

A) year

B) 2 years

C) 6 years

D) 12 years*********

Fixed carbon dioxide extinguishing systems, for machinery spaces that are normally ma

A) the same control releasing the CO2

B) a separate control to release the CO2*********

C) two separate controls to release the CO2

D) three separate controls to release the CO2

Fixed CO2 systems would not be used on crew's quarters or __________.

A) the paint locker

B) spaces open to the atmosphere***********

C) cargo holds

D) the engine room

In a fixed CO2 extinguishing system where provision is made for the release of CO2 by

A) from inside the engine room

B) from the bridge

C) from the cargo control station

D) at the cylinder location************

Some spaces protected by fixed carbon dioxide systems are required to have audible al

A) 20 seconds************

B) 40 secondsC) one minute

D) two minutes

The C02 flooding system is actuated by a sequence of steps which are __________.

A) break glass, pull valve, break glass, pull cylinder control**************

B) sound evacuation alarm, pull handle

C) open bypass valve, break glass, pull handle

D) open stop valve, open control valve, trip alarm

There are two disadvantages to CO2 as a firefighting agent. One of these is the limited q

A) the lack of cooling effect on heated materials************B) that it cannot be used in a dead ship situation with no electrical power to the CO2 pump

C) that it breaks down under extreme heat to form poisonous gases

D) there is no effect on a class A fire even in an enclosed space

You receive word that a person has fallen overboard from the starboard side. You shoul

A) notify the Master

B) put the wheel hard right***********

C) put the engines full astern



D) sound the man overboard alarm

When pilot cylinder pressure is used as a means to release the CO2 from a fixed fire exti

A) 1

B) 2***********

C) 3

D) 4

Which of the following statements is FALSE, concerning the regulations pertaining to th

A) The compartment must be properly ventilated.

B) The temperature of the room should never exceed 130°F(54,4 C).

C) The door must be kept unlocked**********

D) The compartment shall be clearly marked and identifiable.

Which of the following statements is true concerning the control activators, i.e., pull-ha

A) Only one control activator is required for discharge piping systems designed without a stop v

B) Two control activators are required when a stop valve is installed in the main discharge line t

C) An alarm must sound for at least 20 seconds before CO2 is released into a space that is lik


A "fifteen-pound" CO2 extinguisher is so called because __________.

A) there are fifteen pounds of CO2 in the container*************

B) the container, when full, weighs fifteen pounds

C) the pressure at the discharge nozzle is l5 psi

D) the empty container weighs fifteen pounds

A carbon dioxide fire extinguisher should be recharged __________.

A) at least annuallyB) whenever it is below its required weight************

C) only if the extinguisher has been used

D) before every safety inspection

A squeeze-grip type carbon dioxide portable fire extinguisher has been partially dischar

A) labeled empty and recharged as soon as possible************

B) replaced in its proper location if weight loss is no more than 25%

C) replaced in its proper location regardless of weight

D) replaced in its proper location if weight loss is no more than 15%

After using a C02 portable extinguisher, it should be __________. A) put back in service if some C02 remains

B) hydrostatically tested

C) retagged

D) recharged**************(HATIRLADINIZ MI?)

CO2 cylinders must be recharged when the weight of the charge in the cylinder is less t

A) 80%

B) 85%



C) 90%***********

D) 95%

In order to discharge a CO2 portable fire extinguisher, the operator must FIRST _______

A) invert the CO2 extinguisher

B) squeeze the two trigger handles together

C) remove the locking pin************D) open the discharge valve

Portable CO2 fire extinguishers should NOT be used to inert a space containing flamma

A) the CO2 being inhaled by personnel

B) reflash of burning liquids

C) vapor condensation on the extinguisher

D) the discharge causing a static spark************

To operate a portable CO2 extinguisher continuously in the discharge mode __________

A) slip the "D yoke" ring in the lower handle over the upper handle********

B) reinsert the locking pin

C) open the discharge valve

D) invert the CO2 extinguisher

Weight is considered during the periodic required inspection and servicing of ________

A) CO2 (carbon dioxide) fire extinguishers**************

B) foam fire extinguishers

C) water (stored pressure) fire extinguishers

D) All of the above

When discharging a portable CO2 fire extinguisher, you should NOT hold the horn of the A) becomes extremely hot

B) becomes extremely cold*********(frost-bite benzeri soruldu)

C) could come off in your hands

D) is placed directly in the flames

Which is the proper method of determining whether a portable CO2 fire extinguisher nee

A) Check the tag to see when the extinguisher was last charged.

B) Release a small amount of CO2; if the CO2 discharges, the extinguisher is acceptable.

C) Weigh the extinguisher and compare the weight against that stamped on the valve***********

D) Recharge the extinguisher at least once each year.

Which portable fire extinguisher is normally recharged in a shore facility?

A) Dry chemical (cartridge-operated)

B) Water (cartridge-operated)

C) Water (pump tank)

D) Carbon dioxide**************

You can determine that a CO2 fire extinguisher is fully charged by __________.

A) looking at the gauge



B) checking the nameplate data

C) weighing by hand

D) weighing on a properly calibrated scale*************

You used a carbon dioxide (CO2) fire extinguisher but did not empty the extinguisher. Y

A) one percent of the weight of the charge

B) five percent of the weight of the chargeC) seven percent of the weight of the charge

D) ten percent of the weight of the charge*************

A combustible gas indicator meter is calibrated to read the percentage of __________.

A) vapor to oxygen

B) the flammable limit concentration

C) the autoignition concentration

D) the lower explosive limit concentration***********

A pumproom is suspected of accumulating gases after a ventilation machinery breakdo

A) In the lower level of the pumproom

B) In the middle level of the pumproom

C) In the upper level of the pumproom

D) On the deck outside the pumproom***********

Combustible gas indicators measure the presence of combustible gas as a percentage o

A) flash point

B) upper explosive limit

C) lower explosive limit***********

D) fire point

The flammable limits of gasoline are 1.3 to 7.6 percent volume of air. You are testing a ta

A) 0

B) 1.3 to 7.6%*************

C) over 7.6%

D) over 100%

The flammable limits of gasoline are 1.3 to 7.6 percent volume of the air. You are testing

A) 0.7%***********

B) 4.1%

C) 5.5%

D) 55%

What is the best instrument for establishing a safe working area before welding in a con

A) An oxygen indicator

B) A combustible gas indicator

C) A combination combustible gas and oxygen indicator**********

D) A flame safety lamp

When using the combustible gas indicator, a special filter for filtering the incoming sam



A) sour crude

B) leaded gasoline***********

C) CO2

D) chlorine

Which statement is TRUE concerning a combustible gas indicator?

A) Several seconds will elapse between the taking of a sample and the reading appearing on thB) The instrument will operate in any atmosphere.

C) Toxicity of the atmosphere is measured by the instrument.

D) All of the above

Which statement is TRUE concerning combustible gas indicators?

A) One sample of air is adequate to test a tank.

B) They do not work properly where there is a lack of oxygen*************

C) They will detect a lack of oxygen.

D) They are calibrated to read the percentage chance of explosion.

While using a combustible gas indicator, if the hydrocarbon content of the atmosphere

A) remain at zero without moving

B) move to the maximum reading and stay there

C) move halfway up the scale

D) move to the maximum reading and immediately return to zero**********

A portable dry chemical fire extinguisher discharges by __________.

A) gravity when the extinguisher is turned upside down

B) pressure from a small CO2 cartridge on the extinguisher**********

C) air pressure from the hand pump attached to the extinguisher

D) pressure from the reaction when water is mixed with the chemical

In addition to weighing the cartridge, which other maintenance is required for a cartridg

A) Weigh the powder in the canister.

B) Discharge a small amount to see that it works.

C) Check the hose and nozzle for clogs*************

D) Check the external pressure gage.

Recharging a previously used cartridge-operated dry-chemical extinguisher is accompli

A) authorized fire equipment servicing personnel only

B) replacing the propellant cartridge and refilling with powder***********

C) puncturing the cartridge seal after installationD) recharging the cartridge and refilling it with powder

When dry chemical extinguishers are used to put out class B fires, there is a danger of r

A) is not an effective agent on Class B fires

B) does little or no cooling*************

C) dissipates quickly

D) is rapidly absorbed by the liquid



When must a dry chemical fire extinguisher be recharged?

A) After each use**************

B) When the air temperature exceeds 90°F

C) Every 6 months

D) Every 12 months

Which action is routinely performed at the annual servicing and inspection of a dry-che A) Test the pressure gauge for correct reading.

B) Weigh the cartridge************

C) Replace the dry chemical.

D) Pressure test the discharge hose.

Which action is routinely performed at the annual servicing and inspection of a dry-che

A) Insure the chemical is powdery**************

B) Replace the cartridge.

C) Pressure test the discharge hose.

D) Test the pressure gauge for proper operation.

Fire alarm system thermostats are actuated by __________.

A) smoke sensors

B) the difference in thermal expansion of two dissimilar metals**********

C) pressure loss due to air being heated

D) an electric eye which actuates when smoke interferes with the beam

Which fire detection system is actuated by sensing a heat rise in a compartment?

A) Manual fire detection system

B) Automatic fire detection system***************

C) Smoke detection systemD) Watchman's supervisory system

Which of the following is/are NOT required on Ro-Ro vessels, regarding spaces that are

A) The spaces shall be fitted with an approved fire or smoke detecting system.

B) The spaces shall have designated smoking areas************

C) The spaces shall be fitted with an approved fixed fire extinguishing system.

D) All of the above

Which of the following statements is/are FALSE in regard to Ro-Ro vessels' spaces that


B) The spaces shall be fitted with an approved fixed fire extinguishing system.C) The installation of a water sprinkler extinguishing system is prohibited*************

D) All of the above

Which of the following statements is/are FALSE in regard to Ro-Ro vessels' spaces that

A) The spaces shall NOT be fitted with a flame detecting system**********

B) The spaces shall be fitted with an approved fixed CO2 fire extinguishing system.

C) As an alternative to a fixed CO2 system, the Commandant may permit a water sprinkler syst

D) All of the above



Which of the following statements is/are TRUE in regard to Ro-Ro vessels' spaces that a

A) The spaces shall be fitted with an approved fire or smoke detecting system**************

B) The spaces shall have designated smoking areas.

C) The spaces are prohibited from being fitted with fixed CO2 fire extinguishing systems.

D) All of the above

Which of the following statements is/are TRUE in regard to Ro-Ro vessels' spaces whic


B) The spaces shall be fitted with an approved fixed fire extinguishing system.

C) The Commandant may permit the installation of an approved water sprinkler extinguishing s


A double male coupling is one that __________.

