Biology semester 1 finals study guide

Multiple ChoiceIdentify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. Biology is the study ofa. minerals. c. the weather.b. life. d. energy.

____ 2. All organisms possess DNA. DNAa. creates energy for the cells.b. allows sensitivity to environmental stimuli.c. contains information for growth and development.d. captures energy from the sun.

____ 3. Instructions for development that are passed from parents to offspring are known asa. a species plan. c. genes.b. organ codes. d. natural selections.

____ 4. As a characteristic of all living things, homeostasis relates most directly to which of the following biological themes?a. interacting systems c. evolutionb. stability d. scale and structure

____ 5. Homeostasis meansa. a change over long periods of time. c. rapid change.b. keeping things the same. d. the same thing as evolution.

____ 6. Ecologya. refers to change in species over time.b. refers to a delicate internal balance within organisms.c. is inconsistent with evolution.d. is the study of communities or organisms in relation to their environment.

____ 7. Which of the following is a means by which heterotrophs can obtain energy?a. using water, carbon dioxide, and energy from the sun to produce sugarsb. using water and carbon dioxide to produce energy-rich compoundsc. consuming autotrophsd. consuming simple chemicals from the environment and using them to assemble complex

chemicals and structures needed by the organism____ 8. Which of the following is not necessarily a distinct property of living things?

a. homeostasis c. complexityb. metabolism d. reproduction

____ 9. The smallest units that can carry on all the functions of life are calleda. molecules. c. organelles.b. cells. d. species.

____ 10. Living thingsa. need energy for life processes. c. are composed of cells.b. have the ability to reproduce. d. All of the above

____ 11. All organisms are composed ofa. diatoms. c. cells.b. cellulose. d. None of the above

____ 12. All living things maintain a balance within their cells and the environment through the process ofa. growth. c. homeostasis.

b. development. d. evolution.____ 13. Which of the following is characteristic of all living things?

a. movement c. developmentb. growth d. cellular organization

____ 14. Which of the following is not a partial explanation for our lack of understanding of many of the living things on Earth?a. Many organisms are microscopic in size and therefore difficult to observe.b. Many organisms are so different from other organisms that it is difficult to understand

them.c. Many organisms live in areas of the world that are difficult to explore.d. Tropical rain forests contain many species, and it is difficult to find all of them in these

dense forests.____ 15. A scientist noticed that in acidic pond water some salamanders developed with curved spines. This was a(n)

a. hypothesis. c. observation.b. theory. d. control.

____ 16. Which example of scientific methodology is incorrect?a. Observation—A number of people in Zaire dying of a disease outbreakb. Measurement—A record of the number of people with symptoms of the disease and the

number of people who had died from the diseasec. Analysis of data—Comparison of the effects of mixing monkey cells with virus-

containing blood in test tubes and the effects of mixing of liquid from these test tubes with fresh monkey cells

d. Inference making—Identification of the Ebola virus as the cause of the disease by taking electron micrographs of substances found in the blood of persons affected with the disease

____ 17. The English physician Ronald Ross wanted to try to find the cause of malaria. Based on his observations, Dr. Ross suggested that the Anopheles mosquito might spread malaria from person to person. This suggestion was aa. prediction. c. theory.b. hypothesis. d. scientific “truth.”

____ 18. Dr. Ross knew that the parasite Plasmodium was always found in the blood of malaria patients. He thought that if the Anopheles mosquitoes were responsible for spreading malaria, then Plasmodium would be found in the mosquitoes. This idea was aa. prediction. c. theory.b. hypothesis. d. scientific “truth.”

____ 19. Scientific hypotheses are most often tested by the process ofa. communicating. c. experimenting.b. inferring. d. analyzing data.

____ 20. A hypothesis isa. a definite answer to a given problem.b. a testable possible explanation of an observation.c. a proven statement.d. a concluding statement.

____ 21. A unifying explanation for a broad range of observations is aa. hypothesis. c. prediction.b. theory. d. controlled experiment.

____ 22. A hypothesis that does not explain an observationa. is known as an inaccurate forecast. c. is rejected.b. often predicts a different observation. d. None of the above

____ 23. Scientists usually design experiments

a. with a good idea of the expected experimental results.b. based on wild guesses.c. in order to develop new laboratory tools.d. All of the above

____ 24. A scientific theorya. is absolutely certain.b. is unchangeable.c. may be revised as new evidence is presented.d. is a controlled experiment.

____ 25. The word theory used in a scientific sense meansa. that of which the scientist is most certain.b. a guess made with very little knowledge to support it.c. an absolute scientific certainty.d. None of the above

____ 26. observation : hypothesis ::a. theory : observation c. certainty : investigationb. guess : hypothesis d. theory : control

____ 27. Which of the following components of a scientific investigation would benefit from communication between scientists?a. observing c. analyzing datab. measuring d. All of the above

____ 28. Most typically, the order in which the steps of the scientific method are applied isa. observations, predictions, hypothesis, controlled testing, theory, verification.b. predictions, observations, hypothesis, theory, controlled testing, verification.c. observations, hypothesis, predictions, controlled testing, theory, verification.d. observations, hypothesis, predictions, controlled testing, verification, theory.

____ 29. A light microscope that has an objective lens of 10 and an ocular lens of 20 has a magnification ofa. 30. c. 300.b. 200. d. 2000.

____ 30. Which of the following associations between an SI base unit abbreviation and its base quantity is incorrect?a. A—area c. s—secondb. m—length d. mol—amount of a substance

____ 31. Atoms are composed ofa. protons with a positive charge. c. electrons with a negative charge.b. neutrons with no charge. d. All of the above

____ 32. The smallest particle of matter that can retain the chemical properties of carbon isa. a carbon molecule. c. a carbon atom.b. a carbon macromolecule. d. an element.

____ 33. A substance that is composed of only one type of atom is called a(n)a. nucleus. c. element.b. cell. d. molecule.

____ 34. All matter in the universe is composed ofa. cells. c. atoms.b. molecules. d. carbon.

____ 35. The electrons of an atoma. are found in the nucleus along with the protons.b. orbit the nucleus in various energy levels.c. have a positive charge.d. are attracted to the positive charge of neutrons.

____ 36. Atoms that have gained energya. have protons and neutrons that move farther apart.b. lose neutrons from the nucleus.c. have electrons that move to higher energy levels.d. absorb electrons into the nucleus.

____ 37. Which of the following states of matter contain(s) particles that are tightly linked together in a definite shape?a. solid c. gasb. liquid d. solid and liquid

Assume that each of the atoms below requires eight electrons to fill its outer energy level.

____ 38. Refer to the illustration above. Which of the atoms is chemically stable?a. Atom “A” c. Atom “C”b. Atom “B” d. None of the above

____ 39. Refer to the illustration above. If Atom “C” interacted with Atom “B” to form an ionic bond, Atom “C” woulda. lose 6 electrons. c. gain 5 electrons.b. gain 2 electrons. d. move 4 electrons into the nucleus.

____ 40. Refer to the illustration above. If Atom “B” interacted with Atom “C” to form an ionic bond, Atom “B” woulda. gain 6 electrons. c. lose 2 electrons.b. lose 4 electrons. d. move 2 electrons into the nucleus.

____ 41. Because carbon has four electrons in its outer energy level,a. it can form bonds with carbon atoms only.b. these atoms are naturally chemically stable.c. it can react with up to four other atoms to form covalent bonds.d. it cannot react with anything other than organic molecules.

____ 42. The bond formed when two atoms share a pair of electrons is called aa. hydrogen bond. c. covalent bond.b. nonpolar bond. d. water bond.

____ 43. Sharing of electrons in the outer energy levels of two atomsa. results in ion formation.b. occurs in covalent bonds.c. only occurs if both are atoms of the same element.d. is found only among carbon atoms.