A) has left hand twist

B) has inside threads on both ends

C) has outside threads on both ends************

D) takes two men to operate

A fire hose has a __________.

A) male coupling at both ends

B) female coupling at both ends

C) female coupling at the nozzle end and a male coupling at the hydrant end

D) male coupling at the nozzle end and a female coupling at the hydrant end***************

A fire hose with a nozzle attached must be connected to each hydrant except when expo

A) fire hose might be damaged by cargo operations***************

B) vessel is in portC) fire-main system is not charged

D) fire pumps are used for purposes other than supplying water to the fire main

A spanner is a __________.

A) cross connection line between two main fire lines

B) special wrench for the couplings in a fire hose line*************

C) tackle rigged to support a fire hose


Fire hose couplings __________.

A) are made of bronze, brass, or soft alloy metals****************B) should be painted red in order to identify hose lengths

C) are specially hardened to prevent crushing

D) should be greased frequently

Fire hose should be washed with __________.

A) salt water and a wire brush

B) caustic soap

C) mild soap and fresh water**************



D) a holystone

No outlet on a fire hydrant may point above the horizontal in order to __________.

A) avoid kinking the hose******************

B) avoid personal injury during connection

C) make connecting easier

D) prevent spray on electrical equipment

The danger of a charged hose left unattended on deck with the nozzle open is ________

A) the hose could burst

B) the nozzle end will whip about causing damage or injury**************

C) water damage to vessel's cargo or structure

D) personnel might trip over the hose

The outlet at a fire hydrant may be positioned anywhere from horizontal to pointing ____

A) 45° upward

B) vertically upward

C) vertically downward*****************

D) all of the above

To lubricate the swivel or remove corrosion from a fire hose coupling, you should use _

A) glycerine

B) graphite

C) kerosene

D) fresh water and soap*****************

To remedy a leaking fire hose connection at the hydrant, secure the valve and ________

A) replace the gasket in the male couplingB) reduce fire pump pressure

C) replace the gasket in the female coupling**************

D) rethread the male coupling

What does the term "head" mean when applied to a fire pump?

A) Length of the discharge pipe

B) Height of the discharge pipe

C) Difference between the discharge and suction pressures***********

D) Sum of discharge and suction pressures

What is the minimum number of people required to safely handle a 1-1/2 inch fire hose? A) 1

B) 2**************

C) 3

D) 4

What is the minimum number of people required to safely handle a 2-1/2 inch fire hose?

A) 1

B) 2



C) 3***************

D) 4

What is the most vulnerable part of the fire main system?

A) The fire pump

B) Exposed hard piping

C) The hydrant valveD) The fire hose***************

What should be used to remove corrosion from the swivel on the female coupling of a fi

A) Bearing grease and a wire brush

B) Talc and fine sandpaper

C) Fish oil and a soft brush

D) Fresh water, soap, and a stiff brush**************

The canvas covering of fire hose is called the __________.

A) casing

B) outer hose

C) line cover

D) jacket***************

When joining the female coupling of the fire hose to the male outlet of the hydrant, you s

A) threads are lubricated

B) nozzle is attached to the hose

C) female coupling has a gasket

D) hose is led out*********

Which statement about stowing spare hose is TRUE?

A) Fold the hose so that the male coupling is about 4 feet from the female coupling, then roll it

B) Roll the hose starting at the female end.

C) Roll the hose starting at the male end.

D) Fold the hose into lengths about 6 feet long and then lash the folds together.

Why is spare fire hose rolled for storage?

A) Water in the hose is forced out the end in the rolling process.

B) The threads on the male end are protected by the hose.*********C) Rolling provides maximum protection against entry of foreign objects into the couplings.

D) Rolling provides maximum protection to the outer covering of the hose.

Foam is a very effective smothering agent and __________.

A) it provides cooling as a secondary effect************

B) works well on extinguishing electrical fires

C) can be used to combat combustible metal fires



D) All of the above

One of the limitations of foam as an extinguishing agent is that foam __________.

A) cannot be made with salt water

B) is heavier than oil and sinks below its surface

C) is corrosive and a hazard to fire fightersD) conducts electricity********

When compared to a high-expansion foam, a low-expansion foam will __________.

A) be dryer

B) be lighter

C) be more heat resistant***********

D) cling to vertical surfaces

After using a Halon extinguisher, it should be __________.

A) put back in service if more than 50% of the charge remains

B) repainted

C) discarded

D) recharged**********

Which statement is FALSE regarding Halon as a fire extinguishing agent?

A) It is more effective than CO2.

B) It leaves no residue.

C) It is noncorrosive.D) It is always non-toxic.****************

The lifeline which is part of a fireman's outfit must be __________.

A) made of steel or bronze wire rope

B) corrosion resistant

C) not less than 50 feet in length

D) All of the above*************

The primary function(s) of an automatic sprinkler system is(are) to __________.

A) extinguish the fire which triggers it

B) limit the spread of fire and control the amount of heat produced************

C) protect people in the areas which have sprinkler heads

D) alert the crew to the fire

What is the minimum period of time that the air supply for a self-contained breathing ap

A) 10 minutes



B) 15 minutes

C) 30 minutes***************

D) 45 minutes

After each reading of an oxygen indicator, the instrument should be purged with ______

A) CO2B) fresh air***********

C) the tested compartment's air

D) water

An oxygen indicator can be used to determine if there is __________.

A) sufficient oxygen in a compartment to support life************

B) combustible gases present

C) hydrogen gas present

D) All of the above

Deficient oxygen content inside a chain locker can be detected with __________.

A) litmus paper

B) a combustible gas indicator

C) an oxygen breathing apparatus

D) an oxygen indicator************

While testing a cargo tank, your oxygen indicator reads 25% oxygen in the tank. You wo

A) enter the tank safelyB) suspect the accuracy of the reading*************

C) ventilate the tank

D) test for nitrogen

One advantage of the "all-purpose nozzle" is that it __________.

A) can fit any size hose

B) converts a stream of water into a fog**************

C) increases the amount of water reaching the fire

D) can spray two streams of water at the same time

The most effective cooling agent among those normally used to fight fires is _________

A) water fog or spray**********

B) chemical foam

C) mechanical foam

D) carbon dioxide

What are the most important reasons for using water fog to fight fires?



A) Smothers burning surfaces, organically destroys fuel

B) Cools fire and adjacent surfaces, provides protective barrier***********

C) Reaches areas not protected by steam or CO2 smothering systems

D) Allows fire to be attacked from leeward, saturates liquid surfaces

What is the BEST conductor of electricity?

A) Carbon dioxide

B) Distilled water

C) Fresh water

D) Salt water***************

Which extinguishing agent will absorb the most heat?

A) CO2

B) Foam

C) Water*************

D) Dry chemical

An advantage of a dry chemical over a carbon dioxide fire extinguisher is its __________

A) greater range*************

B) cooling ability

C) cleanliness

D) All of the above

An advantage of an ABC dry chemical over a carbon dioxide extinguisher is __________.

A) lack of toxicity

B) the multipurpose extinguishing ability***********

C) burn-back protection

D) cooling ability

As an extinguishing agent, foam __________.

A) conducts electricity*************

B) should be directed at the base of the fire

C) is most effective on burning gases which are flowingD) extinguishes by cooling oil fires below ignition temperature

As compared to carbon dioxide, dry chemical has which advantage?

A) Cleaner

B) Effective on metal fires

C) Greater range*********

D) More cooling effect



Carbon dioxide as a fire fighting agent has which advantage over other agents?

A) It causes minimal damage.*************

B) It is safer for personnel.

C) It is cheaper.

D) It is most effective on a per unit basis.

CO2 extinguishes a fire by __________.

A) cooling

B) smothering************

C) chemical action

D) All of the above

Dry chemical extinguishers extinguish class B fires to the greatest extent by _________

A) cooling

B) smothering

C) oxygen dilution

D) breaking the chain reaction***********

Fire extinguishing agents used on Class C fires must be __________.

A) able to absorb heat

B) water based

C) nonconducting**********

D) nontoxic

Firefighting foam is only effective when the foam __________.

A) penetrates to the bottom of the fire

B) is kept saturated with low-velocity water fog

C) mixes with the burning fuel oil

D) completely covers the top of the burning liquid*********

Foam extinguishes a fire by __________.

A) shutting off the air supply*******B) cooling the fuel to below ignition temperature

C) dispersing the fuel

D) removing the source of ignition

Foam extinguishes a fire by __________.

A) smothering the burning material********

B) chemical combination with burning material



C) absorbing the burning material

D) organic destruction of the burning material

Foam extinguishes a fire mainly by __________.

A) cooling

B) chemical actionC) smothering***********

D) inerting the air

Halon extinguishes fire primarily by __________.

A) cooling

B) smothering

C) shielding of radiant heat

D) breaking the chain reaction************

How does foam extinguish an oil fire?

A) By cooling the oil below the ignition temperature

B) By removing the fuel source from the fire

C) By excluding the oxygen from the fire**********

D) By increasing the weight of the oil

The BEST method of applying foam to a fire is to __________.

A) spray directly on the base of the fire

B) flow the foam down a nearby vertical surface*************C) sweep the fire with the foam

D) spray directly on the surface of the fire

The danger associated with using carbon dioxide in an enclosed space is __________.

A) frostbite

B) skin burns

C) asphyxiation**********

D) an explosive reaction

The disadvantage of using CO2 is that the __________.

A) CO2 does not cool the fire********

B) cylinders are regulated pressure vessels

C) C02 is not effective on class "B" fires

D) C02 is not effective on class "C" fires

The discharge from a carbon dioxide fire extinguisher should be directed __________.



A) at the base of the flames**********

B) at the center of the flames

C) to the lee side of the flames

D) over the tops of the flames

The extinguishing agent most likely to allow reignition of a fire is __________.

A) carbon dioxide*****

B) foam

C) water fog

D) water stream

The most effective extinguishing action of dry chemical is __________.

A) breaking the chain reaction**********

B) the CO2 that is formed by heat

C) smothering

D) shielding of radiant heat

The principal personnel hazard unique to Halon extinguishers is __________.

A) displacement of oxygen

B) skin irritation

C) inhaling toxic vapors********

D) eye irritation

What is an advantage of a dry chemical extinguisher as compared to a carbon dioxide e

A) It has a greater duration.

B) It provides a heat shield for the operator.

C) It is nontoxic.

D) It offers lasting, effective protection against burn-back.*

What is NOT a characteristic of carbon dioxide fire-extinguishing agents?