____ 44. An atom that has gained or lost electrons is called a(n)a. molecule. c. ion.b. nucleon. d. element.

____ 45. Which of the following statements most accurately describes the difference between an ionic bond and a covalent bond?

a. Atoms held together by ionic bonds separate when placed in water while atoms held together by covalent bonds do not separate in water.

b. Ionic bonds hold together atoms of two different types, while covalent bonds hold together atoms of the same type.

c. Electrons are exchanged between atoms held together by an ionic bond, but they are shared between atoms held together by a covalent bond.

d. Ionic bonds form between atoms that carry opposite charges, while covalent bonds form between uncharged atoms.

____ 46. A reaction in which the products have less energy than the reactants isa. an endergonic reaction. c. a filamentous reaction.b. an exergonic reaction. d. impossible.

____ 47. If the products of a chemical reaction contain less energy than the reactants, the reaction musta. involve the release of energy. c. be an energy-storing reaction.b. result in the production of sugar. d. occur in the cytoplasm of cells.

____ 48. All of the activities occurring within cellsa. are driven by chemical reactions.b. result from the random mixing of enzymes.c. cause the fluids in the cell to bubble and fizz.d. result in the production of enzymes.

____ 49. Refer to the graph above. Reaction “1” in the grapha. is an energy-storing reaction.b. requires a greater activation energy than Reaction “2.”c. may use the same initial reactant condition needed to form Product “B.”d. All of the above

____ 50. Refer to the graph above. Reaction “3” in the grapha. probably occurred in the presence of a catalyst.b. requires a greater activation energy than Reaction “2.”c. is the same as Reaction “1,” but faster.d. takes longer than Reaction “2.”

____ 51. Refer to the graph above. Which of these statements is true regarding the graph?a. Reaction “2” occurs faster than Reaction “3” because Reaction “2” requires more energy

than Reaction “3.”b. The difference in the graphs shown for Reaction “2” and Reaction “3” is due to a

difference in the activation energy needed for these reactions.c. Reactant “A” contains more energy at the beginning of the reaction than Product “C” has

after the reaction.d. All of the above

____ 52. Refer to the graphs above. Which graph illustrates what happens during an exergonic reaction?a. Graph “A”b. Graph “B”c. Both graphs; they each show a different stage of an exergonic reaction.d. Neither graph shows an exergonic reaction.

____ 53. Refer to the graphs above. Which graph illustrates a reaction during which reaction energy is released into the environment?a. Graph “A”b. Graph “B”c. Both graphs, since all chemical reactions release energy into the environmentd. Neither graph, since chemical reactions do not involve energy

____ 54. Changing the course or pathway of a chemical reaction so that it requires less activation energya. is a violation of the laws of nature.b. requires higher temperatures than those found within cells.c. occurs only when reactants are quickly added to the reaction mixture.d. is accomplished by the action of catalysts on reactants.

____ 55. Enzymesa. are able to heat up molecules so that they can react.b. provide CO2 for chemical reactions.c. are biological catalysts.d. absorb excess heat so that reactions occur at low temperatures.

____ 56. A cell containsa. thousands of different kinds of enzymes, each promoting a different chemical reaction.b. one kind of enzyme that promotes thousands of different chemical reactions.c. approximately 100 kinds of enzymes, each promoting a different chemical reaction.d. one enzyme that promotes photosynthesis and one enzyme that promotes cellular

respiration.____ 57. When a molecule gains an electron and an accompanying hydrogen atom, it has been

a. oxidized. c. digested.b. reduced. d. inactivated.

____ 58. Oxidation-reduction reactions are important in organisms because theya. allow the passage of energy from molecule to molecule.

b. prevent nuclear reactions from occurring.c. allow the creation and destruction of energy.d. None of the above; oxidation-reduction reactions do not occur in living organisms.

____ 59. The concentration of a solution isa. the number of particles of a substance in a solution.b. the amount of a solvent that is dissolved in a fixed amount of a solution.c. the amount of a solute that is dissolved in a fixed amount of a solution.d. the ratio of solute to solvent in a solution.

____ 60. A neutral solution has an equal number ofa. hydrogen and hydronium ions. c. hydrogen and hydroxide ions.b. hydroxide and hydronium ions. d. oxygen and hydrogen ions.

____ 61. The terms base and alkaline refer to solutions thata. contain dissolved sodium hydroxide.b. contain more hydronium ions than hydroxide ions.c. contain more hydroxide ions than hydronium ions.d. contain more hydroxide ions than hydrogen ions.

____ 62. A solution with a pH of 11 isa. acidic. c. neutral.b. basic. d. a buffer.

____ 63. Acidic solutions have a pH that isa. less than 7. c. a negative number.b. between 0 and 14. d. more than 7.

____ 64. Buffersa. are of relatively little importance in living things.b. are formed when a large number of hydroxide ions are released in a solution.c. are formed when a large number of hydronium ions are released in a solution.d. tend to prevent great fluctuations in pH.

____ 65. Nonpolar molecules havea. no negative or positive poles. c. only a negative pole.b. both negative and positive poles. d. only a positive pole.

____ 66. A molecule that has a partial positive charge on one side and a partial negative charge on the other side is called aa. nonpolar molecule. c. charged molecule.b. polar molecule. d. bipolar molecule.

____ 67. Water is important to life because ita. surrounds all cells.b. is found inside cells.c. influences the shape of the a membrane.d. All of the above

____ 68. Water is a polar molecule becausea. it contains two hydrogen atoms for each oxygen atom.b. it has a charge.c. different parts of the molecule have slightly different charges.d. it does not have a charge.

____ 69. Water molecules break up other polar substances,a. such as sugars.b. because of the uneven charge distribution that exists in water molecules.c. thus freeing ions in these substances for use by the body.d. All of the above

____ 70. Which of the following characteristics of water is not a result of hydrogen bonding?a. adhesive strengthb. capillarityc. cohesive strengthd. All of the above are a result of hydrogen bonding.

____ 71. All organic compounds contain the elementa. C. c. Ca.b. N. d. Na.

____ 72. Which three elements are often found in organic compounds?a. carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen c. nitrogen, hydrogen, and oxygenb. carbon, hydrogen, and neon d. nitrogen, chlorine, and phosphorus

____ 73. Carbon is different from most other elements in thata. it has four electrons in its outermost energy level.b. it readily bonds with other carbon atoms.c. it can form single, double, or triple bonds with other atoms.d. it shares two electrons with another atom when it forms a covalent bond.

____ 74. Which of the following is not true of alcohols?a. They contain a hydroxyl group (–OH).b. They are polar molecules.c. They can affect processes in living things, either positively or negatively.d. They are the only kind of functional group in organic molecules that contain oxygen.

____ 75. The formation of ADP and inorganic phosphate from ATP and water is an example of which kind of reaction?a. condensation c. hydrolysisb. polymerization d. endergonic

____ 76. Which of the following is a carbohydrate?a. DNA c. waxb. insulin d. sucrose

____ 77. Which organic molecule below is classified as a carbohydrate?a. amino acid c. nucleotideb. CH2 chain d. sugar

____ 78. Animals store glucose-containing fragments in the form ofa. cellulose. c. wax.b. glycogen. d. lipids.

____ 79. Polysaccharides area. carbohydrates. c. proteins.b. lipids. d. unsaturated fats.

____ 80. All of the following are examples of carbohydrates excepta. sugar. c. steroids.b. cellulose. d. glycogen.

____ 81. Amino acids are monomers ofa. disaccharides. c. nucleotides.b. proteins. d. steroids.

____ 82. Which organic molecule below is most closely related to proteins?a. amino acids c. nucleotidesb. CH2 chains d. sugars

____ 83. Long chains of amino acids are found ina. carbohydrates. c. proteins.b. lipids. d. sugars.

____ 84. Amino acids are monomers ofa. disaccharides. c. nucleotides.b. proteins. d. steroids.

Molecule A Molecule B

____ 85. Refer to the illustration above. Molecules like Molecule “B” are found ina. carbohydrates. c. nucleic acids.b. lipids. d. proteins.