A) Effective even if ventilation is not shut down*

B) Will not deteriorate in storage

C) Non-corrosive

D) Effective on electrical equipment

When fighting a fire on a bulkhead using a portable carbon dioxide extinguisher, the str

A) base of the flames, moving the horn from side to side, following the flames upward as they

B) top of the flaming area, moving the horn from side to side, following the flames downward a

C) center of the flaming area, moving the horn vertically from top to bottom

D) bottom of the flaming area, moving the horn vertically to the top following the flames upwar



When fighting a fire with a portable dry chemical fire extinguisher, the stream should be

A) over the top of the flames

B) off a bulkhead into the fire

C) in front of the fire

D) at the base of the fire***

When used to fight fire, carbon dioxide __________.

A) is effective if used promptly on an oil fire**

B) has a greater cooling effect than water

C) is lighter than air

D) is harmless to cargo and crew

When using carbon dioxide to fight a fire on a bulkhead, the CO2 should be applied ___

A) first to the bottom of the flaming area, sweeping from side to side, and following the flames

B) in a circular motion from the middle of the bulkhead outward

C) to the top of the flaming area, sweeping from side to side, and working toward the bottom

D) in an up-and-down motion from one side of the bulkhead to the other

Which advantage does dry chemical have over carbon dioxide (CO2) in firefighting?

A) Compatible with all foam agents

B) Cleaner

C) More protective against re-flash***

D) All of the above

Which characteristic is an advantage of Halon as a fire extinguishing medium?

A) Electrically non-conductive******

B) Relatively inexpensive

C) Effective against chemicals containing an oxidizer

D) All of the above

Which characteristic of Halon is a disadvantage when it is used as a fire extinguishing

A) Leaves a residue

B) Cost, relative to other agents***C) Breaks down while under prolonged storage

D) Conducts electricity

Which danger exists to people when CO2 is discharged into a small enclosed space?

A) Damaged eardrums

B) Electric shock

C) Frostbite



D) Respiratory arrest***

Which extinguishing agent is most likely to allow reflash as a result of not cooling the fu

A) CO2*****

B) Water stream

C) Water sprayD) Foam

Which is a disadvantage of Halon as a fire extinguishing medium?

A) Conducts electricity

B) Difficult to store

C) Large volume necessary to be effective

D) Ineffective in powdered metal fires***

Which statement about firefighting foam is TRUE?

A) Foam conducts electricity.****

B) To be most effective, foam should be directed at the base of the fire.

C) Foam is most effective on burning liquids which are flowing.

D) Foam can ONLY be used to extinguish class A fires.

Which statement concerning carbon dioxide is FALSE?

A) It displaces the oxygen in the air.

B) It cannot be seen.

C) It cannot be smelled.D) It is safe to use near personnel in a confined space.**

Which statement concerning the application of dry chemical powder is FALSE?

A) At temperatures of less than 32°F, the extinguisher must be recharged more often.****

B) When possible, the fire should be attacked from windward.

C) The stream should be directed at the base of the fire.

D) Directing the stream into burning flammable liquid may cause splashing.

Which statement describes the primary process by which fires are extinguished by dry c

A) The stream of dry chemical powder cools the fire.

B) The dry chemical powder attacks the fuel and oxygen chain reaction.*****

C) The powder forms a solid coating over the surface.

D) The dry chemical smothers the fire.

Which statement is FALSE regarding Halon 1301?

A) It is colorless.



B) It is sweet smelling.*****

C) It may cause dizziness when inhaled.

D) It does not conduct electricity.

Which statement is TRUE about fire fighting foam?

A) The air bubbles in foam act as an insulator in fighting a class C fire.B) The effectiveness of foam in forming a blanket over a burning liquid increases as the tempe

C) Foam can be used to control gases escaping from compressed gas cylinders.

D) Foam sets up a vapor barrier over a flammable liquid preventing flammable gases from risi

Which statement is TRUE concerning carbon dioxide?

A) It is lighter than air.

B) It is an inert gas.*********

C) It is used mostly on class A fires.

D) All of the above

Which statement is TRUE concerning carbon dioxide?

A) It is heavier than air.

B) It is non-conductive.

C) It is used on class B and C fires.

D) All of the above are true.*********

Which statement is TRUE concerning the application of foam on an oil fire?

A) It cools the surface of the liquid.B) It gives protection to fire fighting personnel against the heat of the fire.

C) It forms a smothering blanket on the surface of the oil.*****

D) It should be used at the same time a solid stream of water is being applied.

Which statement is TRUE concerning the use of a dry chemical extinguisher?

A) You should direct the stream at the base of the fire.*****

B) You should direct the stream directly into the fire.

C) You should direct the stream at a vertical bulkhead and allow it to flow over the fire.

D) All of the above

Which statement(s) is(are) TRUE concerning the use of dry chemical extinguishers?

A) You should direct the spray at the base of the fire.****

B) You should direct the spray directly into the fire.

C) You should direct the spray at a vertical bulkhead and allow it to flow over the fire.

D) All of the above

While you are working in a space, the fixed CO2 system is accidentally activated. You sh



Radiation spreads a fire by __________.

A) transmitting the heat of a fire through the ship's metal

B) burning liquids flowing into another space

C) heated gases flowing through ventilation systems

D) the transfer of heat across an unobstructed space****

Which toxic gas is a product of incomplete combustion, and is often present when a fire

A) Carbon dioxide

B) Hydrogen sulfide

C) Carbon monoxide*****

D) Nitric oxide

A foam-type portable fire extinguisher would be most useful in combating a fire in _____

A) solid materials such as wood or bales of fiber

B) flammable liquids**

C) a piece of electrical equipment

D) combustible metallic solids

A large oil fire on the deck of a ship can be fought most effectively with __________.

A) dry chemical

B) foam***

C) high-velocity fog

D) Water (cartridge-operated)

A portable foam (stored-pressure type) fire extinguisher would be most useful in comba

A) generators

B) oil drums**

C) the bridge controls

D) combustible metals

An "ABC" dry chemical fire extinguisher would be LEAST effective against a fire in ____

A) a mattress****

B) spilled liquids such as oil or paint

C) high voltage electrical gear D) a trash can

Any extinguishing agent used on a Class "C" fire must have which important property?

A) Cooling ability

B) Leaves no residue

C) Penetrating power

D) Nonconductivity****



Dry chemical extinguishers may be used on what class of fires?

A) A only

B) B only

C) B and C only

D) A, B or C as marked on the extinguisher***

Dry chemical fire extinguishers are effective on which type(s) of fire?

A) Burning oil

B) Electrical

C) Paint


If a powdered aluminum fire is being fought, the correct extinguishing agent would be _

A) dry powder****

B) water fog

C) CO2

D) steam

On a bulk chemical carrier, water should NOT be used as an extinguishing agent to fight

A) acrylic acid

B) benzene

C) oleum*****

D) vinyl tolüene

On a class "B" fire, which portable fire extinguisher would be the LEAST desirable?

A) Carbon dioxide

B) Water (stored pressure)***

C) Dry chemical

D) Foam

One disadvantage of using regular dry chemical (sodium bicarbonate) in firefighting is t

A) it can break down under high heat and emit noxious fumesB) it will decompose under prolonged storage and lose its effectiveness

C) fire has been known to flash back over the surface of an oil fire****

D) it is ineffective in fighting fires in high-voltage electrical equipment

Portable foam fire-extinguishers are designed for use on class __________.

A) A and class B fires*****

B) A and class C fires



C) B and class C fires

D) A, class B, and class C fires

Portable foam type fire extinguishers are most effective on __________.

A) mattress fires

B) oil fires******C) wood fires

D) All of the above

Regular foam can be used on all but which flammable liquid?

A) Motor gasoline

B) Jet fuel

C) Crude petroleum

D) Alcohol******

The extinguishing agent most effective for combating wood fires is __________.

A) water*****

B) carbon dioxide

C) foam

D) dry chemical

The most effective fire extinguishing agent to use on burning linen is __________.

A) water******

B) carbon dioxideC) dry chemical

D) foam

What is the most important characteristic of the extinguishing agent in fighting a class "

A) Weight

B) Temperature

C) Electrical nonconductivity****

D) Cost

When choosin a fire extinguisher to fight a class b fire do not use A) Water*****

B) co2

C) dry chemical

D) foam

When fighting an oil or gasoline fire in the bilge, which of the following should NOT be u

A) Foam



B) Solid stream water nozzle******

C) All-purpose nozzle

D) Carbon dioxide

Which extinguishing agent is best for use on a magnesium fire?

A) Water B) Sand*****

C) CO2

D) Dry chemical

Which extinguishing agent is most effective on a mattress fire?

A) CO2

B) Foam

C) Dry Chemical

D) Water****

Which extinguishing agent is the best for use on electrical fires?

A) Foam

B) CO2*****

C) Dry chemical

D) Water fog

Which type of fire is the foam (stored-pressure type) fire extinguisher effective on?

A) Classes A and B******B) Classes A and C

C) Classes B and C

D) All of the above

Which type of portable fire extinguisher is best suited for putting out a Class D fire?

A) Dry chemical

B) CO2

C) Foam

D) Dry powder*****

Which type of portable fire extinguishers is NOT designed for use on flammable liquid fi

A) Foam (stored-pressure)

B) Water (cartridge-operated)*****

C) Dry chemical

D) Carbon dioxide

Which types of portable fire extinguishers are designed for putting out electrical fires?



A) Foam and water (stored pressure)

B) Foam and carbon dioxide

C) Foam and dry chemical

D) Dry chemical and carbon dioxide******

Why is carbon dioxide (CO2) better than dry chemical for fighting a class "C" fire?

A) The dry chemical is a conductor.

B) The dry chemical leaves a residue.****

C) CO2 will not dissipate in air.

D) It takes smaller amounts of CO2 to cover the same area.

Spontaneous combustion is caused by __________.

A) an outside heat source heating a substance until it ignites

B) conduction of heat through a wall of material to the substance

C) chemical action within a substance****

D) All of the above

Spontaneous combustion is most likely to occur in __________.

A) rags soaked in linseed oil******

B) overloaded electrical circuits

C) dirty swabs and cleaning gear

D) partially loaded fuel tanks

The "flammable limits" of an atmosphere are the __________.

A) two temperatures between which an atmosphere will self ignite

B) upper and lower percentage of vapor concentrations in an atmosphere which will burn if an i

C) upper and lower pressures between which an atmosphere will not burn

D) two temperatures between which an atmosphere will burn if an ignition source is present

The explosive range of Bunker C mixed with air is __________.

A) 0% to 1% by volume

B) 1% to 5% by volume****

C) 5% to 10% by volume

D) 10% to 20% by volume

The explosive range of Diesel Oil mixed with air is __________.

A) 0% to 1% by volume

B) 0.8% to 5.3% by volume

C) 1.3% to 6.0% by volume****

D) 6.3% to 12.1% by volume

The flash point of a liquid means the temperature __________.



Which substance might be subject to spontaneous combustion?

A) Coal

B) Scrap rubber

C) Leather


You have carbon tetrachloride as part of the cargo. If a fire breaks out in the general area, what is theA) It will explode if exposed to a flame.

B) Phosgene gas may be formed if it comes in contact with hot metal.***********

C) It will burn rapidly once ignited.

D) You cannot use water to fight the fire because it will react with the carbon tetrachloride.

You should be most concerned about a possible explosion or fire in fuel tanks __________.

A) during fueling when the fuel first strikes the tank bottom**********

B) during fueling when the fuel strikes fuel already in the tank

C) when underway as the fuel is moved by wave action

D) shortly after fueling when fuel vapors gather

All of the following are part of the fire triangle EXCEPT __________.

A) fuel

B) electricity********

C) oxygen

D) heat

Automatic fire dampers in ventilation systems are operated by a __________.

A) remote operated valve

B) fusible link********

C) CO2 system pressure switchD) heat or smoke detector

Blocking open or removing fire dampers can cause __________.

A) the fire to spread through the ventilation system***********

B) fixed foam systems to be ineffective

C) faster cooling of the fire

D) the accumulation of explosive gases

Except in rare cases, it is impossible to extinguish a shipboard fire by __________.

A) removing the heat

B) removing the oxygen

C) removing the fuel****

D) interrupting the chain reaction

Fire dampers prevent the spread of fire by __________.

A) convection***********

B) conduction

C) radiation

D) direct contact



Fire may be spread by which means?

A) Conduction of heat to adjacent surfaces

B) Direct radiation

C) Convection


Fusible-link fire dampers are operated by __________.

A) a mechanical arm outside the vent duct

B) electrical controls on the bridge

C) the heat of a fire melting the link********

D) a break-glass and pull-cable system

Removing which will extinguish a fire?

A) Nitrogen

B) Carbon dioxide

C) Sodium

D) Oxygen**********

The blocking or absence of fire dampers can cause __________.

A) the accumulation of explosive gases

B) faster cooling of the fire

C) the fire to spread through the ventilation system***********

D) fixed foam systems to be ineffective

The midships house of your break bulk ship is constructed with an interior stair tower from the main

A) They are to be kept closed at all times.

B) They may be kept open if the ventilation or air conditioning system is shut down.C) They may be kept open if they can be automatically closed from the bridge.**********

D) They can be kept open if the Muster List ("Station Bill") has personnel designated to close them in c

The most likely location for a liquid cargo fire to occur on a tanker would be __________.

A) in the midships house

B) at the main deck manifold

C) at the vent header

D) in the pumproom******

The spread of fire is NOT prevented by __________.

A) shutting off the oxygen supply

B) cooling surfaces adjacent to the fire

C) removing combustibles from the endangered area

D) removing smoke and toxic gases by ensuring adequate ventilation***

The spread of fire is prevented by __________.

A) heating surfaces adjacent to the fire

B) removing combustibles from the endangered area*********

C) increasing the oxygen supply



D) All of the above


A) heating surfaces adjacent to the fire

B) leaving combustibles in the endangered area

C) shutting off the oxygen supply********

D) All of the above


A) cooling surfaces adjacent to the fire*******

B) leaving combustibles in the endangered area

C) increasing the oxygen supply

D) All of the above

The ventilation system of your ship has fire dampers restrained by fusible links. Which statement is T

A) A fusible link will automatically open after a fire is extinguished and reset the damper.

B) Fusible links must be replaced at every inspection for certification.

C) Fusible links are tested by applying a source of heat to them.

D) Fusible links must be replaced if a damper is activated.*******

What is required in addition to the heat, fuel, and oxygen of the fire triangle to have a fire?

A) Chain reaction******

B) Electricity

C) Pressure

D) Smoke

What, when removed, will result in the extinguishment of a fire?

A) NitrogenB) Sodium

C) Oxygen*********

D) Carbon dioxide

Which condition is necessary for a substance to burn?

A) The temperature of the substance must be equal to or above its fire point.

B) The air must contain oxygen in sufficient quantity.

C) The mixture of vapors with air must be within the "explosive range."


Which condition is NOT necessary for a combustible liquid to burn?

A) The temperature of the substance must be equal to or above its fire point.

B) The air must contain oxygen in sufficient quantity.

C) The mixture of vapors with air must be within the "explosive range."

D) All of the above are necessary for a combustible liquid to burn.********

Which when removed, will result in the extinguishment of a fire?

A) Oxygen*****

B) Carbon dioxide



C) Sodium

D) Nitrogen

You will extinguish a fire when you remove __________.

A) nitrogen

B) oxygen***********

C) sodiumD) carbon dioxide

Spontaneous ignition can result from __________.

A) an unprotected drop-light bulb

B) careless disposal or storage of material*******

C) smoking in bed

D) worn electrical wires on power tools

Storage batteries should be charged in a well ventilated area because __________.

A) they generate heat

B) they emit hydrogen**********

C) of the toxic fumes they emit

D) they recharge faster in a well ventilated space

What is LEAST likely to cause ignition of fuel vapors?

A) Static electricity

B) An open running electric motor

C) Loose wiring

D) Explosion proof lights*******

Which may ignite fuel vapors? A) Static electricity

B) An open and running motor

C) Loose wiring

D) All of the above

A large fire, involving class "A" material, has developed in the ship's galley. In combating this fire, yo

A) keep the galley door closed until all the class "A" material has been consumed by the fire

B) have a hose team cool the galley door, then open the door and extinguish the fire using a type B-II e

C) cool adjoining horizontal and vertical surfaces before opening the galley door*******

D) advance the hose team into the galley without any preparatory action

Overhauling a fire in the living quarters on a vessel must include __________.

A) opening dead spaces to check for heat or fire****

B) evacuation of the vessel

C) sounding the "all clear" signal

D) operation of the emergency generator

The best method of extinguishing a class A fire is to __________.

A) remove oxygen from the area



B) cool fuel below ignition temperature*****

C) smother with CO2

D) smother fire with foam

The straight stream capability of an all-purpose nozzle is used in fighting a class A fire to __________.

A) shield fire fighters from radiant heat

B) break up burning material*********C) get the most water possible on the fire

D) drive heat and smoke ahead of the fire fighters

What is meant by the term "overhaul" in firefighting?

A) Slow down the spread of fire by cooling adjacent structures

B) Cover the fire with foam

C) Smother the fire with a blanket or similar object

D) Break up solid objects to ensure that any deep seated fires are extinguished*******

Which of the following would be of immediate concern after discovering a large fire in the ship's galle

A) An adjacent storeroom, containing spare parts

B) A storeroom directly above, containing combustible fluids*******

C) An adjacent storeroom, containing mattresses and linen

D) An adjacent storeroom, marked "Stewards Stores"

A class B fire is most successfully fought by __________.

A) preventing oxygen from reaching the burning material*********

B) cooling the burning material below its ignition temperature

C) using the extinguishing agent to make the burning material fire-resistant

D) using the extinguishing agent to absorb the heat

A fire in the galley ALWAYS poses the additional threat of __________.

A) contaminating food with extinguishing agent

B) spreading through the engineering space

C) causing loss of stability

D) a grease fire in the ventilation system*******

A fuel line breaks, sprays fuel on the hot exhaust manifold, and catches fire. Your FIRST action should

A) batten down the engine room

B) start the fire pump

C) apply carbon dioxide to the fire

D) shut off the fuel supply*********

A galley grease fire on the stove may be extinguished using_______.

A) water

B) foam

C) the range hood extinguishing system********

D) fire dampers

After extinguishing a fire with CO2, it is advisable to __________.



A) use all CO2 available to cool the surrounding area

B) stand by with water or other agents********

C) thoroughly ventilate the space of CO2

D) jettison all burning materials

After extinguishing a paint locker fire using the fixed CO2 system, the next action is to have the space

A) opened and burned material removedB) left closed with vents off until all boundaries are cool*********

C) checked for oxygen content

D) doused with water to prevent reflash

If heavy smoke is coming from the paint locker, the FIRST firefighting response should be to _______

A) release the CO2 flooding system

B) open the door to evaluate the extent of the fire

C) enter and use a portable extinguisher

D) secure the ventilation********

Oil fires are best extinguished by __________.

A) cutting off the supply of oxygen***********

B) removing the fuel

C) cooling below the ignition temperature

D) spraying with water

When possible, what is the FIRST step in fighting an engine fuel-pump fire which results from a broke

A) Secure all engine room doors, hatches, and vents.

B) Close the fuel line valve.**********

C) Check the spread of the fire with foam.

D) Cast the barge off the wharf.

When possible, what should be the FIRST step in combating a fire on deck resulting from a cargo over

A) Blanket the cargo spill with foam.

B) Prevent the spread of fire with a foam dam.

C) Apply CO2 on burning fuel at its source.

D) Shut off the transfer of cargo.********

Your vessel is equipped with a fixed CO2 system and a fire main system. In the event of an electrical f

A) Use the CO2 system and evacuate the engine room.

B) Use the fire main system and evacuate the engine room.

C) Evacuate the engine room and use the CO2 system.*********

D) Evacuate the engine room and use the fire main system.

An important step in fighting any electrical fire is to __________.

A) stop ventilation

B) stop the vessel

C) de-energize the circuit********

D) apply water to extinguish the fire



What is the MOST important consideration when determining how to fight an electrical fire?

A) Whether the fire is in machinery or passenger spaces

B) Danger of shock to personnel**********

C) The amount of toxic fumes created by the extinguisher

D) Maintaining electrical power

You are fighting a fire in the electrical switchboard in the engine room. You should secure the power,A) use a portable foam extinguisher

B) use a low-velocity fog adapter with the fire hose

C) use a portable CO2 extinguisher**********

D) determine the cause of the fire

A vessel’s fire control plan shall be _________?

A) posted every 150 feet along the most continuous deck on the vessel.

B) permanently posted for the guidance of ship’s officers.********

C) given to each crewmember in booklet form.

D) translated into three languages: English, French and Spanish.

Besides general arrangement plans, what other mediums may be utilized to provide fire control detai

A) Microfilm

B) Blueprint

C) Booklet Form********


In addition to the official language of the flag state, the Fire Control Plan must also be translated into

A) French********

B) Spanish

C) GermanD) Japanese

In what location MUST a duplicate fire control plan be located?

A) Gangway*********

B) Engine Room

C) Crew Mess

D) Chief Mate's Office

In what location would a duplicate fire control plan normally NOT be located?

A) Navigation Bridge

B) Engine Room Control

C) Master's Office*********

D) Crew and Passenger Areas

On a MODU, where MUST the fire control plan be posted?