____ 86. Lipids area. polar molecules. c. protein molecules.b. similar to water molecules. d. nonpolar molecules.

____ 87. All of the following are examples of lipids excepta. saturated fats. c. cholesterol.b. starch. d. earwax.

____ 88. Liquid fats called oils containa. long CH2 chains linked by double covalent bonds.b. fat molecules lined up side-by-side.c. many glucose molecules.d. more hydrogen atoms than hard fats.

____ 89. Lipids are soluble ina. water. c. oil.b. salt water. d. All of the above

____ 90. Which organic molecule below is most closely related to lipids?a. amino acids c. nucleotidesb. CH2 chains d. sugars

____ 91. Which of the following is not an organic macromolecule?a. carbohydrate c. lipidb. ice d. nucleic acid

____ 92. Which organic molecule below is most closely related to nucleic acids?a. amino acids c. nucleotidesb. CH2 chains d. sugars

____ 93. Nucleic acids includea. chlorophyll and retinal. c. lipids and sugars.b. DNA and RNA. d. glucose and glycogen.

____ 94. Hooke’s discovery of cells was made observinga. living algal cells. c. dead plant cells.b. living human blood cells. d. dead protist cells.

____ 95. The smallest units of life in all living things area. cells. c. cytoplasm.b. mitochondria. d. Golgi apparatus.

____ 96. When the volume of a cell increases, its surface area

a. increases at the same rate. c. increases at a faster rate.b. remains the same. d. increases at a slower rate.

____ 97. Surface area is an important factor in limiting cell growth becausea. the cell can burst if the membrane becomes too large.b. materials cannot enter the cell if it is too large.c. the cell may become too large to take in enough food and to remove enough wastes.d. waste products cannot leave the cell if it is too small.

____ 98. The size to which a cell can grow is limited by itsa. location. c. function.b. structure. d. surface area.

____ 99. A cell that can change its shape would be well suited fora. receiving and transmitting nerve impulses.b. covering the body surface.c. moving to different tissues through narrow openings.d. All of the above

____ 100. One difference between prokaryotes and eukaryotes is thata. nucleic acids are found only in prokaryotes.b. mitochondria are found in larger quantities in eukaryotes.c. Golgi vesicles are found only in prokaryotes.d. prokaryotes have no nuclear membrane.

____ 101. Which of the following is characteristic of prokaryotes?a. They have a nucleus.b. They were found on Earth before eukaryotes.c. The organelles in their cytoplasm are surrounded by membranes.d. None of the above

____ 102. Which of the following is an example of a prokaryotic cell?a. amoeba c. bacteriumb. virus d. liver cell

____ 103. Only eukaryotic cells havea. DNA. c. ribosomes.b. membrane-bound organelles. d. cytoplasm.

____ 104. Studying a picture of a cell taken with an electron microscope, you find that the cell has no nucleus and no mitochondria, but it does have a cell membrane and a cell wall. You conclude that the cell is probably from a(n)a. animal. c. prokaryote.b. plant. d. now extinct organism.

____ 105. Cell membranesa. are only found on a small number of cells.b. contain genes.c. are made of DNA.d. are thin coverings that surround cells.

____ 106. The structure that regulates what enters and leaves the cell is calleda. the nucleus. c. the nuclear membrane.b. the cell wall. d. the cell membrane.

____ 107. A protein that fits into the cell membranea. has two polar end sections that bond with water.b. floats in the cell membrane.c. has a nonpolar middle section.d. All of the above

____ 108. Cell membranesa. are only found on a small number of cells.b. contain genes.c. are made of DNA.d. are thin coverings that surround cells.