A) Crew lounge

B) Mess Area

C) Control Center**********




On a MODU, where Must the fire control plan be posted?

A) Pilot house**********

B) Mess Area

C) Crew Lounge


On the vessel’s Fire Control Plan, all parts of a fixed fire suppression system are listed EXCEPT?

A) Spaces protected by the system

B) Extinguishing agent cylinder location

C) Remote cylinder release(s)

D) Instructions for activation of system***********

On the vessel’s Fire Control Plan, all parts of the fire main are listed EXCEPT?

A) Fire pump(s) location

B) Fire pump capacity

C) Diameter of fire main************

D) Fire station locations

The Fire Control Plan must contain detailed information on which of the following systems?

A) Fixed fire suppression

B) Ship construction

C) Ventilation

D) All of the above******

The symbols for fire control plans are approved by which organization?

A) National Fire Protection Agency

B) U.S. Coast GuardC) International Association of Classification Societies

D) International Maritime Organization**********

The vessel’s fire control plan is laid out on which of the following type of plan?

A) General arrangement*******

B) Midship section

C) Subdivision

D) Lines

What is the purpose of a fire control plan aboard passenger ships?

A) guidance for the officer-in-charge in the event of fire

B) facilitate shore-side fire fighters in fighting fire aboard the vessel

C) show passengers where to evacuate in event of fire

D) All of the above**********

Which of the following is NOT identified on the vessel’s fire control plan?

A) Gas detector

B) Fire control plan

C) Fire and emergency signals**********



D) Dry chemical monitor

Which of the following is NOT identified on the vessel’s fire control plan?

A) Fire main system

B) Muster lists*********

C) Secondary means of escape

D) Bilge pumps

Which of the following is not required to be included on Fire Control Plans?

A) Smoke detectors

B) Communication plan**********

C) Secondary means of escape

D) All watertight doors

Which of the following is NOT required to be part of a vessel’s Fire Control Plan?

A) Ventilation fan location

B) Ventilation fan capacity*********

C) Ventilation fan control

D) Ventilation dampers

Which type of plan is used to outline the vessel’s fire fighting arrangement within the fire control pla

A) Partial

B) Inboard profile

C) Subdivision and stability

D) General arrangement*********

A deck-stowed 40-foot container is giving off smoke, and one end is discolored from heat. The cargo i

A) Connect a portable line from the ship's fixed system and discharge CO2 into the container.B) Flood the container with water and disregard any cargo damage as the fire threatens the entire vess

C) Pierce the container and discharge 6 or more portable CO2's then add more CO2 hourly.**********

D) Cool the exterior of the container with water and close all vents; then keep it cooled until it can be

A fire has broken out on the stern of your vessel. You should maneuver your vessel so the wind ____

A) blows the fire back toward the vessel

B) comes over the bow***********

C) comes over the stern

D) comes over either beam

A fire is discovered in the bow of your vessel while making way. The wind is from ahead at 35 knots.

A) remain on course and hold speed

B) remain on course but slack the speed

C) change course to put the wind on either beam and increase speed

D) change course and put the stern to the wind**********

A fire of escaping liquefied flammable gas is best extinguished by __________.

A) cooling the gas below the ignition point

B) cutting off the supply of oxygen



C) stopping the flow of gas*********

D) interrupting the chain reaction

A fire starts on your vessel while refueling. You should FIRST __________.

A) stop the ventilation

B) sound the general alarm****

C) determine the source of the fireD) attempt to extinguish the fire

According the Lifesaving regulations in Subchapter W, fire and abandon ship drills must be held withi

A) 5%

B) 10%

C) 25%***********

D) 40%

At night while the ship is tied up to the dock, a fire breaks out in a cargo hatch. After sounding the ala

A) Begin fighting the fire immediately.

B) Await further orders from the Master.

C) Let go the lines to let the vessel drift to an anchorage.

D) Send a person to summon the shore authorities.*******

Control of fire should be addressed __________.

A) immediately after restoring vital services

B) immediately*************

C) following control of flooding

D) following establishment of fire boundaries

If there's a fire aboard your vessel, you should FIRST __________.A) notify the Coast Guard

B) sound the alarm************

C) have passengers put on life preservers

D) cut off air supply to the fire

If you are fighting a fire below the main deck of your vessel, which action is most important concerni

A) Shutting off electricity to damaged cables

B) Pumping fire-fighting water overboard***********

C) Maneuvering the vessel so the fire is on the lee side

D) Removing burned debris from the cargo hold

In the event of fire in a machinery space, __________.

A) the fixed carbon dioxide system should be used only when all other means of extinguishment have

B) the fixed carbon dioxide system should be used immediately, as it is the most efficient means of exti

C) water in any form should not be used as it will spread the fire

D) the space should be opened 5 minutes after flooding CO2 to prevent injury to personnel

The preferred agent used in fighting a helicopter crash fire is __________.

A) CO2



B) dry chemical

C) water

D) foam*********

The primary danger in helicopter fires is __________.

A) burning jet fuel running on to quarters or other areas**********

B) loss of stabilityC) rotating and flying debris

D) heat damage to helicopter structure

The success of an indirect attack on a fire depends on the __________.

A) size of the fire when initially observed

B) complete containment of the fire***********

C) cooling ability of the firefighting agent

D) class of the fire

There is a fire aft aboard your vessel. To help fight the fire, you should __________.

A) head the bow into the wind and decrease speed**********

B) put the wind off either beam

C) put the stern into the wind and increase speed

D) put the stern into the wind and decrease speed

There is a fire aft aboard your vessel. To help fight the fire, you should put the __________.

A) wind off either beam

B) stern into the wind and increase speed

C) bow into the wind and decrease speed***********

D) stern into the wind and decrease speed

What shall be conducted during a fire and boat drill?

A) All watertight doors in the vicinity of the drill shall be operated.*********

B) All lifeboat equipment shall be examined.

C) Fire pumps shall be started and all exterior outlets opened.

D) All of the above

What should be your FIRST action if you discover a fire aboard ship?

A) Sound the alarm.***********

B) Attempt to put out the fire.

C) Confine it by closing doors, ports, vents, etc.

D) Call the Master.

When approaching a fire from leeward you should shield fire fighters from the fire by using ________

A) a straight stream of water

B) foam spray

C) high-velocity fog**********

D) low-velocity fog

When approaching a fire from windward, you should shield firefighters from the fire by using ______



A) low-velocity fog**********

B) high-velocity fog

C) a straight stream of water

D) foam spray

When attempting to enter a compartment containing a fire, which method of applying water is best?

A) High-velocity fog stream directed toward the overheadB) Straight stream directed into the center of the fire

C) Sweeping the compartment with a fog stream*********

D) Solid stream directed toward the overhead

When fighting a fire in a space containing an IMO class 1 hazardous cargo, the most effective fire figh

A) shut down the ventilation and exclude all air to smother the fire

B) use water from fire hoses or a sprinkler system***********

C) activate the fixed CO2 firefighting system

D) use high-expansion foam

When fighting a fire in an enclosed space, the hose team should crouch as low as possible to _______

A) maneuver with the hose more easily

B) obtain the best available air for breathing

C) allow the heat and steam to pass overhead*********


When fighting a large fire on your vessel and attacking it from ABOVE the space on fire, it is important t

A) rotate personnel, due to heat stress********

B) station personnel on the hot deck immediately above the fire

C) stay low by crouching or kneeling on deck

D) All of the above

When fighting a large fire on your vessel and attacking it from ABOVE the space on fire, it is importan

A) not rotate personnel, as the consistent attack can extinguish the fire quickly.

B) stand erect, to avoid the heat of the deck***********

C) station personnel on the hot deck, immediately above the fire, to observe for its potential spread

D) All of the above

When fighting fires in spaces containing bottles of LPG (liquefied petroleum gas), you should _______

A) attempt to isolate the fire from the LPG

B) cool the bottles or remove them from the fire area***********

C) see that the valves on all LPG bottles are closedD) place insulating material over the bottles

When two fire hose teams are attacking a fire they should __________.

A) use different fire hose pressures

B) use fire hoses of different sizes

C) not attack the fire from opposite sides**********

D) not wear protective clothing



Which firefighting method is an example of an indirect attack on a fire?

A) Bouncing a straight stream of water off the overhead to create spray effect

B) Spraying foam on a bulkhead and letting it flow down and over a pool of burning oil

C) Flooding a paint locker with CO2 and sealing the compartment************

D) Cooling adjacent bulkheads with water to prevent the spread of the fire by conduction

You are on watch at night in port and discover a fire in #1 hatch. Which action should you take FIRST? A) Advise the Chief Mate and Master.

B) Release carbon dioxide into the hatch.

C) Sound the general alarm.************

D) Lead a fire hose to the hatch.

You are on watch at sea, at night, when the ordinary seaman reports a fire in number five upper 'twe

A) Sound the general alarm

B) Secure mechanical cargo hold ventilation

C) Call for water on deck

D) Release carbon dioxide into the affected compartment************

You are underway at sea when a fire is reported in the forward part of the vessel. The wind is from d

A) remain on course and hold speed

B) change course to put the wind on either beam and increase speed

C) change course and put the stern to the wind***********

D) remain on course but decrease speed

You are underway when a fire breaks out in the forward part of your vessel. If possible, you should _

A) put the vessel's stern into the wind**********

B) abandon ship to windward

C) call for assistanceD) keep going at half speed

You detect an odor of burning cotton fabric and then see smoke coming from the top of an open laun

A) begin breaking out the nearest fire hose

B) secure ventilation to the room

C) close the door to the room

D) acquire the nearest self contained breathing apparatus**********

You detect an odor of burning electrical insulation and then notice smoke coming from an open laun

A) Close the door to the room.

B) Locate the nearest CO2 or dry chemical extinguisher.

C) Secure power to the washers and dryers.

D) Break out the nearest fire hose.**********

You notice smoke coming from an open laundry room doorway. After activating the fire alarm, which

A) Protect the adjacent spaces on the same deck as the laundry room.

B) Locate and use the nearest portable extinguisher, if conditions permit.*********

C) Protect the compartment directly above the laundry room.

D) Go to the nearest fire station and break out the hose.



When supplemented by a comparable signal on the general alarm, what is the signal for boat stations

A) More than six short blasts followed by one long blast of the whistle***********

B) A continuous blast of the whistle for a period of not less than 10 seconds

C) One long blast followed by three short blasts of the whistle

D) Three short blasts of the whistle

While at your lifeboat station, you hear a signal consisting of one short blast of the whistle. This signa

A) abandon ship

B) commence lowering boats**********

C) stop lowering boats

D) secure from boat stations

While at your lifeboat station, you hear a signal consisting of two short blasts of the whistle. This sign

A) "abandon ship"

B) "commence lowering boats"

C) "stop lowering boats"************

D) "secure from boat stations"

A fire must be ventilated __________.