____ 109. The cell membranea. encloses the contents of a cell.b. allows material to enter and leave the cell.c. is selectively permeable.d. All of the above

____ 110. The shape of a protein is determined bya. the type and order of its amino acids. c. its cell location.b. its size. d. None of the above

____ 111. A structure within a cell that performs a specific function is called a(n)a. organelle. c. tissue.b. organ tissue. d. biocenter.

____ 112. A particularly active cell might contain large numbers ofa. chromosomes. c. mitochondria.b. vacuoles. d. walls.

____ 113. Golgi apparatus are organelles thata. receive proteins and lipids from the endoplasmic reticulum.b. label the molecules made in the endoplasmic reticulum with tags that specify their

destination.c. release molecules in vesicles.d. All of the above

____ 114. One important organelle that helps maintain homeostasis by moving supplies from one part of the cell to the other is thea. endoplasmic reticulum. c. Golgi apparatus.b. mitochondrion. d. cytoplasm.

____ 115. In which of the following organelles is a cell’s ATP produced?a. mitochondrion c. Golgi apparatusb. endoplasmic reticulum d. lysosome

____ 116. Numerous threadlike organelles that protrude from the surface of a cell and are packed in tight rows are calleda. flagella. c. actin filaments.b. microtubules. d. cilia.

____ 117. Proteins are made in cells on thea. mitochondria. c. nucleus.b. ribosomes. d. cell membrane.

____ 118. The packaging and distribution center of the cell is thea. nucleus. c. central vacuole.b. Golgi apparatus. d. nuclear envelope.

____ 119. The double membrane surrounding the nucleus is called thea. nucleolus. c. nucleoplasm.b. nuclear wall. d. nuclear envelope.

____ 120. All cells havea. a covering called a membrane that surrounds the cell and controls what information and

materials enter and leave it.b. an internal fluid that gives shape to the cell and supports the other things within it.c. a central zone or nucleus that contains the cell's genes.

d. All of the above____ 121. cell : cell membrane ::

a. nucleus : chromosome c. chromosome : DNAb. nucleus : nuclear envelope d. cell : DNA

____ 122. Refer to the illustration above. Which structure immediately identifies this cell as a eukaryote?a. structure “1” c. structure “3”b. structure “2” d. structure “4”

____ 123. Refer to the illustration above. The cell uses structure “3”a. to transport material from one part of the cell to the other.b. to package proteins so they can be stored by the cell.c. as a receptor.d. to produce energy.

____ 124. Refer to the illustration above. Structure “1” isa. the endoplasmic reticulum. c. a mitochondrion.b. a Golgi apparatus. d. the nucleus.

____ 125. Refer to the illustration above. In eukaryotic cells, chromosomes are found ina. structure “1.” c. structure “3.”b. structure “2.” d. structure “5.”

____ 126. Refer to the illustration above. The cell shown is probably an animal cell becausea. it has mitochondria. c. it has a cell membrane.b. it does not have a cell wall. d. it does not have a nucleus.

____ 127. All the following are found in both plant and animal cells, excepta. a cell wall. c. mitochondria.b. a cell membrane. d. the endoplasmic reticulum.

____ 128. How are chloroplasts like mitochondria?a. They can both use energy from sunlight.b. They look alike.c. They both manufacture food and release energy.d. They are both found in animal cells.

____ 129. The organelles associated with photosynthesis are thea. mitochondria. c. Golgi apparatus.b. chloroplasts. d. vacuoles.

____ 130. The organelles in plant cells that contain a green pigment are thea. mitochondria. c. chloroplasts.b. bilayer lipids. d. Golgi apparatus.

____ 131. Plant cells have large membrane-bound spaces in which water, waste products, and nutrients are stored. These places are known asa. mitochondria. c. Golgi apparatus.b. chloroplasts. d. vacuoles.