A) when using an indirect attack on the fire such as flooding with water

B) to prevent the gases of combustion from surrounding the firefighters*************

C) to minimize heat buildup in adjacent compartments

D) if compressed gas cylinders are stowed in the compartment on fire

A high-velocity fog stream can be used in fire fighting situations to drive heat and smoke ahead of th

A) using a 2-1/2 inch hose

B) there is an outlet for the smoke and heat***********C) the fire is totally contained by the ship's structure

D) at least two fog streams can be used

Actuating the CO2 fixed system causes the shutdown of the __________.

A) fuel supply

B) exhaust ventilation

C) supply and exhaust ventilation**********

D) mechanical and natural ventilation

Fire in an engine compartment is best extinguished with carbon dioxide gas (CO2) and by _________

A) closing the compartment except for the ventilators

B) completely closing the compartment**************

C) leaving the compartment open to the air

D) increasing the air flow to the compartment by blowers

If you have a fire in the engine room, your FIRST act should be to __________.

A) discharge the fixed CO2 system into the engine room

B) secure the fuel supply and ventilation to the engine room***********

C) maneuver your vessel into the wind



D) have all of your crew get into the liferaft

It is necessary to secure the forced ventilation to a compartment where there is a fire to __________.

A) allow the exhaust fans to remove smoke

B) extinguish the fire by carbon monoxide smothering

C) prevent additional oxygen from reaching the fire************

D) protect fire fighting personnel from smoke

There is a fire in the crew's quarters of your vessel. You should __________.

A) ventilate the quarters as much as possible

B) prepare to abandon ship

C) close all ventilation to the quarters if possible***********

D) attempt to put the fire out yourself before sounding the alarm

Ventilation systems connected to a compartment in which a fire is burning are normally closed to pre

A) convection***********

B) conduction

C) radiation

D) spontaneous combustion

When should a fire be ventilated?

A) When attacking the fire directly***********

B) When using a steam smothering system

C) When using the fixed CO2 system

D) All of the above

You are releasing carbon dioxide gas (CO2) into an engine compartment to extinguish a fire. The CO2

A) compartment is closed and ventilators are openedB) compartment is left open to the air

C) compartment is closed and airtight***********

D) air flow to the compartment is increased with blowers



at least every __________.

nned, are actuated by one control to open the stop valve in the line leading to the space,

peration of a remote control, provision shall also be made for releasing the CO2 ______

rms that begin sounding prior to the discharge of CO2. This time delay must be at least

uantity available, and the other is __________.

FIRST __________.



nguishing system consisting of four storage cylinders, the number of pilot cylinders sha

e cylinder room of a fixed CO2 fire extinguishing system?

dles, push-buttons or levers, for a space protected by a CO2 fixed fire extinguishing sys

alve.

o a space.

ly to be occupied.

ed. It should be __________.

an what percent of the stamped full weight of the charge?



u must have it recharged if the weight loss exceeds __________.

n. Where should the combustible gas indicator case be placed when testing the pumpr

f the __________.

nk that contained gasoline by using a combustible gas indicator. Under testing, the tank

a tank that contained gasoline by using a combustible gas indicator. Under testing, the t

fined space?

le must be used if the atmosphere being tested contains vapors of __________.



e dial****************

xceeds the U.E.L., the needle of the indicator will __________.

-operated dry chemical extinguisher?

hed by __________.

flash because dry chemical_________.



ical cartridge-operated portable fire extinguisher?

ical cartridge-operated portable fire extinguisher?

"specially suitable for vehicles"?

are "specially suitable for vehicles"?


em.



re "specially suitable for vehicles"?


stem.

sed to heavy weather or when the __________.



_.

______.

________.

_.



e hose?

hould make sure that the __________.

up.**********



aratus is required to last?



___.

ld then __________.

.



.



tinguisher?

am should be directed at the __________.

iminish***

s they diminish

as they diminish



directed __________.

______.

upward***

edium?



el below its ignition temperature?

hemical?



should be directed __________.



ire by __________.



burns in a closed compartment?

_____.

ing a fire in __________.

_____.



________.

a fire if the water may come into contact with the chemical called __________.

at __________.



C" fire?

sed?



es?



ignition source is present****



ny outside source of ignition is called __________.



major danger from the carbon tetrachloride?



deck to the bridge. Under what circumstances may the doors from each deck to the stair tower be ke

se of fire.



RUE?



should __________.

xtinguisher



y?

be to __________.



__________.

__.

n fuel line?

flow or a leaking cargo line?

ire in the engine room what is the correct procedure for fighting the fire?



then __________.

ls to officers during fire and emergencies?

English or _________?



?

s valuable and easily damaged by water. You want to extinguish the fire without further damage if po

el.

ff-loaded.

_____.

ou should __________.



24 hours of leaving port if the percentage of the crew that has not participated in drills aboard that

rm, what should the person on watch do?

g the stability of the vessel?

ailed***********

nguishment



__.

___.



ing procedure is to __________.

___.

o __________.

t to __________.

___.



or boat drill?

l indicates __________.

al indicates __________.

fire fighters in a passageway. This technique should only be used when __________.

.



vent the rapid spread of the fire by __________.

will be most effective if the __________.



ll be at least __________.

em?



om atmosphere for combustible gases?

sample caused the needle to move rapidly to 100 on the dial and remain there. What is t

ank sample registered 55 on the instrument's dial. What is the concentration of flammabl



t open when underway?



ssible. What action should you take?



_______.

xt actions?



e concentration of flammable gas?

e gases?



A carling is used aboard ship __________.

A) as a connecting strap between the butted ends of plating

B) to stiffen areas under points of great stress between beams**************

C) to prevent the anchor from fouling when the brake is released

D) to provide an extra heavy fitting in a heavy lift cargo rig

A deck beam does NOT __________.

A) act as a beam to support vertical deck loads

B) lessen the longitudinal stiffness of the vessel*************

C) act as a tie to keep the sides of the ship in place

D) act as a web to prevent plate wrinkling due to twisting action on the vessel

Beams are cambered to __________.

A) increase their strength

B) provide drainage from the decks************

C) relieve deck stress

D) All of the above

The deck beam brackets of a transversely framed vessel resist __________.

A) hogging stresses

B) sagging stresses

C) racking stresses*****************

D) shearing stresses

The pillar shape that gives the greatest strength for the least weight is the __________.

A) octagonal pillar

B) "H" Beam pillar

C) "I" Beam pillar

D) circular type pillar*********

The usual depth of a beam bracket is __________.

A) 2 1/2 times the depth of the beam**********

B) 5 times the depth of the beam

C) 10 times the depth of the beam

D) same depth as the beam

Which term refers to a transverse curvature of the deck?

A) Deadrise

B) Camber*************



C) Freeboard

D) Flare

On a small passenger vessel the collision bulkhead is __________.

A) amidships forward of the engine room

B) just forward of the steering compartmentC) in the engine room

D) A distance of 5% to 15% of the waterline length abaft the stem measured at the load waterline****

A partial deck in a hold is called a(n) __________.

A) weather deck

B) orlop deck************

C) shelter deck

D) main deck

Camber, in a ship, is usually measured in __________.

A) feet per feet of breadth

B) feet per feet of length

C) inches per feet of breadth*************

D) inches per feet of length

The fore and aft run of deck plating which strengthens the connection between the beams and the fram

A) garboard strake

B) limber strakeC) sheer strake

D) stringer strake************

A term applied to the bottom shell plating in a double-bottom ship is __________.

A) bottom floor

B) outer bottom**********

C) shear plating

D) tank top

Aboard ship, vertical flat plates running transversely and connecting the vertical keel to the margin plat

A) floors************

B) intercostals

C) girders

D) stringers

Floors aboard ship are __________.



A) frames to which the tank top and bottom shell are fastened on a double bottomed ship**********

B) transverse members of the ships frame which support the decks

C) longitudinal beams in the extreme bottom of a ship from which the ship's ribs start

D) longitudinal angle bars fastened to a surface for strength

Floors aboard ship are __________.

A) also called decks

B) vertical transverse plates connecting the vertical keel with the margin plates*************

C) large beams fitted in various parts of the vessel for additional strength

D) found in passenger and berthing spaces only

Frames to which the tank top and bottom shell are fastened are called __________.

A) floors************

B) intercostals

C) stringers

D) tank top supports

The "inner bottom" is the __________.

A) tank top************

B) compartment between the tank top and shell of the vessel

C) inner side of the vessel's shell

D) space between two transverse bottom frames

The "margin plate" is the __________.

A) outboard strake of plating on each side of an inner bottom***********

B) outer strake of plating on each side of the main deck of a vessel

C) plate which sits atop the center vertical keel

D) uppermost continuous strake of plating on the shell of a vessel

The floors in a vessel's hull structure are kept from tripping, or folding over, by __________.

A) face plates

B) bottom longitudinals************

C) longitudinal deck beams

D) transverse deck beams

The plating indicated by the letter N is known as the __________.

A) inner bottom*************

B) floor riders

C) tank-top rider plating

D) ceiling



The space indicated by the letter J is known as the __________.

A) double bottom*************

B) flooding barrier

C) floor space

D) bilge tank

The structural member indicated by the letter K is a __________.

A) longitudinal frame

B) stringer

C) girder

D) floor**********

The structural member indicated by the letter K was fitted in segments between continuous longitudin

A) Intercostal************

B) Open

C) Lightened

D) Non-watertight

The terms "ceiling" and "margin plate" are associated with the __________.

A) crew's quarters

B) engine room

C) main deck

D) tank top********

Vertical structural members attached to the floors that add strength to the floors are called _________

A) boss plates

B) buckler plates

C) stiffeners**************

D) breast hooks

What is NOT an advantage of double bottom ships?

A) The tank top forms a second skin for the vessel.

B) The center of gravity of a loaded bulk cargo ship may be raised to produce a more comfortable roll.

C) The floors and longitudinals distribute the upward push of the water on the ship's bottom.

D) They are less expensive to construct because of increased access space.***********

What is used to prevent accidental flooding of a double bottom or peak tanks in the event of a pipe rup

A) Separate lines are provided for filling and pumping these tanks.

B) Pipe lines must run vertically from the tank to a point above the margin line before turning fore or a

C) All tanks must be served by the fewest possible number of pipes to reduce the possibility of rupture.



D) Suction lines are fitted with a non-return valve***********

Which is an advantage of using watertight longitudinal divisions in double bottom tanks?

A) Cuts down free surface effect************

B) Increases the rolling period

C) Decreases weight because extra stiffeners are unneededD) Lowers the center of buoyancy without decreasing GM

Which statement concerning solid floors is TRUE?

A) They must be watertight.

B) They may have lightening, limber, or air holes cut into them.************

C) They are built of structural frames connected by angle struts and stiffeners, with flanged plate brack

D) They are lighter than open floors.

Which statement is TRUE concerning protection of double bottom tanks against excessive pressure?

A) Each vent for the tank must be equal to the area of the tank filling line.

B) The tanks must be protected by overflows.

C) The total area of the vents or the overflow shall be at least 125% of the area of the fill line********

D) There must be twice as much vent area as the area of the fill line.

A vessel having continuous closely spaced transverse strength members is __________.

A) longitudinally framed

B) transversely framed************

C) cellular framedD) web framed

In a longitudinally-framed ship, the longitudinal frames are held in place and supported by athwartship

A) floors

B) margin plates

C) stringers

D) web frames***********

In a transversely framed ship, the transverse frames are supported by all of the following EXCEPT ____

A) girders

B) longitudinals

C) side stringers

D) web plates***********

In ship construction, frame spacing is __________.

A) greater at the bow and stern



B) reduced at the bow and stern***********

C) uniform over the length of the vessel

D) uniform over the length of the vessel, with the exception of the machinery spaces, where it is reduc

Lighter longitudinal stiffening frames on the vessel's side plating are called __________.

A) stringers**********B) side frames

C) side stiffeners

D) intercostals

Reinforcing frames attached to a bulkhead on a vessel are called __________.

A) side longitudinals

B) intercostals

C) stiffeners**************

D) brackets

The letter M indicates a(n) __________.

A) web frame************

B) intercostal

C) stringer

D) cant frame

The structural member indicated by the letter L is a __________.

A) web frameB) bilge keel

C) side keel

D) longitudinal************

Transverse frames are more widely spaced on a ship that is designed with the __________.

A) centerline system of framing

B) isometric system of framing

C) longitudinal system of framing*************

D) transverse system of framing

What is the purpose of cant frames in steel vessels?

A) To support the overhang of the stern

B) To provide strength to shell plating at the stern**********

C) To add strength to the deck beams which support the weather decks

D) To support the plating of a cylindrical tank

When the longitudinal strength members of a vessel are continuous and closely spaced, the vessel is __



A) transversely framed

B) longitudinally framed***********

C) intermittently framed

D) web framed

Which letter indicates a longitudinal?

A) C

B) E

C) L***********

D) M

Why are most break bulk vessels built with the transverse framing system rather than the longitudinal s

A) The transverse system is more resistant to hog and sag stresses.

B) The numerous longitudinal frames cause excessive broken stowage.

C) The transverse system provides better support to the varying cargo densities on a break bulk vessel.

D) The deep web frames interfere with the stowage of break bulk cargo.**********

In ship construction, keel scantlings should be the greatest __________.

A) at each frame

B) amidships************

C) one-third the distance from the bow

D) one-third the distance from the stern

Keel scantlings of any vessel are greatest amidships because __________.

A) connections between forebody and afterbody are most crucial

B) of maximum longitudinal bending moments************

C) of severest racking stresses

D) resistance to grounding is at a maximum amidships

The letter I indicates the keel. Which of the following plates is NOT part of the keel?

A) Center vertical keel

B) Rider plate

C) Longitudinal girder************

D) Flat plate keel

The structural member indicated by the letter I is the __________.

A) garboard strake

B) center pillar

C) keel*************

D) girder



Limber is a term associated with __________.

A) emergency gear

B) drainage************

C) deck cargo storage

D) securing gear

A cofferdam is __________.

A) any deck below the main deck and above the lowest deck

B) a member that gives fore-and-aft strength

C) made by placing two bulkheads a few feet apart***********

D) a heavy fore-and-aft beam under the deck

A set of interior steps on a ship leading up to a deck from below is know as _________.

A) a companion way************

B) tween-decks

C) stairs

D) All of the above are acceptable

A thirty pound plate would be __________.

A) 3/8" thick

B) 1/2" thick

C) 3/4" thick*************

D) 1" thick

A wooden deck installed on top of the plating lettered N is known as __________.

A) spar decking

B) furring

C) ceiling***********

D) flooring

In nautical terminology a "dog" is a __________.

A) crow bar

B) device to force a water tight door against the frame*************

C) heavy steel beam

D) wedge

The ceiling is __________.

A) the overhead in berthing compartments

B) a wooden protection placed over the tank top**********



C) material driven into seams or cracks to prevent leaking

D) None of the above are correct

The fittings used to secure a watertight door are known as __________.

A) clamps

B) claspsC) dogs************

D) latches

The perforated, elevated bottom of the chain locker, which prevents the chains from touching the main

A) cradle

B) draft

C) harping

D) manger***********

The term "scantlings" refers to the __________.

A) draft of a vessel

B) measurements of structural members************

C) requirements for ship's gear

D) placement of a vessel's load line

The wooden planking that protects the tank top from cargo loading is called __________.

A) ceiling***********

B) shoresC) frames

D) toms

When using the term "limber system" one is referring to a __________.

A) cleaning system

B) drainage system**********

C) strengthening system

D) weight reduction system

A butt is indicated by which letter?

A) J

B) F

C) E

D) D***********

A seam is indicated by which letter in illustration D033DG?



A) E***********

B) H

C) L

D) M

Another name for the garboard strake is the __________.

A) A strake*********

B) Z strake

C) side keel plate

D) stringer plate

Bilge keels are fitted on ships to __________.

A) assist in dry dock alignment

B) improve the vessel's stability

C) protect the vessel from slamming against piers

D) reduce the rolling of the vessel**********

Bilge keels are more effective at dampening rolls as the __________.

A) pitching increases

B) list increases

C) rolling increases*************

D) draft decreases

In vessel construction, the garboard strake is __________.

A) located next to and parallel to the keel************

B) located next to and parallel to the gunwale

C) another term for the bilge keel

D) another term for the rub rail

Owing to the greater girth of a ship amidships than at the ends, certain strakes are dropped as they app

A) drop strakes**********

B) stealers

C) throughs

D) voids

Shell plating is __________.

A) the galvanizing on steel

B) a hatch cover

C) the outer plating of a vessel************

D) synonymous with decking



Shell plating that has curvature in two directions and must be heated and hammered to shape over spe

A) compound plate

B) furnaced plate***********

C) flat plate

D) rolled plate

The function of the bilge keel is to __________.

A) reduce the rolling of the vessel****************

B) serve as the vessel's main strength member

C) add strength to the bilge

D) protect the vessel's hull when alongside a dock

The garboard strake is indicated by which letter?

A) A

B) B

C) G

D) H*************

The garboard strake is the __________.

A) raised flange at the main deck edge

B) riveted crack arrester strap on all-welded ships

C) riveting pattern most commonly used in ship construction

D) row of plating nearest the keel************

The joint formed when two steel plates are placed end-to-end is called a __________.

A) bevel

B) seam

C) butt************

D) bond

The joint formed when two steel shell plates are placed longitudinally side to side is called a _________

A) bevel

B) bond

C) strake

D) seam************

The joint indicated by letter D is a __________.

A) seam

B) butt***********

C) span



D) sheet line

The lower seam of the strake indicated by the letter B is sometimes riveted. This is done to _________

A) increase the strength in a highly stressed area

B) provide the flexibility inherent in a riveted seam

C) serve as a crack arrestor and prevent hull girder failure***********D) reduce construction costs

The strake of shell plating indicated by letter H is known as the __________.

A) sheer strake

B) outboard keel plate

C) garboard strake************

D) bilge strake

The strake on each side of the keel is called a __________.

A) sheer strake

B) gatewood strake

C) insulation strake

D) garboard strake**********

The term "strake" is used in reference to __________.

A) rudder mountings

B) anchor gear

C) hull plating***********D) vessel framing

To reduce the number of strakes at the bow, two strakes are tapered and joined at their ends by a singl

A) cover plate

B) joiner

C) lap strake

D) stealer plate**********

What is NOT an advantage of ship construction methods using welded butt joints in the shell plating?

A) Keeps practically 100% of tensile strength at the joints

B) Reduces frictional resistance

C) Reduces plate stress***********

D) Reduces weight

Which arrangement of shell plating is used most in modern shipbuilding?

A) Clinker



B) Flush************

C) In-and-Out

D) Joggled

Which is NOT an advantage of the flush method of welded shell plating?

A) Reduces weightB) Reduces frictional resistance

C) Keeps practically 100% of tensile strength at the joints

D) Reduces plate stress************

Which letter designates the bilge strake of the vessel?

A) A

B) B

C) C

D) D***********

Which statement about bilge keels is CORRECT?

A) They are critical strength members and require careful design consideration.

B) They increase resistance to rolling****************

C) They attach to a low stress area.

D) They provide support when the vessel is dry docked.

Panting frames are located in the __________.

A) after double bottomsB) centerline tanks on tankships

C) fore and after peaks**************

D) forward double bottoms

The strength of a deck will be increased by adding __________.

A) camber

B) deck beam brackets*************

C) hatch beams

D) sheer

To rigidly fasten together the peak frames, the stem, and the outside framing, a horizontal plate is fitte

A) apron plate

B) breasthook****************

C) intercostal plate

D) joiner

A "contra-guide" is a type of __________.



A) bow thruster

B) cargo gear

C) steering engine

D) rudder***************

A Kort nozzle is a(n) __________.

A) hollow tube surrounding the propeller used to improve thrust**********

B) nozzle attached to a firefighting hose

C) intake valve on a diesel engine

D) piston cylinder on a diesel engine

On a single-screw vessel the stern frame _________.

A) furnishes support to the rudder, propeller shaft, and transom frame************

B) provides foundations for after mooring winches

C) provides foundations for the main propulsion engines

D) transfers the driving force of the propeller to the hull

The extension of the after part of the keel in a single- screw vessel upon which the stern post rests is ca

A) boss

B) knuckle

C) skeg***********

D) strut

The horizontal flat surfaces where the upper stock joins the rudder are the __________.

A) rudder keys

B) rudder palms***********

C) lifting flanges

D) shoes of the rudder

The pitch of a propeller is a measure of the __________.

A) angle that the propeller makes with a free stream of water

B) angle that the propeller makes with the surface of the water

C) number of feet per revolution the propeller is designed to advance in still water without slip******

D) positive pressure resulting from the difference of the forces on both sides of the moving propeller i

The projecting lugs of the rudderpost which furnish support to the rudder are called __________.

A) bases

B) gudgeons***********

C) pintles

D) rudder lugs



The ratio of the height of a vessel's rudder to its width is referred to as the __________.

A) aspect ratio**********

B) constriction ratio

C) rudder ratio

D) steering ratio

The term "pintle" and "gudgeon" are associated with the __________.