____ 132. Which of the following pairs contains unrelated items?a. eukaryote–amoeba c. cell wall–animal cellb. ribosomes–protein d. mitochondria–energy

____ 133. Plant cellsa. do not contain mitochondria.b. have a cell wall instead of a cell membrane.c. have a large vacuole instead of a Golgi apparatus.d. have chloroplasts and a cell wall.

____ 134. Which of the following is the correct order of organization of structures in living things, from simplest to most complex?a. organ systems, organs, tissues, cellsb. tissues, cells, organs, organ systemsc. cells, tissues, organ systems, organsd. cells, tissues, organs, organ systems

____ 135. Which of the following associations between a type of animal tissue and its primary function is incorrect?a. connective tissue—transport of substances around the bodyb. epithelial tissue—protective surface coveringsc. muscle tissue—contractiond. nervous tissue—receiving and transmitting messages

____ 136. Which of the following is not a specialized activity found in cells of Volvox colonies?a. photosynthesis c. movementb. transmission of messages d. reproduction

Biology semester 1 finals study guideAnswer Section

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 1-1.12. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 1-1.13. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 1-1.14. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 1-1.15. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 1-1.16. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 1-1.17. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 1-1.28. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 1-1.39. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 1-1.3

10. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 1-1.311. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 1-2.112. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 1-2.113. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 1-2.214. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 1-2.315. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 1-3.116. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 1-3.117. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 1-3.218. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 1-3.219. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 1-3.220. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 1-3.221. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 1-3.222. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 1-3.223. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 1-3.224. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 1-3.225. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 1-3.226. ANS: C

(leads to a(n))

PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 1-3.227. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 1-3.328. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 1-3.429. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 1-4.130. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 1-4.231. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 2-1.132. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 2-1.133. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 2-1.134. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 2-1.135. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 2-1.236. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 2-1.337. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 2-1.338. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 2-1.3

39. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 2-1.440. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 2-1.441. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 2-1.442. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 2-1.443. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 2-1.444. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 2-1.445. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 2-1.446. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 2-2.247. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 2-2.248. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 2-2.249. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 2-2.250. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 2-2.251. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 2-2.252. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 2-2.253. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 2-2.254. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 2-2.255. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 2-2.356. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 2-2.357. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 2-2.458. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 2-2.459. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 2-3.160. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 2-3.261. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 2-3.362. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 2-3.463. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 2-3.464. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 2-3.565. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 3-1.166. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 3-1.167. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 3-1.168. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 3-1.169. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 3-1.270. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 3-1.371. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 3-2.172. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 3-2.173. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 3-2.274. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 3-2.375. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 3-2.476. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 3-3.177. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 3-3.178. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 3-3.179. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 3-3.180. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 3-3.181. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 3-3.282. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 3-3.283. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 3-3.284. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 3-3.285. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 3-3.3

86. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 3-3.387. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 3-3.388. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 3-3.389. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 3-3.390. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 3-3.391. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 3-3.492. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 3-3.493. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 3-3.494. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 4-1.195. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 4-1.296. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 4-1.397. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 4-1.398. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 4-1.399. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 4-1.4

100. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 4-1.5101. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 4-1.5102. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 4-1.5103. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 4-1.5104. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 4-1.5105. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 4-2.1106. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 4-2.1107. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 4-2.1108. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 4-2.1109. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 4-2.1110. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 4-2.1111. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 4-2.2112. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 4-2.2113. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 4-2.2114. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 4-2.2115. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 4-2.2116. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 4-2.2117. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 4-2.2118. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 4-2.2119. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 4-2.3120. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 4-2.3121. ANS: B

(is surrounded by)

PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 4-2.3122. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 4-1.5123. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 4-2.2124. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 4-2.2125. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 4-2.3126. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 4-2.4127. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 4-2.4128. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 4-2.4129. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 4-2.4

130. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 4-2.4131. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 4-2.4132. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 4-2.4133. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 4-2.4134. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 4-3.1135. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 4-3.1136. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 4-3.2