A) anchor windlass

B) jumbo boom

C) rudder**********

D) steering engine

The terms "cant frame" and "counter" are associated with the vessel's __________.

A) cargo hatch

B) forecastle

C) steering engine

D) stern***********

The vessel's "quarter" is located __________.

A) abeam

B) dead astern

C) just forward of the beam on either side

D) on either side of the stern**************

A chock __________.

A) is a deck fitting used to shackle gear to the deck

B) permits easy jettisoning of deck cargo in an emergency

C) prevents stress concentration in the bulwark

D) provides openings through the bulwark for mooring lines***********

A deck fitting, used to secure line or wire rope, consisting of a single body with two protruding horns is

A) bitt

B) bollard

C) capstan

D) cleat***********

A vessel is constructed with a steel hull and an aluminum superstructure. Which statement is TRUE?

A) The aluminum will provide greater resistance to the spread of fire by conduction.

B) The aluminum structure is usually attached to a steel coaming by a method that insulates the two m



C) If the superstructure is stressed, an aluminum structure requires additional expansion joints to prev

D) The steel at the area of the aluminum-to-steel connection must be closely checked for galvanic corr

Freeing ports on a vessel with solid bulwarks __________.

A) prevent stress concentration in the bulwark

B) permit easy jettison of deck cargo in an emergencyC) provide openings through the bulwarks for mooring lines

D) allow water shipped on deck to flow off rapidly*************

One function of a bulwark is to __________.

A) help keep the deck dry**********

B) prevent stress concentrations on the stringer plate

C) protect against twisting forces exerted on the frame of the vessel

D) reinforce the side stringers

What is the purpose of the freeing ports on a vessel with solid bulwarks?

A) Allow water which may be shipped on deck to flow off rapidly*************

B) Permit easy jettisoning of deck cargo in an emergency

C) Prevent the formation of any unusual stress concentration points

D) Lighten the above deck weight caused by a solid bulwark

A welded joint's effectiveness is considered __________.

A) 48%

B) 90%C) 100%************

D) 121%

Sometimes it is desirable to connect a member both by riveting and welding. Which statement is TRUE

A) Tearing through the member is more likely in this type connection.

B) The weld may be broken by the stresses caused by riveting.

C) The weld increases the tensile stress on the rivet heads.

D) The welding must be completed before the riveting commences.************

The smallest size of flaw that can be detected on a radiograph examination of a weld will be indicated b

A) film speed

B) penetrometer**************

C) exposure reading

D) time of exposure

The type of welding employed in shipyards is primarily __________.



A) brazing

B) electric arc*************

C) pressure welding

D) thermite welding

The welds used to attach stiffeners to a plate are known as __________.

A) butt welds

B) seam welds

C) fillet welds*************

D) plate welds

The welds used to join shell plates in flush construction are known as __________.

A) butt welds**************

B) seam welds

C) fillet welds

D) continuous welds

Ultrasonic testing is used to determine the thickness of a vessel's shell plating and to __________.

A) provide tail shaft clearances

B) test welds for subsurface defects***********

C) check the wear of the rudder carrier bearing

D) test the links of the anchor cables while being ranged

What welding pattern is NOT used to permanently attach a stiffener to a plate?

A) Chain intermittent

B) Tack***************

C) Continuous

D) Staggered intermittent

Which type of weld testing can be used to detect internal flaws?

A) Radiographic*************

B) Magnetic particle

C) Dye penetrant

D) Chemical reaction

Which type of weld testing can be used to detect internal flaws?

A) Magnetic particle

B) Dye penetrant

C) Ultrasonic**************

D) Chemical reaction



Which weld fault can only be detected by a method that examines the internal structure of a weld?

A) Undercut

B) Lack of reinforcement

C) Overlap

D) Lack of penetration****************

A well in the uppermost deck of a shelter deck vessel which has only a temporary means of closing for t

A) exemption space

B) tonnage deck

C) cofferdam

D) tonnage opening***********

Freeboard is measured from the upper edge of the __________.

A) bulwark

B) deck line*************

C) gunwale bar

D) sheer strake

Gross tonnage indicates the vessel's __________.

A) displacement in metric tons

B) total weight including cargo

C) volume in cubic feet***********

D) draft in feet

Molded depth is measured from the __________.

A) inside of the shell**************

B) outside of the shell

C) top of the center vertical keel

D) top of the garboard stake

The maximum length allowed between main, transverse bulkheads on a vessel is referred to as the ___

A) floodable length

B) factor of subdivision

C) compartment standard

D) permissible length**********

The point that is halfway between the forward and after perpendicular and is a reference point for vess

A) half length

B) mid-body

C) center line



D) amidships***********

Tonnage openings must be closed by means of __________.

A) press board

B) steel hatch boards

C) steel plates*************D) wooden hatch boards

What descriptive term indicates that the dimension is measured from the inner face of the shell or dec

A) Molded***********

B) Register

C) Tonnage

D) Effective

What is the difference between net tonnage and gross tonnage?

A) Net tonnage is the gross tonnage less certain deductions for machinery and other areas.**********

B) Net tonnage is tonnage of cargo compared to tonnage of whole ship.

C) Net tonnage is the net weight of the ship.

D) There is no difference.

What term indicates the length measured along the summer load line from the intersection of that loa

A) Length overall

B) Register length

C) Length between perpendiculars***********D) Length on the waterline

What term indicates the line drawn at the top of the flat plate keel?

A) Base line***********

B) Molded line

C) Designer's waterline

D) Keel line

The area indicated by the letter G is known as the __________.

A) entrance

B) stringer plate

C) turn of the bilge***********

D) garboard

The purpose of sheer in ship construction is to __________.

A) allow the ship to ride waves with drier decks*************



B) eliminate the need for butt straps

C) eliminate the need for margin plates

D) give greater strength at the deck edge

The upward slope of a ships bottom from the keel to the bilge is known as __________.

A) camberB) slope

C) deadrise*************

D) keel height

The upward slope of a vessels bottom from the keel to the bilge is called __________.

A) camber

B) sheer

C) rake

D) rise of bottom***********

What term indicates a curvature of the decks in a longitudinal direction?

A) Deadrise

B) Camber

C) Sheer*************

D) Flare

What term indicates an inward curvature of the ship's hull above the waterline?

A) CamberB) Tumble home***********

C) Deadrise

D) Flare

What term indicates the immersed body of the vessel aft of the parallel mid-body?

A) Run*************

B) Stern

C) Counter

D) Flow

What term indicates the immersed body of the vessel forward of the parallel mid-body?

A) Run

B) Flare

C) Entrance***********

D) Sheer

What term indicates the midships portion of a vessel that has a constant cross section?



A) Half length

B) Amidships

C) Middle body***********

D) Molded length

What term indicates the outward curvature of the hull above the waterline?

A) sheer

B) tumble home

C) deadrise

D) flare***********

Which term indicates the rise in height of the bottom plating from the plane of the base line?

A) Deadrise************

B) Camber

C) Molded height

D) Sheer

The body plan of a vessel is a(n) __________.

A) endwise view of the ship's molded form************

B) longitudinal side elevation view

C) plan made looking down on the ship, showing it's hull cut horizontally by the first set of planes

D) vertical view made looking up in the ship, with the keel at the center

The half-breadth plan is __________.

A) an endwise view of the ship's molded form

B) a plan with the forebody to right of centerline and afterbody to the left of centerline

C) a longitudinal side elevation

D) usually drawn for the port side only***********

The Sheer Plan __________.

A) shows a longitudinal side elevation**********

B) is an endwise view of the ship's molded form

C) is usually drawn for the port side only

D) has the forebody to the right of centerline and afterbody to the left of centerline

A vessel's bottom will be subjected to tension when weight is concentrated __________.

A) amidships***********

B) aft

C) at both ends of the vessel

D) forward



C) Vertical

D) Centerline

Signs of racking stresses generally appear at the __________.

A) bow and stern shell frames and plating

B) junction of the frames with the beams and floors***********C) garboard strake, at each side of the keel

D) thrust bearing of the main shaft

Tensile stress is a result of two forces acting in __________.

A) opposite directions on the same line, tending to pull the material apart************

B) opposite directions on the same line, tending to compress the object

C) opposite directions along parallel lines

D) the same direction along parallel lines

The angular movement of a vessel about a horizontal line drawn from its bow to its stern is _________

A) pitching

B) rolling***********

C) heaving

D) swaying

The horizontal fore-and-aft movement of a vessel is called __________.

A) yaw

B) swayC) heave

D) surge***************

The horizontal port or starboard movement of a vessel is called __________.

A) yaw

B) sway************

C) surge

D) heave

The result of two forces acting in opposite directions and along parallel lines, is an example of what typ

A) Tensile

B) Compression

C) Shear************

D) Strain

The shearing stresses on a ship's structure are usually greatest at __________.



A) the bow

B) the stern

C) midships

D) the ship's quarter-length points**********

The vertical motion of a floating vessel in which the entire hull is lifted by the force of the sea is known

A) surge

B) sway

C) heave*************

D) pitch

The vertical motion of a floating vessel is known as __________.

A) surge

B) sway

C) heave************

D) yaw

The vertical movement of a vessel in the water is called __________.

A) pitch

B) sway

C) heave************

D) roll

Weight concentration in which area will cause a vessel's bottom to be subjected to tension stresses?

A) Aft

B) Amidships***********

C) At both ends

D) Forward

What would have the greatest affect on a vessel's longitudinal strength?

A) Collision damage to the bow, forward of the collision bulkhead

B) Grounding damage to the bilge strake, just aft of midships************

C) Extensive corrosion to the centerline deck plating

D) Damage to the side shell, midway between the bilge and the stringer plate

Yawing is angular motion of the vessel about what axis?

A) Longitudinal

B) Transverse

C) Vertical*************

D) Centerline



********

es and keeps the beams square to the shell is called the __________.

es are called __________.



*



ls. It is known as which type of floor?

.

ture due to collision?

t towards the pump.



ets at each end.

*****

members called __________.

_____.



ed due to increased stresses

________.



ystem?



locker bottom and allows seepage water to flow to the drains, is called a __________.



roach the bow and stern to reduce the amount of plating at the ends. These strakes are called _______



.

e plate. This plate is known as a __________.



across the forepeak of a vessel. This plate is known as a(n) __________.



lled the __________.

****

still water without slip



called a __________.

etals**************



nt fracture.

sion.

concerning this procedure?

y the __________.



he purpose of gaining an exemption from tonnage measurement is called a(n) __________.

______.

el construction is the __________.



plating?

***

line with the foreside of the stem and the intersection of that load line with the after side of the rudde



.

of stress?



as __________.



__.

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